A 60 year old male presented with an ulcer near the medial canthus, which is most likely basal cell carcinoma. A 25 year old male presented with asymptomatic, symmetrically distributed scaly skin lesions on his back showing the Christmas tree pattern of psoriasis. A person recovering from COVID-19 treated with steroids presented with nasal discharge and fungus seen on swab, most likely mucor.
This document contains 54 multiple choice questions related to dermatology. The questions cover topics such as hereditary skin disorders, genetic conditions, skin cancers, infections, treatments, and more. The correct answers are provided for each question.
This document contains 43 multiple choice questions related to dermatology. The questions cover topics such as hereditary skin disorders, genetic conditions, skin biopsy findings, medication side effects, surgical procedures, treatments for various skin conditions, infectious diseases, and more. The correct answer is provided for each question.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions related to diagnosing various medical conditions. The questions cover topics like ophthalmology, ENT, cardiology, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, dermatology, neurology, musculoskeletal, and other areas of diagnosis. Each question provides 4 answer choices with one being the correct diagnosis or finding. This appears to be a study guide or assessment for medical diagnosis.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions and answers related to an MD entrance exam paper. Some key points covered include:
- Question 1 asks about Thromboxane A2 and the correct answer is that it is not secreted by WBC.
- Question 2 presents a scenario of a car accident survivor developing post-traumatic stress disorder.
- Question 3 indicates that neurocysticercosis usually presents with seizure resistant to antiepileptic drugs.
- Question 4 states that free radicals in the brain are detoxified by superoxide dismutase.
- Question 5 suggests atherosclerosis as the likely cause for fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta in an
Golden book for Medicine OSCE: First ViewMan B Paudyal
This document provides summaries of various medical cases and images in the form of questions and answers. It covers topics like Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, Bell's palsy, cirrhosis, clubbing, multiple myeloma, Cushing's syndrome, Graves' disease, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, hyperthyroidism, brain abscess, empyema, G6PD deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Ataxia telangiectasia, infective endocarditis, and more. For each case, it provides the diagnosis, relevant physical findings, investigations, management, and complications.
This document contains 27 multiple choice questions that appear to be from a medical licensing exam known as KROK-2. The questions cover a range of medical topics and scenarios involving diagnosis and treatment. Some example questions include one about diagnosing a patient presenting with eye, skin and gastrointestinal symptoms, one about complications of hepatic cirrhosis in a 17-year-old girl, and one about appropriate secondary prevention drugs for a patient with atrial fibrillation after experiencing an ischemic stroke from cardiac embolism. The document provides the questions and answer options to test medical knowledge.
This document contains questions from a surgery exam along with possible answer choices for each question. It covers topics like types of tumors, treatment options for cancer, investigations for various surgical conditions, and statements about different surgical procedures and diagnoses.
This document contains 54 multiple choice questions related to dermatology. The questions cover topics such as hereditary skin disorders, genetic conditions, skin cancers, infections, treatments, and more. The correct answers are provided for each question.
This document contains 43 multiple choice questions related to dermatology. The questions cover topics such as hereditary skin disorders, genetic conditions, skin biopsy findings, medication side effects, surgical procedures, treatments for various skin conditions, infectious diseases, and more. The correct answer is provided for each question.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions related to diagnosing various medical conditions. The questions cover topics like ophthalmology, ENT, cardiology, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, dermatology, neurology, musculoskeletal, and other areas of diagnosis. Each question provides 4 answer choices with one being the correct diagnosis or finding. This appears to be a study guide or assessment for medical diagnosis.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions and answers related to an MD entrance exam paper. Some key points covered include:
- Question 1 asks about Thromboxane A2 and the correct answer is that it is not secreted by WBC.
- Question 2 presents a scenario of a car accident survivor developing post-traumatic stress disorder.
- Question 3 indicates that neurocysticercosis usually presents with seizure resistant to antiepileptic drugs.
- Question 4 states that free radicals in the brain are detoxified by superoxide dismutase.
- Question 5 suggests atherosclerosis as the likely cause for fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta in an
Golden book for Medicine OSCE: First ViewMan B Paudyal
This document provides summaries of various medical cases and images in the form of questions and answers. It covers topics like Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, Bell's palsy, cirrhosis, clubbing, multiple myeloma, Cushing's syndrome, Graves' disease, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, hyperthyroidism, brain abscess, empyema, G6PD deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Ataxia telangiectasia, infective endocarditis, and more. For each case, it provides the diagnosis, relevant physical findings, investigations, management, and complications.
This document contains 27 multiple choice questions that appear to be from a medical licensing exam known as KROK-2. The questions cover a range of medical topics and scenarios involving diagnosis and treatment. Some example questions include one about diagnosing a patient presenting with eye, skin and gastrointestinal symptoms, one about complications of hepatic cirrhosis in a 17-year-old girl, and one about appropriate secondary prevention drugs for a patient with atrial fibrillation after experiencing an ischemic stroke from cardiac embolism. The document provides the questions and answer options to test medical knowledge.
This document contains questions from a surgery exam along with possible answer choices for each question. It covers topics like types of tumors, treatment options for cancer, investigations for various surgical conditions, and statements about different surgical procedures and diagnoses.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about B-scan ultrasonography. B-scan is a non-invasive imaging technique used to diagnose various ocular conditions. It uses high frequency sound waves between 2-30 MHz to generate images of the internal structures of the eye. The questions cover topics like the principles of B-scan imaging, its use in evaluating conditions like retinal detachment and intraocular foreign bodies, and identifying structures in B-scan images like the vitreous cavity and choroidal melanoma.
A 40-year-old female presented with 1 year of bilateral symmetrical arthritis of hand joints, wrists, elbows and toes with morning stiffness lasting 4 hours. On examination, she had pallor and arthritis of involved joints but no deformities. The most likely diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis (RA). RA is the best fitting diagnosis given the symmetrical polyarthritis and absence of features suggesting other diagnoses.
A key diagnostic test for RA is anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody (anti-CCP Ab) as it is highly specific for the disease. Normocytic normochromic anemia is an indicator of disease activity in RA. Soft tissue swelling but not bony ankylosis may be seen
This document contains 53 multiple choice questions related to various medical topics including:
- Conditions involving the heart, lungs, abdomen, skin, and neurological system.
- Common physical exam findings and their associated diagnoses such as heart murmurs, liver palpation, lung auscultation, and neurological signs.
- Infectious diseases caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi and their presentations.
- Deficiency diseases and their related physical findings.
- Medical history questions that provide clues to diagnoses like Reiter's disease, gout, and transient ischemic attacks.
The questions cover a wide breadth of content testing one's medical knowledge through case scenarios and physical exam/diagnostic findings.
The document contains several clinical cases presented as short paragraphs with multiple choice questions. It discusses cases involving a man with hives, a woman who underwent fundoplication surgery, a man with gout and kidney disease, a man with hemoptysis and kidney problems, a man with ulcerative colitis, a woman with asthma, a woman with sudden vision loss, a man with HIV and brain lesions, a man with sepsis and kidney injury, and a pregnant woman with lupus and hypertension. Each case is followed by a question testing the reader's knowledge of diagnosis or treatment.
This document contains several clinical case summaries presented as questions with multiple choice answers. The cases cover topics including a patient presenting with hives, a post-surgery complication, a patient with joint swelling and chronic gout, and a pregnant patient with SLE and high blood pressure. For each case, the correct answer is provided to identify the underlying mechanism, appropriate treatment, most likely diagnosis, or best next test.
The document is the question booklet for a postgraduate medical entrance exam containing 45 multiple choice questions. It provides instructions to candidates to verify their hall ticket number and read instructions on the answer sheet carefully before answering the questions by darkening the appropriate oval on the answer sheet. Candidates are instructed to return the question booklet along with their answered answer sheet.
This document contains 71 multiple choice questions related to various topics in anatomy, physiology, pharmacology and other subjects. Each question has 4 answer options and the correct answer is to be identified. This mock test is intended to help students prepare for competitive exams through practice questions.
1) The document contains a review course answer key with multiple choice questions (MCQ) covering topics like ventilator associated pneumonia, sepsis, shock, seizures, myasthenia gravis, weaning from mechanical ventilation, overdoses, acid-base abnormalities, dysrhythmias, and more.
2) It provides the answers to the MCQ questions along with short explanations for some answers.
3) The questions and answers would be useful for reviewing critical care and emergency medicine topics.
A woman is concerned about the risk of her son inheriting haemophilia, as her husband has the disease. The disease is inherited through the X chromosome. As the mother does not have the disease, the risk to sons is 25% of inheriting it, while daughters would be carriers but not affected.
A woman is concerned about her son's risk of having haemophilia based on her husband's history of the disease. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive genetic disorder related to the X chromosome. Since the mother does not have the disease and is a carrier, there is a 25% chance that each son will have the disease.
This document contains 22 multiple choice microbiology questions. The questions cover topics such as Group A streptococci virulence factors, Group B streptococci characteristics, pneumococcal vaccines, Enterobacteriaceae identification and characteristics, E. coli virulence factors, Proteus mirabilis identification, Enterotoxigenic E. coli pathogenesis, plasmid transfer mechanisms, PCR applications, Koch's postulates, septicemia risk factors and presentations, Pseudomonas aeruginosa as a cause of infection in immunocompromised patients, staphylococcal osteomyelitis treatment challenges, tularemia presentation and identification, Neisseria meningitidis as a cause of a sore throat with findings of petechiae
Biometry involves measuring the curvature of the cornea. Ultrasound in dense cataracts detects retinal detachment. Entropion risk factors include aging. Ectropion is not caused by Bell's palsy. Pterygium is related to UV light exposure and can affect vision. Subconjunctival hemorrhage may indicate trauma. Wet age-related macular disease treatment is intravitreal anti-VEGF injections. Congenital glaucoma treatment is always surgical. Primary open-angle glaucoma risks include age and race.
1. The renal SBA questions cover topics related to chronic kidney disease, including metabolic abnormalities, hyperkalemia management, causes of renal failure, glomerular diseases, indications for renal replacement therapy, glomerulonephritis types, and causes of chronic kidney disease.
2. Alport's syndrome is suggested as the diagnosis for a 15-year-old boy presenting with worsening hematuria, as Alport's is an inherited kidney disease affecting type IV collagen production that typically presents with asymptomatic hematuria and eye disorders.
3. IgA nephropathy is identified as the most likely diagnosis for a man who developed dark urine and proteinuria after an upper respiratory infection, given the renal biopsy findings of
The document appears to be a set of multiple choice questions related to histology and pathology. Some key details that can be summarized:
- Question 1 asks about the type of allergic reaction that underlies allergic stomatitis in a patient who developed mouth swelling after dental work.
- Question 5 describes a patient with thickened nasal mucosa and nodules diagnosed with nasal rhinoscleroma, asking what typical microscopic changes may be seen on biopsy.
- Question 11 presents a case of a confused farm worker found unconscious and asks which drug should be prescribed to treat what is suggested to be organophosphate poisoning based on the symptoms described.
- The questions cover a range of topics relating
Krok 1 - 2014 Question Paper (General medicine)Eneutron
The document contains questions from a medical licensing exam covering various topics in medicine. Question 1 asks about the appropriate laboratory test to confirm a suspected diagnosis of dysentery, with the correct answer being microscopic examination of a stool sample. Question 2 asks about the type of enzyme disrupted by drugs used to treat malaria, with the correct answer being FAD-dependent dehydrogenase. Question 3 asks about the immunobiological preparation injected during a Mantoux test for tuberculosis, with the correct answer being tuberculin.
Anesthesia complications mcqs by israr ysfzisrar khan
This document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to anesthesia complications and difficult airway management. The questions cover topics such as the LEMON assessment tool, grading systems for difficult intubation (e.g. Mallampati classification), predictors of a difficult airway, malignant hyperthermia, management of hypertension and hypotension, and respiratory complications during anesthesia like laryngospasm and airway obstruction. The correct answers to each question are also provided.
1) The document appears to be an exam question booklet for a postgraduate medical entrance exam containing multiple choice questions.
2) It provides instructions for exam takers and details 40 questions covering various topics in medicine.
3) The questions assess knowledge of topics like pharmacology, microbiology, pathology and clinical presentations of diseases.
This document contains 30 multiple choice questions testing orthopedic knowledge. The questions cover topics including bone tumors, spinal cord injuries, fractures, and orthopedic surgical procedures and complications. They assess knowledge of topics like tumor characteristics, fracture classifications, appropriate treatments, and potential complications.
The document provides 35 multiple choice questions related to pediatrics. The questions cover topics like diarrhea management, signs and symptoms of various diseases, disease diagnosis, disease complications, anemia causes, and newborn conditions. Key diseases discussed include cholera, hepatitis, tuberculosis, measles, asthma, pneumonia, and worms. Common choices include antibiotics, ORS, IV fluids, and referral for further treatment.
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
This presentation was provided by Steph Pollock of The American Psychological Association’s Journals Program, and Damita Snow, of The American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE), for the initial session of NISO's 2024 Training Series "DEIA in the Scholarly Landscape." Session One: 'Setting Expectations: a DEIA Primer,' was held June 6, 2024.
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This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about B-scan ultrasonography. B-scan is a non-invasive imaging technique used to diagnose various ocular conditions. It uses high frequency sound waves between 2-30 MHz to generate images of the internal structures of the eye. The questions cover topics like the principles of B-scan imaging, its use in evaluating conditions like retinal detachment and intraocular foreign bodies, and identifying structures in B-scan images like the vitreous cavity and choroidal melanoma.
A 40-year-old female presented with 1 year of bilateral symmetrical arthritis of hand joints, wrists, elbows and toes with morning stiffness lasting 4 hours. On examination, she had pallor and arthritis of involved joints but no deformities. The most likely diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis (RA). RA is the best fitting diagnosis given the symmetrical polyarthritis and absence of features suggesting other diagnoses.
A key diagnostic test for RA is anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody (anti-CCP Ab) as it is highly specific for the disease. Normocytic normochromic anemia is an indicator of disease activity in RA. Soft tissue swelling but not bony ankylosis may be seen
This document contains 53 multiple choice questions related to various medical topics including:
- Conditions involving the heart, lungs, abdomen, skin, and neurological system.
- Common physical exam findings and their associated diagnoses such as heart murmurs, liver palpation, lung auscultation, and neurological signs.
- Infectious diseases caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi and their presentations.
- Deficiency diseases and their related physical findings.
- Medical history questions that provide clues to diagnoses like Reiter's disease, gout, and transient ischemic attacks.
The questions cover a wide breadth of content testing one's medical knowledge through case scenarios and physical exam/diagnostic findings.
The document contains several clinical cases presented as short paragraphs with multiple choice questions. It discusses cases involving a man with hives, a woman who underwent fundoplication surgery, a man with gout and kidney disease, a man with hemoptysis and kidney problems, a man with ulcerative colitis, a woman with asthma, a woman with sudden vision loss, a man with HIV and brain lesions, a man with sepsis and kidney injury, and a pregnant woman with lupus and hypertension. Each case is followed by a question testing the reader's knowledge of diagnosis or treatment.
This document contains several clinical case summaries presented as questions with multiple choice answers. The cases cover topics including a patient presenting with hives, a post-surgery complication, a patient with joint swelling and chronic gout, and a pregnant patient with SLE and high blood pressure. For each case, the correct answer is provided to identify the underlying mechanism, appropriate treatment, most likely diagnosis, or best next test.
The document is the question booklet for a postgraduate medical entrance exam containing 45 multiple choice questions. It provides instructions to candidates to verify their hall ticket number and read instructions on the answer sheet carefully before answering the questions by darkening the appropriate oval on the answer sheet. Candidates are instructed to return the question booklet along with their answered answer sheet.
This document contains 71 multiple choice questions related to various topics in anatomy, physiology, pharmacology and other subjects. Each question has 4 answer options and the correct answer is to be identified. This mock test is intended to help students prepare for competitive exams through practice questions.
1) The document contains a review course answer key with multiple choice questions (MCQ) covering topics like ventilator associated pneumonia, sepsis, shock, seizures, myasthenia gravis, weaning from mechanical ventilation, overdoses, acid-base abnormalities, dysrhythmias, and more.
2) It provides the answers to the MCQ questions along with short explanations for some answers.
3) The questions and answers would be useful for reviewing critical care and emergency medicine topics.
A woman is concerned about the risk of her son inheriting haemophilia, as her husband has the disease. The disease is inherited through the X chromosome. As the mother does not have the disease, the risk to sons is 25% of inheriting it, while daughters would be carriers but not affected.
A woman is concerned about her son's risk of having haemophilia based on her husband's history of the disease. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive genetic disorder related to the X chromosome. Since the mother does not have the disease and is a carrier, there is a 25% chance that each son will have the disease.
This document contains 22 multiple choice microbiology questions. The questions cover topics such as Group A streptococci virulence factors, Group B streptococci characteristics, pneumococcal vaccines, Enterobacteriaceae identification and characteristics, E. coli virulence factors, Proteus mirabilis identification, Enterotoxigenic E. coli pathogenesis, plasmid transfer mechanisms, PCR applications, Koch's postulates, septicemia risk factors and presentations, Pseudomonas aeruginosa as a cause of infection in immunocompromised patients, staphylococcal osteomyelitis treatment challenges, tularemia presentation and identification, Neisseria meningitidis as a cause of a sore throat with findings of petechiae
Biometry involves measuring the curvature of the cornea. Ultrasound in dense cataracts detects retinal detachment. Entropion risk factors include aging. Ectropion is not caused by Bell's palsy. Pterygium is related to UV light exposure and can affect vision. Subconjunctival hemorrhage may indicate trauma. Wet age-related macular disease treatment is intravitreal anti-VEGF injections. Congenital glaucoma treatment is always surgical. Primary open-angle glaucoma risks include age and race.
1. The renal SBA questions cover topics related to chronic kidney disease, including metabolic abnormalities, hyperkalemia management, causes of renal failure, glomerular diseases, indications for renal replacement therapy, glomerulonephritis types, and causes of chronic kidney disease.
2. Alport's syndrome is suggested as the diagnosis for a 15-year-old boy presenting with worsening hematuria, as Alport's is an inherited kidney disease affecting type IV collagen production that typically presents with asymptomatic hematuria and eye disorders.
3. IgA nephropathy is identified as the most likely diagnosis for a man who developed dark urine and proteinuria after an upper respiratory infection, given the renal biopsy findings of
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- Question 5 describes a patient with thickened nasal mucosa and nodules diagnosed with nasal rhinoscleroma, asking what typical microscopic changes may be seen on biopsy.
- Question 11 presents a case of a confused farm worker found unconscious and asks which drug should be prescribed to treat what is suggested to be organophosphate poisoning based on the symptoms described.
- The questions cover a range of topics relating
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The document contains questions from a medical licensing exam covering various topics in medicine. Question 1 asks about the appropriate laboratory test to confirm a suspected diagnosis of dysentery, with the correct answer being microscopic examination of a stool sample. Question 2 asks about the type of enzyme disrupted by drugs used to treat malaria, with the correct answer being FAD-dependent dehydrogenase. Question 3 asks about the immunobiological preparation injected during a Mantoux test for tuberculosis, with the correct answer being tuberculin.
Anesthesia complications mcqs by israr ysfzisrar khan
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2) It provides instructions for exam takers and details 40 questions covering various topics in medicine.
3) The questions assess knowledge of topics like pharmacology, microbiology, pathology and clinical presentations of diseases.
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2. Q. 1 60 year old male presented with ulcer near medial canthus :-
(a) Basal cell carcinoma
(b) Squamous cell carcinoma
(c)Melanoma
(d) Discoid lupus erythematosus
E O
f
3. Q.2 A 25 year young male patient, has with
asymptomatic scaly skin lesions on his back,
symmetrically distributed. The provided images
showcase the lesions. Can you identify the pattern
of these skin lesions & the specific disease?
(a) Woronoff ring - Seborrheic dermatitis
(b) Wickham’s striae-Lichen planus
(c) Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - pityriasis
rosea
(d) Christmas tree pattern psoriasis
É
Y
D
ELIE
4. Q.3 Which type of image is given here?
(a) Direct immunofluorescent
(b) Indirect immunofluorescent
(c) Fish net pattern
(d) Tomb stone appearance
O O O
ye
5. Q.4 A person presents with flaccid blister’s and oral mucosal lesions as shown in the
image, along with histological finding shown below
(a) Pemphigus vulgaris
(b) Pemphigus foliaceus
(c) Bullous pemphigoid
(d) IgA disease
Iep
If
IN
6. Q.5 All are features of non-scarring alopecia except ?
(a) Tenogen effluvium
(b) Androgenic alopecia
(c) Alopecia areata
(d) Frontal fibrozing
8 I.my
7. Q.6 Case I: A patient having flaccid bullae with painful erosions, will show
suprabasal split and inflammatory infiltrate in the blister cleft on HPE.
Case 2: Row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris
(a) Case 1 is false and Case 2 is true
(b) Case 1 is false and Case 2 is false
(c) Both the Case are true
(d) Both the case are false
EE
8. Q.7 A 48 year old obese lady presents with velvety appearance over neck as shown
image in the below?
(a) Acanthosis nigricans
(b) Insulin resistance
(c)
(d)
ÉF
1
HE
MAKATI
9. Q 8 Apocrine gland commonly present in which part of the body ?
(a) Face
(b) Scalp
(c) Axilla
(d) Palm & Soles
CELIA
11. Q1. Identify the type of joint marked in the given image?
(a) Ball and Socket Joint
(b) Saddle Joint
(c) Pivot Joint
(d) Gliding Joint
12. Q2. A 33 years old male patient presented with URTI with
pus in his left nasal cavity and orbital pain along with
blurring of vision. CT Scan was done and following
findings were seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. sinusitis
b. sinusitis plus orbital cellulitis
c. sinusitis plus septal cellulitis
d. sinusitis plus sub periosteal cellulitis
17. Q3. Apocrine Glands are seen in?
a. Face
b. Scalp
c. Palm and Sole
d. Axilla
18. Q4. A 60 years old patient presented with following lesion
which is slowly progressively increasing in size. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
b. Basal Cell Carcinoma
c. Melanoma
d. Nevus
19. Q5. A child was playing alone and is found to be drooling
and choking. X-Ray was done and is shown below. What is
the likely foreign body ingested?
a. Coin
b. Mettalic Ball
c. Cold drink bottle cap
d. Button Battery
20. Q6. A lady presented with bilateral hearing loss, more on
right side. It was decided to do stapedectomy after
examination. What is the likely Rinne’s and weber’s test
findings in this patient?
a. Bilateral Rinne’s Negative, Weber’s Centralized
b. Bilateral Rinne’s Positive, Weber’s to Right
c. Bilateral Rinne’s Positive, Weber’s to Left
d. Bilateral Rinne’s Negative, Weber’s to Right
21. Q7. All of the following statements are true except
a. One layer cells in inner hair cells, 3 layer cells in outer hair
cells
b. Maximum nerve fibres supply inner cells
c. outer hair cells sense movement are
22. Q8. A HIV positive patient presented with white non
scrapable lesion on lateral border of tongue as shown
below. Which of the following is the most likely
responsible for this lesion?
a. EBV
b. HHV- 8
c. Candida
d. HSV-1
23. Q9. A patient presented presented to ENT OPD with
unilateral Nasal mass causing obstruction and occasional
bleeding. The mass was removed and histopathology
shows the following. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Rhinoscleroma
b. Rhinosporidosis
c.
d.
24. Q11. A person recently recovered from Covid-19 who was
treated with steroids. After 3 weeks, he complains of
nasal discharge. Swab collected and the following image
is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Mucor
b. Aspergillus
c. Candida
28. Q. In a patient with history of dementia, which of the following
acetylcholine esterase inhibitor is used if patient is not able to tolerate
the oral drugs:
a. Donepezil
b. Memantine
c. Gallantamine
d. Rivastigmine
Gallant arrive
Rivastignine
T D patch
Doheperil
29. Q. A 26 year old patient with history of MTB was started on anti
tubercular agent. 6 months later, patient presented with neck swelling
and increased TSH level. This is possibly associated with which drug:
a. Rifampicin
b. Pyrazinamide
c. Cycloserine
d. Ethionamide
Hypothyroidism
Psych serine 4 Ethionamide
4 PAS
30. Q. A patient was started on doxorubicin. Cardiotoxicity of this agent can
be reduced by:
a. Aprepitant
b. Dexrazoxane
c. Amifostine
d. Leucovorin
Fe t chelation
31.
32. Q. A patient is on mood stabilizer, now presented with raised hepatic
enzymes and hyperammonaemia. Possible offending agent:
a. Lamotrigine
b. Topiramate
c. Carbamazepine
d. Sodium valproate
G AED
Rapid cycler DE
33. Q. In a female patient with history of bleeding manifestation, petechial
rashes, heavy menstrual bleeding and easy bruising, which of the
following TK inhibitor can be used:
a. Fostamatinib
b. Bosutinib
c. Oprelvekin
d. Romiplstim
Isolated Thrombocytopenia
__
III
Ts andgentk O CML
I I n n
d
Thrombopoetin
34. Q. Which of the following anti diabetic agent is approved for heart
failure patient with reduced ejection fraction:
a. Liraglutide
b. Degludec
c. Canagliflozin
d. Dapagliflozin
LI RAGLUTI DE
E anti DMTHF
REMPAGLi Florin
DPPu Safer
innit'itt in
unattain d
LINAGLiptin
SGT 2
Empagliflozin fu CHFpls
35. Q. Which of the following is NOT seen with TCA toxicity:
a. Confusion
b. Hypothermia
c. Pupil dilation
d. Arrhythmia
Metalacidosis
Ach BOV
antidote forced alk dinner's
NaHW5
36. Q. Which of the following protease inhibitors can maximally produce
hepatotoxicity:
a. Tipranavir
b. Saquinavir
c. Atazanavir
d. Nelfinavir
Navin
Gl Mc He MID
Bleed Bleeding
mile araxitipranavirdRito
lopinavir
H Hepatotoxicity
C cardiac conduction of Matt
SAQUI
Aitonavir L lipodystrophy synd
37. Q. A patient on MDR TB therapy presented with multiple joint pain and
increased uric acid level with AST/ALT 55-65. next line of management:
a. Stop all and monitor uric acid and start when level become normal
b. Stop only pyrazinamide and monitor uric acid and AST ALT
c. Stop all hepatotoxic and monitor liver enzymes
d. Continue all and add uric acid lowering drug
PYRAZINAMIDE
38.
39. Q. A 55 year old male patient with history of hypertension and
occasional spikes of blood glucose also. Which of the following is most
preferred agent for this patient:
a. Advise for exercise and Prazosin
b. Exercise and Amlodipine
c. Exercise and Metoprolol
d. Advise for only life style modification
qq.IEp
CCB Thianides
B I 2ndline
40. Q. All of the following side effect are more common with
carbamazepine than oxcarbazepine except:
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Rash
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Dilutional hyponatremia
PHI
F
Yee ox or
42. Q. A farmer aged 60 years presented with fever, body ache and cough.
Upon examination there was a black spot seen on chest as shown in
image. there is positive evidence of IgM for scrub typhus. Preferred
treatment:
a. Doxycycline alone
b. Doxycycline + Azithromycin
c. Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline
d. Ceftriaxone alone
Bert dry
Doc Doxycycline
Yr
43. Q. A 28 year old male patient presented with altered sensorium and
Pinpoint pupil. Which of the following poisoning is suspected:
a. Morphine poisoning
b. Cocaine poisoning
c. Amphetamine poisoning
d. Dhatura poisoining
Pontine H99
Jp poisony Cb poisoning
Morphine n
phenol U
44. Q. Site of action of valproate:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Va Nat
PGABA lend
46. Q. A child was brought with history of iron tablet intake. Treatment with
deferoxamine is started at this level of iron:
a. > 350 mcg/dL
b. > 400 mcg/dL
c. > 450 mcg/dL
d. > 500 mcg/dL
oral Deferi prone
Deferasinx
47. Q. Diabetic neuropathy and spinal cord injury
a. Pregabalin
b. Benzodiazepine
c. X
d. X
Ntype cat
Doc Neuropathic pain
Amityptilline
post herpetic neuralgia
DM Neuropathy
Sciatica
focal 52 RLS
10 Migraine
48. Q. Which of the following pathogen is not sensitive to shown drug
a. Aspergillus niger – Voriconazole
b. Candida Krusei – Fluconazole
c. Candida Glabrata – Amphotericin B
d. Itraconazole – Sporothrix
pyo
Doe
E
CINI
t
Histoplar me
Sporothirix
Blastomy ces
50. Q. A 75 year old patient with CHF and cardiac enlargement. Which of
the following will decrease mortality and reduce further enlargement:
a. Digoxin
b. Furosemide
c. Captopril
d. Carvedilol
Ss gallop
Khales
Drugs 1 Mortality
FACE PRic Ramipril
Prototype
ARB SARTA
u
g
Ald
ARNI ARB NI
p Telmisalantsacubitril
i d
UD
P lowdose
anti
oxidant
property Dilalin HYDRAAzine Nitrate
Saltz Empagliflozin
51. Q. Drug binding to ATP binding cassette:
a. Verapamil
b. Amlodipine
c. Tacrolimus
cyclosporine Kaffa
calcineurin Leydosporin
53. Q. Which of the following is avoided in thyroid storm:
a. Propranolol
b. Lugol’s iodine
c. PTU
d. Aspirin
Doc Thyroid storm
PII
1stDms
Thyroid
hormone
PCM
secret
d
d
Dissociation Gfw ED
I
54. Q. A patient was on ampicillin therapy developed PMC. Drug preferred
for clostridium difficile:
a. Fidaxomicin
wghalosporingafw PIC
most prett Other agent
Macrolides Po vancomycin
b Novobiocin
Mild Metronidazole
c
MAI BEZIOTIXUMAB
b MAB againstCt Difficile
toxin B
55. Q. Carrageenan causes this type of pain
I
Inflammation caringagent
Paw Edema
Peripheral pain Deep
84. Q. Prescription of glasses shows - 1.0 DS /-2.0 DCX 180 .What kind of astigmatism ?
(a) Mixed astigmatism
(b) Simple hypermetropic astigmatism
(c) compound myopic with the rule astigmatism
(d) Compound Myopic against the rule astigmatism
Vt
wit t 90 180
AT_aol
85. Q. 21 year boxer wants to get rid of spectacles. Which refractive procedure should
be AVOIDED ?
(a) SMILE
(b) LASIK
(c) PRK
(d) RK
86. Q. A 50 year old diabetic patient with history of diabetic since 20 year. Fundus
examination shows NPDR . Which of the following would NOT be observed?
(a) Disc neovascularization
(b) Retinal haemorrhage
(c)Soft exudates
(d) Venous beading
THE
RyÉ
m
121. Q.A baby vaccinated at 14 weeks. Which vaccine to be given next, route
and site
(a) MR vaccine at 8 months, subcutaneous, left arm
(b) MR vaccine at 9 months, subcutaneous, left arm
(c) MR vaccine at 9 months, subcutaneous, right arm
(d) MR vaccine at 8 months, subcutaneous, right arm
122. Site of administration
• All injectable vaccines are given on the anteromedial part of thigh except
BCG- left shoulder
MMR/fIPV – right upper arm
JE- left upper arm
PCV- right anterolateral thigh
123.
124.
125. Q.How do you assess perinatal asphyxia
(a) Apgar score of 4-7 after 5 mins
(b) Cord ph <7.2
(c) Hypotonia
(d) Hypocalcemia
126. Perinatal asphyxia
Definition:
Presence of either of the following is suggestive of birth asphyxia
• Persistence of Apgar score of 0-3 for >5 minutes
• Scalp or cord blood pH < 7.0
• Evidence of multi-organ system dysfunction in
immediate neonatal period
• Neurological manifestations
127. • Acc to NNF & WHO
o AS = 0-3 at 1 min = severe BA
o AS = 4-7 at 1 min = moderate BA
• For the community settings ( NNF)
o Absence of cry at 1 min is asphyxia
o Absent or inadequate breathing
o At 5 min - severe asphyxia
128. Qs. Nephrotic syndrome which of the following marker increased in
Serum electrophoresis:-
(a) Albumin
(b) Beta globulin
(c) Gamma globulin
(d) Alpha 2 globulin
129.
130. Q. Child with acute respiratory distress what we should not do
(a) increase in PEEP pressure
(b) bag and mask ventilation
(c) oxygen through nasal tube
(d)
131. Qs. Mother brings 9 months old child, RR = 48/min , fever, but no chest
retraction, and the child is diagnosed to have pneumonia. What is next
step in management ?
(a) hospitalization of patient with iv antibiotics
(b) Hospitalise the child and give oral antibiotics
(c) Send back home with oral medication
(d) No treatment needed
132.
133.
134.
135.
136. Qs. Child with 3 days of watery diarrhoea, vomiting and altered
sensorium presented to Opd. All of the following can be included in
differential diagnosis EXCEPT
(a) Hyponatremia
(b) Severe dehydration
(c) HUS
(d) Cerebral vein occlusion
137. Q.HEADSS assessment is done for
(a) Neonates
(b) Below 28 days
(c) Under 5 yrs
(d) Adolescent
138. • This is an interview instrument for finding out about issues in
adolescents' lives.
• It was developed by Cohen and colleagues
• H = Home environment
• E= Education and employment
• A= Activities
• D= Drugs
• S= Sexuality
• S= Suicide/Depression
139. Qs. Management of DKA- what is followed?
a) Stat dose given f/b regular infusion of insulin 0.1 U/kg with iv
fluids
b) Infusion of regular insulin 0.05 U/kg-0.1 U/kg/hr after 1 hr of iv
fluids
c) Bolus s/c insulin given
140.
141. Management of DKA -
• Continued i/v infusion of insulin is preferred
• No role of initial insulin bolus
• No role of subcut insulin d/t decreased absorption in the setting of poor
perfusion
• Insulin should be added after initial hydration because
- Drastic fall in plasma osmolality
- Hypokalemia
- Increased risk of cerebral edema
Infusion rate to be reduced only after resolution of acidosis
Dose – 0.1u/kg/hr
- 0.05u/kg/hr in infants & mild DKA
142. Qs. Which of the following is not seen in Downs syndrome?
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Hearing loss
c) Short stature
d) Caudal regression syndrome
143.
144. Qs.Sweat chloride and pancreatic levels of chloride in cystic fibrosis
are
a) Cl concentration increase in sweat and increase in pancreatic
secretion
b) Cl concentration decrease in sweat and decrease in pancreatic
secretion
c) Cl concentration increase in sweat and decrease in pancreatic
secretion
d) Cl concentration decrease in sweat and increase in pancreatic
secretion
145. Genetics and microbiology
• Mutation in the gene encoding the chloride conductance channel, CF
transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is the underlying cause.
• The failure of chloride conductance by epithelial cells leads to dehydration of
secretions that are too viscid and difficult to clear.
• The defective gene is located at long arm of chromosome 7;
• The most common mutation is a deletion of three base pairs resulting in the absence
of phenylalanine at the 508 position (Phe508del, F508del)
146.
147.
148. Qs. A child has features of meningitis with following
CSF examination:
protein=63
glucose = 20
Lymphocyte +
Diagnosis?
a) Bacterial meningitis
b) Viral meningitis
c) Tubercular meningitis
d) None of these
149. Qs. Match the following
Autosomal dominant Cystic fibrosis
Autosomal recessive Leber Hereditary optic neuropathy
Mitochondrial Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
X linked recessive Myotonic Dystrophy
150. Qs. Match the following
Autosomal dominant Myotonic Dystrophy
Autosomal recessive Cystic fibrosis
Mitochondrial Leber Hereditary optic neuropathy
X linked recessive Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
154. Q. Match the following
Gene Cancer
JAK 2 Adenocarcinoma lung
ALK Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
C-KIT Pancreas
K- RAS GIST
V 617 F
PD
155. Q. Transferrin saturation decrease in
(a) Pernicious anemia
(b) Iron deficiency anemia
(c) Anemia of chronic disease
(d) Thalassemia
156. Q. Sickle cell as compared to normal RBC has ?
(a) High osmotic and high mechanical fragility
(b) Both low mechanical fragility and osmotic fragility
(c) Low mechanical fragility, low osmotic fragility
(d) Low osmotic fragility, high mechanical fragility
S f of A meat Frat
I
157. Q. Which of the following is found in the image given below ?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Interferon gamma
C. Cytochrome 5a
D. Bradykinin
Langhans
I aced
IL 2
It 12
In S
159. Supra basal bulla:
pemphigus vulgaris
Subcorneal : Pemphigus foliaceus
Subepidermal (as in bullous
pemphigoid or dermatitis
herpetiformis )
O
160. Which type of image ?
A. Direct immunofloroscene
B. Indirect immunofloroscene
C. Fish-net pattern
1
To
161. Which type of image ?
A. Direct immunofloroscene
B. Indirect immunofloroscene
C. Fish-net pattern
PEMPHIGUS
162. Q. 30 years old female on strict vegetarian diet presented with
fatigue, pallor. Hb = 9 gm /dL, MCV = 110 fl. Suggest the
diagnosis.
A. IDA
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
O
Bez Defa
163. Q. Patient comes with nephrotic syndrome. His creatinine values is
4.25. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) FSGS can’t be diagnosed with biopsy alone
(b) 24 hr observation after renal biopsy
(c) Amyloidosis- Renal biopsy must be done
(d) If hematuria - then suggestive of hematoma
co
f e
X
164. Q. In Cystic fibrosis ?
A. Increase Cl transport in sweat
B. Increase Cl transport in pancreatic juice
C. Decrease Cl transport in sweat
D.
I Mc salty SWEAT
I e t pane cé
car
Gigi
8
Swear sue
Pancreas
165. Q. HPV vaccine made from
a. L1
b. E2
c.
Recenter
Casanogenesis
EG P P53
E A Rb
169. Q. Hbs Ag : Negative
Anti Hbs Antibody : Negative
Anti Hbc Antibody : Positive
Anti Hbe : Negative
A. Chronic Hepatitis
B. Acute Hepatitis
C. Vaccinated
D. Window period
X
170. Q. Mendelian Inheritance match the following
Cystic fibrosis
DMD
LHON
Myotonia dystrophica
mens
AD
171. Q
• Breast Cancer Molecular Classification Luminal A is?
• ER+ Her2 neu – Low Proliferative
• ER+ Her2 neu – High Proliferative
• Her 2 neu positive
• Triple negative
O
Mfc i Best prog
Luminal B i BRCA 2 gene
met