The document discusses gastrointestinal radiology and contains questions and answers about various gastrointestinal conditions and imaging findings. Question 226 asks which finding on helical CT with dynamic bolus contrast enhancement is the best prognostic indicator of acute pancreatitis. The correct answer is the presence of pancreatic necrosis.
Imaging in small bowel tumors Dr. Muhammad Bin Zulfiqar
Here we will discuss CT and MR enterography. We will further discuss the use of negative contrast.
Four important tumors will be discussed.
It is a presentation on the epidemiology, clinical presentation, diagnostics, staging, surgical management options, principles of alternate therapy for esophageal cancer.
My thoughts on the challenges in pediatric radiology in India today. I have discussed the current status and the future prospects and offered possible solutions as well. This was the Dr. Arcot Gajaraj oration that I delivered at the X Annual Conference of the Indian Society of Pediatric Radiology (ISPR) in Chandigarh on 29th September, 2012.
Imaging in small bowel tumors Dr. Muhammad Bin Zulfiqar
Here we will discuss CT and MR enterography. We will further discuss the use of negative contrast.
Four important tumors will be discussed.
It is a presentation on the epidemiology, clinical presentation, diagnostics, staging, surgical management options, principles of alternate therapy for esophageal cancer.
My thoughts on the challenges in pediatric radiology in India today. I have discussed the current status and the future prospects and offered possible solutions as well. This was the Dr. Arcot Gajaraj oration that I delivered at the X Annual Conference of the Indian Society of Pediatric Radiology (ISPR) in Chandigarh on 29th September, 2012.
Inverted Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Rare Cause of Chronic Anaemiasubmissionclinmedima
Meckels diverticulum (MD) are vestigial remnants of the omphalomesenteric duct found in the ileum in 1-2% of people. Rarely, MD can become inverted into the lumen of the small bowel and be a cause of anemia, intussusception, and abdominal pain.
Laparoscopic Excision of Foregut Duplication Cyst of StomachApollo Hospitals
Retroperitoneal gastric duplication cysts lined by ciliated columnar epithelium are extremely rare lesions and its presentation during adulthood is a diagnostic challenge for treating clinicians. This entity often resembles cystic pancreatic neoplasm, retroperitoneal cystic lesions and sometimes as an adrenal cystic neoplasm. Correct diagnosis on the basis of radiological investigation is difficult and histopathologic analysis. We report a case of gastric duplication cyst in a 16year old girl that mimicked as a retroperitoneal /pancreatic /adrenal cystic lesion and was successfully managed by laparoscopy.
Title: Biliary Tract Tumours: Comprehensive Presentation of Tumour Types, Radiological Features, and Differential Diagnoses
Description:
Welcome to this insightful and comprehensive presentation on biliary tract tumours, focusing on their various types, radiological features observed through ultrasound (USG), computed tomography (CT), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), along with accompanying visual aids. With the goal of enhancing your understanding and knowledge in the field, this presentation will delve into the diverse range of biliary tract tumours, their characteristic radiological findings, and the crucial aspects of differential diagnosis for each tumour type.
Biliary tract tumours encompass a spectrum of malignancies that arise from the epithelial cells lining the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts, as well as the gallbladder. This presentation will offer an in-depth exploration of the most prevalent biliary tract tumour types, including cholangiocarcinoma, gallbladder carcinoma, and rare variants such as hepatobiliary cystadenocarcinoma.
Throughout the slides, you will be presented with high-quality images obtained from USG, CT, and MRI scans, showcasing the distinctive radiological features associated with each tumour type. These images serve as invaluable visual aids, illustrating the importance of radiological investigations in the diagnosis and characterization of biliary tract tumours. The presentation will elucidate the key imaging findings, such as intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile duct dilatation, wall thickening, mass lesions, and lymph node involvement.
Moreover, the presentation will delve into the intricate realm of differential diagnosis for each tumour type, highlighting the distinctive features that aid in distinguishing biliary tract tumours from other hepatic or gallbladder pathologies. By exploring the differentials, you will gain a deeper understanding of the challenges faced in accurate diagnosis and the significance of incorporating multimodal imaging techniques to achieve a precise assessment.
In summary, this presentation serves as a comprehensive resource for healthcare professionals, radiologists, and students seeking to expand their knowledge of biliary tract tumours. With a rich collection of radiological images, a detailed exploration of tumour types, and a comprehensive overview of the differential diagnoses, this presentation will provide you with a solid foundation to recognize, characterize, and differentially diagnose biliary tract tumours in clinical practice.
Don't miss the opportunity to enhance your understanding of biliary tract tumours and their radiological features. Stay informed and up-to-date by uploading this informative presentation on biliary tract tumours to Slideshare, and gain valuable insights into this fascinating field of study.
Rupture of a Hydatid Cyst into the Bile Ductasclepiuspdfs
Cholestasis secondary to a cystobiliary communication is a rare complication associated with hepatic hydatidosis. The most established surgical procedure is the evacuation of the contents of the cyst (daughter cysts) without spills, sterilization of the cyst cavity with scolicide agents to prevent the dissemination of the hydatids to the peritoneal cavity, and cavity management (capitonnage) together with the closing of the communication.
Choledochal cysts should be considered in the differential diagnosis in all patients with a history of biliary colic, recurrent cholangitis or pancreatitis with associated dilatation of bile duct, particularly if they are <40 years of age. Delay in the diagnosis increases the incidence of associated biliary pathology and suboptimal surgical therapy
Knee anatomy and clinical tests 2024.pdfvimalpl1234
This includes all relevant anatomy and clinical tests compiled from standard textbooks, Campbell,netter etc..It is comprehensive and best suited for orthopaedicians and orthopaedic residents.
Flu Vaccine Alert in Bangalore Karnatakaaddon Scans
As flu season approaches, health officials in Bangalore, Karnataka, are urging residents to get their flu vaccinations. The seasonal flu, while common, can lead to severe health complications, particularly for vulnerable populations such as young children, the elderly, and those with underlying health conditions.
Dr. Vidisha Kumari, a leading epidemiologist in Bangalore, emphasizes the importance of getting vaccinated. "The flu vaccine is our best defense against the influenza virus. It not only protects individuals but also helps prevent the spread of the virus in our communities," he says.
This year, the flu season is expected to coincide with a potential increase in other respiratory illnesses. The Karnataka Health Department has launched an awareness campaign highlighting the significance of flu vaccinations. They have set up multiple vaccination centers across Bangalore, making it convenient for residents to receive their shots.
To encourage widespread vaccination, the government is also collaborating with local schools, workplaces, and community centers to facilitate vaccination drives. Special attention is being given to ensuring that the vaccine is accessible to all, including marginalized communities who may have limited access to healthcare.
Residents are reminded that the flu vaccine is safe and effective. Common side effects are mild and may include soreness at the injection site, mild fever, or muscle aches. These side effects are generally short-lived and far less severe than the flu itself.
Healthcare providers are also stressing the importance of continuing COVID-19 precautions. Wearing masks, practicing good hand hygiene, and maintaining social distancing are still crucial, especially in crowded places.
Protect yourself and your loved ones by getting vaccinated. Together, we can help keep Bangalore healthy and safe this flu season. For more information on vaccination centers and schedules, residents can visit the Karnataka Health Department’s official website or follow their social media pages.
Stay informed, stay safe, and get your flu shot today!
Title: Sense of Smell
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the primary categories of smells and the concept of odor blindness.
Explain the structure and location of the olfactory membrane and mucosa, including the types and roles of cells involved in olfaction.
Describe the pathway and mechanisms of olfactory signal transmission from the olfactory receptors to the brain.
Illustrate the biochemical cascade triggered by odorant binding to olfactory receptors, including the role of G-proteins and second messengers in generating an action potential.
Identify different types of olfactory disorders such as anosmia, hyposmia, hyperosmia, and dysosmia, including their potential causes.
Key Topics:
Olfactory Genes:
3% of the human genome accounts for olfactory genes.
400 genes for odorant receptors.
Olfactory Membrane:
Located in the superior part of the nasal cavity.
Medially: Folds downward along the superior septum.
Laterally: Folds over the superior turbinate and upper surface of the middle turbinate.
Total surface area: 5-10 square centimeters.
Olfactory Mucosa:
Olfactory Cells: Bipolar nerve cells derived from the CNS (100 million), with 4-25 olfactory cilia per cell.
Sustentacular Cells: Produce mucus and maintain ionic and molecular environment.
Basal Cells: Replace worn-out olfactory cells with an average lifespan of 1-2 months.
Bowman’s Gland: Secretes mucus.
Stimulation of Olfactory Cells:
Odorant dissolves in mucus and attaches to receptors on olfactory cilia.
Involves a cascade effect through G-proteins and second messengers, leading to depolarization and action potential generation in the olfactory nerve.
Quality of a Good Odorant:
Small (3-20 Carbon atoms), volatile, water-soluble, and lipid-soluble.
Facilitated by odorant-binding proteins in mucus.
Membrane Potential and Action Potential:
Resting membrane potential: -55mV.
Action potential frequency in the olfactory nerve increases with odorant strength.
Adaptation Towards the Sense of Smell:
Rapid adaptation within the first second, with further slow adaptation.
Psychological adaptation greater than receptor adaptation, involving feedback inhibition from the central nervous system.
Primary Sensations of Smell:
Camphoraceous, Musky, Floral, Pepperminty, Ethereal, Pungent, Putrid.
Odor Detection Threshold:
Examples: Hydrogen sulfide (0.0005 ppm), Methyl-mercaptan (0.002 ppm).
Some toxic substances are odorless at lethal concentrations.
Characteristics of Smell:
Odor blindness for single substances due to lack of appropriate receptor protein.
Behavioral and emotional influences of smell.
Transmission of Olfactory Signals:
From olfactory cells to glomeruli in the olfactory bulb, involving lateral inhibition.
Primitive, less old, and new olfactory systems with different path
263778731218 Abortion Clinic /Pills In Harare ,sisternakatoto
263778731218 Abortion Clinic /Pills In Harare ,ABORTION WOMEN’S CLINIC +27730423979 IN women clinic we believe that every woman should be able to make choices in her pregnancy. Our job is to provide compassionate care, safety,affordable and confidential services. That’s why we have won the trust from all generations of women all over the world. we use non surgical method(Abortion pills) to terminate…Dr.LISA +27730423979women Clinic is committed to providing the highest quality of obstetrical and gynecological care to women of all ages. Our dedicated staff aim to treat each patient and her health concerns with compassion and respect.Our dedicated group ABORTION WOMEN’S CLINIC +27730423979 IN women clinic we believe that every woman should be able to make choices in her pregnancy. Our job is to provide compassionate care, safety,affordable and confidential services. That’s why we have won the trust from all generations of women all over the world. we use non surgical method(Abortion pills) to terminate…Dr.LISA +27730423979women Clinic is committed to providing the highest quality of obstetrical and gynecological care to women of all ages. Our dedicated staff aim to treat each patient and her health concerns with compassion and respect.Our dedicated group of receptionists, nurses, and physicians have worked together as a teamof receptionists, nurses, and physicians have worked together as a team wwww.lisywomensclinic.co.za/
Recomendações da OMS sobre cuidados maternos e neonatais para uma experiência pós-natal positiva.
Em consonância com os ODS – Objetivos do Desenvolvimento Sustentável e a Estratégia Global para a Saúde das Mulheres, Crianças e Adolescentes, e aplicando uma abordagem baseada nos direitos humanos, os esforços de cuidados pós-natais devem expandir-se para além da cobertura e da simples sobrevivência, de modo a incluir cuidados de qualidade.
Estas diretrizes visam melhorar a qualidade dos cuidados pós-natais essenciais e de rotina prestados às mulheres e aos recém-nascidos, com o objetivo final de melhorar a saúde e o bem-estar materno e neonatal.
Uma “experiência pós-natal positiva” é um resultado importante para todas as mulheres que dão à luz e para os seus recém-nascidos, estabelecendo as bases para a melhoria da saúde e do bem-estar a curto e longo prazo. Uma experiência pós-natal positiva é definida como aquela em que as mulheres, pessoas que gestam, os recém-nascidos, os casais, os pais, os cuidadores e as famílias recebem informação consistente, garantia e apoio de profissionais de saúde motivados; e onde um sistema de saúde flexível e com recursos reconheça as necessidades das mulheres e dos bebês e respeite o seu contexto cultural.
Estas diretrizes consolidadas apresentam algumas recomendações novas e já bem fundamentadas sobre cuidados pós-natais de rotina para mulheres e neonatos que recebem cuidados no pós-parto em unidades de saúde ou na comunidade, independentemente dos recursos disponíveis.
É fornecido um conjunto abrangente de recomendações para cuidados durante o período puerperal, com ênfase nos cuidados essenciais que todas as mulheres e recém-nascidos devem receber, e com a devida atenção à qualidade dos cuidados; isto é, a entrega e a experiência do cuidado recebido. Estas diretrizes atualizam e ampliam as recomendações da OMS de 2014 sobre cuidados pós-natais da mãe e do recém-nascido e complementam as atuais diretrizes da OMS sobre a gestão de complicações pós-natais.
O estabelecimento da amamentação e o manejo das principais intercorrências é contemplada.
Recomendamos muito.
Vamos discutir essas recomendações no nosso curso de pós-graduação em Aleitamento no Instituto Ciclos.
Esta publicação só está disponível em inglês até o momento.
Prof. Marcus Renato de Carvalho
www.agostodourado.com
Tom Selleck Health: A Comprehensive Look at the Iconic Actor’s Wellness Journeygreendigital
Tom Selleck, an enduring figure in Hollywood. has captivated audiences for decades with his rugged charm, iconic moustache. and memorable roles in television and film. From his breakout role as Thomas Magnum in Magnum P.I. to his current portrayal of Frank Reagan in Blue Bloods. Selleck's career has spanned over 50 years. But beyond his professional achievements. fans have often been curious about Tom Selleck Health. especially as he has aged in the public eye.
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Introduction
Many have been interested in Tom Selleck health. not only because of his enduring presence on screen but also because of the challenges. and lifestyle choices he has faced and made over the years. This article delves into the various aspects of Tom Selleck health. exploring his fitness regimen, diet, mental health. and the challenges he has encountered as he ages. We'll look at how he maintains his well-being. the health issues he has faced, and his approach to ageing .
Early Life and Career
Childhood and Athletic Beginnings
Tom Selleck was born on January 29, 1945, in Detroit, Michigan, and grew up in Sherman Oaks, California. From an early age, he was involved in sports, particularly basketball. which played a significant role in his physical development. His athletic pursuits continued into college. where he attended the University of Southern California (USC) on a basketball scholarship. This early involvement in sports laid a strong foundation for his physical health and disciplined lifestyle.
Transition to Acting
Selleck's transition from an athlete to an actor came with its physical demands. His first significant role in "Magnum P.I." required him to perform various stunts and maintain a fit appearance. This role, which he played from 1980 to 1988. necessitated a rigorous fitness routine to meet the show's demands. setting the stage for his long-term commitment to health and wellness.
Fitness Regimen
Workout Routine
Tom Selleck health and fitness regimen has evolved. adapting to his changing roles and age. During his "Magnum, P.I." days. Selleck's workouts were intense and focused on building and maintaining muscle mass. His routine included weightlifting, cardiovascular exercises. and specific training for the stunts he performed on the show.
Selleck adjusted his fitness routine as he aged to suit his body's needs. Today, his workouts focus on maintaining flexibility, strength, and cardiovascular health. He incorporates low-impact exercises such as swimming, walking, and light weightlifting. This balanced approach helps him stay fit without putting undue strain on his joints and muscles.
Importance of Flexibility and Mobility
In recent years, Selleck has emphasized the importance of flexibility and mobility in his fitness regimen. Understanding the natural decline in muscle mass and joint flexibility with age. he includes stretching and yoga in his routine. These practices help prevent injuries, improve posture, and maintain mobilit
- Video recording of this lecture in English language: https://youtu.be/lK81BzxMqdo
- Video recording of this lecture in Arabic language: https://youtu.be/Ve4P0COk9OI
- Link to download the book free: https://nephrotube.blogspot.com/p/nephrotube-nephrology-books.html
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Adv. biopharm. APPLICATION OF PHARMACOKINETICS : TARGETED DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEMSAkankshaAshtankar
MIP 201T & MPH 202T
ADVANCED BIOPHARMACEUTICS & PHARMACOKINETICS : UNIT 5
APPLICATION OF PHARMACOKINETICS : TARGETED DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEMS By - AKANKSHA ASHTANKAR
NVBDCP.pptx Nation vector borne disease control programSapna Thakur
NVBDCP was launched in 2003-2004 . Vector-Borne Disease: Disease that results from an infection transmitted to humans and other animals by blood-feeding arthropods, such as mosquitoes, ticks, and fleas. Examples of vector-borne diseases include Dengue fever, West Nile Virus, Lyme disease, and malaria.
CDSCO and Phamacovigilance {Regulatory body in India}NEHA GUPTA
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is India's national regulatory body for pharmaceuticals and medical devices. Operating under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, the CDSCO is responsible for approving new drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting standards for drugs, controlling the quality of imported drugs, and coordinating the activities of State Drug Control Organizations by providing expert advice.
Pharmacovigilance, on the other hand, is the science and activities related to the detection, assessment, understanding, and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problems. The primary aim of pharmacovigilance is to ensure the safety and efficacy of medicines, thereby protecting public health.
In India, pharmacovigilance activities are monitored by the Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI), which works closely with CDSCO to collect, analyze, and act upon data regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs). Together, they play a critical role in ensuring that the benefits of drugs outweigh their risks, maintaining high standards of patient safety, and promoting the rational use of medicines.
Colonic and anorectal physiology with surgical implications
23204995
1. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 1
213. You are shown a contrast-enhanced CT of a 62-year-old man with left lower quadrant abdominal
pain (Figure 1). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Omental infarct
B. Diverticulitis
C. Mesenteric panniculitis
D. Epiploic appendagitis
1
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
2. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Question #213
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Omental infarct is usually right sided, presenting as a large fat-containing mass centered
in the omentum. It may or may not be adjacent to the colon. It is typically larger than the fatty mass
of epiploic appendagitis and is less well defined.
B. Incorrect. Diverticulitis demonstrates marked colonic wall thickening in addition to the surrounding
inflammatory changes in the fat. It occurs more commonly in the sigmoid colon.
C. Incorrect. Mesenteric panniculitis is an idiopathic, chronic, nonspecific process usually presenting
as a solitary mass of heterogeneous fat at the root of the jejunal mesentery. There are often shotty
lymph nodes.
D. Correct. Epiploic appendagitis presents with a paracolonic fat-containing mass with well circum-
scribed hyperattenuating rim (“ring sign”) and central engorged/thrombosed vessel. It is located
adjacent to the left colon in most cases and is typically smaller, more round, and better defined than
omental infarction.
2 American College of Radiology
3. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 2A
Figure 2B
3 American College of Radiology
4. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 2C
Figure 2D
214. You are shown T2-weighted and pre- and post-contrast T1-weighted arterial and portal venous
phase MR images (Figures 2A through 2D). Concerning the hepatic lesion, which one is TRUE?
A. It is the most common benign hepatic neoplasm.
B. It may increase in size with use of oral contraceptives.
C. It is associated with cirrhosis and viral hepatitis.
D. Predisposing conditions include primary sclerosing cholangitis.
4
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
5. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Question #214
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. The images demonstrate typical findings of focal nodular hyperplasia, the second most
common benign hepatic neoplasm. Hemangioma is the most common.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. Hepatocellular carcinoma typically occurs in the setting of cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis.
D. Incorrect. These are associated with intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma.
5 American College of Radiology
6. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 3
215. You are shown a spot view of the distal ileum (Figure 3) from a small bowel series in a 48-year-
old man. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. “Backwash ileitis” of ulcerative colitis
B. “Pipestem bowel” of strongyloides infection
C. Tuberculosis
D. Crohn’s ileitis
6 American College of Radiology
7. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Question #215
Rationales:
A. Correct. The terminal ileum shows loss of mucosal folds and diffuse subtle nodularity with no
ulceration or stricture. The ileocecal valve is gaping, but the ileocecal angle is preserved. The cecum
is normal contour and shows diffuse superficial ulceration. These findings are characteristic of back-
wash ileitis of ulcerative colitis.
B. Incorrect. Strongyloides stercoralis infection is more common in the jejunum, with mucosal fold
effacement and areas of narrowing.
C. Incorrect. Tuberculosis of the ileum shows ulceration and hypertrophic changes. The mucosal folds
first thicken and then become effaced. Though the ileocecal valve is widely patent, this is usually
accompanied by loss of the ileocecal angle and shrinkage of the cecum (“coned cecum”).
D. Incorrect. Crohn’s disease involving this much ileum is unlikely to be this homogeneous. It is more
likely to show ulceration, more pronounced nodularity, stenosis, and eccentric bowel involvement.
7
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
8. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 4
216. You are shown a contrast-enhanced CT (Figure 4) of an elderly woman with chronic right upper
quadrant pain. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Acute calculous cholecystitis
B. Traumatic gallbladder rupture
C. Gallbladder carcinoma
D. Adenomyomatosis
8 American College of Radiology
9. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Question #216
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. The CT scan demonstrates a gallstone with rim calcification in the gallbladder. There is
abnormal gallbladder wall thickening. The gallbladder pathology is complicated by contiguous
involvement of the adjacent hepatic parenchyma, but this appears more extensive than pericholecys-
tic inflammatory changes. Acute calculous cholecystitis is a consideration in this case, but the
absence of fever and an elevated WBC makes this diagnosis unlikely.
B. Incorrect. Blunt abdominal trauma can cause gallbladder perforation or avulsion of the cystic duct.
A traumatic perforation can result in either an intrahepatic or extrahepatic biloma. By CT, a biloma
appears as a homogeneous, low-density, thin-walled, round to oval to lobulated collection. Fig. 3
does not show a discrete fluid collection typical of a biloma. In addition, no history of trauma is
given.
C. Correct. Rationale: Gallbladder carcinoma is the most common cancer of the biliary tree. It is asso-
ciated with cholelithiasis in 60 – 90% of cases. Gallbladder cancer is three times more common in
women than in men, and it most often occurs in the eighth decade of life. Contiguous spread of neo-
plasm into the adjacent liver is common. This usually obviates curative surgery. As a result, the five-
year survival is only 3%.
D. Incorrect. Adenomyomatosis is a benign disorder of the gallbladder mucosa and muscular wall. It
has two pathologic components that contribute to imaging findings. Intramural diverticula
(Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses) can appear as small hypoechoic spaces or can be filled with choles-
terol crystals appearing as small echogenic foci with comet-tail acoustic artifact. Wall thickening
can be circumferential (waist-like), diffuse, or focal. Focal adenomyomatosis usually occurs in the
fundus and cannot be differentiated from a polypoid gallbladder carcinoma. However, because ade-
nomyomatosis is benign, gallbladder wall disruption with contiguous invasion of the liver would not
be expected.
9
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
10. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 5A
217. You are shown two images from an upper gastrointestinal examination (Figures 5A and 5B).
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Lymphoma
C. Marginal ulcer
D. Gastric remnant cancer
10 American College of Radiology
12. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Question #217
Findings: There is a large benign ulcer in the efferent limb of the patient’s gastrojejunostomy.
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. This is a benign ulcer without any evidence of a malignant mass.
B. Incorrect. Lymphoma would typically have a large mass and/or enlarged distorted folds.
C. Correct. This is a classic benign appearing marginal ulcer post subtotal gastrectomy with a Billroth
II anastomosis.
D. Incorrect. A gastric stump cancer occurs in the stomach, not in the jejunum.
12 American College of Radiology
13. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 6A
Figure 6B
13 American College of Radiology
14. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Figure 6C
218. You are shown a contrast-enhanced CT (Figures 6A through 6C) in a 46-year-old woman.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Metastatic ovarian carcinoma
B. Post-traumatic splenosis
C. Polysplenia
D. Lymphoma
14
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
15. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Question #218
Findings: Multiple splenic masses in left upper quadrant, no intrahepatic inferior vena cava, and an
enlarged azygous vein and hemiazygous vein.
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. The multiple masses could represent enhancing metastases but other findings make the
diagnosis.
B. Incorrect. There are too many splenic masses for splenules.
C. Correct. Multiple splenic masses, no intrahepatic IVC and an enlarged azygous vein.
D. Incorrect. There are no enlarged lymph nodes.
15 American College of Radiology
16. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning gastric lymphoma, which one is TRUE?
219.
A. Accounts for 25% of all gastrointestinal lymphomas
B. Vast majority are Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Low-grade MALT lymphomas usually present as large bulky masses on upper gastrointestinal
barium studies
D. Advanced gastric lymphoma is usually large and involves the body and antrum
Question #219
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Lymphoma involves the stomach more frequently than any other portion of the gastroin-
testinal tract and accounts for 50% of all gastrointestinal lymphomas.
B. Incorrect. Almost all gastric lymphomas are non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma of B-cell origin.
C. Incorrect. Low-grade MALT lymphomas usually present as varied sized, rounded nodules on double
contrast barium studies.
D. Correct. Advanced lymphoma is a large bulky mass and most commonly involves the gastric body
and antrum.
16 American College of Radiology
17. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning gastrojejunostomy, which one of the following is TRUE?
220.
A. A Billroth I is a gastrojejunostomy.
B. A gastric stapling procedure incorporates a Roux-en-Y loop.
C. Internal hernias occur in up to 5% of patients following gastric bypass for weight reduction.
D. There is no increased risk for gastric cancer following partial gastrectomy for benign
peptic ulcer disease.
Question #220
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. A Billroth I is an antrectomy with a gastroduodenostomy.
B. Incorrect. A gastric partitioning stapling does not use any type of gastro-jejunal anastomosis.
C. Correct. Internal hernias have been reported in up to 5% of post gastric bypass operations.
D. Incorrect. There is a 3 to 6 fold increased chance of developing gastric remnant adenocarcinoma 15
to 20 years following surgery for benign peptic ulcer disease.
17
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
18. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning splenic trauma, which one is TRUE?
221.
A. The spleen is injured in 35% of penetrating abdominal trauma.
B. The spleen is the second most common solid organ injured in blunt trauma.
C. Grading splenic trauma is a reliable way to predict whether a patient will need splenectomy.
D. Embolization techniques can be used to control splenic hemorrhage.
Question #221
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. The spleen is injured less than 10%.
B. Incorrect. The spleen is the most common solid organ injured.
C. Incorrect. CT and surgical grading systems are not reliable methods to predict conservative vs. sur-
gical management.
D. Correct. Embolization techniques can be useful in controlling splenic hemorrhage and obviating
splenectomy.
18 American College of Radiology
19. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning double-contrast upper GI examination, which one is TRUE?
222.
A. Flow technique is useful for evaluation of the stomach but not the duodenum.
B. Compression views of the duodenum are obtained in the supine position.
C. The left posterior oblique view provides a double contrast view of the duodenum.
D. A barium suspension of 25% W/V concentration is used.
Question #222
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Flow technique is useful for evaluating superficial lesions on the dependent surface of the
stomach and duodenum.
B. Incorrect. Compression views of the duodenum are typically obtained in the prone position.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect. A barium suspension of 250% W/V concentration is used.
19
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
20. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning duodenal inflammatory disease, which one is TRUE?
223.
A. Duodenocolic fistulas are likely to occur in primary duodenal Crohn’s disease.
B. Radiation doses of 500 rad to the duodenum may cause radiation duodenitis.
C. Mucosal fold thickening is often more severe in dialysis patients.
D. Duodenal caustic injury is more likely to occur with alkali ingestion than acid ingestion.
Question #223
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Duodenocolic fistulas rarely occur in primary duodenal Crohn’s disease, but will occa-
sionally occur in primary colonic Crohn’s disease.
B. Incorrect. The dose threshold for injury is 5000 rad.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect. The opposite is true.
20 American College of Radiology
21. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
224. Concerning abdominal multidetector CT (MDCT), the z-axis resolution MOST LIKELY increases
with decreasing:
A. slice thickness
B. radiation dose
C. mAs (product of tube current and scan time)
D. image noise
Question #224
Rationales:
A. Correct. Spatial resolution in CT is dependent on the image matrix (FOV) in transaxial plane and
slice thickness in z- direction. One of the driving force in MDCT is to obtain high spatial resolution
and this is achieved by scanning very thin slice thickness.
B. Incorrect. The radiation dose per slice in CT increases with decreasing slice thickness. This is done
in order to maintain lower image noise.
C. Incorrect. Decreasing mAs yeilds higher image noise and could degrade spatial resolution
D. Incorrect. See correct answer.
21
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
22. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning selective immunoglobulin A deficiency, which one is TRUE?
225.
A. It is an uncommon immunodeficiency in adults.
B. The majority of persons with IgA deficiency will present with malabsorption.
C. It is not associated with celiac disease.
D. It carries an increased risk of malignancy.
Question #225
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. It is the most common immunodeficiency in adults, occurring in 1 in 700 persons.
B. Incorrect. Most are asymptomatic because of a compensatory rise in IgM production. The remain-
der will be symptomatic and may respond favorably to a gluten-free diet.
C. Incorrect. It has been reported in 1 in 40 patients with celiac disease.
D. Correct. Malignant tumors are more common in patients with IgA deficiency and in patients with
other immunodeficiencies.
22 American College of Radiology
23. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
226. Concerning acute pancreatitis on a helical CT with dynamic bolus contrast enhancement,
which finding is the BEST prognostic indicator of morbidity and mortality?
A. Size of the pancreas
B. Location and size of fluid collections
C. Presence of biliary obstruction
D. Pancreatic parenchymal enhancement
Question #226
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. While this is one of the indicators of the severity of acute pancreatitis, it is not the most
predictive of M & M.
B. Incorrect. While this is one of the indicators of the severity of acute pancreatitis, it is not the most
predictive of M & M.
C. Incorrect. While this is a complication of acute pancreatitis, it is not the most predictive of M & M.
D. Correct. There is general agreement that the development and extent of pancreatic necrosis are the
most important indicators of disease severity. Necrosis is diagnosed when portions of the gland do
not enhance.
23
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
24. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning microcystic cystadenoma of the pancreas, which one is TRUE?
227.
A. Fluid aspirated from the cyst will contain mucin.
B. They usually appear as a solid mass on ultrasound exam.
C. They should be resected because they are potentially malignant.
D. They rarely calcify.
Question #227
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Aspirate yields low viscosity fluid. The cysts are lined by glycogen-containing cells.
Macrocystic cystadenomas and cystadenocarcinomas have mucinous fluid.
B. Correct. They have this appearance because the small cysts are depicted only as acoustic interfaces.
C. Incorrect. They are benign. Macrocystic adenomas are potentially malignant.
D. Incorrect. Microcystic adenoma calcifies more than any other pancreatic tumor, with central calcifi-
cations seen in about one-third by conventional radiographs.
24 American College of Radiology
25. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning duodenal ulcers, which one is TRUE?
228.
A. Free air is seen on conventional x-rays in up to 2/3 with perforation.
B. Duodenal peptic ulcers have a 5% chance of being malignant.
C. Multiple ulcers throughout the duodenum are most frequently associated with aspirin therapy.
D. Altered mucosal resistance is a major factor in the pathogenesis of duodenal peptic ulcers.
Question #228
Rationales:
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. Gastric ulcers have a 5% chance of being malignant. In contrast, duodenal ulcers are vir-
tually always benign.
C. Incorrect. Eighty-five percent of duodenal ulcers are solitary. Multiple ulcers in the postbulbar duo-
denum should raise the possibility of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Chronic aspirin therapy is associ-
ated with multiple gastric ulcers, seen in over 80% of these patients. It is not associated with duode-
nal ulcers.
D. Incorrect. This is thought to be the major factor in gastric peptic ulcers. Duodenal ulcers are due to
increased peptic acid secretion.
25
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
26. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning esophageal intramural pseudodiverticulosis, which one is TRUE?
229.
A. Most commonly associated with Candida infection
B. Is a pre-malignant condition
C. Histologically represents dilated submucosal mucus glands
D. Outpouchings range in size from 1 cm to 2 cm
Question #229
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Esophageal intramural pseudodiverticulosis (EIPD) is most commonly associated with
reflux disease, but can be seen in Candidiasis, stricture, or esophageal carcinoma.
B. Incorrect.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect. Outpouchings are usually on the order of 1 – 4 mm.
26 American College of Radiology
27. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
230. What disease is associated with mesenteric desmoid tumors?
A. Gardner’s syndrome
B. Carcinoid tumors
C. Lymphoma
D. Peritoneal mesothelioma
Question #230
Rationales:
A. Correct. Desmoid tumors occur predominately in patients with Gardner’s syndrome who have had
abdominal surgery.
B. Incorrect. Carcinoid tumors may have a similar appearance to desmoid tumors but are not associat-
ed with them.
C. Incorrect. No association.
D. Incorrect. No association.
27
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
28. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
231. For an abdominal radiograph of a very large patient, which method is MOST LIKELY to
improve x-ray transmission?
A. Increasing mAs
B. Increasing the kVp
C. Increasing the tube-patient distance
D. Decreasing the tube-patient distance
Question #231
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Increasing mAs will increase the number of photons generated and a proportionate num-
ber of photons making it through the patient, however the photon energies and the fraction of inci-
dent photons making it through the patient is unchanged.
B. Correct. Increasing kVp not only increases the number of x-ray photons generated, but also pro-
duces higher energy photons with a maximum photon energy in keV equal to the kVp voltage
across the x-ray tube. The higher energy photons are more penetrating an a higher fraction of the
incident photons will pass through the patient to the detector.
C. Incorrect. Increasing the tube-patient distance for a given technique does not change the penetrating
ability of the beam and will decrease the intensity of the beam.
D. Incorrect. Decreasing the tube-patient distance for a given technique will increase the incident
intensity of the beam, but will not change the penetrating ability of the beam. Note that decreasing
the tube-patient distance can significantly increase the entrance exposure to the patient.
28 American College of Radiology
29. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
232. What is the MOST common malignant primary hepatic tumor?
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Lymphoma
C. Focal nodular hyperplasia
D. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma
Question #232
Rationales:
A. Correct. HCC is the most common primary hepatic malignancy.
B. Incorrect. Hepatic lymphoma is uncommon and often undetectable by imaging.
C. Incorrect. FNH is benign.
D. Incorrect. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is the second most common primary hepatic malignancy.
29
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
30. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
233. Concerning jaundice, which of the following is the MOST common etiology?
A. Choledocholithiasis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Benign stricture
D. Pancreatic carcinoma
Question #233
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Choledocholithiasis accounts for 20% of cases of biliary obstruction.
B. Incorrect. Pancreatitis accounts for 8%.
C. Correct. Benign stricture form surgery, trauma, or biliary intervention accounts for almost half of
the cases of biliary obstruction.
D. Incorrect. Pancreatic cancer does cause biliary obstruction, but less commonly than benign stricture.
30 American College of Radiology
31. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
234. Concerning focal hepatic fatty sparing, what is its appearance on imaging studies?
A. Hypodense on CT relative to remaining liver
B. Hyperechoic on US relative to remaining liver
C. Demonstrates no signal loss on fat-suppressed MR images
D. Heterogeneous enhancement
Question #234
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Areas of fatty sparing are hyperdense.
B. Incorrect. Fatty sparing is hypoechoic.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect. Enhancement pattern is similar to the entire liver.
31
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
32. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning ADULT intussusception, which one is TRUE?
235.
A. Most surgical cases are caused by a structural lesion.
B. Carcinoid is the most common malignancy to cause a colocolic intussusception.
C. Symptomatic intussusception is more common in adults than children.
D. Asymptomatic small bowel intussusceptions commonly require surgery.
Question #235
Rationales:
A. Correct. In most adult cases, intussusception is associated with a bowel-related structural
abnormality.
B. Incorrect. About 40% of adult intussusceptions are caused by malignant neoplasms. In the colon,
primary adenocarcinoma is the most common.
C. Incorrect. Intussusception is most commonly a disease of childhood. Eighty-five to ninety-five per-
cent of intussusceptions occur in children. Ninety-five percent of pediatric intussusceptions are idio-
pathic. However, there is some evidence to suggest that viral infection causing Peyer patch enlarge-
ment could be the underlying etiology in many cases.
D. Incorrect. A short-segment, relatively asymptomatic or incidental enteroenteric intussusception is fre-
quently noted with abdominal CT and MR in adults. These are not associated with significant small
bowel obstruction, are usually self-limiting and transient, and do not require surgical intervention.
32 American College of Radiology
33. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning Mirizzi syndrome, which one is TRUE?
236.
A. Mirizzi syndrome is caused by gallstone impaction in the common hepatic duct.
B. Mirizzi syndrome is facilitated by an anatomic variant.
C. Cholecystocolonic fistula can complicate Mirizzi syndrome.
D. Bile duct injury at surgery is less likely in cases of Mirizzi syndrome.
Question #236
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Mirizzi syndrome is a complication of longstanding cholelithiasis. It is caused by
impaction of a gallstone in the cystic duct or in the gallbladder neck. Extrinsic mass effect of the
stone in the cystic duct on the common hepatic duct (CHD) or associated inflammatory changes
extending to the CHD causes obstruction of the extrahepatic biliary tree
B. Correct. Mirizzi syndrome is defined as extrinsic obstruction of the common hepatic duct (CHD),
usually caused by mass effect from a stone lodged in the adjacent cystic duct. CHD compression is
more likely in patients with low cystic duct insertions, because the cystic duct runs more parallel
and in closer proximity to the CHD when this variant anatomy is present. Inflammatory changes
extending from the cystic duct or gallbladder neck can also cause narrowing of the bile duct.
C. Incorrect. A cholecystocholedochal (not cholecystocolonic) fistula is a complication of Mirizzi syn-
drome in 9 – 39% of cases. Fistula repair is required at the time of surgery. This requires either
choledochoplasty or hepaticojejunostomy.
D. Incorrect. Because of adhesions, inflammation and variant bile duct anatomy, the surgical dissection
is more difficult in Mirizzi syndrome. Inadvertent injury to the biliary tree or hepatic artery is more
likely. Although laparoscopic cholecystectomy can be performed successfully in patients with
Mirizzi syndrome, more require open cholecystectomy than in cases of uncomplicated cholecystitis.
33
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006
34. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, which one is TRUE?
237.
A. It is usually hyperdense during the arterial phase of contrast enhancement.
B. It demonstrates washout during delayed CT imaging.
C. Postobstructive hepatic atrophy can be a prominent feature.
D. Extrahepatic spread of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is uncommon.
Question #237
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. In the absence of primary sclerosing cholangitis, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma usually
presents as a bulky mass. The lesion tends to be hypodense to background liver on noncontrast CTs.
Following the dynamic administration of IV contrast, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma tends to
remain relatively hypovascular (not hyperdense), particularly centrally.
B. Incorrect. Increased patchy enhancement can be observed during the portal venous phase. Retention
of contrast within the extracellular space of the central stoma at delayed CT imaging (5 – 10 min-
utes) is relatively characteristic for these lesions.
C. Correct. High-grade obstruction from intrahepatic and hilar cholangiocarcinomas can cause atrophy
of the hepatic parenchyma surrounding the pathologically dilated biliary tree. Capsular retraction
occurs in about 20% of cases. This retraction likely reflects the atrophy of a small volume of hepat-
ic parenchyma beneath Glisson’s capsule. Surprisingly marked segmental and lobar atrophy can
occur when cholangiocarcinoma affects more central intrahepatic or hilar bile ducts.
D. Incorrect. The extrahepatic spread of peripheral, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is not uncommon.
In autopsy series, it is noted in about 50 – 70% of cases. Metastatic disease to regional celiac and
left gastric nodes occurs frequently. The prevalence of microscopic nodal disease with its tendency
to spread back to the liver makes the preoperative diagnosis of cholangiocarcinoma a contraindica-
tion for hepatic transplantation.
34 American College of Radiology
35. Section IX – Gastrointestinal Radiology
Concerning Crohn’s disease, which one is TRUE?
238.
A. In the United States, ulcerative colitis is less common than Crohn’s disease.
B. Ulcerative colitis can affect any part of the alimentary tract.
C. Crohn’s disease is limited to the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract.
D. Crohn’s disease does not contiguously affect the bowel.
Question #238
Rationales:
A. Incorrect. Among the general population of the United States, ulcerative colitis is more common
than Crohn’s disease. The incidence of ulcerative colitis is 11 per 100,000. The incidence of
Crohn’s disease is about 7 per 100,000.
B. Incorrect. Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the
anus. About 75% of Crohn’s patients will have disease of the small intestine, without or with con-
comitant disease elsewhere. Of all patients with small intestinal Crohn’s, 90% have involvement of
the terminal ileum. Ulcerative colitis affects the colon. The terminal ileum can be secondarily affect-
ed, backwash ileitis.
C. Incorrect. Crohn’s disease is associated with transmural inflammation of the bowel wall. At histol-
ogy, noncaseating granulomas can be found throughout all layers, from the mucosa to the serosa.
Granulomas, lymphoid aggregates, inflammatory changes and fissures can penetrate through the
bowel wall to involve the adjacent mesentery (fibrofatty change) and mesenteric lymph nodes.
D. Correct. Crohn’s disease tends to have a discontinuous distribution. Lengths of involved gut will
have disease free segments or “skip areas”. Crohn’s disease often spares the rectum. This contrasts
with ulcerative colitis, in which the rectum is almost always involved. In ulcerative colitis, disease
extends upstream from the rectum and is continuous, without intervening normal segments.
35
Diagnostic In-Training Exam 2006