ophthalmology pdf for imu mbbs students bhiskekyp2851141
Ophthalmology, the branch of medicine dedicated to eye care, encompasses diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of ocular disorders. From routine eye exams to complex surgeries, ophthalmologists strive to preserve vision and enhance eye health, improving the quality of life for patients worldwide.
Clinical and dermographics profile of glaucoma patients in Hebron - Palestin...Riyad Banayot
ABSTRACT
BACKGROUND: The purpose of the study was to describe the clinical profile of glaucoma types, treatment modalities, visual outcomes, and intraocular pressure (IOP) control for patients in Palestine.MATERIAL AND METHODS: Data collection was done through the hospital record review, which included basic demographics including file number, age, sex, family history of glaucoma, history of anti-glaucoma and steroid medication, history of ocular trauma or surgery, etiology of secondary glaucoma and history of systemic illness. All the patients had a comprehensive eye examination, including visual acuity, intraocular pressure, vertical cup-disc ratio, and gonioscopy. Data were obtained, tabulated, and organized using Microsoft Excel, and statistical analyses were done using Wizard Version 1.9.49 by Evan Miller.RESULTS: There were 100 females with a mean age of 53 and 101 males with a mean age of 67. Primary open-angle glaucoma and its variants represented 45.3% of all patients, while secondary glaucoma represented 40.3% and primary angle closure glaucoma represented 10.4%. The prevalence of glaucoma increased with age, and the last visual acuity (VA) showed that 39.2% of eyes had Normal/near normal VA. The highest average IOP of 25 mm Hg was recorded among secondary glaucoma patients. Of all glaucoma eyes studied, 64% were on one or two medications, and the most common surgical procedures performed were peripheral iridectomy 18.2% followed by trabeculectomy 15.5%. CONCLUSION: Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) was the predominant glaucoma. Glaucoma increased significantly with advancing age. Pseudoexfoliation and neovascular glaucoma comprised the majority of secondary glaucoma.
Acute ocular chemical injury: a descriptive assessment and management review ...Riyad Banayot
Background: The purpose of the study was to assess caregivers’ compliance with the management protocol for
chemical injury at St. John Eye Hospital, Jerusalem.
Materia l and methods: Charts of all new chemical injury patients who presented to St. John Eye Hospital,
Jerusalem, between January and December 2019 were retrospectively reviewed. Data categories collected included:
Presentation, age, sex, injury, irrigation, lids, visual acuity, slit-lamp examination (SLE), management plan, and
medications given. Data were stored and analysed using Excel.
Results: Patients’ presentation date and time, sex, and age were recorded in over 90% of cases. The mechanism of
injury and type of offending chemical were recorded in 65% of cases. The irrigating solution was identified in 50%
of cases. Corrected visual acuity was recorded in both eyes in almost 50% of cases. Limbal ischemia was documented
in 45% of cases, and intraocular pressure (IOP) was recorded in 25%. The management plan and explanation of the
condition to patients were documented in less than 50% of cases. Antibiotics and steroids (drops/ointment) were
prescribed in 92.5% of cases.
Conclusi ons: The results of this study reveal that our documentation needs improvement for several parameters.
Several recommendations were formulated:
1. Emphasize to caregivers that irrigation must be done first.
2. Corrected visual acuity should be attempted for both eyes in all cases, and reasons for not recording it should be
documented.
3. It is important to document and record limbus details, iris details, and IOP in all cases.
open-globe injuries in palestinePalestine: epidemiology and factors associate...Riyad Banayot
Background: The purpose was to describe the epidemiology of open-globe injury (OGI) in Palestine and identify
the prognostic factors associated with profound visual loss.
Materia l and methods: The current study is a retrospective review of hospital files for 83 consecutive patients
with OGI who presented to St. John Eye Hospital, Jerusalem, within 5 years, between 2009 and 2013. Demographic
details included age, gender, wound characteristics, and visual acuity (VA). The Ocular Trauma Classification Group
was used for wound location, classification, and scoring for each case.
Results: We identified 83 OGI that presented to St. John eye hospital. The study group included 62 males and
21 females. The mean age was 16.66 years ± 3.216. The most frequent injuries were playground injuries (59%),
followed by workplace injuries (26.5%). Penetrating injuries represented 45.8% of injuries, and rupture globes
occurred in 39.8% of cases. The most frequent objects causing injury were metal (31.3%) and stone (20.5%). Kinetic
impact projectiles were a statistically significant poor prognostic factor for the visual outcome. Variables that
were statistically significant poor prognostic factors for visual outcome included: retinal detachment, macular scar,
vitreous hemorrhage.
Conclusi on: This study showed that the act of demonstration, street injuries, kinetic impact projectiles, zone III
injuries, globe disruption, retinal detachment, vitreous hemorrhage, and a poor VA at the first visit are poor prognostic
factors for OGI. Recognition of these prognostic factors will help the ophthalmologist evaluate the injury
and its prognosis.
Use of digital retinal camera to detect prevalence and severity of diabetic ...Riyad Banayot
ABStrAct
BAckGround: The purpose of this study was to determine the prevalence of diabetic retinopathy among Palestinian
refugees serviced by the Diabetic Retinopathy Screening Program in the Occupied Palestinian Territories (DRS-
-OPT).
MAterIAl And MethodS: This is a retrospective study of retinal images of 1891 diabetic patients in 15 urban
UNRWA clinics participating in the DRS-OPT program in Palestine over 12 months. A nonmydriatic Canon CR-2
fundus retinal camera was used to capture two 450 non-stereo fundus images for each eye. Qualified graders (nurses)
performed the grading based on the DRS-OPT grading system.
reSultS: Out of the 1891 diabetic patients screened, 1694 had at least one gradable eye. 16% of patients had
diabetic retinopathy (5.7% had mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy, 4.3% had moderate nonproliferative
diabetic retinopathy, 1.1% had severe, moderate nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy, and 1.7% had proliferative
diabetic retinopathy. Maculopathy without retinopathy amounted to 3%. Other findings included the identification
of blinding diseases such as age-related macular degeneration and optic disc glaucomatous cupping.
concluSIonS: The retinopathy screening program using a nonmydriatic fundus camera identified diabetic retino-
pathy in 16% of diabetic Palestinian refugees. A total of 72% of these patients were diabetics with nonproliferative
retinopathy. This program can be used to prevent progression by facilitating the education of patients and early
intervention.
Bilateral lens capsule rupture in a patient with previously undiagnosed alpor...Riyad Banayot
Ophthalmologists may be the first to consider the diagnosis of Alport’s Syndrome based on lens changes. Uncontrolled Blood pressure can delay surgery during which time IOP should be monitored closely. Results of lensectomies with foldable IOL implantation are successful. To our knowledge, this is the second report of a case of bilateral lens capsule rupture in a patient with previously undiagnosed Alport’s Syndrome.
Evaluating the optic nerve head in glaucomaRiyad Banayot
The best method readily available to the clinician for performing this examination is high plus lens fundus biomicroscopy. Optimal magnification can be achieved by using a +60D lens which provides 1.5 times the magnification of a 90D lens. During this examination the patient's pupils must be maximally dilated with a combination of mydriatic agents such as 1% Tropicamide and 2.5% Phenylephrine.
micro teaching on communication m.sc nursing.pdfAnurag Sharma
Microteaching is a unique model of practice teaching. It is a viable instrument for the. desired change in the teaching behavior or the behavior potential which, in specified types of real. classroom situations, tends to facilitate the achievement of specified types of objectives.
These lecture slides, by Dr Sidra Arshad, offer a quick overview of physiological basis of a normal electrocardiogram.
Learning objectives:
1. Define an electrocardiogram (ECG) and electrocardiography
2. Describe how dipoles generated by the heart produce the waveforms of the ECG
3. Describe the components of a normal electrocardiogram of a typical bipolar leads (limb II)
4. Differentiate between intervals and segments
5. Enlist some common indications for obtaining an ECG
Study Resources:
1. Chapter 11, Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition
2. Chapter 9, Human Physiology - From Cells to Systems, Lauralee Sherwood, 9th edition
3. Chapter 29, Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 26th edition
4. Electrocardiogram, StatPearls - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK549803/
5. ECG in Medical Practice by ABM Abdullah, 4th edition
6. ECG Basics, http://www.nataliescasebook.com/tag/e-c-g-basics
Lung Cancer: Artificial Intelligence, Synergetics, Complex System Analysis, S...Oleg Kshivets
RESULTS: Overall life span (LS) was 2252.1±1742.5 days and cumulative 5-year survival (5YS) reached 73.2%, 10 years – 64.8%, 20 years – 42.5%. 513 LCP lived more than 5 years (LS=3124.6±1525.6 days), 148 LCP – more than 10 years (LS=5054.4±1504.1 days).199 LCP died because of LC (LS=562.7±374.5 days). 5YS of LCP after bi/lobectomies was significantly superior in comparison with LCP after pneumonectomies (78.1% vs.63.7%, P=0.00001 by log-rank test). AT significantly improved 5YS (66.3% vs. 34.8%) (P=0.00000 by log-rank test) only for LCP with N1-2. Cox modeling displayed that 5YS of LCP significantly depended on: phase transition (PT) early-invasive LC in terms of synergetics, PT N0—N12, cell ratio factors (ratio between cancer cells- CC and blood cells subpopulations), G1-3, histology, glucose, AT, blood cell circuit, prothrombin index, heparin tolerance, recalcification time (P=0.000-0.038). Neural networks, genetic algorithm selection and bootstrap simulation revealed relationships between 5YS and PT early-invasive LC (rank=1), PT N0—N12 (rank=2), thrombocytes/CC (3), erythrocytes/CC (4), eosinophils/CC (5), healthy cells/CC (6), lymphocytes/CC (7), segmented neutrophils/CC (8), stick neutrophils/CC (9), monocytes/CC (10); leucocytes/CC (11). Correct prediction of 5YS was 100% by neural networks computing (area under ROC curve=1.0; error=0.0).
CONCLUSIONS: 5YS of LCP after radical procedures significantly depended on: 1) PT early-invasive cancer; 2) PT N0--N12; 3) cell ratio factors; 4) blood cell circuit; 5) biochemical factors; 6) hemostasis system; 7) AT; 8) LC characteristics; 9) LC cell dynamics; 10) surgery type: lobectomy/pneumonectomy; 11) anthropometric data. Optimal diagnosis and treatment strategies for LC are: 1) screening and early detection of LC; 2) availability of experienced thoracic surgeons because of complexity of radical procedures; 3) aggressive en block surgery and adequate lymph node dissection for completeness; 4) precise prediction; 5) adjuvant chemoimmunoradiotherapy for LCP with unfavorable prognosis.
Title: Sense of Smell
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the primary categories of smells and the concept of odor blindness.
Explain the structure and location of the olfactory membrane and mucosa, including the types and roles of cells involved in olfaction.
Describe the pathway and mechanisms of olfactory signal transmission from the olfactory receptors to the brain.
Illustrate the biochemical cascade triggered by odorant binding to olfactory receptors, including the role of G-proteins and second messengers in generating an action potential.
Identify different types of olfactory disorders such as anosmia, hyposmia, hyperosmia, and dysosmia, including their potential causes.
Key Topics:
Olfactory Genes:
3% of the human genome accounts for olfactory genes.
400 genes for odorant receptors.
Olfactory Membrane:
Located in the superior part of the nasal cavity.
Medially: Folds downward along the superior septum.
Laterally: Folds over the superior turbinate and upper surface of the middle turbinate.
Total surface area: 5-10 square centimeters.
Olfactory Mucosa:
Olfactory Cells: Bipolar nerve cells derived from the CNS (100 million), with 4-25 olfactory cilia per cell.
Sustentacular Cells: Produce mucus and maintain ionic and molecular environment.
Basal Cells: Replace worn-out olfactory cells with an average lifespan of 1-2 months.
Bowman’s Gland: Secretes mucus.
Stimulation of Olfactory Cells:
Odorant dissolves in mucus and attaches to receptors on olfactory cilia.
Involves a cascade effect through G-proteins and second messengers, leading to depolarization and action potential generation in the olfactory nerve.
Quality of a Good Odorant:
Small (3-20 Carbon atoms), volatile, water-soluble, and lipid-soluble.
Facilitated by odorant-binding proteins in mucus.
Membrane Potential and Action Potential:
Resting membrane potential: -55mV.
Action potential frequency in the olfactory nerve increases with odorant strength.
Adaptation Towards the Sense of Smell:
Rapid adaptation within the first second, with further slow adaptation.
Psychological adaptation greater than receptor adaptation, involving feedback inhibition from the central nervous system.
Primary Sensations of Smell:
Camphoraceous, Musky, Floral, Pepperminty, Ethereal, Pungent, Putrid.
Odor Detection Threshold:
Examples: Hydrogen sulfide (0.0005 ppm), Methyl-mercaptan (0.002 ppm).
Some toxic substances are odorless at lethal concentrations.
Characteristics of Smell:
Odor blindness for single substances due to lack of appropriate receptor protein.
Behavioral and emotional influences of smell.
Transmission of Olfactory Signals:
From olfactory cells to glomeruli in the olfactory bulb, involving lateral inhibition.
Primitive, less old, and new olfactory systems with different path
Flu Vaccine Alert in Bangalore Karnatakaaddon Scans
As flu season approaches, health officials in Bangalore, Karnataka, are urging residents to get their flu vaccinations. The seasonal flu, while common, can lead to severe health complications, particularly for vulnerable populations such as young children, the elderly, and those with underlying health conditions.
Dr. Vidisha Kumari, a leading epidemiologist in Bangalore, emphasizes the importance of getting vaccinated. "The flu vaccine is our best defense against the influenza virus. It not only protects individuals but also helps prevent the spread of the virus in our communities," he says.
This year, the flu season is expected to coincide with a potential increase in other respiratory illnesses. The Karnataka Health Department has launched an awareness campaign highlighting the significance of flu vaccinations. They have set up multiple vaccination centers across Bangalore, making it convenient for residents to receive their shots.
To encourage widespread vaccination, the government is also collaborating with local schools, workplaces, and community centers to facilitate vaccination drives. Special attention is being given to ensuring that the vaccine is accessible to all, including marginalized communities who may have limited access to healthcare.
Residents are reminded that the flu vaccine is safe and effective. Common side effects are mild and may include soreness at the injection site, mild fever, or muscle aches. These side effects are generally short-lived and far less severe than the flu itself.
Healthcare providers are also stressing the importance of continuing COVID-19 precautions. Wearing masks, practicing good hand hygiene, and maintaining social distancing are still crucial, especially in crowded places.
Protect yourself and your loved ones by getting vaccinated. Together, we can help keep Bangalore healthy and safe this flu season. For more information on vaccination centers and schedules, residents can visit the Karnataka Health Department’s official website or follow their social media pages.
Stay informed, stay safe, and get your flu shot today!
Ozempic: Preoperative Management of Patients on GLP-1 Receptor Agonists Saeid Safari
Preoperative Management of Patients on GLP-1 Receptor Agonists like Ozempic and Semiglutide
ASA GUIDELINE
NYSORA Guideline
2 Case Reports of Gastric Ultrasound
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Explore natural remedies for syphilis treatment in Singapore. Discover alternative therapies, herbal remedies, and lifestyle changes that may complement conventional treatments. Learn about holistic approaches to managing syphilis symptoms and supporting overall health.
Are There Any Natural Remedies To Treat Syphilis.pdf
118 ophthalmology Questions & Answers - MCQ
1. 1) All the following are true about retina, except:
A. Composed of 10 separable layers
B. There is a loose attachment between neurosensory and Retinal pigment epithelium
C. The Fovea is not supplied by the central retinal artery
D. Soft exudates are swollen axons of ganglion cells
2) Cause of blindness in HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) patient; one is true:
A. Cotton wool spots
B. HIV microangiopathy
C. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
D. Kaposi sarcoma
3) Pseudophakia is the loss of:
A. Accommodation
B. Conversion
C. Saccadic eye movements
D. Contrast sensitivity
4) All are used for treatment of myopia, except:
A. Convex lenses
B. Concave lenses
C. Lens refractive surgery
D. LASIK
5) One of the following is indicative of past optic neuritis in multiple sclerosis patients:
A. Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect
B. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
C. Nystagmus
D. Diplopia
6) Emmetropia is:
A. Parallel rays of light brought on retina
B. Visual acuity of 6/6
C. Parallel rays of light brought before retina
D. (A) & (B)
7) One of the following does not cause exophthalmos:
A. Orbital varix
B. Optic nerve tumor
C. Blow out fracture
D. Orbital cellulitis
8) One of the following is not a cause of entropion:
A. Facial nerve palsy
B. Congenital
C. Cicatricial pemphigoid
D. Conjunctival scaring
2. 9) Which one is responsible for strongest refraction in the eye:
A. Tear film
B. Cornea
C. Lens
D. Vitreous
10) Chronic blepharitis is associated with all, except:
A. Ectropion
B. Eyelid margin ulceration
C. Red eye
D. Obstruction of meibomian glands
11) Carotid–cavernous sinus fistula causes all the following, except:
A. Bruit over globe
B. Pulsatile tinnitus
C. Proptosis
D. Scleral veins congestion
12) All the following are risk factors for bacterial keratitis, except:
A. Chalazion
B. Contact lenses
C. Trauma
D. Dry eye
13) About trichiasis; all the following are true, except:
A. Signs of dry eye
B. Iris atrophy
C. Corneal opacity
D. Backward misdirection of eye lashes
14) All the following are true about herpetic infection, except:
A. A Dendritic ulcer is characteristic
B. Primary infection is asymptomatic
C. Caused by Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Steroids may be used for treatment
15) All the following are used in treatment of open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Steroids
B. Parasympathomimetics
C. Betablockers
D. Alpha agonists
16) All the following are true about open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Commonly causes headache
B. Optic disc cupping
C. Peripheral visual loss
D. Medical treatment is the first line of treatment
3. 17) All the following are signs of keratoconus, except:
A. Thickening of central cornea
B. Corneal thinning, especially in the inferior cornea
C. Munson sign
D. Prominent corneal nerves
18) All the following are used for the treatment of keratoconus, except:
A. LASIK
B. Intracorneal rings
C. Contact lenses
D. Keratoplasty
19) what type of surgery is performed for a patient with large angle right esotropia:
A. Right recession
B. Right resection
C. Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye
D. Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on left eye
20) All the following are true about branch vein occlusion, except:
A. Improves with time and minimal visual loss
B. Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved
C. Steroids and anti-VGEF are rarely used
D. There are two types; ischemic & non ischemic
21) In diabetic macular edema, one is true:
A. Pan retinal photocoagulation is the first line of management
B. Anti-VGEF is the first line of treatment
C. All treatment modules have poor visual acuity
D. Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision
22) All the following are true regarding retinal detachment, except:
A. Uveitis cause exudative type
B. DM cause tractional type
C. Posterior vitreous detachment causes rhegmatogenous type
D. Surgery indicated for all types
23) One of the following regarding age-related macular degeneration is correct:
A. The dry type does not convert to the wet type
B. Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice
C. There is reduction in central vision
D. Fluorescein angiography and optical coherence tomography can be used for diagnosis
24) All the following are true regarding retinitis pigmentosa, except:
A. Day light vision spared all over life
B. Complains of loss of night vision
C. Autosomal Dominant type is the mildest form
D. Loss of peripheral vision
4. 25) All the following are related to angle closure glaucoma, except:
A. Common in high myopes
B. Painful red eye
C. Acute presentation
D. Treatment for both eyes
26) Most common nerve affected by blow-out fracture:
A. Infra-orbital nerve.
B. Supratrochlear nerve.
C. Optic nerve.
D. Nasocilliary nerve.
27) About choroidal melanoma, one of the following is true:
A. If there is no visual potential for the eye, enucleation is recommended
B. Can be preceded by choroidal nevus
C. Lymphatic spread is common
D. Brachytherapy can be used for tumors of any size
28) All the following are caused by blunt trauma, except:
A. Uveitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Cataract
D. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
29) About chemical injury of the eye, all the following are true, except:
A. Alkali is neutralized with weak acid
B. Alkali most severe
C. Limbal ischemia means poor prognosis
D. Do not use Vit. C in non-alkali burns
30) All the following are side effects of acetazolamide, except:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Renal stones
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Steven Johnson syndrome
31) One of the following does not cause leukocoria:
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Cataract
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Old total retinal detachment
32) Which of the following is an indication for oral steroids in thyroid eye disease?
A. Corneal exposure
B. Periorbital edema
C. Chemosis
D. Dry eyes
5. 33) Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by a problem in the:
A. Optic chiasm
B. Optic radiation
C. Thalamus
D. Optical cortex
34) Which of the following is present only in acute phase of thyroid eye disease?
A. Lid retraction
B. Lid lag
C. Diplopia
D. Chemosis
35) Which of the following is not part of the thyroid eye disease?
A. Optic disc swelling
B. Choroidal neovascular membrane
C. Restrictive myopathy
D. Ophthalmoplegia
36) Which cataract does improve near vision?
A. Cortical
B. Sutural
C. Nuclear
D. Morgagnian
37) In which cataract does vision improve with changing glasses or wearing glasses?
A. Christmas tree
B. Nuclear
C. Hypermature
D. Lamellar
38) Which cataract is associated with intraocular inflammation?
A. Nuclear
B. Posterior subcapsular
C. Hypermature
D. Cortical
39) Which of the following Least systemic diseases to cause least peripheral ulcerative keratitis:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Weigner granulomatosis
D. Sarcoidosis
40) Regarding the optic nerve, which of the following is false?
A. The intracanalicular segment is the longest
B. The intraocular segment is the shortest
C. It has a central cavity called the cup
D. It represents the blind spot
6. 41) Which is most common type of cataract due to chronic use of steroids:
A. Posterior subcapsular
B. Nuclear
C. Anterior subcortical
D. Christmas tree
42) Ethambutol (used to treat tuberculosis) causes:
A. Optic neuropathy
B. Cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Keratopathy
43) The left eye is looking straight on primary position, while the right eye is looking upward, which of the
following is true?
A. Left hypertropia
B. Left hypotropia
C. Right hypertropia
D. Left hypermetropia
44) Left esotropia surgical correction includes:
A. Right medial rectus recession and left lateral rectus recession
B. Left lateral rectus recession only
C. Left lateral rectus recession and medial rectus recession
D. None of the listed
45) The yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:
A. Left inferior rectus
B. Left lateral rectus
C. Left superior rectus
D. Left superior oblique
46) All the following regarding fungal keratitis are true, except:
A. Can be cause by eye trauma to plant
B. Amphotericin B are used in the treatment
C. Caused by fusarium
D. Surgery is contraindicated in active infection
47) All the following are true regarding acute closed angle glaucoma, except:
A. Corneal edema
B. Fix dilated pupil
C. Optic disc cupping
D. Severe headache
48) Regarding optic neuritis in adults, all the following are true, except:
A. More in white
B. Usually, bilateral
C. Central scotoma
D. Loss of color vision
7. 49) Ultrasound is used in dense cataract patient to show:
A. Optic atrophy
B. Macula edema
C. Macula hole
D. Retinal detachment
50) The most common ophthalmologic complication in multiple sclerosis is:
A. Optic neuritis
B. Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia
C. Diplopia
D. Nystagmus
51) Patient with benign intracranial hypertension, one of the following is true:
A. Lumbar puncture is diagnostic and therapeutic
B. 3rd nerve palsy
C. Abnormal imaging
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is contraindicated
52) All the following are risk factors for glaucoma, except:
A. Steroids
B. Myopia
C. Thin cornea
D. Being black, Asian, or Hispanic
53) Best method to deal with alkali trauma:
A. Irrigation with copious fluids
B. Mild steroids
C. Patching
D. Neutralize alkali with weak acid
54) What is true about the commonest ocular tumor in adults?
A. Has good prognosis
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Primary metastasis is to the bone
D. It is rhabdomyosarcoma
55) The eyelid tumor with the worst prognosis:
A. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
B. Basel cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Merkel cell carcinoma
56) Large eyes are associated with:
A. Axial myopia
B. Refractive myopia
C. High myopia
D. Index myopia
8. 57) In third cranial nerve palsy, all are true, except:
A. Diplopia
B. Dilated pupils
C. Absent pupillary reflex
D. Relative afferent pupillary defect
58) Neural fiber layer of retina is:
A. Axons of bipolar cells
B. Axons of photoreceptors
C. Axons of ganglion cells
D. None of the above
59) Patient with unilateral cataract, the most common etiology is:
A. Trauma
B. Intrauterine infection
C. Posterior pole tumors
D. Posterior lenticonus
60) All the following can be used to differentiate between orbital cellulitis and preseptal cellulitis, except:
A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Decreased ocular motility
D. Decreased visual acuity
61) All the following are risk factors for glaucoma, except:
A. White race
B. Central corneal thinning
C. Positive family history
D. Black, Asian, or Hispanic
62) All the following are seen in blow-out fractures, except:
A. Exophthalmos
B. Double vision
C. Bruising, tenderness and swelling around the eye
D. Limitation of eye movement
63) Dysthyroid eye disease has which of the following complications:
A. Macular edema
B. Retinal detachment
C. Decrease in visual acuity
D. Cataract
64) All the following cause ectropion, except:
A. Age
B. Burn of the face
C. 3rd cranial nerve palsy
D. Congenital
9. 65) The most important risk factor for retinal vein occlusion is:
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Hypertension
C. Age
D. Cardiovascular disease
66) All the following are true about chemical burn treatment, except:
A. Acids cause worse injury than alkali
B. Irrigation is the treatment of choice
C. Evert and double evert lids for all cases
D. No patching is done
67) The main risk factor regarding diabetic retinopathy:
A. Duration of the DM
B. Control of DM
C. (A) & (B)
D. Age
68) All the following are true regarding dermoid cysts, except:
A. Located at the superio-lateral aspect
B. Main treatment is by excision
C. It is commonly seen in adulthood (mainly in children)
D. Present at birth
69) One of the following is considered as motor adaption for strabismus:
A. Head tilt
B. Face turn
C. Chin elevation
D. All the above
70) One of the following statements is true:
A. The most common cause of tractional retinal detachment is diabetic retinopathy
B. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is always treated by surgery
C. The most common cause of rhegmatogenous detachment is hypertension
D. In exudative retinal detachment, there are holes and tears in the retina
71) In right 6th nerve palsy, one of the following is true?
A. Esotropia + limitation of adduction
B. Esotropia + limitation of abduction
C. Exotropia + limitation of adduction
D. Exotropia + limitation of abduction
72) All the following are considered as complications of anterior uveitis, except:
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Macular edema
D. Retinal detachment
10. 73) Regarding hyphema, all the following are true, except:
A. Atropine will be used in treatment
B. Always treated by surgical evacuation
C. Iris & ciliary body are source of blood
D. May cause increased intra ocular pressure
74) One of the following is the most common cause of amblyopia?
A. Farsightedness
B. Strabismus
C. Nearsightedness
D. Deprivation
75) One of the following is caused by infection:
A. External hordeolum
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Milia
D. Eccrine hidrocystoma
76) In optic tract lesion, all the following are true, except:
A. Central scotoma
B. Normal visual acuity
C. Normal color vision
D. Positive RAPD
77) Regarding the fovea, all the following are true, except:
A. Rich in cons
B. Lateral to optic disc
C. Responsible for color
D. Sensitive in dim light
78) Regarding giant cell arteritis, all the following is true, except:
A. ESR > 60 mm/h
B. Anterior ischemic neuropathy
C. Jaw claudication may be presented
D. Gradual loss of vision
79) Regarding antiglaucoma medications, which one of the following is true?
A. Timolol is contraindicated in bronchial asthma
B. Sympathomimetic drug used as anti-glaucoma
C. Prostaglandins analogue treat glaucoma by increase the outflow of aqueous humor
D. All the above
80) Optic tract lesion is:
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Homonymous hemianopia
C. Congruous hemianopia
D. Incongruous hemianopia
11. 81) Least one to cause severe ptosis is:
A. Congenital ptosis
B. Involutional ptosis
C. Third nerve palsy
D. Horner's syndrome
82) Regarding myopia, all are true, except:
A. Corrected by convex spectacles
B. Corrected by concave spectacles
C. Corrected by contact lenses
D. Corrected b a minus lens
83) All are found in carotid cavernous fistula, except:
A. Bruit over the globe
B. Lid retraction
C. Proptosis
D. Ophthalmoplegia
84) Subluxated lens is found in all the following, except:
A. Marfan Syndrome
B. Homocystinuria
C. Trauma.
D. Heterochromic Fuchs' syndrome
85) Which type of cataract is associated with myopic shift?
A. Anterior subcapsular
B. Sclerosing nuclear
C. Posterior subcapsular
D. Diabetic
86) Safest method to treat myopia:
A. Glasses
B. Contact lens
C. LASIK
D. PRk
87) Which is wrong about the optic nerve?
A. Intraorbital segment is the longest
B. Have 4 compartments
C. Pial vessels supply most of the course
D. It passes out of the eye through the cribriform plate of the sclera
88) First line of treatment for diabetic macular edema:
A. Panretinal photocoagulation
B. Intravitreal Steroids Injection
C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
D. Focal/Grid Laser
12. 89) First line of treatment for old man with wet AMD:
A. Panretinal photocoagulation
B. Intravitreal Steroids Injection
C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
D. Focal/Grid Lase
90) Which muscle is mostly affected in dysthyroid eye disease:
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Medial rectus
D. Lateral rectus
91) 30 year-old female complains that she is annoyed by car flashlight at night. What is most likely diagnosis?
A. Vortex keratopathy
B. Optic neuritis
C. Posterior subscapular cataract
D. Myasthenia gravis
92) 60 year-old female with Systemic lupus erythematosus is on systemic steroids. What type of cataract she
could have?
A. Posterior subscapular
B. Nuclear
C. Cortical
D. Anterior subscapular
93) 60 year-old male assumes that he can read without using glasses. What type of cataract he has?
A. Posterior subscapular
B. Nuclear
C. Cortical
D. Anterior subcapsular
94) Fovea:
A. Receive nutrients from the choroid
B. Mostly rods
C. Sensitive to dim light
D. Located nasally to the optic disc
95) The following are appropriate interventions for acute Dacryocystitis, except:
A. DCR
B. Warm compressors
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Systemic antibiotics
96) Regarding benign intracranial hypertension, one of the following is false:
A. Bilateral 6th nerve palsy
B. Headache
C. Visual disturbances
D. Nausea/vomiting
13. 97) Which of the following is not supplied by the 3rd cranial nerve:
A. Ciliary muscle
B. Dilator papillae
C. Superior oblique
D. Superior rectus
98) One of the following is not a treatment for esotropia:
A. Bilateral lateral rectus resection
B. Medial rectus recession, Lateral rectus resection
C. Bilateral medial rectus recession
D. Bilateral medial rectus recession and resection of one lateral rectus
99) One of the following is false regarding ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Bilateral purulent discharge is typical of gonorrheal conjunctivitis
B. Systemic antibiotics can be used
C. Most common organism is Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Single instillation of povidone-iodine 2.5% solution is effective against common pathogens.
100) All are complications of chronic anterior uveitis, except:
A. Retinal detachment
B. Iris atrophy
C. Glaucoma
D. Cataract
101) One of the following is not associated with 3rd nerve palsy:
A. Miosis
B. Mydriasis
C. Ptosis
D. Affected eye turns slightly outward and downward
102) One of the following eye drops is not used for glaucoma treatment?
A. Dorzolamide
B. Tropicamide
C. Brimonidine
D. Pilocarpine
103) The most common orbital metastasis in men are cancer of the:
A. Carcinoid
B. Colon
C. Melanoma
D. Lung
104) All are causes of secondary open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Trauma
B. Exfoliative
C. Rubeosis iridis
D. Pigmentary
14. 105) All are true regarding optic nerve glioma, except:
A. Gradual onset
B. Optic atrophy
C. Painful
D. Proptosis
106) Chronic intermediate uveitis will cause:
A. Glaucoma
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Cataract
D. All the above
107) All are true regarding accommodation, except:
A. Better in adult
B. Pupillary constriction
C. Relaxed ciliary
D. Lens increases in curvature
108) Measurement of intraocular lens power is called:
A. Pachymetry
B. Biometry
C. Gonioscopy
D. Keratometry
109) Which of the following is not a risk factor for chronic open angle glaucoma:
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Family history
110) Which of the following is not associated with increased VEGF?
A. Retinopathy of Prematurity
B. Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. None of the above
111) Which of the following not associated with uveitis:
A. Behcet’s disease
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Wilson's disease
D. Toxoplasmosis
112) Which one of the following is not recommended for contact lenses?
A. 3-old-month baby with aphakia
B. Keratoconus
C. Myopia
D. Hypermetropia
15. 113) Regarding retinitis pigmentosa, one of the following is true:
A. Macular edema is treated by grid laser
B. Only rods affected
C. Macular edema may respond to oral acetazolamide
D. Nyctalopia and dark adaptation difficulties are late symptoms
114) One of the following is false regarding giant cell arteritis:
A. CRP more reliable that ESR
B. Phenomenon of “skip” lesions is present
C. Color Doppler shows a hypoechoic halo around the artery lumen in around 75%
D. Elevated platelets and anemia are commonly present
115) Which one of the following is false about the drug and its side effects?
A. Isoniazid: Glaucoma
B. Chlorpromazine: Dry eye and dry mouth
C. Amiodarone: Keratopathy
D. Chloroquine: Maculopathy
116) Which of the following cancers is not associated with sun exposure?
A. Lentigo
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
117) All the following drugs can cause cataract except:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Steroids
C. Amiodarone
D. Erythromycin
118) All are signs of keratoconus, except:
A. Vogt’s striae
B. Munson’s sign
C. Thinning of central cornea
D. Keyser Fleisher rings
16. Answers
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. A
27. A
28. D
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. D
35. B
36. C
37. B
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. A
42. A
43. C
44. D
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. B
49. D
50. A
51. A
52. C
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. C
57. D
58. C
59. A
60. A
61. A
62. A
63. C
64. C
65. B
66. A
67. C
68. C
69. D
70. A
71. B
72. D
73. B
74. B
75. A
76. A
77. D
78. D
79. D
80. B
81. D
82. A
83. B
84. D
85. B
86. A
87. C
88. C
89. C
90. B
91. C
92. A
93. B
94. A
95. C
96. A
97. C
98. A
99. A
100. A
101. A
102. B
103. D
104. C
105. C
106. D
107. A
108. B
109. B
110. D
111. C
112. A
113. C
114. A
115. A
116. A
117. A
118. D