This document provides rationales for answers on a diagnostic radiology exam related to musculoskeletal radiology. The case presented involves radiographs and MRI images of various musculoskeletal injuries and conditions. The correct diagnosis for each case is provided along with explanations for why the other answer choices are incorrect. Key details that help distinguish between similar conditions are emphasized, such as findings that are more or less typical for a given diagnosis. A variety of musculoskeletal injuries, abnormalities, and diseases are discussed.
The document provides rationales for questions on an interventional radiology exam. It includes descriptions of imaging findings and the correct answers for 7 multiple choice questions. For each question, it summarizes the key imaging findings and explains why the correct answer is right and the other options are wrong based on those findings and published references. The questions cover topics like cholangiocarcinoma, splenic artery occlusion, pneumothorax management, mesenteric ischemia, Eustachian valve, gonadal vein reflux, and popliteal artery entrapment syndrome.
A post-menopausal woman presented with an asymptomatic 3.0 cm simple ovarian cyst. Of the following statements, the one that is TRUE is that the cyst should be removed if the patient has an increased serum CA-125 level. A simple cyst under 5.0 cm in diameter in a post-menopausal woman has a very low risk of malignancy and can be followed with serial ultrasounds without surgery. The most common neoplasm found on surgical removal of these cysts is a serous cystadenoma, not a fibrothecoma.
The document provides rationales for questions on a diagnostic radiology exam. Question 29 asks about an image showing changes in the small bowel. The most likely diagnosis is graft versus host disease based on the classic "ribbon bowel" appearance seen in the image. Graft versus host disease produces a total absence of mucosal folds in the small bowel, typically seen in the ileum rather than jejunum as seen in the image. This appearance is distinct from other potential diagnoses that may also cause small bowel abnormalities.
This document contains rationales for questions on the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to cardiac radiology. Question 102 asks which statement about cardiomyopathies is true. The correct answer is that cyclosporine immunosuppressive therapy can cause left ventricular hypertrophy. Cyclosporine is used after cardiac transplantation and can result in left ventricular hypertrophy as a side effect.
The document discusses rationales for questions on the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to nuclear radiology. It provides details and images from various nuclear medicine studies, including thyroid scintigraphy, bone scintigraphy, renal scintigraphy, CNS shunt study, pulmonary perfusion scan, PET imaging, and radioimmunotherapy. For each question, it discusses the correct answer and explains why the other answer options are incorrect based on the findings and characteristics of the studies.
- Echogenic intracardiac focus is most commonly seen as a normal variant on prenatal ultrasound but should prompt careful examination for other abnormalities.
- While it represents a normal variant, echogenic intracardiac focus has been associated with trisomy 13 and 21 but not trisomy 18.
- The majority (90%) of echogenic intracardiac foci are located in the left ventricle, not the right ventricle as stated in one response option.
Gallium-67 citrate scintigraphy is preferred over In-111 leukocyte scintigraphy for the detection of disk space infection. While both agents are sensitive for osteomyelitis, gallium-67 has been shown to be more sensitive for disc space infection compared to In-111 leukocyte imaging. This is due to potentially confusing normal bowel activity seen on gallium-67 scans that could obscure abdominal pathology. In-111 leukocyte imaging is generally preferred for evaluating other infectious/inflammatory conditions like abdominal abscesses and infected joint prostheses due to less potential for false positives from normal biodistribution.
This document contains 3 figures and associated questions from a diagnostic radiology in-training examination. Figure 1 shows images from an F-18 FDG PET study in a man with abdominal pain. Figure 2 shows a posterior Tc-99m bone scintigram in a man with back pain. Figure 3 shows an anterior whole body Tc-99m bone scan in a woman with head and neck pain and a history of thyroid cancer. The questions assess the examinee's ability to interpret the images and select the most likely diagnosis.
The document provides rationales for questions on an interventional radiology exam. It includes descriptions of imaging findings and the correct answers for 7 multiple choice questions. For each question, it summarizes the key imaging findings and explains why the correct answer is right and the other options are wrong based on those findings and published references. The questions cover topics like cholangiocarcinoma, splenic artery occlusion, pneumothorax management, mesenteric ischemia, Eustachian valve, gonadal vein reflux, and popliteal artery entrapment syndrome.
A post-menopausal woman presented with an asymptomatic 3.0 cm simple ovarian cyst. Of the following statements, the one that is TRUE is that the cyst should be removed if the patient has an increased serum CA-125 level. A simple cyst under 5.0 cm in diameter in a post-menopausal woman has a very low risk of malignancy and can be followed with serial ultrasounds without surgery. The most common neoplasm found on surgical removal of these cysts is a serous cystadenoma, not a fibrothecoma.
The document provides rationales for questions on a diagnostic radiology exam. Question 29 asks about an image showing changes in the small bowel. The most likely diagnosis is graft versus host disease based on the classic "ribbon bowel" appearance seen in the image. Graft versus host disease produces a total absence of mucosal folds in the small bowel, typically seen in the ileum rather than jejunum as seen in the image. This appearance is distinct from other potential diagnoses that may also cause small bowel abnormalities.
This document contains rationales for questions on the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to cardiac radiology. Question 102 asks which statement about cardiomyopathies is true. The correct answer is that cyclosporine immunosuppressive therapy can cause left ventricular hypertrophy. Cyclosporine is used after cardiac transplantation and can result in left ventricular hypertrophy as a side effect.
The document discusses rationales for questions on the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to nuclear radiology. It provides details and images from various nuclear medicine studies, including thyroid scintigraphy, bone scintigraphy, renal scintigraphy, CNS shunt study, pulmonary perfusion scan, PET imaging, and radioimmunotherapy. For each question, it discusses the correct answer and explains why the other answer options are incorrect based on the findings and characteristics of the studies.
- Echogenic intracardiac focus is most commonly seen as a normal variant on prenatal ultrasound but should prompt careful examination for other abnormalities.
- While it represents a normal variant, echogenic intracardiac focus has been associated with trisomy 13 and 21 but not trisomy 18.
- The majority (90%) of echogenic intracardiac foci are located in the left ventricle, not the right ventricle as stated in one response option.
Gallium-67 citrate scintigraphy is preferred over In-111 leukocyte scintigraphy for the detection of disk space infection. While both agents are sensitive for osteomyelitis, gallium-67 has been shown to be more sensitive for disc space infection compared to In-111 leukocyte imaging. This is due to potentially confusing normal bowel activity seen on gallium-67 scans that could obscure abdominal pathology. In-111 leukocyte imaging is generally preferred for evaluating other infectious/inflammatory conditions like abdominal abscesses and infected joint prostheses due to less potential for false positives from normal biodistribution.
This document contains 3 figures and associated questions from a diagnostic radiology in-training examination. Figure 1 shows images from an F-18 FDG PET study in a man with abdominal pain. Figure 2 shows a posterior Tc-99m bone scintigram in a man with back pain. Figure 3 shows an anterior whole body Tc-99m bone scan in a woman with head and neck pain and a history of thyroid cancer. The questions assess the examinee's ability to interpret the images and select the most likely diagnosis.
The document discusses several radiology cases involving the brain and spine. Question 291 presents CT scans of a woman with headaches and asks for the most likely diagnosis of a fat-containing extraconal orbital mass. Question 292 shows MR images of a woman with extremity weakness and asks for the most likely diagnosis of multiple brain and spine lesions. Question 293 presents MR images of a man with back pain and asks for the diagnosis of a posterior spinal mass seen on the images.
This document contains rationales for exam questions related to neuroradiology. Question 70 describes images showing increased T2 signal in the dorsal columns of the cervical spinal cord. The most likely diagnosis is subacute combined degeneration, which is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency and commonly presents with numbness in the hands. Question 71 concerns images of a child with seizures and developmental delay, showing features of holoprosencephaly. Question 72 discusses images of a man with seizures, showing a punctate calcification with ring enhancement, most consistent with cysticercosis given the patient's Hispanic ethnicity.
This document contains rationales for questions on the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to breast radiology. The rationales discuss the correct answers and explain why the other answer options are incorrect based on imaging findings and characteristics of different breast diseases. Invasive lobular carcinoma is identified as the most likely diagnosis for one case based on its appearance on mammography of being seen best on one view only or at least.
This document contains rationales for questions from the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to pediatric radiology. It provides the correct answer and an explanation for each question, referencing imaging findings and typical presentations of various pediatric conditions like congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation, hematometrocolpos, pulmonary sling, Hirschsprung's disease and more. Key anatomic and imaging features are discussed in the rationales to explain why each answer choice is right or wrong.
This document contains a radiology case study with 4 images (Figures 1-4) and accompanying questions. Figure 1 shows a lateral cervical spine x-ray. The diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis based on diffuse bony ankylosis throughout the cervical spine. Figure 2 shows MRI images of the knee with a diagnosis of discoid meniscus due to excessive meniscal tissue. Figure 3 shows x-rays of the leg with a diagnosis of Brodie's abscess, seen as an elongated lytic lesion in the tibia. Figure 4 shows knee images of a 13-year-old boy with a diagnosis of chondroblastoma, seen as a well-defined lesion in the proximal tib
This document provides rationales for questions on the 2005 American College of Radiology Diagnostic In-Training Examination for interventional radiology residents. It includes the questions, images associated with some questions, findings for each image, and rationales for the correct answers. The questions cover topics such as locations of dialysis catheters, diagnoses for angiograms, standards for uterine artery embolization, and indications for percutaneous nephrostomy.
This document provides rationales for questions on the 28th Annual In-Training Examination for Diagnostic Radiology Residents. It includes explanations for answers to 5 multiple choice questions related to pediatric radiology cases. The questions cover topics such as autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease, everting ureterocele, necrotizing enterocolitis, non-accidental trauma, and vein of Galen aneurysm. The rationales discuss the findings in the images and explain why each answer choice is right or wrong based on those findings and typical presentations of the diseases.
This document provides rationales for questions from the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to ultrasound imaging. It discusses the correct answers and rationales for questions regarding various pathologies seen on ultrasound of the uterus, testes, kidneys, abdomen and fetal anatomy. Key details include identifying a cornual pregnancy based on its location, tubular ectasia of the rete testis in an older male, medullary nephrocalcinosis seen as echogenic renal pyramids, the left renal vein in the transverse abdominal image, and measuring fetal head circumference at the level of the thalami and cavum septi pellucidi.
This document appears to be a series of questions and answers from a diagnostic radiology in-training examination. The questions cover topics in genitourinary tract radiology and ask examinees to identify diagnoses, classifications, or characteristics based on provided radiographic images and clinical scenarios. Rationales are given for each answer that provide additional radiologic and clinical details.
A 23-year-old woman presented with hearing loss. CT showed a soft tissue mass in the left middle ear cavity eroding the scutum and demineralizing the ossicles. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, a common middle ear soft tissue mass.
A 68-year-old woman presented with left eye pain and proptosis. Angiography showed early filling of both cavernous sinuses and ophthalmic veins, indicating a carotid-cavernous fistula.
MR of a 6-month-old boy with vomiting showed a large enhancing mass in the left lateral ventricle with flow voids. The most likely diagnosis is a choroid plexus
The document describes 3 radiology case studies involving the gastrointestinal system:
1) A case of scleroderma diagnosed based on an x-ray showing dilation of the small bowel with closely spaced folds.
2) A case of appendicitis diagnosed on CT showing an enlarged appendix with periappendiceal inflammation and an appendicolith.
3) A case of a gastric leiomyoma diagnosed on barium study and CT showing a rounded filling defect in the stomach with central ulceration arising from the gastric wall.
The document discusses images from radiology exams of the pelvis and genitourinary system. Figure 1 shows a sagittal MRI of the pelvis showing diffuse thickening of the junctional zone, consistent with adenomyosis. Figures 2A and 2B show an intratesticular mass on ultrasound, indicating seminoma. Figures 3A-C show an ovarian teratoma on ultrasound and MRI of the pelvis in a pregnant patient. Figure 4 shows a bladder tumor on CT scan in a patient with hematuria. Figure 5 shows a hysterosalpingogram indicating Asherman's syndrome. Figures 6A-C show renal cell carcinoma extending into the renal vein, stage IIIA by
- The radiographs show diffusely decreased bone density in the hand of a 40-year-old woman, with multiple subluxed MCP and IP joints and dislocation of the 5th PIP joint that is nearly reduced on the PA view. No erosions or productive changes are seen.
- The most likely diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis given the diffuse decreased bone density, subluxations, and dislocations seen which are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, SLE, scleroderma, and erosive osteoarthritis are less likely given the lack of findings more characteristic of those conditions such as erosions or productive changes.
The document is the rationales section from an in-training examination for diagnostic radiology residents sponsored by the American College of Radiology. It contains multiple choice questions in physics related to topics like radiation dose, CT, MRI, fluoroscopy, and radiography. For each question, the correct answer is identified and supported by a short explanation citing relevant references.
This case study describes a 10-year-old female patient presenting with right hip pain and limp. An MRI revealed avascular necrosis of the right femoral epiphysis, classified as Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease involves necrosis of the femoral head epiphysis and predominantly affects children aged 3-12 years old. The document further discusses the classification, imaging findings, diagnosis, treatment and differential diagnosis of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease.
Previous year question on bone cyst based on neet pg, usmle, plab and fmge or...Medico Apps
- Aneurysmal bone cyst cannot be diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) according to the document.
- FNAC of aneurysmal bone cyst shows only red blood cells and is inconclusive for diagnosis.
- Cystic lesions such as aneurysmal bone cyst, unicameral bone cyst, and some telangiectatic osteosarcomas yield specimens containing predominantly blood or fluid with little diagnostic cellular content making diagnosis via FNAC difficult.
Perthes disease, also known as Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, is caused by impaired blood flow in the femoral head that leads to bone death in children aged 3-12 years old, causing deformity of the femoral head; it is more common in boys and whites and symptoms include limping and hip pain that varies depending on the stage of bone regeneration. Genetic factors and growth abnormalities play a role in its development.
This document defines Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease as a condition that disrupts the blood supply to the femoral head, causing bone death. It progresses through stages of bone resorption and remodeling. Treatment aims to restore mobility and prevent deformity through symptomatic care, bracing, or surgery depending on the child's age and stage of disease. Surgical options include osteotomies and shelf procedures to contain the femoral head within the acetabulum.
This document provides information on Legg Calve Perthes disease, including:
- A brief history of its discovery and description by Legg, Calve, and Perthes.
- Its definition as osteonecrosis of the femoral epiphysis in children caused by non-genetic factors.
- Presentation, diagnosis using imaging like x-rays and MRI, and classifications of severity.
- Management involves containment of the femoral head through bracing, casting, or surgery depending on the stage and prognosis. The goal is to prevent secondary arthritis by achieving a spherical femoral head.
The document is about a school in Parnu, Estonia called Parnu Toimetulekukool that provides education for children with special needs. It is the 5th anniversary of the school. The article was written by Signe Leht.
The document discusses several radiology cases involving the brain and spine. Question 291 presents CT scans of a woman with headaches and asks for the most likely diagnosis of a fat-containing extraconal orbital mass. Question 292 shows MR images of a woman with extremity weakness and asks for the most likely diagnosis of multiple brain and spine lesions. Question 293 presents MR images of a man with back pain and asks for the diagnosis of a posterior spinal mass seen on the images.
This document contains rationales for exam questions related to neuroradiology. Question 70 describes images showing increased T2 signal in the dorsal columns of the cervical spinal cord. The most likely diagnosis is subacute combined degeneration, which is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency and commonly presents with numbness in the hands. Question 71 concerns images of a child with seizures and developmental delay, showing features of holoprosencephaly. Question 72 discusses images of a man with seizures, showing a punctate calcification with ring enhancement, most consistent with cysticercosis given the patient's Hispanic ethnicity.
This document contains rationales for questions on the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to breast radiology. The rationales discuss the correct answers and explain why the other answer options are incorrect based on imaging findings and characteristics of different breast diseases. Invasive lobular carcinoma is identified as the most likely diagnosis for one case based on its appearance on mammography of being seen best on one view only or at least.
This document contains rationales for questions from the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to pediatric radiology. It provides the correct answer and an explanation for each question, referencing imaging findings and typical presentations of various pediatric conditions like congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation, hematometrocolpos, pulmonary sling, Hirschsprung's disease and more. Key anatomic and imaging features are discussed in the rationales to explain why each answer choice is right or wrong.
This document contains a radiology case study with 4 images (Figures 1-4) and accompanying questions. Figure 1 shows a lateral cervical spine x-ray. The diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis based on diffuse bony ankylosis throughout the cervical spine. Figure 2 shows MRI images of the knee with a diagnosis of discoid meniscus due to excessive meniscal tissue. Figure 3 shows x-rays of the leg with a diagnosis of Brodie's abscess, seen as an elongated lytic lesion in the tibia. Figure 4 shows knee images of a 13-year-old boy with a diagnosis of chondroblastoma, seen as a well-defined lesion in the proximal tib
This document provides rationales for questions on the 2005 American College of Radiology Diagnostic In-Training Examination for interventional radiology residents. It includes the questions, images associated with some questions, findings for each image, and rationales for the correct answers. The questions cover topics such as locations of dialysis catheters, diagnoses for angiograms, standards for uterine artery embolization, and indications for percutaneous nephrostomy.
This document provides rationales for questions on the 28th Annual In-Training Examination for Diagnostic Radiology Residents. It includes explanations for answers to 5 multiple choice questions related to pediatric radiology cases. The questions cover topics such as autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease, everting ureterocele, necrotizing enterocolitis, non-accidental trauma, and vein of Galen aneurysm. The rationales discuss the findings in the images and explain why each answer choice is right or wrong based on those findings and typical presentations of the diseases.
This document provides rationales for questions from the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam related to ultrasound imaging. It discusses the correct answers and rationales for questions regarding various pathologies seen on ultrasound of the uterus, testes, kidneys, abdomen and fetal anatomy. Key details include identifying a cornual pregnancy based on its location, tubular ectasia of the rete testis in an older male, medullary nephrocalcinosis seen as echogenic renal pyramids, the left renal vein in the transverse abdominal image, and measuring fetal head circumference at the level of the thalami and cavum septi pellucidi.
This document appears to be a series of questions and answers from a diagnostic radiology in-training examination. The questions cover topics in genitourinary tract radiology and ask examinees to identify diagnoses, classifications, or characteristics based on provided radiographic images and clinical scenarios. Rationales are given for each answer that provide additional radiologic and clinical details.
A 23-year-old woman presented with hearing loss. CT showed a soft tissue mass in the left middle ear cavity eroding the scutum and demineralizing the ossicles. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, a common middle ear soft tissue mass.
A 68-year-old woman presented with left eye pain and proptosis. Angiography showed early filling of both cavernous sinuses and ophthalmic veins, indicating a carotid-cavernous fistula.
MR of a 6-month-old boy with vomiting showed a large enhancing mass in the left lateral ventricle with flow voids. The most likely diagnosis is a choroid plexus
The document describes 3 radiology case studies involving the gastrointestinal system:
1) A case of scleroderma diagnosed based on an x-ray showing dilation of the small bowel with closely spaced folds.
2) A case of appendicitis diagnosed on CT showing an enlarged appendix with periappendiceal inflammation and an appendicolith.
3) A case of a gastric leiomyoma diagnosed on barium study and CT showing a rounded filling defect in the stomach with central ulceration arising from the gastric wall.
The document discusses images from radiology exams of the pelvis and genitourinary system. Figure 1 shows a sagittal MRI of the pelvis showing diffuse thickening of the junctional zone, consistent with adenomyosis. Figures 2A and 2B show an intratesticular mass on ultrasound, indicating seminoma. Figures 3A-C show an ovarian teratoma on ultrasound and MRI of the pelvis in a pregnant patient. Figure 4 shows a bladder tumor on CT scan in a patient with hematuria. Figure 5 shows a hysterosalpingogram indicating Asherman's syndrome. Figures 6A-C show renal cell carcinoma extending into the renal vein, stage IIIA by
- The radiographs show diffusely decreased bone density in the hand of a 40-year-old woman, with multiple subluxed MCP and IP joints and dislocation of the 5th PIP joint that is nearly reduced on the PA view. No erosions or productive changes are seen.
- The most likely diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis given the diffuse decreased bone density, subluxations, and dislocations seen which are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, SLE, scleroderma, and erosive osteoarthritis are less likely given the lack of findings more characteristic of those conditions such as erosions or productive changes.
The document is the rationales section from an in-training examination for diagnostic radiology residents sponsored by the American College of Radiology. It contains multiple choice questions in physics related to topics like radiation dose, CT, MRI, fluoroscopy, and radiography. For each question, the correct answer is identified and supported by a short explanation citing relevant references.
This case study describes a 10-year-old female patient presenting with right hip pain and limp. An MRI revealed avascular necrosis of the right femoral epiphysis, classified as Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease involves necrosis of the femoral head epiphysis and predominantly affects children aged 3-12 years old. The document further discusses the classification, imaging findings, diagnosis, treatment and differential diagnosis of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease.
Previous year question on bone cyst based on neet pg, usmle, plab and fmge or...Medico Apps
- Aneurysmal bone cyst cannot be diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) according to the document.
- FNAC of aneurysmal bone cyst shows only red blood cells and is inconclusive for diagnosis.
- Cystic lesions such as aneurysmal bone cyst, unicameral bone cyst, and some telangiectatic osteosarcomas yield specimens containing predominantly blood or fluid with little diagnostic cellular content making diagnosis via FNAC difficult.
Perthes disease, also known as Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, is caused by impaired blood flow in the femoral head that leads to bone death in children aged 3-12 years old, causing deformity of the femoral head; it is more common in boys and whites and symptoms include limping and hip pain that varies depending on the stage of bone regeneration. Genetic factors and growth abnormalities play a role in its development.
This document defines Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease as a condition that disrupts the blood supply to the femoral head, causing bone death. It progresses through stages of bone resorption and remodeling. Treatment aims to restore mobility and prevent deformity through symptomatic care, bracing, or surgery depending on the child's age and stage of disease. Surgical options include osteotomies and shelf procedures to contain the femoral head within the acetabulum.
This document provides information on Legg Calve Perthes disease, including:
- A brief history of its discovery and description by Legg, Calve, and Perthes.
- Its definition as osteonecrosis of the femoral epiphysis in children caused by non-genetic factors.
- Presentation, diagnosis using imaging like x-rays and MRI, and classifications of severity.
- Management involves containment of the femoral head through bracing, casting, or surgery depending on the stage and prognosis. The goal is to prevent secondary arthritis by achieving a spherical femoral head.
The document is about a school in Parnu, Estonia called Parnu Toimetulekukool that provides education for children with special needs. It is the 5th anniversary of the school. The article was written by Signe Leht.
Dalla più semplice informazione, con una fotografia dei fatti chiara e documentata, alla più complessa fornitura di dati di ricerca e analisi comparate
"5 Things in 5min" Series No.2 - Ms. CMO, 5 Reasons Why You Need CloudArun Cavale Cavale
No.2 in the "5 Things in 5 Minutes" Series. This presents 5 reasons why Chief Marketing Officers (CMOs) need to adopt Cloud. And stay relevant in a profession that is rapidly changing.
Travel With Us offers a variety of travel packages including cruises, island vacations, and exclusive getaways. They target customers of all ages, from teens to families and couples. Their employees are energetic, excited about travel, and able to book trips and ensure customer happiness. Both short-term and long-term, their goals are to book many customers and become a well-known travel agency through commercials, billboards, flyers and word-of-mouth from satisfied customers.
The document contains financial data for turnover, profit, return on equity, and equity/assets ratio for an unspecified company. Turnover and profit are measured in millions of Swedish krona, while return on equity and equity/assets ratio are percentages. The document provides key financial metrics but no additional context about the company.
The LLPA forum ,known in Bar Ilan university as "Mamad",is a common organized group of students trying to provide an immediate help for those students who are not able to function under the burden of supporting their families,Finnacialy and morally.We are trying all the time to widen our acquaintances with other students and people that are interested in volunteering for their fellow students around the country.
This document discusses principles of financial and cost accounting. It asserts that there are only 14 types of cash flows and 28 types of accounting transactions that need to be understood. These transactions can be organized using a "Churchill Chart" to determine the costs of activities. Only accounting categorized as costs using this method can be validly claimed as costs. The document emphasizes that cost-based accounting is necessary for correctly assessing performance, accountability, and control. Diagrams of the Churchill Chart and an accounting flow chart are provided to illustrate the accounting principles.
The document describes several events involving disabled individuals and students in Kraków, Poland between 2006 and 2007. It mentions a student winning an event in Kraków in 2007, concerts honoring Pope John Paul II at a culture center featuring disabled people and students, and the promotion of a poem by a disabled author at a center named after Pope John Paul II in Kraków. It also notes memorial events involving disabled people from various parts of Małopolska where poems were recited, and mentions disabled people and volunteers leading religious services at a temple.
The document provides basic instructions for using Twitter, including how to write tweets, follow others, search for people, view profiles, reply to and retweet tweets, favorite tweets, use hashtags, and use common Twitter shorthand abbreviations. It also notes that initially using Twitter can feel like being the new kid in school where others already know each other, but to keep using it to find people of interest as they likely have something to learn from you as well.
This document discusses trigonometric limits and provides examples. It outlines important limits such as the limits of sine, cosine, and tangent as the angle approaches 0. Examples are given to demonstrate how to evaluate various trigonometric limits. The document concludes with homework problems and additional examples for practice.
This document discusses using screen capture and recording tools like Jing and Voicethread for teaching, training, tutoring, and assessing. It provides an overview of Jing, describing it as a quick solution for simple video tutorials, and demonstrates how to use Jing to record screen captures and narration. It also introduces Voicethread as an asynchronous and engaging tool that allows for dialogue and conversation, and demonstrates how to create and share a Voicethread project. The document aims to illustrate how these free or low-cost tools can add visual and audio elements to online instruction.
Norfolk and Portsmouth, Virginia are highlighted as an up-and-coming metropolitan area located on the coast with a thriving port. The cities offer amenities such as beaches, museums, and a revitalized downtown. Recent economic development initiatives have encouraged growth of businesses, including those owned by minorities. The region has experienced increasing tourism and airport traffic, highlighting its status as a transportation hub on the East Coast.
Keynote address at Innovation in Tertiary Education Services 2014 conference, Auckland, New Zealand, 5th May 2014.
Discusses how MOOCs are stimulating a climate of innovation and change in education online, shows case studies of innovative teaching formats in a range of Universities and Community Colleges.
Argues that MOOCs are performing at plateau of stable expectations, and that their greatest impact is a set of invigorated conversations around cost, access, quality and delivery of education.
Compares two interdisciplinary courses, one a blended/hybrid course at Harrisburg Community Colleges, and one offered later as a MOOC at UC Irvine, both using topic of Zombies as a vehicle.
Concludes that MOOCs have unleashed an innovative set of approaches across HE (rather than being in them selves innovative). Schools focussed on classroom delivery have an opportunity to re-invent what they do. Elite institutions can use the MOOC as an intermediary format for delivering their content across multiple formats
El documento resume los principales períodos del ciclo litúrgico cristiano, incluyendo Adviento, Navidad, Cuaresma, Semana Santa, Pascua y Tiempo Ordinario. Estos períodos conmemoran eventos clave en la vida de Jesús y María a lo largo del año y tienen diferentes énfasis como la preparación, alegría, penitencia y conmemoración de la resurrección.
The document appears to be excerpts from an examination for diagnostic radiology residents, including four multiple choice questions and associated images regarding musculoskeletal diagnoses. Question #202 asks about a lateral tibial lesion in a child and provides images. The most likely diagnosis is osteofibrous dysplasia, characterized by a lobulated lucency in the anterior cortex associated with anterior bowing of the tibia.
This patient presents with knee pain. Imaging shows a lesion within the epiphysis of the knee. On MRI, the lesion has low signal on T1 and T2 weighted images with a low signal margin and no aggressive features. The most likely diagnosis is chondroblastoma, which is a rare benign epiphyseal tumor seen in children before growth plate closure that appears as a well-defined lytic lesion on radiographs and MRI.
Impingement Femoroacetabular - Lee en forma critica...no todo lo que de dice ...Victor Olivares
Entiende, evalua y trata de una manera diferente las patologias de cadera. El impingemet (FAI) es una entidad muy estudiada medicamente y muy poco desarrollada y entendida en kinesiologia. Aprende nuevas formas de trabajar la cadera www.kinedecadera.com, cursos de manejo de la cadera en www.cursosdekine.com
This document provides an overview of MRI imaging protocols and findings related to the hip joint. It discusses common pathologies seen in the hip such as avascular necrosis, transient osteoporosis, Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, slipped capital femoral epiphysis, and femoro-acetabular impingement. Imaging findings for each condition are described along with associated anatomy, epidemiology, classification systems and differential diagnoses. Evaluation of muscle, labral injuries, bursitis and loose bodies are also covered.
This document discusses scoliosis, defined as a lateral curvature of the spine greater than 10 degrees. It covers the causes of scoliosis including idiopathic, congenital, post-traumatic, and those associated with various medical conditions. The patterns and types of scoliosis like infantile, juvenile, adolescent, and congenital are described. Clinical and radiological findings, treatment options like observation, bracing, and surgery, and examples of scoliosis cases are summarized.
This document discusses transient osteoporosis of the hip (TOH) and differentiates it from avascular necrosis (AVN). TOH typically involves healthy middle-aged men and involves acute hip pain without trauma. MRI findings show bone marrow edema that resolves within 6-8 months. AVN is typically associated with corticosteroid use, alcoholism, or trauma and shows subchondral changes on MRI with sclerosis or collapse not seen in TOH. The document presents five case studies demonstrating the MRI findings of TOH, with bone marrow edema that resolved without sequelae such as sclerosis or collapse seen in AVN.
This document discusses abusive fractures in children. It begins by outlining the objectives of understanding fracture incidence, types, mechanisms of injury, and evaluation methods. It then discusses the epidemiology of abusive fractures in children under 3 years old, noting higher rates in infants under 1. Specific fracture types are examined, including rib fractures caused by compression and classic metaphyseal lesions from shearing forces. The document emphasizes the importance of thorough medical evaluation, including skeletal surveys and follow up imaging to identify healing fractures. Proper diagnosis relies on correlation of clinical and radiographic findings while considering alternative explanations.
This document provides an overview of slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), including its definition, epidemiology, classification, presentation, imaging, treatment options, and treatment approach. SCFE is a displacement of the femoral head relative to the femoral neck via the growth plate. It most commonly presents as hip or knee pain in obese adolescent boys and girls. Imaging includes radiographs and MRI to assess the degree of slippage. Treatment depends on factors like stability and includes in situ pinning, proximal femoral osteotomy, or surgical hip dislocation. For unstable slips, urgent reduction and fixation is indicated. Mild stable slips are treated with in situ pinning while moderate to severe cases may require intertrochanteric
A 75-year-old woman presented with left buttock pain for several weeks. Her physical examination was normal except for a slight limp. Initial x-rays suggested a possible hip fracture, and an MRI confirmed a nondisplaced femoral neck fracture. While some hip fractures are obvious on x-rays, others can be more difficult to diagnose, especially if nondisplaced. Careful examination of the patient's history and use of additional imaging like MRI may be needed to identify fractures when pain persists but x-rays do not show an obvious fracture.
Lateral condyle of humerus fracture in childrenAnilKC5
This document discusses lateral condyle fractures of the distal humerus in children. It notes that these fractures have a higher risk of malunion, nonunion, and avascular necrosis than other elbow fractures in children. Treatment depends on the degree of articular displacement, and may involve closed reduction with percutaneous pinning or open reduction and internal fixation. Complications can include elbow stiffness, cubital deformities, growth disturbances, osteonecrosis, and mal/non-union. Proper imaging including stress views are important to evaluate displacement and stability to guide treatment.
This document discusses various pediatric musculoskeletal disorders and conditions that can affect the knee joint, as seen on imaging such as MRI and radiography. It covers developmental disorders like congenital absence of cruciate ligaments and discoid meniscus. It also discusses infectious diseases like osteomyelitis, inflammatory diseases such as pigmented villonodular synovitis, neoplastic conditions including benign tumors like osteochondroma and malignant tumors like osteosarcoma. A variety of imaging findings are presented for each condition.
Orthopedic Aspects Of Metabolic Bone Disease By XiuXiu Srithammasit
This document summarizes various metabolic bone diseases and their orthopedic manifestations and radiographic findings. It covers osteoporosis, rickets and osteomalacia, hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and renal osteodystrophy. For each condition, it describes clinical presentation, pathogenesis, characteristic radiographic findings including areas of bone involvement and patterns of bone changes, and differential diagnoses.
Osteonecrosis, also known as avascular necrosis, occurs when bone loses its blood supply and dies. It most commonly affects the femoral head. Early symptoms are often absent. As collapse occurs, pain and loss of function increase. Risk factors include alcoholism, corticosteroid use, trauma, and idiopathic causes. MRI is the most sensitive imaging test, showing changes in signal intensity and double line signs. Staging systems evaluate extent of involvement and prognosis. Treatment depends on stage, with core decompression or hip replacement for late stages with collapse.
1. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is a slippage of the femoral head through the growth plate that commonly occurs in obese adolescent males.
2. Traumatic hip dislocation can occur from direct trauma and results in the femoral head being displaced from the acetabulum, causing pain and inability to walk. Posterior dislocations are most common.
3. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease involving cartilage breakdown and new bone formation. It commonly affects the hip in older adults and results in pain and stiffness that can be relieved by medications or treated with hip replacement surgery.
A 71-year-old woman was in a car accident and presented with an incomplete spinal cord injury at C6-7. Imaging showed a distractive injury at C6-7. She underwent surgical treatment with lateral mass screws at C5-C6 and pedicle screws at C7-T1, which restored alignment. After 6 months, she had some neurologic improvement. Subaxial cervical fractures are common from C3-C7 and can occur from compression, burst, flexion, or extension mechanisms. Classification systems include the Subaxial Injury Classification Score and Cervical Spine Injury Severity Score to determine treatment. Nonoperative and operative treatment options were discussed.
This document provides information from the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons on adult reconstructive hip and knee surgery. It includes 7 cases with radiographs, descriptions of patients' symptoms and medical histories. Each case is followed by multiple choice questions testing understanding of the case. The document discusses preferred responses and provides references to support clinical reasoning for each response.
Presentation1, radiological imaging of slipped femoral capital epiphysis.Abdellah Nazeer
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is a common hip condition in adolescents where the femoral head slides out of position from the femoral neck. It typically presents with hip or knee pain and can cause leg length discrepancies. Radiographs are used to diagnose SCFE by looking for signs of physis widening and femoral head displacement. More advanced imaging like CT, MRI, and ultrasound can provide additional details but radiographs remain the primary imaging method used. Left untreated, SCFE can lead to long term deformities and osteoarthritis.
The document discusses injuries to the spine. It covers the epidemiology, anatomy, classification of injuries as stable or unstable, and mechanisms of injury. It then describes specific cervical and thoracolumbar spine injuries, including fractures, dislocations, and treatment approaches which may involve immobilization, traction, or surgery.
The document discusses femoral neck fractures, including:
- Anatomy of the hip joint and blood supply of the femoral neck
- Mechanisms of injury including low-energy falls in the elderly
- Classification systems including Garden and Pauwel classifications
- Clinical features such as pain on hip motion and inability to perform straight leg raises
- Diagnosis using x-rays and other imaging modalities like CT and MRI
- Treatment goals of minimizing discomfort, restoring function, and obtaining early anatomic reduction and stable fixation
This document contains rationales for questions from the 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam. The rationales provide explanations for the correct answers to multiple choice questions related to diagnostic radiology topics including test sensitivity and predictive values, medical ethics, and radiation safety. Specifically, one rationale discusses how the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test increases as the prevalence of a disease increases in a population. Another rationale examines the ethical requirement for physicians to be honest with patients about medical errors or complications. A third rationale identifies radon exposure as contributing the most to background radiation levels in the US.
The document discusses rationales for exam questions related to chest radiology. Question 202 discusses a CT scan showing a smooth, round upper lobe mass with eccentric calcifications and air-trapping. The most likely diagnosis is a carcinoid tumor. Question 203 shows chest radiographs of a man with cough, demonstrating a classic right upper lobe collapse with a "Reverse S of Golden" suggestive of a central mass. Question 204 involves a CT scan showing post-intubation tracheal narrowing below the thoracic inlet.
This document contains a multiple choice question and rationales from a pediatric radiology exam. The question shows MRI images of a 22-week fetus and asks for the most likely diagnosis. The rationales eliminate the other answer choices of posterior urethral valves, multicystic dysplastic kidneys, and bilateral ureteropelvic junction obstruction. The correct answer is Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease, as the images show enlarged, fluid-intensity kidneys without urine production, typical of this condition.
The document discusses randomized controlled trials and which statements about them are true. It states that option C, "Randomization reduces the risk of an imbalance in factors which could influence the clinical course of the patients," is true. Randomization helps balance both known and unknown prognostic factors between treatment groups in a randomized controlled trial.
This document contains 5 clinical case scenarios involving interventional radiology procedures (questions 265-269). Each case is accompanied by an image and 4 possible answers. The correct answer is identified and a brief rationale is provided for each case. Question 270-279 continue testing knowledge of interventional radiology with additional multiple choice questions related to procedures, techniques, and disease processes.
The document discusses gastrointestinal radiology and contains questions and answers about various gastrointestinal conditions and imaging findings. Question 226 asks which finding on helical CT with dynamic bolus contrast enhancement is the best prognostic indicator of acute pancreatitis. The correct answer is the presence of pancreatic necrosis.
This document contains a series of chest radiograph and CT images along with questions about cardiac findings.
Image 1 shows calcification of the aortic valve on a lateral chest x-ray, consistent with aortic stenosis.
Image 2 shows calcifications in the wall of the left atrium on a non-contrast CT, related to prior endocarditis from rheumatic heart disease.
Image 3 demonstrates enlargement of the central pulmonary arteries and diminished peripheral vasculature on chest x-ray, characteristic of pulmonary hypertension due to emphysema (cor pulmonale).
Image 4 shows a defect in the superolateral aspect of the atrial septum on CT, consistent with a sinus
- The document discusses a chest radiograph and CT images of a 51-year-old man with shortness of breath. It shows bilateral perihilar opacities on chest radiograph and thin-walled cysts, ground glass opacities, and reticular opacities on CT.
- The most likely diagnosis is Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Findings are consistent with PCP including bilateral often perihilar reticular and ground glass opacification that may become confluent and cysts that are commonly multiple and have predilection for upper lobes.
- Other choices such as pulmonary alveolar proteinosis, cardiogenic pulmonary edema, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are
The document discusses breast radiology questions from an exam. Question 188 describes a case where a fibroadenoma was found on biopsy initially and a follow up mammogram 6 months later. The most likely diagnosis is a phyllodes tumor based on the description of phyllodes tumors typically appearing mammographically. Question 189 describes mammogram images and the most likely clinical presentation is peau d'orange skin in the left breast, indicative of inflammatory breast cancer. Question 190 involves calcifications on a mammogram and ductal carcinoma in situ is considered the most likely diagnosis.
This document contains information about the 28th Annual In-Training Examination for Diagnostic Radiology Residents, including sample test questions and rationales. The test is sponsored by the Commission on Education and Committee on Residency Training in Diagnostic Radiology of the American College of Radiology. Sample multiple choice questions are provided about various neuroradiology topics, such as diagnoses for different brain and spine imaging findings. Rationales are given for each answer choice.
1. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
Section IX Musculoskeletal Radiology
179. You are shown a lateral radiograph of the spine and AP radiograph of the
pelvis of a 60 year old man (Figures 1A and 1B). What is the MOST LIKELY
diagnosis?
A. Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. There is ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament involving
numerous (>4) levels with relative preservation of the disc spaces and there is
extensive bone proliferation at the pelvis, at the trochanters, ischial tuberosities,
iliac spines and iliac crests without sacroiliitis. These are typical features of DISH.
The most common site of involvement is the vertebral column, Forestier’s
disease, which characteristically involves the thoracic region. The preservation of
the disc spaces and extensive spinal involvement help distinguish DISH from
degenerative disc disease. Normal S-I joints exclude a diagnosis of AS which
may otherwise demonstrate a similar proliferative enthesopathy at the pelvis.
B. Incorrect. Sacroiliitis is a diagnostic criterion for ankylosing spondylitis and the
S-I joints in this case are normal. The syndesmophytes of AS represent
ossification of the annulus fibrosis of the disc and, therefore, are thinner and
more vertical than the ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament seen in
DISH.
C. Incorrect. The paravertebral ossification of Psoriatic arthritis, like that of
Reiter’s syndrome, is relatively larger, bulky or irregular, unilateral or asymmetric
in distribution and to the side of the vertebral column. The S-I joints may or may
not be involved. Proliferative ensethopathy at the pelvis may be present.
D. Incorrect. The posterior longitudinal ligament is not affected in this patient. Although
ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) may be seen at the thoracic
spine, with or without cervical spine involvement, isolated cervical spine involvement is
more typical. There are no associated abnormalities at the pelvis.
References:
Miller and Schweitzer. Diagnostic Musculoskeletal Imaging. McGraw-Hill, NY,
2005.
Resnick. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. 4th
ed. W.B. Saunders, NY,
2002
2. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
180. You are shown an axial fat-suppressed fast spin echo T2-weighted image
of a 16-year-old boy following knee trauma (Figure 2). What is the MOST
LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament
B. Hyperextension injury
C. Patellofemoral dislocation
D. Direct impaction (“dashboard”) injury
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Rupture of the ACL, caused by a valgus rotational injury, is
associated with bone contusions at the lateral aspect of the knee, consisting of
the weight-bearing portion of the lateral femoral condyle and the posterior aspect
of the lateral tibial plateau.
B. Incorrect. Hyperextension of the knee causes “kissing” bone bruises of the
anterior aspect of the femoral condyles and tibial plateau.
C. Correct. There is impaction fracture at the medial aspect of the patella, bone
bruise at the lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and partial tear of the
medial patella retinaculum. As the patella dislocates laterally, the medial
retinaculum is stretched. As the patella reduces spontaneously, the medial
aspect of the patella impacts the lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle.
This is often not suspected clinically.
D. Incorrect. A direct blow to the anterior aspect of the knee may cause posterior
dislocation of the femur or tibia.
References:
Sanders TG, Medynski MA, Feller JF, Lawhorn KW. Bone Contusion Patterns of the
Knee at MR Imaging: Footprint of the Mechanism of Injury. Radiographics
2000;20:S135-S151
3. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
181. You are shown an AP radiograph of a 30-year-old woman (Figure 3). What
structure is MOST LIKELY injured?
A. Posterior cruciate ligament
B. Iliotibial band
C. Medial meniscus
D. Anterior cruciate ligament
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Posterior cruciate ligament tear is not a feature of this injury
pattern.
B. Incorrect. The iliotibial band inserts at Gerdy’s tubercle at the anterolateral
aspect of the proximal tibia, distal and more anterior to this avulsed attachment of
the lateral capsule.
C. Incorrect. Both the medial and lateral menisci may be torn as part of the
spectrum of injury, but not as often as the anterior cruciate ligament.
D. Correct. The lateral bony fragment is a “Segond” fracture and is due to avulsion of
the attachment of the lateral joint capsule resulting from a twisting injury associated with
varus stress. It is almost always associated with rupture of the anterior cruciate
ligament.
References:
Goldman AB, Pavlov H, Rubenstein D. The segond fracture of the proximal tibia:
A small avulsion that reflects major ligamentous damage. AJR 1988; 151:1163-
1167
4. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
182. You are shown an oblique coronal T2-weighted gradient echo image of a
50-year-old man with shoulder pain (Figure 4). Which one of the following is the
cause of the abnormality?
A. Calcium hydroxyapatite
B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
C. Monosodium urate
D. Hemosiderin
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. There is focal signal void at the suprapinatus tendon The capsular,
tendinous, ligamentous and bursal tissues about the shoulder are the most
common sites of peri-articular calcific deposits. The supraspinatus tendon is the
most frequent site of calcification, usually at the insertion near the greater
tuberosity. Although other crystals may deposit here, most are calcium
hydroxyapatite.
B. Incorrect. CPPD deposition may be present in synovium, cartilage, capsule,
tendon, ligament and bursae. Involvement of the supraspinatous tendon is not
uncommon and there may be associated HAA deposition. Deposition in cartilage,
however, is more typical.
C. Incorrect. Monosodium urate deposition may occur in the peri-articular soft
tissues including the joint capsule, tendon, ligament and bursa but is much more
common in the synovium and articular cartilage. There is a predilection for the
lower extremity.
D. Incorrect. Hemosiderin deposits within the synovium not the tendons and may be
secondary to resolving hematoma or recurrent hemarthrosis as in pigmented
villonodular synovitis or hemophilia. It is noted with inflammatory arthritis as well.
References:
Manaster, Disler, May. Musculoskeletal Imaging. The Requisites. 2nd
ed. Mosby,
St. Louis MO, 2002.
Resnick, Niwayama. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. W.B. Saunders.
2002,Philadelphia, PA. Fourth Ed.
5. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
183. You are shown an AP radiograph of the left hip of a 75-year-old man with
hip pain (Figure 5). What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Giant cell tumor
B. Transient osteoporosis of the hip
C. Plasmacytoma
D. Paget’s Disease
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Giant cell tumor is a sub-articular, focal, lytic lesion, often eccentric,
and demonstrating expansile remodeling. Patients are usually 20-45 years of
age. Extension of the neoplasm into the shaft without associated deformity of the
bone would be unusual.
B. Incorrect. Transient osteoporosis is a self-limited disorder, associated with
transient bone marrow edema. It may be the sequela of subchondral insufficiency
fracture. The radiographic appearance is that of focal osteoporosis at the
femoral head with less extensive involvement of the femoral neck and
acetabulum without involvement more distally and without the advancing edge
seen in the test case.
C. Incorrect. Plasmacytoma is a common lytic lesion of the skeleton in older patients.
The lesions however are more focal with bone destruction appearing as a geographic
lytic area sometimes with expansile remodeling, none of which is seen in the test case.
Diffuse osteopenia is another manifestation.
D. Correct. The lytic phase of Paget’s disease, typically begins at the end of a bone, or
an apophysis, and advances towards the other end with a well-defined advancing edge,
blade-like, V or wedge or flame shaped in appearance. The lytic nature of the process
is secondary to bone resorption, not destruction or replacement, and therefore contour
abnormalities are not prominent as in the test case where the only deformity is
secondary to fracture.
References:
Smith,Murphey et al. Radiologic Spectrum of Paget Disease of Bone and Its
Complications with Pathologic Correlation. AFIP Archives. Radiogaphics 2002.22:1191-
1216.
Greenspan. Orthopaedic Radiology. Lipincott Williams Wilkins. Philadelphia, PA. Third
Ed.
Resnick, Niwayama. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Diaorders. W.B. Saunders.
Philadelphia, PA. Fourth Ed, 2002.
6. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
184. You are shown coronal (Figure 6A) and axial (Figure 6B) fat-suppressed T1-
weighted MR arthrographic images of a 24-year-old man with right shoulder pain.
Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Hill-Sachs lesion
B. Bankart lesion
C. Perthes lesion
D. SLAP lesion
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. The Hill-Sachs fracture deformity is a fracture at the posterior lateral
aspect of the humeral head, superiorly, acquired following anterior shoulder
dislocation and subsequent impaction at the anterior inferior glenoid. It is best
seen on axial images at the level of the coracoid or higher. It should not be
confused with the normal posterior humeral groove, seen more distally.
B. Incorrect. A Bankart lesion is an anterior labral avulsion at the inferior
glenohumeral ligament attachment with rupture of the anterior scapular
periosteum and marked periosteal stripping. It is associated with anterior
shoulder dislocation. Although contrast is seen beneath the detached labrum, it is
confined by the intact overlying periosteum.
C. Correct. A Perthes lesion is a Bankart variant, an anterior labral avulsion at
the inferior glenohumeral ligament attachment with intact scapular periosteum
and mild periosteal stripping. The intra-articular contrast is seen beneath the
labrum at the detachment site and extends medially beneath the mildly stripped,
but otherwise intact, periosteum.
D. Incorrect. The superior labrum is intact.
References:
Stoller DW. Shoulder. In: Stoler DW, Tirman PF, Bredella MA, eds. Orthopaedics. Salt
Lake City, UT: Amirsys, 2004: 58-93.
7. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
185. A standard spin echo pulse sequence with TR = 4000 ms and TE = 90 ms
will have image contrast chiefly dominated by ____________ weighting.
A. T1
B. Proton density
C. T2 X
D. T2*
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect: Standard spin-echo sequences rely on the fact that tissues with
short (long) T1 will typically have a short (long) T2. T1 is the spin-lattice
relaxation constant, which describes the time required for re-establishment of
63% of the longitudinal magnetization, and T2 is the spin-spin relaxation
constant, which describes the time required for decay of the transverse
magnetization to 37% of its original peak amplitude. T1 contrast is manifested by
selecting a TR time that maximizes differences in the T1 characteristics of the
tissues, and is typically between about 300-700 ms for a standard spin-echo
sequence. In order to reduce the effects of T2 decay, a short TE (<10 ms) is
required. The stem indicates values much longer than would generate T1
contrast.
B. Incorrect: TR is considered “long” in a standard spin-echo pulse sequence
above about 800 to 1000 ms, where the longitudinal magnetization differences
are manifested chiefly as spin-density (proton-density) variations, with minimal
T1 weighting. While a TR of 4000 ms can certainly result in spin-density
weighting, the other part of signal generation is the spin-spin decay of transverse
magnetization, which requires a very short TE (<10 ms). The TE of 90 ms is
considered to be long, giving rise to differences in the T2 characteristics of the
tissues.
C. Correct: TR is considered “long” in a standard spin-echo pulse sequence
greater than 800 to 1000 ms, where the longitudinal magnetization differences
are manifested chiefly as spin-density (proton-density) variations, to reduce any
T1 weighting effects. For TR = 4000 ms, there is little or no T1 weighting.
Transverse magnetization losses (spin-spin decay) are due to T2 effects; by
allowing the decay to occur over a relatively long time prior to producing an echo,
more T2 contrast will result. For spin-echo sequences, TE > 50 ms is considered
long, and will permit more transverse decay to occur, resulting in the
manifestation of T2 contrast.
D. Incorrect: T2* weighting is not apparent with a standard spin-echo pulse sequence
because of the 180° refocusing pulse, which causes the de-phasing spins to be subject
to external magnetic inhomogeneities in the opposite direction, which cancels the de-
phasing effect in the reformed echoes.
8. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
References: Bushberg JT, Seibert JA, Leidholdt EM, Boone JM. The Essential Physics
of Medical Imaging, 2nd
Edition, Chapter 14, p. 399.
186. Concerning sacroiliitis, which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be mono-
articular?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Progressive systemic sclerosis
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
D. Reiter’s syndrome
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. Tuberculous spondylitis is the most common form of skeletal
tuberculosis. Extra-spinal articular disease typically involves large joints such as
the knee and hip but any joint may be involved. Monoarticular involvement is
characteristic. Osteomyelitis without septic arthritis is relatively uncommon.
B. Incorrect. Sacroiliitis is not a feature of progressive systemic sclerosis or
scleroderma.
C. Incorrect. The sacroiliitis associated with ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s
disease is identical to that of ankylosing spondylitis, bilateral and symmetric.
D. Incorrect. Sacro-iliitis in Reiter’s syndrome is common. The involvement tends to be
bilateral, symmetric or asymmetric. Asymmetric and rarely,unilateral involvement is
more common in Reiter’s syndrome and psoriatic arthritis than ankylosing spondylitis.
References:
Miller and Schweitzer. Diagnostic Musculoskeletal Imaging. McGraw-Hill, NY,
2005.
Chew. Skeletal Radiology: The Bare Bones. 2nd
ed. Williams and Wilkins,
Baltimore, 1997.
Resnick. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders.4th
ed. W.B. Saunders, NY, 2002
9. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
187. Concerning chronic renal disease, which of the following is MOST closely
associated?
A. Neuropathic osteoarthropathy
B. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
C. Destructive spondyloarthropathy
D. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Neuropathic osteoarthropathy may result from several underlying
disorders including diabetes mellitus, syphilis, and numerous congenital
insensitivity to pain syndromes. Radiographic findings of bone destruction and
fragmentation may mimic the destructive spondyloarthropathy associated with
renal dialysis.
B. Incorrect. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a known complication of patients
undergoing hemodialysis. This has been attributed to edema, venous congestion
and subsequent compression of the median nerve related to the access site.
Amyloid deposition, B2-microglobulin, in the synovium also results in such
compression. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is not a clinical manifestation related to
chronic renal disease.
C. Correct. Patients undergoing renal dialysis for at least 2-3 years may develop
a destructive spondyloarthropathy, most common at the cervical region. This may
or may not be symptomatic. Radiographic findings of disc space loss, endplate
erosion and reactive sclerosis mimic septic spondylitis, neuropathic
spondyloarthropathy and CPPD deposition disease. Although chronic
hyperparathyroidism and ligamentous laxity may be contributing factors, amyloid
deposition seems primary.
D. Incorrect. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy, usually associated with pulmonary
disorders (hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, HPO) most notably bronchogenic
carcinoma, is a triad of painful swollen joints, clubbing and periosteal new bone
formation. Although this is associated with numerous disorders including inflammatory
bowel disease, biliary cirrhosis, chronic lung diseases, and congenital cyanotic heart
disease, there is no association with chronic renal disease.
References: Miller and Schweitzer. Diagnostic Musculoskeletal Imaging.
McGraw-Hill, NY, 2005.
Manaster, Disler, May. Musculoskeletal Imaging. The Requisites. 2nd
ed. Mosby,
St. Louis, 2002.
Resnick. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders.4th
ed. W.B. Saunders, NY, 2002
10. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
188. Concerning mixed connective tissue disease, which of the following is
TRUE?
A. Males and females are equally affected.
B. It is a combination of scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and
polyarteritis nodosa.
C. Erosive disease is not characteristic.
D. Serology is essential to diagnosis.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Approximately 80% of patients are woman.
B. Incorrect. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a disorder
characterized by clinical abnormalities typical of SLE (systemic lupus
erythematosus), PSS (progressive systemic sclerosis or scleroderma),
dermatomyositis and rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Incorrect. Joint involvement is typical resembling the changes of rheumatoid
arthritis. Occasionally, nonerosive deformities similar to SLE are seen.
D. Correct. The one feature of MCTD which distinguishes it as a unique disorder is a
positive serologic test for antibody to the ribonucleoprotein (RNP) of extractable nuclear
antigen (ENA).
References: Miller and Schweitzer. Diagnostic Musculoskeletal Imaging.
McGraw-Hill, NY, 2005.
Greenspan, A. Orthopedic Radiology: A Practical Approach. Lippincott Williams
Wilkins, 3rd
. ed., 2000.
11. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
189. Concerning Blount’s disease, which of the following is TRUE?
A. It is also known as tibia valga.
B. Radiographic abnormalities are evident in the first 2 years of life.
C. The disorder can occur in infants, children and adolescents.
D. It is usually self-limited and requires no treatment.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Blount’s disease is also known as tibia vara. The disorder affects
the medial aspect of the proximal tibia. The deformity consists of varus
angulation and internal rotation at the proximal tibial metaphysis. Factors
contributing to the disorder include varus stress, focal growth suppression and
disruption of endochondral ossification.
B. Incorrect. Radiographic abnormalities in the infantile form rarely are evident
before 2 years of age at which time they resemble physiologic bowing. The varus
deformity, however, occurs at the metaphysis, not the knee. Eventually, the
medial metaphysis becomes depressed and an osseous excrescence or
outgrowth may develop.
C. Correct. The early onset or infantile group occurs in children less than three
years of age. The late onset group consists of a juvenile and an adolescent form.
Deformity is more likely in the younger age groups.
D. Incorrect. The natural history of the disease is that of irreversible deformity
resulting from changes at the growth plate. In the infantile form, orthotic
bracing is usually the first line of treatment. If this fails, an osteotomy is required.
In the adolescent form, treatment is usually surgical.
References:
Bradway JK, Klassen RA, Peterson HA. Blount disease: a review of the English
literature. J Pediatr Orthop 1987; 7(4):472-480
Blounts Disease. Wheeless' Textbook of Orthopaedics. Duke Orthopaedics.
www.wheelessonline.com/ortho/blounts_disease
Resnick, Niwayama. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. W.B. Saunders.
2002,Philadelphia, PA. Fourth Ed
12. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
190. Concerning aneurysmal bone cysts, which of the following are associated?
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Osteoid osteoma
C. Enchondroma
D. Plasmacytoma
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. Aneurysmal bone cysts are often superimposed upon existing
benign and malignant tumors most notably giant cell tumor, nonossifying fibroma,
fibrous dysplasia, chondroblastoma, osteoblastoma, osteosarcoma,
chondrosarcoma and hemangioendothelioma. In the case of telangiectatic
osteosarcoma, the two different components of the lesion may appear similar or
identical with imaging. This may result in errors with percutaneous biopsy if only
portions of the cyst are sampled. Nonossifying fibroma is a benign, cortically
based lesion that is usually found in long tubular bones. The etiology is argued,
but many feel the nonossifying fibroma to be the sequelae of unrecognized
trauma to the periosteum that leads to focal hemorrhage. Aneurysmal bone
cysts are also felt by many to represent prior trauma, not neoplasia. It is
therefore intuitive that the two lesions could be found in the same location.
Fibrous dysplasia is a hamartomatous disorder of osteoblasts that fail to undergo
differentiation. The monostotic form is most common. Skin and endocrine
anomalies may be associated with the polyostotic form. Although fibrous
dysplasia may rarely be associated with malignant transformation, new
symptoms or growth of a known focus of fibrous dysplasia often signifies the
development of a superimposed aneurysmal bone cyst.
B. Incorrect. Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone forming neoplasm usually
cortically based and extra-articular, with characteristic reactive sclerosis.
Intracapsular, intramedullary and subperiosteal lesions also occur. Osteoid
osteomas that are intra-articular incite little or no sclerosis. Intra-medullary and
subperiosteal lesions provoke variable degrees of sclerosis. There is no
association with ABC. Osteoblastoma, however, is associated.
C. Incorrect. Enchondroma is a benign cartilage forming neoplasm within the
medullary canal. Such lesions on the surface of the bone are known as
superiosteal or juxta-cortical chondromas. They are most common at the fingers.
There is no association with ABC.
D. Incorrect. Plasmactyoma represents the solitary form of myeloma. While laboratory
teats may be negative at the time of diagnosis, many patients will eventually develop
multiple myeloma. The lesions are usually lytic, and may be expansile or non-
expansile. Rarely, a plasmacytoma may be blastic. An association between
plasmacytoma and aneurysmal bone cyst has not been described.
13. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
References:
Mirra JM, Picci P, Gold RH. Bone Tumors: Clinical, Radiologic, and Pathologic
Correlations. Lea & Febiger, Philadelphia, PA, 1989
191. Which of the following tumors is characterized by a subarticular location?
A. Osteoblastoma
B. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
C. Chondromyxoid fibroma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. The most common location for osteoblastoma is in the dorsal elements of
the spine where forty percent are found. The remaining are usually located in the long
bones and phalanges. An epiphyseal or subarticular location is rare. Osteoblastoma is
usually expansile, and may be associated with neurologic deficit.
B. Correct. Few lesions have a propensity for the end of the bone, epiphysis or
apophysis (epiphysis equivalent). Giant cell tumor of bone and chondroblastoma
are oth such lesions. Approximately 5% of giant cell tumors are malignant and
associated with lung metastases. Otherwise, both of these are considered
benign. The malignant tumor that is found at the end of the bone, subarticular, is
clear cell chondrosarcoma. This is a slow growing tumor, and symptoms may be
present for over five years before diagnosis. The tumor may be lobulated and
calcified, or lytic and ill defined.
C. Incorrect. As the name implies, chondromyxoid fibroma is a benign tumor
composed of chondroid, myxoid and fibrous tissue. Three-fourths are found in
the lower extremities. Approximately half involve long bones, and ninety-five
percent of those are found in the metaphysis. The remaining five percent are
diaphyseal.
D. Incorrect. Although aneurysmal bone cysts may be engrafted on epiphyseal
or subarticular lesions such as giant cell tumor and chondroblastoma, the most
common locations are the metaphysis of long bones and the dorsal elements of
the vertebrae. Approximately one third of aneurysmal bone cysts are secondary,
associated with other entities. The remaining may represent primary aneurysmal
bone cysts, or may reflect complete destruction of the entire pre-existing tumor
by the aneurysmal bone cyst.
References:
14. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
Mirra JM, Picci P, Gold RH. Bone Tumors: Clinical, Radiologic, and Pathologic
Correlations. Lea & Febiger, Philadelphia, PA, 1989
192. Concerning osteosarcoma, what type has the worst prognosis?
A. Secondary
B. Telangiectatic
C. Periosteal
D. Parosteal
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. Secondary osteosarcoma may be seen following radiation therapy,
or may be associated with underlying bone lesions such as Paget's disease,
fibrous dysplasia, bone infarction and chronic osteomyelitis. Other types of
sarcoma may also be seen with these conditions, including fibrosarcoma and
malignant fibrous histiocytoma. The prognosis for these secondary sarcomas is
often grave.
B. Incorrect. Telangiectatic osteosarcoma is an entirely lytic lesion, reflecting
minimal osteoid production in the tumor. Far less common than conventional
osteosarcoma, it was previously felt that the telangiectatic form carried a worse
prognosis. More recent studies have shown a similar or even better prognosis,
as the telangiectatic form is especially sensitive to preoperative chemotherapy.
C. Incorrect. Periosteal osteosarcoma is a chondroblastic form of osteosarcoma
that arises either in the periosteum or in the outer cortex, and is usually
diaphyseal in location. The lesions show a sunburst pattern of mineralization.
They are usually considered to be intermediate grade, between high grade
central and low grade parosteal osteosarcomas.
D. Incorrect. The parosteal (juxtacortical) osteosarcoma is found on the outer surface
of the cortex. These tumors are well differentiated, with a prognosis better than other
forms of osteosarcoma. A long-tern survival of eighty to ninety percent is seen if the
tumor has not de-differentiated. Two thirds of parosteal osteosarcomas are located
along the distal femoral shaft. Most are heavily ossified.
References:
Unni KK, ed. Dahlin's Bone Tumors: General Aspects and Data on 11, 087
cases, 5th ed. Lippincott-Raven Publishers, Philadelphia, PA, 1996
15. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
193. Concerning osteopoikilosis, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Patients often complain of restricted range of motion at the joints involved.
B. Histologically, the lesions are easily confused with metastatic prostate cancer.
C. The patient’s serum alkaline phosphatase may be mildly elevated.
D. Transmission is autosomal dominant.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Osteopoikilosis is characterized by multiple bone islands or
enostoses with a periarticular distribution. This is an asymptomatic, incidental
condition not to be confused with other sclerotic lesions most notably blastic
metastases. It may be considered a type of sclerosing dysplasia similar in this
regard to osteopathia striata (Voorhoeve’s disease).
B. Incorrect. Histologically, the lesions are benign bone islands. They consist of
compact lamellar bone with haversian systems. The bone is uniform with regular
cement lines and no evidence of cartilage. The characteristic radiographic
appearance includes numerous, small, round or ovoid (long axis parallel to long
tubular bone) sclerotic lesions, with spiculated margins and periarticular,
symmetric distribution favoring long tubular bones, the carpus, tarsus, pelvis and
scapulae. Lesions may increase or decrease in size and number although this
phenomenon is more common in children. Bone scans are usually normal.
C. Incorrect. Laboratory examinations are normal.
D. Correct. Both inherited and sporadic cases of osteopoikilosis have been
described. There is an autosomal dominant pattern of transmission and
penetrance is high.
References:
Lagier R, Mbakop A, Bigler A. Osteopoikilosis: a radiological and pathological
study. Skeletal Radiol 1984; 11: 161-168
Resnick, Niwayama. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. W.B.
Saunders. 2002, Philadelphia, PA. Fourth Ed
16. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
194. Which of the following synovial spaces normally communicate with each
other?
A. The glenohumeral joint and the subacromial bursa
B. The pisiform recess and the radiocarpal joint
C. The ankle joint and the peroneal tendon sheath
D. The posterior subtalar joint and the Achilles tendon sheath
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Communication between the glenohumeral joint and the
subacromial bursa (more accurately, the subacromial/subdeltoid bursal complex)
indicates the presence of a full thickness rotator cuff tear. This principal is the
basis for diagnosis of such tears on both conventional and MR glenohumeral
arthrography.
B. Correct. Either space may be entered for wrist arthrography. Excessive fluid
in the pisiform recess should not be considered abnormal if there is a radiocarpal
joint effusion.
C. Incorrect. The ankle joint may normally communicate with the tendon sheaths
of the flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus at the medial aspect of
the ankle. Communication with the lateral tendon sheath (common peroneal)
implies a tear of the calcaneofibular ligament.
D. Incorrect. The Achilles tendon does not have a true tendon sheath. Instead, it
is surrounded by connective tissue called a paratenon. This provides for the
normal gliding action of the tendon.
References:
Arndt RD, Horns JW, Gold RH. Clinical Arthrography. 2nd
ed. Williams & Wilkins,
Baltimore, MD. 1985.
17. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
195. Concerning pars interarticularis defects, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Symptomatic spondylolisthesis is typically associated.
B. Associated spondylolisthesis is most common at L5-S1.
C. They represent an acute injury.
D. Magnetic resonance imaging is the preferred imaging method.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Only approximately twenty-five percent of patients with
spondylolysis develop spondylolisthesis. Progression to significant slippage is
uncommon.
B. Correct. Spondylolisthesis associated with spondylolysis is most common at
L5-S1, approximately 90% of cases. The remainder usually occur at L4-L5.
Spondylolisthesis associated with degenerative disease is most common at L4-
L5.
C. Incorrect. Pars interarticularis defects are considered to represent fatigue
stress fractures. Most are believed to develop in childhood. They are especially
common in athletic children.
D. Incorrect. Imaging should begin with conventional radiographs. The lateral
and oblique views are nearly equally sensitive in diagnosing the defect. CT also
easily displays the lesion. SPECT imaging can be useful in identifying pars
interarticularis defects that are symptomatic. Magnetic resonance imaging plays
little role. Difficulty in recognizing an intact pars interarticularis leads to a low
positive predictive value.
References:
Garry JP, McShane J. Lumbar spondylolysis in adolescent athletes. J Fam Pract.
1998; 47(2): 145-149
Standaert CJ, Herring SA. Spondylolysis: a critical review. Br J Sports Med
2000; 34(6): 415-422
Resnick. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders.4th
ed. W.B. Saunders, NY, 2002
18. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
196. Concerning the vertebral column, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Paget’s Disease spares the posterior elements.
B. Hematogenous infection preferentially seeds the vertebral body.
C. Soft tissue extension excludes the diagnosis of hemangioma.
D. The inflammatory spondyloarthropathies spare the intervertebral discs.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Paget‘s disease of the spine typically involves the vertebral body and the
posterior elements. This may be a helpful diagnostic clue when differentiating Paget ’s
disease, blastic metastases/ lymphoma and hemangioma.
B. Correct. Hematogenous infection of the spine begins as an osteomyelitis near
one of the vertebral body endplates. Typically, the infection then spreads across
the disc to the adjacent vertebral body resulting in destruction and erosion of the
endplates and disc. Less commonly, the infection may spare the disc tracking
beneath the anterior or posterior longitudinal ligaments, a pattern usually seen
with tuberculous involvement. Despite the use of the term “discitis,” infection
involving the spinal column rarely originates within the disc itself.
C. Incorrect. Large hemangiomata may extend beyond the cortex into the para
vertebral soft tissues and be symptomatic.
D. Incorrect. The inflammatory spondyloarthropathies comprise the sero-negative
disorders which typically involve synovial, cartilaginous and fibrous joints. The
cartilaginous joints in the adult skeleton are the intervertebral discs and the symphysis
pubis. Syndesmophyte formation and subsequent ossification of the intervertebral disc
in patients with ankylosing spondylitis is an example of such involvement.
References:
Resnick,Niwayama. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. W B
Saunders,Philadelphia, PA . Fourth Ed. 2002
19. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
197. Concerning the osteochondroses, which of the following entities represents
normal development?
A. Kohler’s
B. Scheurermann’s
C. Kienbock’s
D. Sever’s
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. The osteochondroses compromise a group of entities characterized
by involvement of the epiphysis, apophysis or epiphyseoid bone with
radiographic findings of fragmentation, collapse and sclerosis suggesting
osteonecrosis. Although some of these entities represent osteonecrosis, others
are the sequela of abnormal stress and others represent normal development.
Kohler’s disease involves the tarsal navicular and is rare. It is a self-limited
disorder, difficult to distinguish from variations of normal ossification. When a
child is symptomatic and radiographic findings of flattening and sclerosis are
detected in a previously normal navicular bone, the diagnosis of osteonecrosis is
more certain.
B. Incorrect. Scheuermann’s disease represents a growth disturbance of the
spine characterized by multilevel anterior vertebral body wedging, vertebral body
endplate irregularities with Schmorl’s node formation and increasing thoracic
kyphosis. These changes are variable and most likely secondary to stress related
intraosseous displacement of disc material (cartilagenous node formation)
through cartilaginous endplates weakened on a congenital or traumatic basis.
C. Incorrect. Kienbock’s disease represents osteonecrosis of the lunate seen in
patients 20-40 years of age.
D. Correct. Sever’s phenomenon represents normal ossification of the calcaneal
apophysis.
References:
Resnick,Niwayama. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. W B
Saunders,Philadelphia, PA . Fourth Ed. 2002
20. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
198. Concerning cervical spine fracture, which is characteristically associated
with acute, severe neurologic injury?
A. Jefferson
B. Extension teardrop
C. Hangman’s
D. Flexion teardrop
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. In a classic Jefferson fracture, the transverse ligament is intact
and no instability is present and because displacement of the bony fragments
occurs in a centripetal pattern during axial loading, cord damage is uncommon.
In one large series, no patient presented with neurologic symptoms.
B. Incorrect. This fracture is an avulsion fracture that arises from the
anteroinferior corner of the vertebral body caused by a hyperextension injury.
Retrolisthesis is often present but of minimal degree and only about 9% of
patients present with neurologic symptoms.
C. Incorrect. Bilateral fracture of the C2 pars interarticularis typically results from
hyperextension. Death from judicial hanging resulted from delayed
extension/distraction. Most cases today are secondary to motor vehicle accidents
with transient hyperextension and no distraction. There is usually anterior
subluxation of C2 on C3. Although unstable by nature, neurologic deficits are
uncommon. Without significant distraction, the cord is typically spared because
the acquired pars fracture allows for canal widening at a level where the cord
already has abundant room.
D. Correct. The flexion teardrop fracture is the most severe flexion injury
characterized by complete disruption of all ligaments, intervertebral disc and facet joints
at the level of injury and a large triangular fracture fragment consisting of the anterior,
inferior aspect of the involved vertebral body. There is neither ligamentous or skeletal
stability. This completely unstable fracture is associated with severe neurologic
symptoms in 87% of patients including complete quadriplegia, paraplegia, Brown-
Sequard syndrome, or anterior cord syndrome. It is caused by combined flexion and
axial loading and classically affects C5.
References:
Resnick, D. Physical Injury: Spine. In: Resnick D, ed. Diagnosis of Bone and Joint
Disorders. 4th
ed. Philadelphia, PA: W.B. Saunders, 2002: 2958-2978.
Yu JS. Hyperflexion teardrop fracture. In: Case Review – Musculoskeletal Imaging.
St. Louis, MO: Mosby, 2001:127-128.
21. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
199. Concerning injuries of the wrist, which is MOST severe?
A. Lunate dislocation
B. Scapholunate dissociation
C. Dorsal intercalated segment instability
D. Perilunate dislocation
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. The dislocation of carpal bones about the lunate, with or without
fracture, usually results from dramatic wrist hyperextension. High velocity trauma
or falls from substantial heights may produce forceful palmar tension and dorsal
compression that exceeds the limits of ligament and/or bony carpal constraints.
The progressive perilunar instability model for such injury predicts sequential
disruption of ligamentous attachments, forces transmitted from the radial to the
ulna aspect of the carpus. In stage I, there is disruption of the scapho-lunate
ligament and subsequent scapho-lunate dissociation. In stage II, the capitate and
scaphoid separate from the lunate and triquetrum . In stage III, there is
lunotriquetral dissociation allowing the entire carpus to separate from the lunate
almost always with dorsal displacement, hence dorsal perilunate dislocation. In
stage IV, the dorsal extrinsic ligaments fail and the lunate may dislocate volarly.
This represents the most severe form and highest degree of instability. Such
transmission of force purely about the lunate follows the so-called lesser arc
pathway. Perilunar forces may also be transmitted through adjacent bone, so-
called greater arc injuries. The scaphoid, trapezium, capitate, hamate and
triquetrum may fracture. As one might expect, there may be concomitant fracture
and ligamentous injury resulting in the perilunar dislocation stages described.
The lesser and greater arcs together comprise the vulnerable zone for all such
injuries.
B. Incorrect. Scapholunate dissociation represents a stage I lesser arc injury and
therefore is not considered severe. It is, however, a component of scapholunate
instability, the most frequent form of carpal instability. In its most general sense,
instability refers to a clinical perception by the patient that the joint can not
withstand normal loads. Scapholunate dissociation refers to the anatomic,
ligamentous disruption between scaphoid and lunate. This may only be
detectable with stress radiographs or fluoroscopy and hence is referred to as
dynamic instability. This may be readily apparent with routine radiographs, hence
static instability. The scapholunate angle may be normal as seen on lateral
radiographs. Only when the scaphoid assumes a flexed position however, is
there rotatory subluxation.
C. Incorrect. An intercalated segment is a middle segment of a three segment
system under compression. This middle segment is inherently unstable unless
stabilized by its connection to the other two segments, hence the proximal carpal
row. DISI (dorsal intercalated segment instability) refers to the dorsiflexed
posture or extension of all or part of the proximal carpal row, relative to the radius
22. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
and capitate. This may be associated with numerous injuries, with and without
dissociation of intrinsic or interosseous ligaments. It is less severe than lunate
dislocation.
D. Incorrect. Peri-lunate dislocation is a stage III perilunar injury and, therefore, less
severe than stage IV lunate dislocation.
References: Resnick, D. Physical Injury: Extraspinal Sites. In: Resnick D, ed.
Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. 4th
ed. Philadelphia, PA: W.B. Saunders, 2002:
2837-2842.
Viegas SF, Patterson RM, Ward K. Extrinsic wrist ligaments in the pathomechanics of
ulnar translation instability.J Hand Surg. 1995; 20A: 312-318.
Yu JS. Trans-scaphoid perilunate dislocation. In: Case Review – Musculoskeletal
Imaging. St. Louis, MO: Mosby, 2001:129-130.
Cooney,WP et at. The Wrist: Diagnosis and Operative Treatment. St. Louis, MO:
Mosby, 1998.
200. Portable radiographs taken with a film-screen system using a fixed
radiographic grid tend to have less contrast than the radiographs taken in the
radiography rooms. Which of the following factors is the MOST LIKELY cause
for the reduced contrast?
A. Use of lower kVp
B. Use of higher mAs
C. Use of Lower grid ratio
D. Use of higher speed film-screen system
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Lower kVp would increase contrast.
B. Incorrect. Higher mAs would darken film, but not change contrast.
C. Correct. Lower grid ratio radiographic grid is used to minimize cutoff from
poor alignment, however the lower grid ratio yields less cleanup of the scatter
radiation.
D. Incorrect. Higher speed film-screen does not necessarily reduce contrast.
References:
A. Wolbarst, Physics of Radiology (1993), Chapter 20
J.T. Bushberg, et al., The Essential Physics of Medical Imaging (2002), Chapter
6
23. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
201. Which of the following structures is essential to maintaining the arch of the
foot?
A. Plantar fascia
B. Posterior tibial tendon
C. Spring ligament
D. Peroneal brevis tendon
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. The plantar fascia assists in supporting the midfoot arch but is
considered a secondary support. Rupture does not produce significant
separation of the plantar fascia and does not result in flatfoot deformity. The
clinical presentation is one of pain and swelling at the heel.
B. Correct. Complete rupture of the posterior tibial tendon frequently results in
pes planus deformity, the posterior tibial tendon being a primary support of the
midfoot arch. It is opposed by the peroneus brevis tendon which everts the heel
and abducts the foot. Posterior tibial tendon rupture allows the unopposed
peroneal brevis tendon to result in hindfoot valgus and forefoot abduction. Once
the calcaneus is in a valgus position, the Achilles tendon will further evert the
calcaneus. The talo-navicular joint is gradually disrupted as all the medial
ligaments become stretched and elongated.
C. Incorrect. The spring ligament extends from the sustentaculum tali to the
plantar aspect of the navicular. It supports the talar head and therefore the
longitudinal arch of the foot. It is thick and strong and almost never ruptures
during routine foot/ankle trauma. Although the spring ligament serves as a
secondary support of the midfoot arch, it is not a primary support and as long as
the posterior tibialis tendon is intact, the midfoot does not collapse.
D. Incorrect. As discussed, rupture of the peroneal brevis tendon would allow the
posterior tibial tendon to function unopposed . This injury is caused by repeated ankle
sprain or chronic peroneal subluxation. It does not lead to a pes planus deformity.
References: Yu JS. Posterior tibial tendon tear. In: Case Review – Musculoskeletal
Imaging. St. Louis, MO: Mosby, 2001:107-108.
Schweitzer ME, Karasick D. MR imaging of disorders of the posterior tibialis tendon.
AJR Am J Roentgenol. 2000; 175: 627-35.
Yu JS. Pathologic and post-operative conditions of the plantar fascia: review of MR
imaging appearances. Skeletal Radiol. 2000; 29: 491-501.