Ophthalmology, the branch of medicine dedicated to eye care, encompasses diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of ocular disorders. From routine eye exams to complex surgeries, ophthalmologists strive to preserve vision and enhance eye health, improving the quality of life for patients worldwide.

1. . 1 The drainage system of the eye is made up of the following structures:
+A) Trabeculae, Schlemm's canal, scleral canals;
B) vorticosis veins,
C) Anterior lens bursa, scleral canals.
D , Schlemm's Channel
2. One of the main functions of the cornea is:
(a) Support;
+B) Light-conductive;
C) moisture-producing.
G protective
3. Indicate the normal properties of the cornea:
a) ellipsoid;
+B) transparent;
C) Matte.
D) Oblique
4. What is meant by the definition of "visual acuity":
A) Space perceived by the fixed eye;
+B) The ability of the eye to perceive objects clearly in the center and at the periphery;
C) Minimum angle of view,
D) Allowing you to perceive the dots separately.
5. The greatest visual acuity is perceived by a part of the retina:
A) The whole yellow spot;
B) Optic disc area;
+C) Central fovea of the optic nerve.
d) DZN

2. 6. Visual acuity in a newborn baby:
A) Lower than that of an adult;
+B) Very low;
C) High.
D) Medium
7. Distance from which visual acuity is examined according to the tables:
A) 3 meters;
B) 4 meters;
+B) 5 meters.
D) 6 meters
8. Which of the following elements of the retina are responsible for color perception:
A) Pigment epithelial cells;
+B) cones;
C) Sticks.
D) dzn
9. What is a blind spot:
A) Macular projection;
B) Retinal vascular defect;
+C) Projection of the optic nerve.
d) defect nerve
10. What method is used to determine the field of view:
+a) perimetry;
b) ophthalmoscopy;
C) Biomicroscopy.
D) Refratetry
11. What is astigmatism:

3. A) Mild myopia;
B) The refractive power of the cornea;
+C) A combination of different types of refractions in one eye.
D) the refractive power of the lens
12. One of the refractive surfaces of the eye has the greatest optical power:
A) Posterior surface of the lens;
+B) Anterior surface of the cornea;
C) Anterior chamber moisture.
d) Lens
13. The ophthalmic artery enters the orbit through
A) Round hole
B) inferior orbital fissure
C) superior orbital fissure
+D) opening of the optic nerve canal
14. What physiological functions does the conjunctiva perform:
+A) Protective, trophic;
B) Refracts light;
C) Responsible for color perception.
D) refraction of light
15. Which anatomical structure of the eye has the largest number of nerve receptors:
+А) Роговица;
b) retina;
C) Eyelid.
D) Lens
16. A patient suffering from glaucoma should visit a specialist:
A) 1 time a year;
B) In case of anxiety in the form of visual disturbances;

4. +C) 1 time every three months;
D) 1 time every 6 months
17. One of the signs of cataracts:
(a) Photophobia;
+B) Gradual decrease in visual acuity;
C) Drooping of the eyelid.
D) Redness
18. Symptoms of an acute glaucoma attack do not include:
+A) Diplopia;
B) Decreased visual acuity;
C) The appearance of rainbow circles in front of the eyes;
D) Pressure
19. Source(s) of motor innervation of the inferior oblique ocular muscle
A) Trochlear nerve
+B) abductor nerve
C) Optic nerve
D) Inferior nerve
Test-20. Symptoms of a corneal foreign body:
+A) Feeling of a foreign body in the eye, pain;
B) Decreased sensitivity of the cornea;
C) strabismus.
d) glaucoma
21. Complications after an open eye injury are:
+A) Secondary glaucoma, cataracts;
B) Primary glaucoma;
C) Deep corneal necrosis.

5. D) Perception of light
22. A first-degree burn of the eyeball is characterized by the following signs:
A) Deep corneal necrosis;
+B) Conjunctival hyperemia;
C) Narrowing of the field of vision.
D) Eyesore
23. Choroid performs function(s)
A) Defensive
B) Light-perceiving
C) trophic for the outer layers of the retina
+D) trophic for the inner layers of the retina
24. The anterior chamber of the eye is the space between
+A) cornea and iris
B) iris and lens
C) Lens and retina
D) lens and vitreous body
25. Lagophthalmos is
+A) Inability to close the eye fissure;
B) Inability to lift the upper eyelid;
C) Bell's palsy.
D) inflammation of the eyelid
26. Upper limit for measurement of intraocular pressure according to the Maklakov
method:
A) 27 mmHg Art;
+B) 26 mmHg Art;

6. C) 20 mmHg Art.
D) 30 mmHg Art.
27. Procedure for first aid within a polyclinic or first-aid post in case of a penetrating
wound of a glasal apple;
A) Instill myotics;
+B) Apply an eye patch and immediately admit to the ophthalmology department;
C) Outpatient treatment.
D) Instill NSAIDs
28. Ultraviolet radiation can lead to the following effects:
+A) Affects the cornea and conjunctiva;
B) Does not cause any harm;
C) Affects the retina.
D) affects the lens
29. Ptosis has the following symptoms:
A) Inability to close the eye fissure;
B) Lower eyelid volvulus;
+C) Immobility of the upper eyelid.
D) Closing of the eyelid
30. Local analgesics shall be prescribed in the following cases:
+A) Fundus examination;
B) Examination of corneal sensitivity;
C) Refractometry.
D) In the examination of visual acuity
31. Patient with ocular pain, decreased vision, corneal endothelial precipitates,
miosis, and pericorneal injection - diagnosis:
(a) Acute conjunctivitis
b) acute iridocyclitis
c) acute glaucoma attack
d) Phlegmon of the lacrimal sac

7. 32) Where does the process of visual perception begin?
a) in the layer of cones and rods
b) in the bipolar cell layer
c) in the ganglion cell layer
d) in the choroid
33) If the corneal erosion staining defect is tree-like, we assume the diagnosis:
a) deep herpetic keratitis
b) superficial herpetic keratitis
c) creeping corneal ulcer
d) tuberculous keratitis
34) The main function of the superior rectus oculi muscle is:
a) Downward displacement of the eyeball
b) raising the eyeball upwards
c) adduction of the eyeball
d) abduction of the eyeball
Acute iridocyclitis includes all of the following symptoms except:
(a) Photophobia
b) pericorneal injection
c) pain in the area of the eyeball
d) lacrimation
e) macular edema
36) Which anatomical structure of the eyeball has the largest number of sensory
nerve fibers:
(a) the conjunctiva
b) cornea
c) Sclera
d) Retina
e) choroid
37) The main factor of joint involvement of the ciliary body and iris in the
pathological process in the development of inflammation:
(a) Anatomical intimacy
b) general vascularization
c) general innervation
d) Increase in IOP
Visual acuity in newborns is approximately as follows:
(a) A few hundredths
b) 0.1 and above
c) 0.6 and above

8. d) 0.8 and above
39) A patient suffering from glaucoma should visit an ophthalmologist:
(a) Every week
b) 1 time every 3 months
c) 1 time per year
d) 1 time every 3 years
e) when iridescent circles appear in front of the eyes
40) The patient's diagnosis is "Complete obstruction (obstruction) of the lacrimal
ducts". The most effective treatment method is:
(a) Removal of the palpebral part of the lacrimal gland
(b) conjunctivorinostomy
c) Canaliculorinostomy
(d) Dacryocyhistorinostomy
e) conjunctiva-maxillorostomy
41) The reason for the development of senile eversion of the eyelid is: a) hypertonicity
of the muscle that raises the upper eyelid
b) cicatricial changes in the refractive apparatus of the eye
c) stretching of the eyelid tissues
d) hypertonicity of the orbicular muscle of the eye
e) conjunctival hypotension
42 Which of the following methods of examination can confirm the presence of an
intraocular metallic foreign body: a) ionogram
b) Fundus fluorescein angiography
c) X-ray of the orbit
d) tonometry
e) electroencephalogram
43 Visual field examination helps in diagnosing diseases of various structures of the
visual analyzer, with the exception of:
(a) Retina
b) Sclera
c) DZN
d) chiasms
e) the occipital cortex of the brain
44 The location of the corneal reflex along the edge of the pupil in the Gishberg
strabismus angle test indicates a deviation of the eyeball by the amount of:
(a) 0º
( b) 15º
c) 25-30º
d) 45º

9. e) 60º
45The location of the corneal reflex in the middle of the iris in the Gishberg
strabismus angle test indicates a deviation of the eyeball by the amount of:
(a) 0º
( b) 15º
c) 25-30º
d) 45º
e) 60º
46 The location of the corneal reflex on the limbus in the Gishberg strabismus angle
test indicates a deviation of the eyeball by the amount of:
(a) 0º
( b) 15º
c) 25-30º
d) 45º
e) 60º
47 The location of the corneal reflex on the sclera in the Gishberg strabismus angle
test indicates a deviation of the eyeball by the amount of:
(a) 0º
( b) 15º
c) 25-30º
d) 45º
e) 60º
48 The main sign of cyclitis is:
(a) Conjunctival injection
b) precipitates on the posterior surface of the cornea
c) Reduction of the depth of the anterior chamber
d) mydriasis
e) miosis
49Toxic iridocyclitis can occur as a complication of:
(a) Corneal ulcers
b) superficial herpetic keratitis
c) penetrating corneal wound
d) severe cornea-conjunctival burns
e) episcleritis
50 The most severe burns of the eyeball occur when exposed to:
(a) Acids
b) alkalis
c) neutral solutions
d) diluted ethyl alcohol

10. 51 What drugs are used for cataract prophylaxis:
(a) Anti-inflammatory drugs
b) corticosteroids
c) Antioxidants
d) vasodilators
52 Binocular vision is the ability of a visual analyzer to:
(a) To see objects at different distances
b) to the perception of color
c) to distinguish between light of different intensities
d) merging two images from the eyeballs into a single image of the object
e) recognition of individual details of objects
53 Patient complaints of chronic purulent dacryocystitis:
(a) Lacrimation
(b) Photophobia
c) blepharospasm
d) decreased visual acuity
54 Differential diagnosis of age-related cataracts is carried out with the following
diseases:
(a) Primary glaucoma
b) corneal ulcer
c) episcleritis
d) iridocyclitis
55. Which of the following traumatic eyeball injuries requires immediate surgical
intervention:
(a) A penetrating wound of the eyeball larger than 2 mm
b) intraocular foreign body
c) dislocation of the lens into the anterior chamber
d) severe contusion (contusion) of the eye with subconjunctival rupture of the sclera
56 Complications of lens dislocation into the vitreous include:
(a) Appearance of the properties of the aphakic eye
b) episcleritis
c) conjunctivitis
d) keratitis
57 The optic disc (head) normally has the following characteristics when examined:
(a) Transparent
b) pale pink
c) with fuzzy (erased) boundaries
d) decoloured (pale)
58. Laser treatment in ophthalmology is performed in the following cases:

11. (a) Secondary cataracts
b) acute conjunctivitis
c) acute iridocyclitis
d) vitreous body destruction
59 Incorrect light projection (p.l. incerta) in a patient with cataracts suggests the
following:
a) iris pathology
b) pathology of the optic nerve
c) corneal pathology
e) pathology of the ciliary body
60 Which of the following keratitis are classified as exogenous:
(a) Tuberculous
b) syphilitic
c) traumatic
d) keratomycosis
e) Autoimmune
61 The clinical forms of primary glaucoma are:
(a) Closed-angle
б) неоваскулярная
c) uveal
d) phacomorphic

12. Tests for self-control on the topic "Anatomy of the organ of vision":
1. The thinnest wall of the orbit is:
(a) Outer wall;
b) upper wall;
c) inner wall; +
d) lower wall;
e) A and B are correct.
2. Eyelids are:
(a) The accessory part of the organ of vision;
b) the protective apparatus of the organ of vision;
c) both; +
d) neither.
3. Tear-producing organs include:
(a) Lacrimal gland and accessory lacrimal glands; +
b) lacrimal points;
c) lacrimal ducts;
d) all of the above.
4. The layers of the cornea are located:
(a) Parallel to the surface of the cornea; +
b) chaotic;
c) concentrically;
d) A and B are correct;
e) B and C are correct.
5. The optic nerve exits the orbit of the eye through:
(a) Superior orbital fissure;
б) for. opticum; +
c) inferior orbital fissure.
6. The tenon capsule separates:
a) choroid from the sclera;
b) retina from the vitreous body;

13. c) the eyeball from the orbital fiber; +
d) there is no correct answer.
7. The optic nerve has:
(a) Soft shell;
b) arachnoid membrane;
c) hard shell;
d) all of the above; +
8. The vitreous performs:
(a) Trophic function;
b) a "buffer" function;
c) light-conducting function;
d) all of the above. +
9. Blood supply to the ciliary body and iris is carried out by:
(a) Long posterior ciliary arteries;
b) short posterior ciliary arteries;
c) ethmoid arteries;
d) medial arteries of the eyelids;
e) all of the above. +
10. Motor innervation of extraocular muscles is carried out by:
a) oculomotor nerve;
b) abductor nerve;
c) trochlear nerve;
e) only A and B. +
1. The main function of the visual analyzer, without which all other
functions cannot exist, is: (a) peripheral vision;
b) visual acuity;
c) color perception;
d) perception of light; +
e) stereoscopic vision.

14. 2. In newborns, vision is checked in all of these ways, except:
a) fixation of objects with the eyes; +
b) the child's motor reaction and short-term tracking;
c) direct and concomitant reaction of the pupils to light;
d) short-term tracking.
3. Light adaptation is characterized by:
(a) Visual acuity;
b) the size of the field of view;
c) the threshold of discrimination;
d) irritation threshold;
e) correctly B and D. +
4. For binocular vision to develop, the following condition is required:
(a) Parallel position of the axes of both eyes;
b) normal convergence of axes when looking at objects close to each
other;
c) associated eye movements in the direction of the object to be fixed,
normal fusion;
d) visual acuity of both eyes is not less than 0.4;
e) all of the above. +
5. The fusion reflex appears in the child to:
(a) The time of birth;
b) 2 months of life;
c) 4 months of life;
d) 6 months of life; +
e) 1 year of life.
6. The reflex of fixing objects occurs in a child to:
(a) The time of birth;
b) 2 weeks of life;
c) 2 months of life; +
d) 4 months of life;
e) 6 months of life.

15. 7. Colors are not perceived at night due to the fact that:
(a) Inadequate illumination of the surrounding objects;
b) only the rod system of the retina is functioning;
c) the cone system of the retina is not functioning;
d) all of the above. +
8. Cyanopsia is the vision of surrounding objects in:
(a) Yellow light;
b) blue light; +
c) green light;
d) red light.
9. In a healthy adult, the lower limit of the field of view for white is from the
fixation point (a) 45 degrees;
b) 50 degrees;
c) 55 degrees; +
d) 65-70 degrees.
10. For the normal formation of stereoscopic vision, it is necessary to
have:
(a) Normal peripheral vision;
b) high visual acuity;
c) normal trichromatic vision;
d) binocular vision. +
Tests for self-control on the topic "Refractive errors and methods for their
detection":
1. A patient with a further point of clear vision of 1.0 m has myopia in:
a) 1.0 dioptre; +
b) 2.0 diopters;
c) 4.0 diopters;
d) 5.0 diopters;
e) 10.0 diopters.
2. A patient with a further point of clear vision of 0.5 m has myopia in:

16. a) 1.0 dioptre;
b) 2.0 diopters;
c) 4.0 diopters;
d) 5.0 diopters;
e) 10.0 diopters.
3. A patient with a further point of clear vision of 25 cm has myopia in:
a) 1.0 dioptre;
b) 2.0 diopters; +
c) 4.0 diopters;
d) 5.0 diopters;
e) 10.0 diopters.
4) A patient with a further point of clear vision of 10 cm has myopia in:
a) 1.0 dioptre;
b) 2.0 diopters;
c) 4.0 diopters;
d) 5.0 diopters;
e) 10.0 diopters. +
5) A distinction is made between the following types of astigmatism:
a) simple, complex, mixed;
b) straight, reverse, with oblique axes;
c) regular, irregular, cornea, lens;
d) correct A and B;
e) all of the above. +
6) Depending on the position of the retina relative to the focal lines, the
following types of astigmatism are distinguished:
a) simple and complex hypermetropic;
b) simple and complex myopic;
c) mixed;
d) correct A and B;
e) all of the above.+

17. 7) Depending on the position of the main meridians, the following types of
astigmatism are distinguished:
a) straight;
b) reverse;
c) with oblique axes;
d) correct A and B;
e) all of the above. +
8) Astigmatism is called correct:
a) in which the refractive force remains constant in each of the
principal meridians; +
b) in which the refractive power is the same in the two principal
meridians;
c) in which in each of the principal meridians the refracted force
changes;
d) physiological astigmatism;
e) in which the refractive difference in the two main meridians does
not exceed 2.0 diopters.
9) Spherical equivalent refers to:
a) refraction in the main meridians of the astigmatic eye;
b) refraction of the spherical eye;
c) corneal refraction;
d) lens refraction;
e) arithmetic mean refraction of the two main meridians of the
astigmatic eye. +
10) Positive Lens:
a) Moves the focus forward and zooms in on the image.
b) corrects hyperopia;
c) weakens accommodation and enhances exophoria;
d) slightly shifts the zones of further and near vision from the eye;
(e) All of the above. +
Tests for self-control on the topic "Binocular vision. Strabismus":

18. 1. Strabismus is called:
(a) Impairment of normal eye mobility;
b) deviation of one of the eyes from the joint fixation point, usually
accompanied by impaired normal binocular vision; +
c) deviation of both eyes from the joint point of fixation;
d) decreased visual acuity in one or both eyes.
2. Amblyopia is called:
a) various forms of visual impairment caused by functional disorders
of the visual analyzer; +
b) deviation of one of the eyes from the joint fixation point;
c) impaired binocular vision;
d) limitation of eye mobility;
e)
f) all of the above.
3. Amblyopia in origin can be:
a) refractive and anisometropic;
b) obscuration and dysbinocular;
c) traumatic;
d) only A and B; +
e) all of the above.
4. Themain cause of dysbinocular amblyopia is:
a) strabismus; +
b) refractive errors;
c) anisometropia;
d) opacity of the optical media of the eye;
e) A sharp decrease in vision in one of the eyes.
5. Very high amblyopia includes:

19. a) visual acuity of 0.04 and below; +
b) 0,05-0,1;
c) 0,2-0,3;
d) 0,4-0,8;
e) 1.0 and higher.
6. High-grade amblyopia includes:
a) visual acuity of 0.04 and below;
b) 0,05-0,3; +
c) 0,2-0,3;
d) 0,4-0,8;
e) 1.0 and higher.
7. Moderate amblyopia includes:
(a) Visual acuity of 0.04 and below;
b) 0,05-0,1;
c) 0,2-0,3; +
d) 0,4-0,8;
e) 1.0 and higher.
8. Low-grade amblyopia includes:
a) visual acuity of 0.04 and below;
b) 0,05-0,1;
c) 0,2-0,3;
d) 0,4-0,8; +
e) 1.0 and higher.
9. Visual acuity in newborns is equal to:
a) thousandths of a unit; +
b) 0.1 and above;
c) 0.6 and above;
d) 0.8 and above;
e) 1.0 and higher.
10. Visual acuity in children at 6 months Is:

20. a) thousandths of one; +
b) 0.1 and above;
c) 0.6 and above;
d) 0.8 and above;
e) 1.0 and higher.