The document contains 10 multiple choice questions related to dentistry. Question 1 asks about indications of a successful tooth implant, with reestablishment of the periodontal ligament being the correct answer. Question 2 asks about appropriate timing for administering post-operative analgesics after tooth removal, with the correct answer being when pain becomes moderate to severe. Question 3 asks about the purpose of premedication with atropine or scopolamine, with the correct answer being to reduce secretions by blocking parasympathetic innervation.

1. ) Which of the following is an indication of a successful allogenic tooth implant
a) alkalosis occurs.
b) the periodontal ligament is reestablished.
c) the tooth survives for 12 months.
d) both the pulp and the periodontal ligament survive.
2) when is the appropriate time to administer the initial dose of an analgesic to control post operative
pain associated with removal of two mandibular molars
a) the morning of the surgery.
b) only after the return of the sensation.
c) when pain becomes moderate to severe.
d) before the effect of the local anesthetic wears off.
3) The purpose of premeditation with atropine or scopolamine is to
a) reduce the amount of anesthetic administered.
b) reduce the secretions by blocking parasympathetic innervations.
c) reduce the secretions by blocking sympathetic innervations.
d) eliminate the respiratory depression caused by opiate analgesics.
4) A patient has a localized infection with pus formation. Treatment of choice is to
a) wait for the drainage.
b) establish drainage.
c) administer antibiotics.
d) have to use hot mouth washes.

2. 5) A displaced ,unfavorable fracture in the mandibular angle region is potentially difficult fracture to
treat because of
a) injury to the neurovascular bundle.
b) malocclusion secondary to the injury.
c) distraction of the fracture segments by muscle pull.
d) the density of the bone in this region of the mandible.
6) To reduce a dislocation of the mandible the movement employed is
a) downward and backward.
b) downward and forward.
c) upward and backward.
d) upward and forward.
7) A patient who is on a regimen of steroid therapy and has a need for extraction of chronically infected
teeth requires premeditation with
a) atropine to reduce the hazard of vagal stimulation and cardiac arrest.
b) antihypertensives to compact tendency toward shock.
c) antihistamines to prevent allergic reactions.
d) antibiotic.
8) Sialoliths are most commonly found in the
a) parotid duct.
b) parotid gland.
c) sublingual gland.
d) submandibular duct or gland.

3. 9) Following a bilateral fracture of the mandible in the canine region ,the anterior fragment of the
mandible is displaced posteriorly by the action of the
a) anterior belly of diagastric muscles,genohyoid and genioglossus muscles.
b) thyrohyoid ,genioglossus and geniohyoid muscles.
c) mylohyoid,genioglossus and geniohyoid muscles.
d) mylohyoid,geniohyoid and thyrohyoid muscles.
10) The soft tissue incision used for removal of a mandibular torus should be placed
a) directly above the torus to allow maximum exposure.
b) directly over the torus with extension to the floor of the mouth for exposure.
c) inferior to the torus in the area of the floor of the mouth.
d) over the edentulous alvelour crest or in the gingival crevice around the natural dentition.
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1) The organism that most commonly causes infective endocarditis is
a) sterptococcus mitis.
b) staphylococcus aureus.
c) streptococcus viridans.
d) staphylococcus pyogens.
2) In a fracture involving the angle of an edentulous mandible,the proximal segment is usually
a) anterior and superior.
b) anterior and inferior.
c) inferior only.
d) posterior.

4. 3) The most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ
a) myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome.
b) trigeminal neuralgia.
c) degenerative arthritis.
d) traumatic arthritis.
4) A patient develops facial edema one day after removal of a tooth.Instructions to the patient should
be to use
a) warm,wet applications outside and inside the mouth.
b) cold applications outside and inside the mouth.
c) intraoral cold applications only.
d) intraoral hot applications only.
5) The tendency to infection of bone after radiotherapy is probably related mainly to
a) decalcification.
b) invasion by malignant cells.
c) endarthritis of small blood vessels.
d) creation of dead space around the bone.
6) Two minutes after a two hour treatment sesion using 80% nitrous oxide,20%oxygen and a local
anesthetic, the patient becomes cynotic and tachycardiac.The most probable explanation is
a) over oxygenation.
b) underoxygenation.
c) diffusion hypoxia.

5. d) malignant hyperthermia.
7) The purpose of taping the eyes shut prior to draping a patient before surgery is to
a) prevent cornial abrasion.
b) keep the patient from becoming alarmed.
c) prevent lacriminal secreation from contaminating the field.
d) limit occular motility while the patient is asleep.
8) The primary cause of toxic manifestations following injection of a vasoconstrictor is
a) allergic reaction.
b) intramuscular injection.
c) injection into a nerve trunk.
9) Three minutes after receiving an inferior alvelor block for removal of a premolar,the patient develops
paralysis of the muscles of the forehead,eyelids and upper and lower lips on the same side of the
face.This is probably related to diffusion of the anesthetic solution into the
a) otic ganglion.
b) capsule of the parotid gland.
c) opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
d) motor branches of the mandibular nerve supplying the masticatory muscles.
10) The most common post operative complication of outpatient general anesthesia is
a) nausea.
b) pneumonia.
c) atelectasis.
d) lung abcess.

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1) Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by
a) paralysis in one side of the face.
b) prolonged episodes of pain in one side of the face.
c) uncontrolled twitching of one eye.
d) sharp excruciating pain when light pressure is applied to the affected area.
2) Intial repolarization of the nerve after stimulation is due primarly to
a) active transport of K+ into the cell.
b) active transport of Na+ out of the cell.
c) diffusion of Na+ into the cell along the concentration gradient.
d) diffusion of K+ out of the cell along the concentration gradient.
3) The emergency most frequently experienced during outpatient general anesthesia is
a) hypotension.
b) naphylaxis.
c) bradycardia.
d) respiratory obstruction.
4) Of the following bone grafts ,the greatest osteogenic potential occurs with

7. a) a xenograft.
b) a freeze -dried bone graft.
c) an autogenous cortical graft.
d) an autogenous cancellous graft.
5) A mandibular molar was extracted because of advanced dental caries.A month later ,an indurated
swelling arose externally adjucent to the site of extraction site.Several draining sinuses appeared
spontaneously and drained pus which initially contained yellow granules .The most probable diagnosis is
a) a. syphilis.
b) tuberculosis.
c) actinomycosis.
d) streptococcal infection.
6) Hyperplastic palatal tissue known as papillomatosis is seen most often beneath dentures.This
condition is best treated by
a) supraperiosteal dissection or electrosurgery.
b) not allowing the patient to wear denture.
c) radical excision because it is premalignant.
d) chemical cattery
.
7) A patient has received a tumoricidal course of cobalt therapy for a lesion of the pharynx,His
mandibular first molar has developed a periapical abscess related to caries .This tooth would be treated
by
a) administering an antibiotic and extracting.

8. b) performing root canal therapy if at all possible.
c) prescribing an analgesic and an antibiotic.
d) incising and draining the abscess.
8)Bells palsy is a condition associated with
a. a submaxillary gland
b. the seventh crainal nerve
c. the glossopharyngeal nerve
d. a temporomandibular joint
a) a submaxillary gland.
b) the seventh cranial nerve.
c) the glossopharyngeal nerve.
9) The elevator can be used to advantage when
a) the tooth to be extracted is isolated.
b) the interdental bone is used as a fulcrum.
c) the adjacent tooth is not to be extracted.
d) multiple adjacent teeth are to be extracted.
10) Staphylococcal infections are
a) controlled in hospitals.
b) readily responsive to penicillin.
c) not disseminated by carriers.
d) difficult to treat because of the drug resistant strains.
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9. ) Hyperventilation is often treated by
a) 100% oxygen delivered by nasal cannula.
b) 50% oxygen delivered by nasal cannula.
c) 100% oxygen delivered by a clear face mask.
d) a paper bag.
2) A tooth involved with a radicular cyst was extracted .The cyst was left behind.it is called a
a) ranula.
b) dentigrous cyst.
c) follicular cyst.
d) residual cyst.
3) Which of the drug is most likely to produce an allergic reaction
a) erythromycin.
b) amoxicillin.
c) clindamycin.
d) tetracycline.
4) Disinfection is defined as any process ,chemical or physical that
a) destroys all forms of life, including bacterial spores and viruses.
b) destroys pathogenic organisms but not necessarily spores.
c) reduces microbial population to safe levels.

10. d) prevents the growth of microorganisms.
5) Which drug can be used orally to reduce a patients anxiety
a) diazepam.
b) phenobarbital.
c) chlorpromizine.
d) levadopa.
6) Which of the following cells help in the clotting of the blood
a) monocytes.
b) platelets.
c) eosinophils.
d) neutrophils.
7) What laboratory test is used to monitor a patient with a history of taking warfarin
a) partial thromboplastin time.
b) serum iron.
c) prothrombin time.
d) bleeding time.
8) Which of the following is an advantage of IV administration of a drug
a) it eliminates the side effects.
b) minimal skill is necessary.
c) it allows for titration of the drug.

11. d) sedative drugs are compatible with IV solutions.
9) Sedation by which of the routes can be reversed most rapidly
a) oral.
b) inhalation.
c) intravenous.
d) intramuscular.
10) Of the following ,the most common post operative complication after surgical removal of
mandibular teeth is
a) myositis.
b) paresthesia.
c) loss of blood clot.
d) post operative hemorrhage.
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1) Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of
a) anemia.
b) eosinophilia.
c) thrombocytopenia.
d) vitamin deficiency.
2) The patient has received an injection of 1.8 ml of local anesthetic containing 2% lidocaine with
1:100,000 epinephrine.Thirty seconds later he goes into syncope .The most probable cause is
a) bradycardia.

12. b) tachycardia.
c) cerebral hypoxia.
d) a toxic reaction to epinephrine.
3) Nitrous oxide alone is not used as a general anesthetic because of the
a) diffuculty in maintaining an adequate oxygen concentration.
b) expense of the agent and its explosive hazard.
c) adverse effect on the liver.
d) poor analgestic properties.
4) Drug of choice in the management of a patient with an acute allergic reaction involving
bronchospasm and hypotension is
a. epinephrine
b. aminophylline
c. dexamethasone
d. diphenhydramine
a) epinephrine.
b) aminophylline.
c) dexamethasone.
d) diphenhydramine.
5) A deep level of anesthesia is enhanced by a

13. a) high alveolar concentration of anesthetic agent.
b) loose fitting mask.
c) nonirritating drug.
d) muscle relaxer.
6) A soft tissue flap consisting of mucosa and periosteum can be repositioned accurately because
a) periosteum is very elastic.
b) mucosa is mostly collagen fibers.
c) periosteum sends filiform- like projections into the haversian canals.
d) periosteum is relatively in elastic.
7) In administering artifical ventilation it is recommended that the rescuer deliver a resting tidal volume
that is
a) normal.
b) twice the normal.
c) three times the normal.
d) four times the normal.
8) The most effective agent for the treatment of respiratory depression due to the over dose of
barbiturates is
a) oxygen.
b) caffeine.
c) nitrous oxide.
d) morphine.

14. 9) Three common symptoms indicating that the correct level of sedation has been reached when using
diazepam are blurring of vision, slurring of speech and
a) sweating.
b) loss of gag reflex.
c) 50% ptosis of the eye.
d) paresthesia of the lips, tongue and fingers.
10) Treatment of a mucocele on the lower lip is by
a) incision.
b) loss of gag reflex.
c) incision and drainage.
d) excision, including adjacent minor salivary glands.
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) Zyagomatic arch fractures can be nicely demonstrated by which radiographic view?
a) water's view.
b) lateral skull view.
c) posteroanterior view.
d) submental vertex view.
2) Which of the following is the most common pathognomic sign of a mandibular fracture?
a) Nasal bleeding.
b) Exophthalmos.
c) Malocclusion.
d) numbness in the infraorbital nerve distribution.

15. 3) In patient who have a lefort II fracture, a common finding is paresthesia over distribution of the:
a) Infraorbital nerve.
b) Inferior alveolar nerve.
c) Mylohyiod nerve.
d) Hypoglossal nerve.
4) The most sever tissue reaction is seen with which type of suture material?
a) Plain catgut.
b) Chromic catgut.
c) Polyglycolic acid.
d) Polyglactin 910.
5) Which of the following is the main reason to use water irrigation when cutting bone?
a) It helps to wash away debris.
b) Because heat generated by the drill affects bone vitality.
c) To decrease the smell of freshy cut bone.
d) It helps to flush out the highspeed suction hose.
6) Which scalpel below is universally used for oral surgical procedures?:
a) No. 2 blade.
b) No. 6 blade.
c) No. 10 blade.
d) No. 15 blade.
7) Which of the following are local contraindications for tooth extractions?
a) ANUG.
b) Irradiated jaws.
c) Malignant disease.
d) All of the above.

16. 8) Which of the following is the primary direction of luxation for extracting maxillary decidious molars?
a) Buccal.
b) Palatal.
c) Mesial.
d) Distal.
9) Dead space in a wound usually fills with:
a) Pus.
b) Water.
c) Blood.
d) Tissue.
10) The ideal time to remove impacted third molars is:
a) When the root is fully formed.
b) When the root is approximately two-third formed.
c) Makes no difference how much of the root is formed.
d) When the root is approximately one-third formed.