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Ec8551 communication networks mcq question bank

This document contains 60 multiple choice questions about communication networks and the link layer. The questions cover topics such as LAN and WAN definitions, network topologies, analog and digital signals, error detection methods like parity checks and CRC, and data link layer concepts like framing and addressing.

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EC8551 - COMMUNICATION NETWORKS MCQ QUESTION BANK Jai Ganesh S MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
EC8551 – COMMUNICATION NETWORKS MCQ QUESTION BANK UNIT – 1 FUNDAMENTALS AND LINK LAYER 1. A local area network (LAN) is defined by _______________. A) the geometric size of the network B) the maximum number of hosts in the network C) the maximum number of hosts in the network and/or the geometric size of the network D) the topology of the network 2. The largest geographic area a wide area network (WAN) can span is _______________. A) a town B) a state C) a country D) the world 3. A proposed standard is elevated to ________ standard status after at least two successful tries. A) informational B) historic C) draft D) None of the choices are correct 4. Which of the following is not one of the components of a data communication system? A) Message B) Sender C) Medium D) All of the choices are correct 5. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of a data communication system? A) Delivery B) Accuracy C) Jitter D) All of the choices are correct 6. Data can flow only in one direction all of the times in a _________ mode. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) None of the choices are correct 7. Data can flow only in both direction all of the times in a _________ mode. A) simplex
B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) None of the choices are correct 8. Which of the following is not one of the network criteria? A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) All of the choices are correct 9. In a _____________ communication, the media needs to be shared between devices. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) mesh D) None of the choices are correct 10. In a _____________ communication, the media is dedicated. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) mesh D) None of the choices are correct 11. In a fully connected mesh topology with six computers, we need ________ links. [2marks] A) 6 B) 36 C) 15 D) None of the choices are correct 12. In a star topology with six computers, we need ________ links. [2marks] A) 6 B) 1 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 13. An RFC is labeled ________ if it must be implemented by all Internet systems. A) required B) elective C) recommended D) None of the choices are correct 14. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected to each other. A) interface message processors (IMPs) B) host computers C) networks D) routers 15. _______ was formed to connect universities with no defense ties. A) ARPANET
B) CSNET C) NSFNET D) ANSNET 16. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. A) signal amplitude B) frequency C) phase D) time 17. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________. A) signal amplitude B) frequency C) phase D) time 18. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values. A) Analog B) Digital C) Analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 19. _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values. A) Analog B) Digital C) Analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 20. _____ signals have an infinite number of values in a time interval. A) Analog B) Digital C) Either analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 21. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values in a time interval. A) Analog B) Digital C) Either analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 22. Frequency and period are ______. A) inverse of each other B) proportional to each other C) the same D) are not related 23. ________is the rate of change with respect to time. A) Amplitude B) Time
C) Frequency D) Phase 24. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. A) Amplitude B) Time C) Frequency D) Phase 25. A simple sine wave can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain. A) amplitude B) time C) frequency D) phase 26. As frequency increases, the period ________. A) decreases B) increases C) remains the same D) None of the choices are correct 27. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel 28. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel 29. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel 30. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________. A) throughput B) wavelength of the signal C) distortion factor D) distance a signal or bit has traveled 31. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel.
A) low-pass B) bandpass C) low rate D) high rate 32. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel. A) low-pass B) bandpass C) low rate D) high rate 33. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate. A) noisy B) noiseless C) bandpass D) low-pass 34. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate. A) noisy B) noiseless C) bandpass D) low-pass 35. _________ can impair a signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) All of the choices are correct 36. Communication at the data-link layer is ___________________. A) end-to-end B) node-to-node C) process-to-process D) None of the choices are correct 37. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network. [2marks] A) link-layer address B) logical address C) port number D) None of the choices are correct 38. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C) the source IP address D) None of the choices are correct 39. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) the source IP address D) None of the choices are correct 40. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) the source IP address D) None of the choices are correct 41. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host in the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) source IP address D) None of the choices are correct 42. An ARP reply is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) None of the choices are correct 43. An ARP request is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) None of the choices are correct 44. A packet at the data-link layer is normally called a _______. A) datagram B) message C) frame D) None of the choices are correct 45. In a ________________ link, the link is not shared between devices. A) broadcast B) point-to-point C) multicast
D) None of the choices are correct 46. In a ________________ link, the link is shared between many devices. A) broadcast B) point-to-point C) unicast D) None of the choices are correct 47. Data-link layer of a broadcast link has __________ sublayer(s). A) one B) two C) no D) None of the choices are correct 48. Data-link layer of a point-to-point link has __________ sublayer(s). A) one B) two C) no D) None of the choices are correct 49. Media access control can be presented only in a __________ link(s). A) point-to-point B) multicast C) both point-to-point and multicast D) None of the choices are correct 50. Which of the following best describes a single-bit error? [2marks] A) A single bit is inverted B) A single bit per transmission is inverted C) A single bit per data unit is inverted D) All of the choices are correct 51. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? A) Simple parity check B) Checksum C) Two-dimensional parity check D) CRC 52. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit? A) Two-dimensional parity check B) CRC C) Simple parity check D) Checksum 53. Which error detection method involves polynomials? A) CRC B) Simple parity check C) Two-dimensional parity check D) Checksum
54. If the ASCII character G is sent and the character D is received, what type of error is this? A) Single-bit B) Multiple-bit C) Burst D) Recoverable 55. If the ASCII character H is sent and the character L is received, what type of error is this? A) Burst B) Recoverable C) Single-bit D) Multiple-bit 56. In cyclic redundancy checking, what forms the check bits? A) The remainder B) The divisor C) The quotient D) The dividend 57. In CRC, if the dataword is 111111, the divisor 1010, and the remainder 110, what is the codeword at the receiver? [2marks] A) 111111011 B) 1010110 C) 111111110 D) 110111111 58. In CRC, if the dataword is 111111 and the divisor 1010, what is the dividend at the sender? [2marks] A) 1111110000 B) 111111000 C) 111111 D) 1111111010 59. At the CRC generator, _______ is (are) added to the dataword after the division process to create the codeword. [2marks] A) 0’s B) 1’s C) the remainder D) the divisor 60. The sum of the checksum and data at the receiver is _______ if no error is detected. [2marks] A) − 0 B) + 0 C) the complement of the checksum D) the complement of the dataword
61. In CRC, the quotient at the sender _______. A) becomes the dividend at the receiver B) becomes the divisor at the receiver C) is the remainder D) is discarded 62. At the CRC checker, _______ means that the dataword is damaged. A) a string of alternating 1s and 0s B) a nonzero remainder C) a string of 0s D) None of the choices are correct 63. A codeword of 10 bits has only four 0s, how many terms are in the polynomial representation of this code? [2marks] A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) None of the choices are correct 64. In CRC, if the remainder is only three bits, the divisor should be __________ bits. [2marks] A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) None of the choices are correct 65. How many bits are in the divisor if we use CRC-8? [2marks] A) 9 B) 8 C) 10 D) None of the choices are correct 66. Checksum uses ____________ addition. A) one’s complement B) two’s complement C) three’s complement D) None of the choices are correct 67. To detect five errors, the Hamming distance between each pair of codewords should be at least_________. A) 5 B) 6 C) 11 D) None of the choices are correct 68. To correct five errors, the Hamming distance between each pair of codewords should be at least_________. [2marks] A) 5 B) 6
C) 11 D) None of the choices are correct 69. A checksum can _________ errors. A) only detect B) only correct C) both detect and correct D) None of the choices are correct 70. Currently _______ is responsible for the management of Internet domain names and addresses. [2marks] A) NIC B) ICANN C) ISOC D) IEFE 71. The TCP/IP protocol suite consists of _______ layers. A) two B) three C) five D) six 72. A router is involved in ____________ layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. A) two B) three C) four D) five 73. A link-layer switch is involved in ______________ layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. A) two B) three C) four D) five 74. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which of the following is an application layer protocol? [2marks] A) The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) B) The Internet Protocol (IP) C) The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D) The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) 75. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which of the following is a transport-layer protocol? [2marks] A) The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) B) The Internet Protocol (IP) C) The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) D) The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
76. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which of the following is a network layer protocol? [2marks] A) The Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) B) The Secure Shell (SSH) C) The Internet Protocol (IP) D) User Datagram Protocol (UDP) 77. The transport-layer packet in the TCP/IP protocol suite is called _______________. A) a message B) a datagram C) a segment or a user datagram D) a frame 78. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, the ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next. A) physical B) data-link C) transport D) network 79. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, the physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical medium. A) programs B) dialogs C) protocols D) bits 80. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, a port number is the identifier at the____________. A) application layer B) transport layer C) network layer D) physical layer 81. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, a logical address is the identifier at the _______________. A) network layer B) transport layer C) data-link layer D) application layer 82. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another. A) physical B) transport C) network D) application 83. The Internet Protocol (IP) is ________ protocol. A) a reliable B) a connection-oriented
C) a reliable and connection-oriented D) an unreliable 84. The application layer in the TCP/IP protocol suite is usually considered to be the combination of ________layers in the OSI model. A) application, presentation, and session B) application, transport, and network C) application, data-link, and physical D) network, data-link, and physical 85. In TCP/IP, a message at the application layer is encapsulated in a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 86. In TCP/IP, a message at the transport layer is encapsulated in a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 87. In TCP/IP, a message belonging to the network layer is decapsulated from a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 88. In TCP/IP, a message belonging to the transport layer is decapsulated from a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 89. In TCP/IP, a logical connection between an entity at the network layer can be made with another entity at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 90. In TCP/IP, a logical connection between an entity at the data-link layer can be made with another entity at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport
C) data-link D) physical 91. In TCP/IP, a packet at the third layer carries data belonging to the ________ layer and the header belonging to the _________ layer. [2marks] A) third; third B) third; fourth C) fourth; third D) fourth; fourth 92. Polar and bipolar encoding are types of _______ coding. A) line B) block C) scrambling D) None of the choices are correct 93. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling. A) Analog-to-digital B) Digital-to-analog C) Analog-to-analog D) Digital-to-digital 94. In ______ schemes, the voltage level oscillates between a positive and a negative value although it may remain at zero level between the two values. A) polar B) bipolar C) nonpolar D) None of the choices are correct 95. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. [2marks] A) NRZ-I B) NRZ-L C) NRZ-I or NRZ-L D) None of the choices are correct 96. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. [2marks] A) NRZ-I B) NRZ-L C) NRZ-I or NRZ-L D) None of the choices are correct 97. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ scheme. [2marks] A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) Manchester or differential Manchester D) None of the choices are correct
98. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ scheme. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) Manchester or differential Manchester D) None of the choices are correct 99. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________. [2marks] A) bit transfer B) baud transfer C) synchronization D) None of the choices are correct 100. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative. A) polar B) bipolar C) nonpolar D) None of the choices are correct 101. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal. [2marks] A) 4B5B B) 2B1Q C) B8ZS D) None of the choices are correct 102. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. A) RZ B) Manchester C) Differential Manchester D) All the choices are correct 103. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit. A) RZ B) Manchester C) Differential Manchester D) All the choices are correct 104. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization? A) NRZ-L B) RZ C) NRZ-I D) Manchester 105. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s? A) NRZ-I B) RZ C) Manchester
D) AMI 106. Block coding can help in _______ and _________ at the receiver. [2marks] A) synchronization and error detection B) synchronization and attenuation C) error detection and attenuation D) error detection and distortion 107. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal. A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Scrambling D) All of the choices are correct 108. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection. A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Line coding or block coding D) None of the choices are correct 109. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group. [2marks] A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Scrambling D) None of the choices are correct 110. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits. A) Scrambling B) Line coding C) Block coding D) None of the choices are correct 111. Two common scrambling techniques are ________. [2marks] A) NRZ and RZ B) AMI and NRZ C) B8ZS and HDB3 D) Manchester and differential Manchester 112. PCM is an example of _______ conversion. A) digital-to-digital B) digital-to-analog C) analog-to-analog D) analog-to-digital 113. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________. A) PAL
B) PCM C) sampling D) None of the choices are correct 114. The first step in PCM is ________. A) quantization B) modulation C) sampling D) None of the choices are correct 115. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. [2marks] A) DM; PCM B) PCM; DM C) DM; CM D) None of the choices are correct ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFER THE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y
UNIT – 2 MEDIA ACCESS & INTERNETWORKING 1. HDLC is an acronym for _______. A) High-Duplex Line Communication B) Half-Duplex Link Combination C) High-Level Data Link Control D) Host Double-Level Circuit 2. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is usually the _______ frame. A) information B) management C) supervisory D) None of the choices are correct 3. The address field of a frame in HDLC protocol contains the address of the _______ station. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) primary or secondary 4. The HDLC _______ field defines the beginning and end of a frame. A) control B) flag C) FCS D) None of the choices are correct 5. What is present in all HDLC control fields? A) N(R) B) N(S) C) Code bits D) P/F bit 6. According to the PPP transition-phase diagram, options are negotiated in the _______ state. A) networking B) terminating C) establishing D) authenticating 7. According to the PPP transition-phase diagram, verification of user identification occurs in the _______ state. A) networking B) terminating C) establishing D) authenticating
8. In the PPP frame, the _______ field defines the contents of the data field. A) FCS B) flag C) control D) protocol 9. In the PPP frame, the _______ field is similar to that of the U-frame in HDLC. A) flag B) protocol C) FCS D) control 10. In the PPP frame, the _______ field has a value of 11111111 to indicate the broadcast address of HDLC. [2marks] A) protocol B) address C) control D) FCS 11. In PPP, what is the purpose of LCP packets? A) Configuration B) Termination C) Option negotiation D) All of the choices are correct 12. In the PPP frame, the _______ field is for error control. A) FCS B) flag C) control D) protocol 13. For CHAP authentication, the user takes the system’s _______ and its own _______ to create a result that is then sent to the system. [2marks] A) authentication identification; password B) password; authentication identification C) challenge value; password D) password; challenge value 14. In byte stuffing, we need sometimes to add a (an) ___________ in the payload. A) flag byte B) ESC byte C) null byte D) None of the choices are correct 15. In bit stuffing, we sometimes need to add an extra ___________ bit in the payload. A) 0’s B) 1’s C) 0’s or 1’s
D) None of the choices are correct 16. HDLC is a ________ oriented protocol A) byte B) bit C) byte or bit D) None of the choices are correct 17. PPP is a ________ oriented protocol A) byte B) bit C) byte or bit D) None of the choices are correct 18. In PPP, the address field defines ___________ of the packet. A) the sender B) the receiver C) either the sender or the receiver D) None of the choices are correct 19. In PPP, the ___________ field defines the type of payload encapsulated in the frame. A) address B) control C) protocol D) None of the choices are correct 20. In PPP, the CHAP protocol uses ____________ steps to authenticate the parties in communication. [2marks] A) one B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 21. In the _______ random-access method collision is avoided. A) CSMA/CD B) CSMA/CA C) ALOHA D) token-passing 22. In the 1-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it _______. [2marks] A) sends immediately B) waits 0.1 s before sending C) waits 1 s before sending D) waits a time equal to 1 − p seconds before sending 23. _______ requires one primary station and one or more secondary stations. A) Token ring B) Reservation C) Polling
D) CSMA 24. In the p-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it _______. [2marks] A) sends immediately B) waits 1 s before sending C) sends with probability 1 − p D) sends with probability p 25. The 1-persistent approach can be considered a special case of the p-persistent approach with p equal to _______. [2marks] A) 1.0 B) 2.0 C) 0.1 D) 0.5 26. In the reservation access method, if there are 10 stations on a network, then there are _______ reservation minislots in the reservation frame. [2marks] A) 10 B) 11 C) 5 D) 9 27. _______ is a controlled-access protocol. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CSMA D) Reservation 28. _______ is (are) a channelization protocol. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) All the choices are correct 29. In the _______ random-access method, stations do not sense the medium. A) CSMA/CA B) ALOHA C) CSMA/CD D) Ethernet 30. Which of the following is an example of a random-access protocol? [2marks] A) Polling B) FDMA C) Token passing D) None of the choices are correct 31. Which of the following is an example of a controlled-access protocol? [2marks] A) CDMA B) FDMA
C) Token passing D) None of the choices are correct 32. The vulnerable time for a pure ALOHA is __________ the one for slotted ALOHA. A) less than B) greater than C) equal to D) None of the choices are correct 33. The vulnerable time for CSMA is ___________. [2marks] A) Tp B) 2 x Tp C) 3 x Tp D) None of the choices are correct 34. We need RTS and CTS packets in ____________ protocol. A) CDMA/CA B) CDMA/CD C) token-passing D) None of the choices are correct 35. In FDMA, we use different ___________ to achieve channelization. A) frequency ranges B) time slots C) codes D) None of the choices are correct. 36. In CDMA, we use different ___________ to achieve channelization. A) frequency ranges B) time slots C) codes D) None of the choices are correct 37. In TDMA, we use different ___________ to achieve channelization. A) frequency ranges B) time slots C) codes D) None of the choices are correct 38. Walsh tables are used in _________________. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) None of the choices are correct 39. Given the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111 in binary, what is the address in hexadecimal notation? [2marks] A) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F 40. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) either multicast or broadcast 41. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) either multicast or broadcast 42. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination address? [2marks] A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34 43. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination address? [2marks] A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34 44. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer. A) data link B) physical C) network D) None of the choices are correct 45. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing. A) LLC B) MII C) MAC D) None of the choices are correct 46. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC). A) 16-bit B) 32-bit C) 64-bit D) None of the choices are correct
47. The minimum frame length for Ethernet is _______bytes. A) 32 B) 80 C) 128 D) None of the choices are correct 48. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000 49. In _________, auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation. [2marks] A) Standard B) Fast Ethernet C) Gigabit Ethernet D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet 50. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000 51. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 52. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 53. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 54. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame. A) CRC B) preamble
C) address D) SFD 55. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information. A) CRC B) preamble C) address D) SFD 56. Which of the following statements about wired and wireless LANs is correct? [2marks] A) Both operate in the lower two layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. B) Wired LANs operate in the lower two layers and wireless LANs operate in the lower three layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. C) Wired LANs operate in the lower three layers and wireless LANs operate in the lower two layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. D) Both operate in the lower three layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. 57. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data-link layers. [2marks] A) IEEE 802.3 B) IEEE 802.5 C) IEEE 802.11 D) IEEE 802.2 58. The CSMA/CD algorithm does not work in wireless LAN because [2marks] A) wireless host does not have enough power to work in a duplex mode. B) of the hidden station problem. C) signal fading could prevent a station at one end from hearing a collision at the other end. D) all of the choices are correct. 59. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP). A) ESS B) BSS C) CSS D) None of the choices are correct 60. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called _________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network C) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network D) None of the choices are correct 61. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network C) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network
D) None of the choices are correct 62. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________. A) BSSs B) ESSs C) APs D) None of the choices are correct 63. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) None of the choices are correct 64. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) None of the choices are correct 65. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) None of the choices are correct 66. In IEEE 802.11, distributed coordination function (DCF) uses _______ as the access method. A) CSMA/CA B) CSMA/CD C) ALOHA D) None of the choices are correct 67. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another station in the same BSS, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 68. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag is _______. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11
69. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 70. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 71. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______. A) contention B) controlled C) polling D) None of the choices are correct 72. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a time period used for collision avoidance. A) NAV B) BSS C) ESS D) None of the choices are correct 73. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses. A) four B) five C) six D) None of the choices are correct 74. The original IEEE 802.11 uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either FHSS or DSSS 75. The IEEE 802.11a uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either FHSS or DSSS 76. The IEEE 802.11b uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM
D) either FHSS or DSSS 77. The IEEE 802.11g uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either FHSS or DSSS 78. The IEEE 802.11 FHSS uses ______ modulation. A) ASK B) FSK C) PSK D) None of the choices are correct 79. The IEEE 802.11 or IEEE 802.11b DSSS uses ______ modulation. A) ASK B) FSK C) PSK D) None of the choices are correct 80. The IEEE 802.11a, IEEE 802.11g, or IEEE 802.11n OFDM uses ______ modulation. A) ASK B) FSK C) PSK D) None of the choices are correct 81. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small area. A) wired LAN B) wireless LAN C) VLAN D) None of the choices are correct 82. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________. [2marks] A) scatternet; piconets B) piconets: scatternet C) piconets: bluenet D) bluenet; scatternet 83. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices. [2marks] A) one; five B) five; three C) two; six D) one; seven 84. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps. A) 2 B) 5
C) 11 D) None of the choices are correct 85. The access method in Bluetooth is ________. A) FDMA B) TDD-TDMA C) CDMA D) None of the choices are correct 86. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency. A) SCO B) ACL C) ACO D) SCL 87. Bluetooth uses ______ in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or other networks. A) DSSS B) FHSS C) FDMA D) None of the choices are correct 88. Packetizing at the network layer involves ___________________________. [2marks] A) encapsulating the payload at the source B) adds a header that contains the source and destination information C) decapsulating the payload at the destination D) All of the choices are correct 89. Routers in the path are not allowed to ___________________________. [2marks] A) fragment the packet they receive B) decapsulate the packet C) change source or destination address D) All of the choices are correct 90. The network layer in the Internet provides _________________. A) comprehensive error and flow control B) limited error control, but no flow control C) comprehensive error control but limited flow control D) All of the choices are correct 91. In a virtual-circuit approach, the forwarding decision is based on the value of the _____________ field in the packet header. [2marks] A) source address B) destination address C) label D) None of the choices are correct
92. In a datagram approach, the forwarding decision is based on the value of the _____________ field in the packet header. [2marks] A) source address B) destination address C) label D) None of the choices are correct 93. The performance of a network can be measured in terms of ________. A) delay B) throughput C) packet loss D) All of the choices are correct 94. Transmission delay (time) is the ratio of______________________. [2marks] A) transmission rate to packet length B) transmission rate to distance C) packet length to transmission rate D) processing time to transmission rate 95. Propagation delay (time) is the ratio of______________________. [2marks] A) transmission rate to propagation speed B) propagation speed to distance C) packet length to propagation speed D) distance to propagation speed 96. When the load in the network reaches the network capacity, the packet delay ___________ and the network throughput reaches ______________. [2marks] A) increases sharply; its minimum B) increases sharply; its maximum C) decreases sharply; its minimum D) decreases sharply; its maximum 97. In open-loop congestion control, policies are applied ____________________. A) to prevent congestion before it happens B) to alleviate congestion after it happens C) to either prevent congestion before it happens or alleviate congestion after it happens D) None of the choices are correct 98. The __________________ technique is one of the open-loop congestion policies. A) backpressure B) choke packet C) implicit signaling D) None of the choices are correct 99. The__________________ technique is one of the close-loop congestion policies. A) acknowledgment policy B) choke packet C) discarding policy
D) None of the choices are correct 100. An IPv4 address is normally represented in base ____ in dotted-decimal notation. A) 16 B) 256 C) 10 D) None of the choices are correct 101. In classful addressing, the IPv4 address space is divided into _______ classes. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 102. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) can be any number B) must be a multiple of 256 C) must be a power of 2 D) None of the choices are correct 103. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. [2marks] A) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses in the organization B) must be divisible by 128 C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes D) None of the choices are correct 104. In subnetting, the number of addresses in each subnet must _______. [2marks] A) be a power of 2 B) be a multiple of 128 C) be divisible by 128 D) None of the choices are correct 105. What is the default prefix length for class A in CIDR notation? A) 9 B) 8 C) 16 D) None of the choices are correct 106. What is the default prefix length for class B in CIDR notation? A) 9 B) 8 C) 16 D) None of the choices are correct 107. What is the default prefix length for class C in CIDR notation? A) 24 B) 8
C) 16 D) None of the choices are correct 108. DHCP is a (an) ___________ layer protocol. A) application B) transport C) network D) data-link 109. In DHCP, the client uses ________ port and the server uses _________port. [2marks] A) an ephemeral; a well-known B) a well-known; a well-known C) a well-known; an ephemeral D) None of the choices are correct 110. DHCP uses the services of _______. A) UDP B) TCP C) IP D) None of the choices are correct 111. _________ allows a site to use a set of private addresses for internal communication and a set of global Internet addresses for communication with the rest of the world. A) DHCP B) NAT C) IMCP D) None of the choices are correct 112. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________ addressing. A) classful B) classless C) classful or classless D) None of the choices are correct 113. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables. A) reduce B) increase C) neither reduce nor increase D) None of the choices are correct 114. IP is a _________ protocol. A) connection-oriented unreliable B) connection-oriented reliable C) connectionless unreliable D) connectionless reliable 115. An HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. [2marks] A) there are 10 bytes of options
B) there are 10 bytes in the header C) there are 40 bytes of options D) there are 40 bytes in the header 116. If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______. A) the datagram has not been fragmented B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 D) None of the choices are correct 117. What is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? A) offset number B) total length C) both offset number and the total length D) None of the choices are correct 118. The IP header size is _______ bytes long. A) 20 to 60 B) 20 C) 60 D) None of the choices are correct 119. Packets in the IP layer are called _________. A) segments B) datagrams C) frames D) None of the choices are correct 120. The total length field defines the total length of the datagram _________. A) including the header B) excluding the header C) excluding the option length D) None of the choices are correct 121. When a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______. A) MUT B) MAT C) MTU D) None of the choices are correct 122. ICMP is a (an) _________ layer protocol. [2marks] A) application-layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer B) transport-layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer C) network-layer protocol D) data-link layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer 123. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message
B) An ICMP error message may be generated for a fragmented datagram C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram D) None of the choices are correct 124. When a host moves to a new network, its original address is referred to as __________. A) home B) care-of C) foreign D) None of the choices are correct 125. Which of the following addresses are permanent in mobile IP? A) home B) care-of C) foreign D) None of the choices are correct 126. To communicate with a remote host, a computer needs to go through __________ phase(s). A) one B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 127. In mobile IP communication, the first phase is called __________. A) agent discovery B) registration C) data transfer D) None of the choices are correct 128. In mobile IP communication, the second phase is called __________. A) agent discovery B) registration C) data transfer D) None of the choices are correct 129. In mobile IP communication, the third phase is called __________. A) agent discovery B) registration C) data transfer D) None of the choices are correct 130. In mobile IP communication, inefficiency in triangle routing is ________ the one in double crossing. A) more severe than B) less severe than C) in the same level as D) None of the choices are correct
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UNIT – 3 ROUTING 1. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long. A) 32 B) 64 C) 128 D) 256 2. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets). A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) None of the choices are correct 3. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length. [2marks] A) 8; 2 B) 8; 3 C) 8; 4 D) None of the choices are correct 4. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits. A) 16 B) 32 C) 8 D) None of the choices are correct 5. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram. A) version B) priority C) hop limit D) None of the choices are correct 6. The _________ in IPv6 is designed to provide special handling for a particular flow of data. A) flow label B) next header C) hop limit D) None of the choices are correct 7. When two computers using IPv6 want to communicate but the packet must pass through an IPv4 region, which transition strategy should be used? [2marks] A) tunneling B) header translation C) either tunneling or header translation D) None of the choices are correct
8. When the majority of the Internet has moved to the IPv6 but some still use IPv4, which transition strategy should be used? [2marks] A) tunneling B) header translation C) either tunneling or header translation D) None of the choices are correct 9. The protocols __________________________ in version 4 are combined into one single protocol, ICMPv6. A) ARP and IGMP B) ICMP and IGMP C) ICMP, ARP, and IGMP D) None of the choices are correct 10. The block prefix for global unicast address in IPv6 is __________. A) (110)2 B) (101)2 C) (100)2 D) (001)2 11. The global prefix in IPv6 is __________ bits long. A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 12. The subnet identifier in IPv6 is __________ bits long. A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 13. The interface identifier in IPv6 is __________ bits long. [2marks] A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 14. The EUI link-layer (physical) address is _________ bits long. [2marks] A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 15. The MAC address in the Ethernet is_________ bits long. A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64
16. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as ________ routing. A) interdomain B) intradomain C) out-of-domain D) None of the choices are correct 17. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ______ routing. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) out-of-domain D) None of the choices are correct 18. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) None of the choices are correct 19. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) None of the choices are correct 20. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change. A) every other node B) its immediate neighbors C) one neighbor D) None of the choices are correct 21. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 22. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) None of the choices are correct 23. In RIP, the ________ timer controls the advertising of regular update messages. [2marks] A) garbage collection
B) expiration C) periodic D) None of the choices are correct 24. In RIP, the ________ timer is used to purge invalid routes from the table. [2marks] A) garbage collection B) expiration C) periodic D) None of the choices are correct 25. In RIP, the ________ timer controls the validity of the route. [2marks] A) garbage collection B) expiration C) periodic D) None of the choices are correct 26. RIP uses the services of _______. A) TCP B) UDP C) IP D) None of the choices are correct 27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) None of the choices are correct 30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) None of the choices are correct
31. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) None of the choices are correct 32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network connected to only one router. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) None of the choices are correct 33. In OSPF, a ________ defines the links of a network. A) network link B) router link C) summary link to network D) None of the choices are correct 34. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing. A) BGP B) RIP C) OSPF D) None of the choices are correct 35. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 36. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 37. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 38. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces. A) unicasting B) multicasting C) broadcasting
D) None of the choices are correct 39. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) None of the choices are correct 40. In the _______ tree approach to multicasting, each router needs to create a separate tree for each source-group. A) group-shared B) source-based C) destination-based D) None of the choices are correct 41. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) routing uses the _______ tree approach. A) source-based B) group-shared C) destination-based D) None of the choices are correct 42. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing. [2marks] A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 43. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. A) shortest B) longest C) average D) None of the choices are correct 44. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. A) forwarding B) backwarding C) flooding D) None of the choices are correct 45. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct
46. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet. A) only one copy B) no copies C) multiple copies D) None of the choices are correct 47. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) None of the choices are correct 48. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. [2marks] A) RPM; RPB B) RPB; RPM C) RPF; RPM D) None of the choices are correct 49. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a source- based routing protocol based on RIP. [2marks] A) MOSPF B) DVMRP C) CBT D) None of the choices are correct 50. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol based on RIP. A) source-based B) group-shared C) destination-based D) None of the choices are correct 51. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) None of the choices are correct 52. PIM-DM is used when the number of routers with attached members is ______ relative to the number of routers in the internet. A) large B) small C) moderate D) None of the choices are correct 53. PIM-SM is used when the number of routers with attached members is ______ relative to the number of routers in the internet. [2marks]
A) large B) small C) moderate D) None of the choices are correct 54. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has. What does the receiving router do with the LSA? [2marks] A) Ignores the LSA B) Adds it to the database C) Sends newer LSU update to source router D) Floods the LSA to the other routers 55. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does the router perform with the LSA? [2marks] a) Ignores the LSA b) Adds it to the database c) Sends newer LSU update to source router d) Floods the LSA to the other routers 56. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update? [2marks] a) 30 seconds b) 1 minute c) 30 minutes d) 1 hour 57. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not. a) True b) False 58. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________ a) Topology table b) Routing table c) Neighbor table d) Adjacency table 59. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets? [2marks] a) 89 b) 86 c) 20 d) 76 60. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use? [2marks] a) 224.0.0.5 b) 224.0.0.6 c) 224.0.0.7
d) 224.0.0.8 61. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers. a) True b) False 62. DBD packets are involved during which two states? [2marks] a) Exstart and exchange b) Loading and Two-way c) Init and Full d) Down and Loading 63. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header? [2marks] a) Packet length b) Router ID c) Authentication type d) Maxage time 64. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header? a) Fragmentation field b) Fast-switching c) ToS field d) Option field 65. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4? [2marks] a) Fragmentation b) Header checksum c) Options d) Anycast address 66. Dual-stack approach refers to _________ [2marks] a) implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks b) implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks c) node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support d) implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks 67. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is ________ [2marks] a) Use dual-stack approach b) Tunneling c) No solution d) Replace the system 68. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol? a) Connectionless b) Offer reliable service c) Offer unreliable service
d) Does not offer error reporting 69. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have? [2marks] a) Complicates routers b) Open to DOS attack c) Overlapping of fragments d) All of the mentioned 70. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments? a) Offset b) Flag c) TTL d) Identifier 71. In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in ______ a) IPs b) Blocks c) Codes d) Sizes 72. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with ________ a) Classless Addressing b) Classful Addressing c) Classful Advertising d) Classless Advertising 73. First address in a block is used as network address that represents the ________ a) Class Network b) Entity c) Organization d) Codes 74. In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are ________ a) Organized b) Blocked c) Wasted d) Communicated 75. Which of this is not a class of IP address? a) Class E b) Class C c) Class D d) Class F
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UNIT – 4 TRANSPORT LAYER 1. One of the main duties of the transport layer is to provide ____________ communication. A) node-to-node B) host-to-host C) process-to-process D) None of the choices are correct 2. A client program normally uses ____________ port number. A server program normally uses __________ port number. [2marks] A) a well-known; an ephemeral B) an ephemeral; a well-known C) a private; a well-known D) None of the choices are correct 3. A socket address is a combination of __________. A) a MAC address and a logical address B) a MAC address and a port number C) a user-specific address and a logical address D) None of the choices are correct 4. ______________ means accepting items from more than one source. ______________ means delivering items to more than one source. [2marks] A) Demultiplexing; Multiplexing B) Multiplexing; Demultiplexing C) Encapsulation; Decapsulation D) Pulling; Pushing 5. ________ means the producer delivers the items when they are produced. _______ means the consumer takes the items when it is ready to do so. [2marks] A) Pushing; Pulling B) Pulling; Pushing C) Forwarding; Accepting D) None of the choices are correct 6. In the stop-and-wait protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the maximum receive window size is _______, where m is the number of bits in the sequence. [2marks] A) 1; 1 B) 2m; 1 C) 1; 2m D) 2m; 2m 7. In the Go-Back-N protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the maximum receive window size is _______, where m is related to the number of bits in the sequence number. [2marks] A) 1; 1
B) 1; 2m C) 2m − 1; 1 D) 2m − 1; 2m − 1 8. In the selective-repeat protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the maximum receive window size is _______, where m is the number of bits in the sequence. [2marks] A) 1; 1 B) 1; 2m − 1 C) 2m − 1; 1 D) 2m − 1; 2m – 1 9. UDP is a ________________transport protocol. A) connectionless, reliable B) connection-oriented, unreliable C) connectionless, unreliable D) None of the choices are correct 10. UDP is an acronym for _______. A) User Delivery Protocol B) User Datagram Procedure C) User Datagram Protocol D) None of the choices are correct 11. At the transport layer, to define the processes, we need two identifiers called ____________. A) logical addresses B) physical addresses C) port addresses D) None of the choices are correct 12. The ports ranging from 0 to 1,023 are called the ___________ ports. The ports ranging from 1,024 to 49,151 are called ___________ ports. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 are called the ___________ ports. [2marks] A) well-known; registered; dynamic or private B) registered; dynamic or private; well-known C) private or dynamic; well-known; registered D) private or dynamic; registered; well-known 13. UDP and TCP are two protocols at the ___________ layer. A) data-link B) network C) transport D) application 14. A port number is _______ bits long. A) 8 B) 16 C) 32
D) 64 15. Communication at the transport layer is _________. A) node-to-node B) end-to-end C) node-to-host D) host-to-node 16. In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 6, the value of Sf is _______________. [2marks] A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 17. In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 6, the value of Sn is _______________. [2marks] A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 18. In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 5, the window ________. [2marks] A) slides two slots B) slides one slot C) slides three slots D) does not slide 19. In Selective Repeat, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 5, the window ________. [2marks] A) slides two slots B) slides one slot C) slides three slots D) does not slide 20. In Selective Repeat, when a timeout occurs, the timer is ________. A) stopped B) started C) reset (stopped and started) D) None of the choices are correct 21. UDP and TCP are two protocols at the ___________ layer. A) data-link B) network C) transport D) application 22. A port number is _______ bits long.
A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64 23. Which of the following does UDP provide? A) Flow control B) Connection-oriented delivery C) Error control D) None of the choices are correct 24. The source port number on the UDP user datagram header defines _______. A) the sending computer B) the receiving computer C) the process running on the sending computer D) None of the choices are correct 25. To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses. A) four B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 26. UDP packets are called __________. A) user datagrams B) segments C) frames D) None of the choices are correct 27. UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes. A) 16 B) 8 C) 40 D) 32 28. TCP is a __________protocol. A) byte-oriented B) message-oriented C) block-oriented D) None of the choices are correct 29. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________. A) user datagram B) segment C) datagram D) None of the choices are correct 30. TCP is a(n) ___________ protocol. A) connection-oriented
B) connectionless C) both connection-oriented and connectionless D) None of the choices are correct 31. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol. A) unreliable B) best-effort delivery C) reliable D) None of the choices are correct 32. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data. A) an acknowledgment mechanism B) out-of-band signaling C) the services of another protocol D) None of the choices are correct 33. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a __________________. [2marks] A) 0 B) 1 C) randomly generated number D) None of the choices are correct 34. In TCP, the sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte (virtual byte) carried in that segment. A) first B) last C) middle D) None of the choices are correct 35. Communication in TCP is ___________. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) None of the choices are correct 36. In TCP, the value of the acknowledgment field in a sent segment defines the sequence number related to the ______byte a party expects to receive next. A) first B) last C) next D) None of the choices are correct 37. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________. A) optional B) mandatory C) depends on the type of data D) None of the choices are correct
38. In TCP, a SYN segment consumes _____ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) None of the choices are correct 39. In TCP, a SYN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence numbers. A) no B) three C) two D) one 40. In TCP, an ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) None of the choices are correct 41. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security problem called the _________ attack. A) ACK flooding B) FIN flooding C) SYN flooding D) None of the choices are correct 42. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____ attack. A) denial of service B) replay C) man-in-the middle D) None of the choices are correct 43. In TCP, a FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data. A) two B) three C) no D) one 44. In TCP, a FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry data. A) two B) three C) one D) no 45. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______ termination. A) half-close B) half-open
C) full-close D) None of the choices are correct 46. TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented. A) packet B) segment C) byte D) None of the choices are correct 47. In TCP, the size of the send window is the ________ of rwnd and cwnd. A) maximum B) sum of C) minimum D) None of the choices are correct 48. In TCP, the window should not be _________. A) opened B) closed C) shrunk D) slide 49. In TCP, the receiver can temporarily shut down the window; the sender, however, can always send a segment of _____ byte(s) after the window is shut down. [2marks] A) ten B) zero C) one D) None of the choices are correct 50. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when either the sending application program creates data slowly or the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. This problem is called the ______. [2marks] A) silly window syndrome B) unexpected syndrome C) window bug D) None of the choices are correct 51. Nagle's algorithm can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________. A) sender B) receiver C) both sender and receiver D) None of the choices are correct 52. Clark's solution can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________. A) sender B) receiver C) both sender and receiver D) None of the choices are correct
53. Delayed acknowledgment can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________. A) sender B) receiver C) both sender and receiver D) None of the choices are correct 54. In TCP, an ACK segments that carry no data consumes _______ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) None of the choices are correct 55. In modern implementations of TCP, a retransmission occurs if the retransmission timer expires or ________ duplicate ACK segments have arrived. A) one B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 56. In TCP, ________ retransmission timer is set for an ACK segment. A) one B) a previous C) no D) None of the choices are correct 57. In TCP, there can be ______ RTT measurement(s) in progress at any time. A) two B) only one C) several D) None of the choices are correct 58. We need to multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of bytes in the TCP header. [2marks] A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) None of the choices are correct 59. In TCP, urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit (to be set) in the _______ field. [2marks] A) control B) offset C) sequence number D) None of the choices are correct 60. In TCP, if the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully. [2marks] A) 199
B) 200 C) 201 D) None of the choices are correct 61. __________ control refers to the mechanisms and techniques to keep the load below the capacity. A) Flow B) Error C) Congestion D) None of the choices are correct 62. In TCP's ________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold. A) congestion avoidance B) congestion detection C) slow start D) None of the choices are correct 63. In TCP's __________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases additively until congestion is detected. A) congestion avoidance B) congestion detection C) slow start D) None of the choices are correct 64. ________ treats the two signs of congestion detections, timeout and three duplicate ACKs, in the same way. [2marks] A) Taho TCP B) Reno TCP C) New Reno TCP D) None of the choices are correct 65. In ______ TCP, when the connection is established, TCP starts the slow start algorithms and sets the ssthresh variable to a pre-agreed value (normally 64 or 128 kilobytes) and the cwnd variable to 1 MSS. [2marks] A) Taho B) Reno C) new Reno D) None of the choices are correct 66. The ___________ added a new state to the congestion control FSM, called the fast recovery state. [2marks] A) Taho TCP B) Reno TCP C) new Reno TCP D) None of the choices are correct 67. The ___________ treated the two signals of congestion, timeout and arrival of three duplicate ACKs, differently. [2marks]
A) Taho TCP B) Reno TCP C) new Reno TCP D) None of the choices are correct 68. The __________ state in Reno TCP is a state somehow between the slow start and the congestion avoidance states. A) congestion avoidance B) congestion detection C) slow recovery D) None of the choices are correct 69. In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if duplicate ACKs continue to come, TCP ____________________________________. [2marks] A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially C) moves to slow start state D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflate the size of the cwnd to ssthresh value 70. In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if a timeout occurs, TCP ____________________________________. [2marks] A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially C) moves to slow start state D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflate the size of the cwnd to ssthresh value 71. In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if a new (non duplicate) ACK arrives, TCP ____________________________________. [2marks] A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially C) moves to slow start state D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflates the size of the cwnd to ssthresh value 72. A later version of TCP, called ______ TCP, made an extra optimization on the _______ TCP. [2marks] A) new Reno; Reno B) new Taho; Taho C) new Reno; Taho D) new Taho; Reno 73. In the slow start algorithm, the size of the congestion window grows ______________ until ___________________. [2marks] A) exponentially; it reaches a threshold B) exponentially; congestion is detected C) additively; it reaches a threshold D) additively; congestion is detected
74. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window grows ______________. [2marks] A) exponentially; it reaches a threshold B) exponentially; congestion is detected C) additively; it reaches a threshold D) additively; congestion is detected 75. The congestion window size, after it passes the initial slow start state, follows a saw tooth pattern called _________________________________. [2marks] A) exponential increase, additive decrease B) additive increase, exponential decrease C) multiplicative increase, additive decrease D) additive increase, multiplicative decrease 76. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol. A) reliable, character-oriented B) reliable, message-oriented C) unreliable, message-oriented D) None of the choices are correct 77. SCTP allows __________ service in each association. A) only single-stream B) multistream C) only double-stream D) None of the choices are correct 78. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________. A) a TSN B) an SI C) an SSN D) None of the choices are correct 79. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________. A) a TSN B) an SI C) an SSN D) None of the choices are correct 80. The control information in SCTP is carried in the ________. A) header control field B) control chunks C) data chunks D) None of the choices are correct 81. Which of the following is not a characteristic attributed to a data flow? A) Reliability B) Delay C) Bandwidth
D) All choices are correct 82. Which of the following method is used to improve QoS? A) Scheduling B) Resource reservation C) Traffic shaping or policing D) All choices are correct 83. Which of the following method is a scheduling technique? A) FIFO queuing B) Priority queuing C) Weighted-fair queuing D) All choices are correct 84. A _______ algorithm is a policing technique that shapes bursty traffic into fixed-rate traffic by averaging the data rate, but it does not give credit to the user during idle periods. A) leaky bucket B) token bucket C) priority queuing D) weighted-fair queuing 85. A _______algorithm is a policing technique that allows bursty traffic at a regulated maximum rate and give some credits to the user during idle periods. A) leaky bucket B) token bucket C) priority queuing D) weighted-fair queuing 86. Which QoS model depends heavily on resource reservation? [2marks] A) IntServ B) DiffServ C) Scheduling D) Policing 87. Integrated Services is a _______________ QoS model designed for IP. A) flow-based B) class-based C) reliability-based D) efficiency-based 88. Differentiated Services is a _______________ QoS model designed for IP. A) flow-based B) class-based C) reliability-based D) efficiency-based 89. Guaranteed services in IntServ model are required for __________application. [2marks]
A) on-demand audio/video B) stored audio/video C) real-time D) All choices are correct 90. Controlled-Load services in IntServ model are designed for applications that ______________________. [2marks] A) can accept some delays, but are sensitive to packet loss B) can accept some packet loss, but are sensitive to delay C) are sensitive to both delay and packet loss D) are sensitive to neither delay nor packet loss 91. IntServ model is ________________________________________ [2marks] A) scalable but has service type limitation. B) scalable and does not have service type limitation. C) not scalable and has service type limitation. D) not scalable but does not have service type limitation. 92. To implement _________, the DS node uses _________________ such as meters, markers, shapers, and droppers. [2marks] A) Diffserv; traffic conditioners B) Diffserv; gadgets C) IntServ; traffic conditioners D) IntServ; gadgets 93. FTP requires a _________ level of reliability. A) low B) medium C) high D) None of the choices are correct 94. Voice over IP requires a _________ level of reliability. A) low B) medium C) high D) None of the choices are correct 95. In priority queuing, when the higher-priority queue is full, the next packet is _________. A) sent to the lower priority queue B) kept in the higher priority queue C) discarded D) None of the choices are correct 96. In weighted-fair queuing, there is _________ starvation. A) sometimes B) never C) always D) None of the choices are correct
97. In the leaky-bucket implementation, we use ____________. A) FIFO queuing B) priority queuing C) weighted-fair queuing D) None of the choices are correct 98. In the token-bucket implementation, we use ____________. A) FIFO queuing B) priority queuing C) weighted-fair queuing D) None of the choices are correct 99. Integrated Services use ____________ class(es) of service. A) one B) two C) three D) four. 100. Integrated Services use ____________ messages. A) path B) reservation C) neither path nor reservation D) both path and reservation ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFER THE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y
UNIT – 5 APPLICATION LAYER 1. HTTP uses the services of _________. A) UDP B) IP C) TCP D) DNS 2. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first line in the response message is called the ________ line. [2marks] A) request; response B) status; response C) status; status D) None of the choices are correct 3. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response. A) persistent B) nonpersistent C) persistent or a nonpersistent D) None of the choices are correct 4. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after sending a response. A) persistent B) nonpersistent C) persistent or nonpersistent D) None of the choices are correct 5. In HTTP, _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent requests. A) a regular B) a proxy C) an auxiliary D) a remote 6. An HTTP request message always contains _______. [2marks] A) a header line and a body B) a request line and a header line C) a request line, a header line, and a body D) a request line, a header line, a blank line, and a body 7. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line? A) Version number B) URL C) Status code D) Method
8. FTP uses the services of ________. A) UDP B) IP C) TCP D) None of the choices are correct 9. In FTP, _________ well-known port(s) is (are) used. A) one B) two C) three D) four 10. During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______. A) once B) twice C) many times D) None of the choices are correct 11. During an FTP session the data connection may be opened _______. A) only once B) only two times C) as many times as needed D) None of the choices are correct 12. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are types of an attribute called _______. [2marks] A) file types B) data structures C) transmission modes D) None of the choices are correct 13. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed. A) file types B) data types C) transmission modes D) None of the choices are correct 14. An FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______. A) file type B) data structure C) transmission mode D) None of the choices are correct 15. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server. A) retrieve a file B) store a file C) open a file D) None of the choices are correct
16. In the common scenario, the electronic mail system needs _________________________. [2marks] A) two UAs, two MTAs, and one MAA B) two UAs, two MTAs, and two MAAs C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs D) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs 17. ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending or receiving a message easier. A) An MTA B) An MAA C) A UA D) None of the choices are correct 18. An e-mail message contains the ________ and the __________. [2marks] A) header; envelop B) header; body C) envelop; body D) None of the choices are correct 19. In the Internet, an e-mail address consists of two parts: a _______ and a _______. [2marks] A) local part; domain name B) global part; domain name C) label; domain name D) local part; label 20. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent through e-mail. [2marks] A) SMPT B) MPEG C) MIME D) POP 21. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called ___________. [2marks] A) SMTP B) SNMP C) TELNET D) SSH 22. SMTP is a __________protocol. A) pull B) push C) push and pull D) None of the choices are correct 23. The message access protocol is a ________ protocol. A) pull
B) push C) push and pull D) None of the choices are correct 24. In the _______ encoding scheme, each 24 bits become four 6-bit chunks, and eventually are sent as 32 bits. [2marks] A) 8bit B) binary C) base64 D) quoted-printable 25. In the _______ encoding scheme, a non-ASCII character is sent as 3 characters. A) 8bit B) base64 C) quoted-printable D) binary 26. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________. A) terminal network B) telephone network C) telecommunication network D) None of the choices are correct 27. When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________ login. A) local B) remote C) local or remote D) None of the choices are correct 28. When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote machine, he or she performs ___________ login. A) local B) remote C) local or remote D) None of the choices are correct 29. Network Virtual Terminal (NVT) uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for __________. [2marks] A) sending; receiving B) request; reply C) data; control D) None of the choices are correct 30. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. [2marks] A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 or 0 D) None of the choices are correct
31. For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. [2marks] A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 or 0 D) None of the choices are correct 32. The _______ translates local characters into NVT characters. [2marks] A) terminal driver B) TELNET client C) TELNET server D) pseudoterminal driver 33. The _______ translates local characters into NVT characters. [2marks] A) terminal driver B) TELNET client C) TELNET server D) pseudoterminal driver 34. The _________ component in the SSH provides confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and compression. [2marks] A) SSH Application B) SSH-AUTH C) SSH-CONN D) SSH-TRAN 35. Port forwarding is ____________________________. [2marks] A) a protocol used to forward messages from one port to another port B) a procedure for changing an ephemeral port to a well-known port C) a service, provided by SSH, that creates a secure channel for applications that do not have security services D) None of the choices are correct 36. In a (an) _______ name space, a name is a sequence of characters without structure. A) linear B) flat C) hierarchical D) organized 37. In a (an) _________name space, each name is made of several parts. A) linear B) flat C) hierarchical D) organized 38. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure. A) a linear list B) an inverted-tree
C) a three-dimensional D) None of the choices are correct 39. The root of the DNS tree is _______. [2marks] A) a string of 127 characters B) a string of 63 characters C) a string of 15 characters D) an empty string 40. In the domain name space, a full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________. A) colons B) semicolons C) dots D) commas 41. In the domain name space, if a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) PQDN B) CQDN C) SQDN D) None of the choices are correct 42. In the domain name space, if a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) FQDN B) PQDN C) SQDN D) None of the choices are correct 43. In the domain name space, a _________ is a subtree of the domain name space. A) label B) name C) domain D) None of the choices are correct 44. In the domain name space, what a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________. A) domain B) label C) zone D) None of the choices are correct 45. A _______ server is a computer whose zone system consists of the whole tree. A) domain B) zone C) root D) primary
46. A ________ server is a computer that stores a file about the zone for which it has an authority. A) primary B) secondary C) zone D) root 47. A ________ server is a computer that transfers the complete information about a zone from another server. A) primary B) secondary C) zone D) root 48. In the Internet, the country domain section uses ___________ country abbreviations. A) two-character B) three-character C) four-character D) None of the choices are correct 49. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final answer. A) iterative B) recursive C) straight D) None of the choices are correct 50. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that it thinks can resolve the query. A) iterative B) recursive C) straight D) None of the choices are correct 51. DNS can use the services of ________. A) UDP B) TCP C) either UDP or TCP D) None of the choices are correct 52. In a centralized P2P network, the directory system uses the ________paradigm; the storing and downloading of the files are done using __________ paradigm. [2marks] A) client-server; client-server B) peer-to-peer; client-server C) client-server; peer-to-peer D) peer-to-peer; peer-to-peer. 53. Napster is an example of a ____________ peer-to-peer network. A) centralized
B) structured-decentralized C) unstructured-decentralized D) None of the choices are correct 54. Gnutella is an example of a ____________ peer-to-peer network. [2marks] A) centralized B) structured-decentralized C) unstructured-decentralized D) None of the choices are correct 55. BitTorrent is an example of a ____________ peer-to-peer network. [2marks] A) centralized B) structured-decentralized C) unstructured-decentralized D) None of the choices are correct 56. In a structured-decentralized P2P network ________________. A) the directory system is kept in a center B) a query to find a file must be flooded through the network C) a pre-defined set of rules is used to link nodes so that a query can be effectively and efficiently resolved D) None of the choices are correct 57. In a DHT-based network, each peer [2marks] A) has a partial knowledge about the whole network. B) has a complete knowledge about the whole network. C) only has knowledge about its successor. D) None of the choices are correct 58. The finger table is the routing table used in ______________. A) Gnutella B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 59. Which of the following is not a Chord interface? A) Lookup B) Fix node C) Stabilize D) Join 60. In__________ a key is stored in a node whose identifier is numerically closest to the key. [2marks] A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct
61. To resolve a query, _________ uses two entities: a routing table and a leaf set. [2marks] A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 62. In Kademlia, the distance between the two identifiers (nodes or keys) is measured as the bitwise- ___________ between them. A) AND B) NOR C) OR D) None of the choices are correct 63. In________, nodes and data items are m-bit identifiers that create an identifier space of 2m points distributed at the leaves of a binary tree. A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 64. In Kademlia, each node in the network divides the binary tree into m subtrees that___________. A) include the node itself B) do not include the node itself C) include the node itself and the successor node D) None of the choices are correct 65. Trackerless BitTorrent uses __________ DHT to do the job of tracking. [2marks] A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 66. Finger tables are used by __________. A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 67. Three security goals are _______________________________________. A) confidentiality, cryptography, and nonrepudiation B) confidentiality, encryption, and decryption C) confidentiality, integrity, and availability D) None of the choices are correct 68. Which of the following attacks is threatening integrity? A) Masquerading B) Traffic Analysis
C) Denial of service D) None of the choices are correct 69. Which of the following attacks is threatening availability? A) Replaying B) Modification C) Denial of service D) None of the choices are correct 70. _____________ means concealing the contents of a message by enciphering. A) Steganography B) Cryptography C) Compressing D) None of the choices are correct 71. ______________means concealing the message by covering it with something else. A) Cryptography B) Steganography C) Compressing D) None of the choices are correct 72. In __________cryptography, the same key is used by the sender and the receiver. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) public-key D) None of the choices are correct 73. In _________ cryptography, the same key is used in both directions. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) public-key D) None of the choices are correct 74. _________ cryptography is often used for long messages. A) Symmetric-key B) Asymmetric-key C) Public-key D) None of the choices are correct 75. ___________ cryptography is often used for short messages. A) Symmetric-key B) Asymmetric-key C) Secret-key D) None of the choices are correct 76. __________means that the sender and the receiver expect confidentiality. A) Nonrepudiation B) Integrity C) Authentication
D) None of the choices are correct 77. ___________ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as they were sent. A) Nonrepudiation B) Message integrity C) Authentication D) None of the choices are correct 78. ______________ can provide authentication, integrity, and nonrepudiation for a message. A) Encryption/decryption B) Digital signature C) Compression D) None of the choices are correct 79. Digital signature does not provide _________. A) nonrepudiation B) privacy C) authentication D) Provides all of the choices 80. In ___________, the identity of a party is verified once for the entire duration of system access. A) entity authentication B) message integrity C) message authentication D) None of the choices are correct 81. In __________ cryptography, everyone has access to everyone's public key. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) secret-key D) None of the choices are correct 82. After a message is encrypted, it is called _______. A) plaintext B) ciphertext C) cryptotext D) None of the choices are correct 83. In the asymmetric-key method used for confidentiality, which key is publicly known? A) Encryption key only B) Decryption key only C) Both keys D) None of the choices are correct 84. In the asymmetric-key method used for confidentiality, the receiver uses his/her own ______________ to decrypt the message.
A) private key B) public key C) no key D) None of the choices are correct 85. The RSA algorithm for confidentiality uses _______ cryptography. A) asymmetric-key B) symmetric-key C) substitution D) None of the choices are correct 86. In RSA, if user A wants to send an encrypted message to user B, the plaintext is encrypted with the public key of _______. A) user A B) user B C) the network D) None of the choices are correct 87. In the digital signature technique when the whole message is signed using an asymmetric key, the sender of the message uses _______ to sign the message. [2marks] A) his or her own symmetric key B) his or her own private key C) his or her own public key D) None of the choices are correct 88. In the digital signature technique when the whole message is signed using an asymmetric key, the receiver of the message uses _______ to verify the signature. [2marks] A) her or his own public key B) her or his own private key C) the sender's public key D) None of the choices are correct 89. A _______ is a trusted third party that solves the problem of symmetric-key distribution. [2marks] A) CA B) KDC C) TLS D) firewall 90. A _______ certifies the binding between a public key and its owner. [2marks] A) CA B) KDC C) TLS D) None of the choices are correct
ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFER THE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y ***KEEP LEARNING***HAPPY LEARNING***

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Ec8551 communication networks mcq question bank

  • 1.
    EC8551 - COMMUNICATION NETWORKS MCQ QUESTIONBANK Jai Ganesh S MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
  • 2.
    EC8551 – COMMUNICATIONNETWORKS MCQ QUESTION BANK UNIT – 1 FUNDAMENTALS AND LINK LAYER 1. A local area network (LAN) is defined by _______________. A) the geometric size of the network B) the maximum number of hosts in the network C) the maximum number of hosts in the network and/or the geometric size of the network D) the topology of the network 2. The largest geographic area a wide area network (WAN) can span is _______________. A) a town B) a state C) a country D) the world 3. A proposed standard is elevated to ________ standard status after at least two successful tries. A) informational B) historic C) draft D) None of the choices are correct 4. Which of the following is not one of the components of a data communication system? A) Message B) Sender C) Medium D) All of the choices are correct 5. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of a data communication system? A) Delivery B) Accuracy C) Jitter D) All of the choices are correct 6. Data can flow only in one direction all of the times in a _________ mode. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) None of the choices are correct 7. Data can flow only in both direction all of the times in a _________ mode. A) simplex
  • 3.
    B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D)None of the choices are correct 8. Which of the following is not one of the network criteria? A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) All of the choices are correct 9. In a _____________ communication, the media needs to be shared between devices. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) mesh D) None of the choices are correct 10. In a _____________ communication, the media is dedicated. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) mesh D) None of the choices are correct 11. In a fully connected mesh topology with six computers, we need ________ links. [2marks] A) 6 B) 36 C) 15 D) None of the choices are correct 12. In a star topology with six computers, we need ________ links. [2marks] A) 6 B) 1 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 13. An RFC is labeled ________ if it must be implemented by all Internet systems. A) required B) elective C) recommended D) None of the choices are correct 14. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected to each other. A) interface message processors (IMPs) B) host computers C) networks D) routers 15. _______ was formed to connect universities with no defense ties. A) ARPANET
  • 4.
    B) CSNET C) NSFNET D)ANSNET 16. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. A) signal amplitude B) frequency C) phase D) time 17. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________. A) signal amplitude B) frequency C) phase D) time 18. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values. A) Analog B) Digital C) Analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 19. _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values. A) Analog B) Digital C) Analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 20. _____ signals have an infinite number of values in a time interval. A) Analog B) Digital C) Either analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 21. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values in a time interval. A) Analog B) Digital C) Either analog or digital D) None of the choices are correct 22. Frequency and period are ______. A) inverse of each other B) proportional to each other C) the same D) are not related 23. ________is the rate of change with respect to time. A) Amplitude B) Time
  • 5.
    C) Frequency D) Phase 24._______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. A) Amplitude B) Time C) Frequency D) Phase 25. A simple sine wave can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain. A) amplitude B) time C) frequency D) phase 26. As frequency increases, the period ________. A) decreases B) increases C) remains the same D) None of the choices are correct 27. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel 28. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel 29. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel 30. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________. A) throughput B) wavelength of the signal C) distortion factor D) distance a signal or bit has traveled 31. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel.
  • 6.
    A) low-pass B) bandpass C)low rate D) high rate 32. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel. A) low-pass B) bandpass C) low rate D) high rate 33. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate. A) noisy B) noiseless C) bandpass D) low-pass 34. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate. A) noisy B) noiseless C) bandpass D) low-pass 35. _________ can impair a signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) All of the choices are correct 36. Communication at the data-link layer is ___________________. A) end-to-end B) node-to-node C) process-to-process D) None of the choices are correct 37. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network. [2marks] A) link-layer address B) logical address C) port number D) None of the choices are correct 38. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
  • 7.
    C) the sourceIP address D) None of the choices are correct 39. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) the source IP address D) None of the choices are correct 40. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) the source IP address D) None of the choices are correct 41. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host in the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. [2marks] A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) source IP address D) None of the choices are correct 42. An ARP reply is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) None of the choices are correct 43. An ARP request is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) None of the choices are correct 44. A packet at the data-link layer is normally called a _______. A) datagram B) message C) frame D) None of the choices are correct 45. In a ________________ link, the link is not shared between devices. A) broadcast B) point-to-point C) multicast
  • 8.
    D) None ofthe choices are correct 46. In a ________________ link, the link is shared between many devices. A) broadcast B) point-to-point C) unicast D) None of the choices are correct 47. Data-link layer of a broadcast link has __________ sublayer(s). A) one B) two C) no D) None of the choices are correct 48. Data-link layer of a point-to-point link has __________ sublayer(s). A) one B) two C) no D) None of the choices are correct 49. Media access control can be presented only in a __________ link(s). A) point-to-point B) multicast C) both point-to-point and multicast D) None of the choices are correct 50. Which of the following best describes a single-bit error? [2marks] A) A single bit is inverted B) A single bit per transmission is inverted C) A single bit per data unit is inverted D) All of the choices are correct 51. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? A) Simple parity check B) Checksum C) Two-dimensional parity check D) CRC 52. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit? A) Two-dimensional parity check B) CRC C) Simple parity check D) Checksum 53. Which error detection method involves polynomials? A) CRC B) Simple parity check C) Two-dimensional parity check D) Checksum
  • 9.
    54. If theASCII character G is sent and the character D is received, what type of error is this? A) Single-bit B) Multiple-bit C) Burst D) Recoverable 55. If the ASCII character H is sent and the character L is received, what type of error is this? A) Burst B) Recoverable C) Single-bit D) Multiple-bit 56. In cyclic redundancy checking, what forms the check bits? A) The remainder B) The divisor C) The quotient D) The dividend 57. In CRC, if the dataword is 111111, the divisor 1010, and the remainder 110, what is the codeword at the receiver? [2marks] A) 111111011 B) 1010110 C) 111111110 D) 110111111 58. In CRC, if the dataword is 111111 and the divisor 1010, what is the dividend at the sender? [2marks] A) 1111110000 B) 111111000 C) 111111 D) 1111111010 59. At the CRC generator, _______ is (are) added to the dataword after the division process to create the codeword. [2marks] A) 0’s B) 1’s C) the remainder D) the divisor 60. The sum of the checksum and data at the receiver is _______ if no error is detected. [2marks] A) − 0 B) + 0 C) the complement of the checksum D) the complement of the dataword
  • 10.
    61. In CRC,the quotient at the sender _______. A) becomes the dividend at the receiver B) becomes the divisor at the receiver C) is the remainder D) is discarded 62. At the CRC checker, _______ means that the dataword is damaged. A) a string of alternating 1s and 0s B) a nonzero remainder C) a string of 0s D) None of the choices are correct 63. A codeword of 10 bits has only four 0s, how many terms are in the polynomial representation of this code? [2marks] A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) None of the choices are correct 64. In CRC, if the remainder is only three bits, the divisor should be __________ bits. [2marks] A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) None of the choices are correct 65. How many bits are in the divisor if we use CRC-8? [2marks] A) 9 B) 8 C) 10 D) None of the choices are correct 66. Checksum uses ____________ addition. A) one’s complement B) two’s complement C) three’s complement D) None of the choices are correct 67. To detect five errors, the Hamming distance between each pair of codewords should be at least_________. A) 5 B) 6 C) 11 D) None of the choices are correct 68. To correct five errors, the Hamming distance between each pair of codewords should be at least_________. [2marks] A) 5 B) 6
  • 11.
    C) 11 D) Noneof the choices are correct 69. A checksum can _________ errors. A) only detect B) only correct C) both detect and correct D) None of the choices are correct 70. Currently _______ is responsible for the management of Internet domain names and addresses. [2marks] A) NIC B) ICANN C) ISOC D) IEFE 71. The TCP/IP protocol suite consists of _______ layers. A) two B) three C) five D) six 72. A router is involved in ____________ layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. A) two B) three C) four D) five 73. A link-layer switch is involved in ______________ layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. A) two B) three C) four D) five 74. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which of the following is an application layer protocol? [2marks] A) The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) B) The Internet Protocol (IP) C) The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D) The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) 75. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which of the following is a transport-layer protocol? [2marks] A) The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) B) The Internet Protocol (IP) C) The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) D) The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • 12.
    76. In theTCP/IP protocol suite, which of the following is a network layer protocol? [2marks] A) The Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) B) The Secure Shell (SSH) C) The Internet Protocol (IP) D) User Datagram Protocol (UDP) 77. The transport-layer packet in the TCP/IP protocol suite is called _______________. A) a message B) a datagram C) a segment or a user datagram D) a frame 78. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, the ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next. A) physical B) data-link C) transport D) network 79. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, the physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical medium. A) programs B) dialogs C) protocols D) bits 80. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, a port number is the identifier at the____________. A) application layer B) transport layer C) network layer D) physical layer 81. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, a logical address is the identifier at the _______________. A) network layer B) transport layer C) data-link layer D) application layer 82. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another. A) physical B) transport C) network D) application 83. The Internet Protocol (IP) is ________ protocol. A) a reliable B) a connection-oriented
  • 13.
    C) a reliableand connection-oriented D) an unreliable 84. The application layer in the TCP/IP protocol suite is usually considered to be the combination of ________layers in the OSI model. A) application, presentation, and session B) application, transport, and network C) application, data-link, and physical D) network, data-link, and physical 85. In TCP/IP, a message at the application layer is encapsulated in a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 86. In TCP/IP, a message at the transport layer is encapsulated in a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 87. In TCP/IP, a message belonging to the network layer is decapsulated from a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 88. In TCP/IP, a message belonging to the transport layer is decapsulated from a packet at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 89. In TCP/IP, a logical connection between an entity at the network layer can be made with another entity at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport C) data-link D) physical 90. In TCP/IP, a logical connection between an entity at the data-link layer can be made with another entity at the ________ layer. A) network B) transport
  • 14.
    C) data-link D) physical 91.In TCP/IP, a packet at the third layer carries data belonging to the ________ layer and the header belonging to the _________ layer. [2marks] A) third; third B) third; fourth C) fourth; third D) fourth; fourth 92. Polar and bipolar encoding are types of _______ coding. A) line B) block C) scrambling D) None of the choices are correct 93. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling. A) Analog-to-digital B) Digital-to-analog C) Analog-to-analog D) Digital-to-digital 94. In ______ schemes, the voltage level oscillates between a positive and a negative value although it may remain at zero level between the two values. A) polar B) bipolar C) nonpolar D) None of the choices are correct 95. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. [2marks] A) NRZ-I B) NRZ-L C) NRZ-I or NRZ-L D) None of the choices are correct 96. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. [2marks] A) NRZ-I B) NRZ-L C) NRZ-I or NRZ-L D) None of the choices are correct 97. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ scheme. [2marks] A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) Manchester or differential Manchester D) None of the choices are correct
  • 15.
    98. The ideaof RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ scheme. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) Manchester or differential Manchester D) None of the choices are correct 99. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________. [2marks] A) bit transfer B) baud transfer C) synchronization D) None of the choices are correct 100. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative. A) polar B) bipolar C) nonpolar D) None of the choices are correct 101. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal. [2marks] A) 4B5B B) 2B1Q C) B8ZS D) None of the choices are correct 102. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. A) RZ B) Manchester C) Differential Manchester D) All the choices are correct 103. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit. A) RZ B) Manchester C) Differential Manchester D) All the choices are correct 104. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization? A) NRZ-L B) RZ C) NRZ-I D) Manchester 105. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s? A) NRZ-I B) RZ C) Manchester
  • 16.
    D) AMI 106. Blockcoding can help in _______ and _________ at the receiver. [2marks] A) synchronization and error detection B) synchronization and attenuation C) error detection and attenuation D) error detection and distortion 107. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal. A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Scrambling D) All of the choices are correct 108. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection. A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Line coding or block coding D) None of the choices are correct 109. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group. [2marks] A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Scrambling D) None of the choices are correct 110. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits. A) Scrambling B) Line coding C) Block coding D) None of the choices are correct 111. Two common scrambling techniques are ________. [2marks] A) NRZ and RZ B) AMI and NRZ C) B8ZS and HDB3 D) Manchester and differential Manchester 112. PCM is an example of _______ conversion. A) digital-to-digital B) digital-to-analog C) analog-to-analog D) analog-to-digital 113. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________. A) PAL
  • 17.
    B) PCM C) sampling D)None of the choices are correct 114. The first step in PCM is ________. A) quantization B) modulation C) sampling D) None of the choices are correct 115. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. [2marks] A) DM; PCM B) PCM; DM C) DM; CM D) None of the choices are correct ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFER THE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y
  • 18.
    UNIT – 2 MEDIAACCESS & INTERNETWORKING 1. HDLC is an acronym for _______. A) High-Duplex Line Communication B) Half-Duplex Link Combination C) High-Level Data Link Control D) Host Double-Level Circuit 2. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is usually the _______ frame. A) information B) management C) supervisory D) None of the choices are correct 3. The address field of a frame in HDLC protocol contains the address of the _______ station. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) primary or secondary 4. The HDLC _______ field defines the beginning and end of a frame. A) control B) flag C) FCS D) None of the choices are correct 5. What is present in all HDLC control fields? A) N(R) B) N(S) C) Code bits D) P/F bit 6. According to the PPP transition-phase diagram, options are negotiated in the _______ state. A) networking B) terminating C) establishing D) authenticating 7. According to the PPP transition-phase diagram, verification of user identification occurs in the _______ state. A) networking B) terminating C) establishing D) authenticating
  • 19.
    8. In thePPP frame, the _______ field defines the contents of the data field. A) FCS B) flag C) control D) protocol 9. In the PPP frame, the _______ field is similar to that of the U-frame in HDLC. A) flag B) protocol C) FCS D) control 10. In the PPP frame, the _______ field has a value of 11111111 to indicate the broadcast address of HDLC. [2marks] A) protocol B) address C) control D) FCS 11. In PPP, what is the purpose of LCP packets? A) Configuration B) Termination C) Option negotiation D) All of the choices are correct 12. In the PPP frame, the _______ field is for error control. A) FCS B) flag C) control D) protocol 13. For CHAP authentication, the user takes the system’s _______ and its own _______ to create a result that is then sent to the system. [2marks] A) authentication identification; password B) password; authentication identification C) challenge value; password D) password; challenge value 14. In byte stuffing, we need sometimes to add a (an) ___________ in the payload. A) flag byte B) ESC byte C) null byte D) None of the choices are correct 15. In bit stuffing, we sometimes need to add an extra ___________ bit in the payload. A) 0’s B) 1’s C) 0’s or 1’s
  • 20.
    D) None ofthe choices are correct 16. HDLC is a ________ oriented protocol A) byte B) bit C) byte or bit D) None of the choices are correct 17. PPP is a ________ oriented protocol A) byte B) bit C) byte or bit D) None of the choices are correct 18. In PPP, the address field defines ___________ of the packet. A) the sender B) the receiver C) either the sender or the receiver D) None of the choices are correct 19. In PPP, the ___________ field defines the type of payload encapsulated in the frame. A) address B) control C) protocol D) None of the choices are correct 20. In PPP, the CHAP protocol uses ____________ steps to authenticate the parties in communication. [2marks] A) one B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 21. In the _______ random-access method collision is avoided. A) CSMA/CD B) CSMA/CA C) ALOHA D) token-passing 22. In the 1-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it _______. [2marks] A) sends immediately B) waits 0.1 s before sending C) waits 1 s before sending D) waits a time equal to 1 − p seconds before sending 23. _______ requires one primary station and one or more secondary stations. A) Token ring B) Reservation C) Polling
  • 21.
    D) CSMA 24. Inthe p-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it _______. [2marks] A) sends immediately B) waits 1 s before sending C) sends with probability 1 − p D) sends with probability p 25. The 1-persistent approach can be considered a special case of the p-persistent approach with p equal to _______. [2marks] A) 1.0 B) 2.0 C) 0.1 D) 0.5 26. In the reservation access method, if there are 10 stations on a network, then there are _______ reservation minislots in the reservation frame. [2marks] A) 10 B) 11 C) 5 D) 9 27. _______ is a controlled-access protocol. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CSMA D) Reservation 28. _______ is (are) a channelization protocol. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) All the choices are correct 29. In the _______ random-access method, stations do not sense the medium. A) CSMA/CA B) ALOHA C) CSMA/CD D) Ethernet 30. Which of the following is an example of a random-access protocol? [2marks] A) Polling B) FDMA C) Token passing D) None of the choices are correct 31. Which of the following is an example of a controlled-access protocol? [2marks] A) CDMA B) FDMA
  • 22.
    C) Token passing D)None of the choices are correct 32. The vulnerable time for a pure ALOHA is __________ the one for slotted ALOHA. A) less than B) greater than C) equal to D) None of the choices are correct 33. The vulnerable time for CSMA is ___________. [2marks] A) Tp B) 2 x Tp C) 3 x Tp D) None of the choices are correct 34. We need RTS and CTS packets in ____________ protocol. A) CDMA/CA B) CDMA/CD C) token-passing D) None of the choices are correct 35. In FDMA, we use different ___________ to achieve channelization. A) frequency ranges B) time slots C) codes D) None of the choices are correct. 36. In CDMA, we use different ___________ to achieve channelization. A) frequency ranges B) time slots C) codes D) None of the choices are correct 37. In TDMA, we use different ___________ to achieve channelization. A) frequency ranges B) time slots C) codes D) None of the choices are correct 38. Walsh tables are used in _________________. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) None of the choices are correct 39. Given the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111 in binary, what is the address in hexadecimal notation? [2marks] A) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
  • 23.
    C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F 40.If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) either multicast or broadcast 41. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) either multicast or broadcast 42. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination address? [2marks] A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34 43. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination address? [2marks] A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34 44. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer. A) data link B) physical C) network D) None of the choices are correct 45. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing. A) LLC B) MII C) MAC D) None of the choices are correct 46. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC). A) 16-bit B) 32-bit C) 64-bit D) None of the choices are correct
  • 24.
    47. The minimumframe length for Ethernet is _______bytes. A) 32 B) 80 C) 128 D) None of the choices are correct 48. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000 49. In _________, auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation. [2marks] A) Standard B) Fast Ethernet C) Gigabit Ethernet D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet 50. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000 51. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 52. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 53. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 54. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame. A) CRC B) preamble
  • 25.
    C) address D) SFD 55.In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information. A) CRC B) preamble C) address D) SFD 56. Which of the following statements about wired and wireless LANs is correct? [2marks] A) Both operate in the lower two layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. B) Wired LANs operate in the lower two layers and wireless LANs operate in the lower three layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. C) Wired LANs operate in the lower three layers and wireless LANs operate in the lower two layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. D) Both operate in the lower three layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite. 57. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data-link layers. [2marks] A) IEEE 802.3 B) IEEE 802.5 C) IEEE 802.11 D) IEEE 802.2 58. The CSMA/CD algorithm does not work in wireless LAN because [2marks] A) wireless host does not have enough power to work in a duplex mode. B) of the hidden station problem. C) signal fading could prevent a station at one end from hearing a collision at the other end. D) all of the choices are correct. 59. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP). A) ESS B) BSS C) CSS D) None of the choices are correct 60. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called _________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network C) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network D) None of the choices are correct 61. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network C) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network
  • 26.
    D) None ofthe choices are correct 62. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________. A) BSSs B) ESSs C) APs D) None of the choices are correct 63. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) None of the choices are correct 64. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) None of the choices are correct 65. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) None of the choices are correct 66. In IEEE 802.11, distributed coordination function (DCF) uses _______ as the access method. A) CSMA/CA B) CSMA/CD C) ALOHA D) None of the choices are correct 67. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another station in the same BSS, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 68. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag is _______. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11
  • 27.
    69. In IEEE802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 70. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 71. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______. A) contention B) controlled C) polling D) None of the choices are correct 72. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a time period used for collision avoidance. A) NAV B) BSS C) ESS D) None of the choices are correct 73. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses. A) four B) five C) six D) None of the choices are correct 74. The original IEEE 802.11 uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either FHSS or DSSS 75. The IEEE 802.11a uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either FHSS or DSSS 76. The IEEE 802.11b uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM
  • 28.
    D) either FHSSor DSSS 77. The IEEE 802.11g uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either FHSS or DSSS 78. The IEEE 802.11 FHSS uses ______ modulation. A) ASK B) FSK C) PSK D) None of the choices are correct 79. The IEEE 802.11 or IEEE 802.11b DSSS uses ______ modulation. A) ASK B) FSK C) PSK D) None of the choices are correct 80. The IEEE 802.11a, IEEE 802.11g, or IEEE 802.11n OFDM uses ______ modulation. A) ASK B) FSK C) PSK D) None of the choices are correct 81. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small area. A) wired LAN B) wireless LAN C) VLAN D) None of the choices are correct 82. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________. [2marks] A) scatternet; piconets B) piconets: scatternet C) piconets: bluenet D) bluenet; scatternet 83. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices. [2marks] A) one; five B) five; three C) two; six D) one; seven 84. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps. A) 2 B) 5
  • 29.
    C) 11 D) Noneof the choices are correct 85. The access method in Bluetooth is ________. A) FDMA B) TDD-TDMA C) CDMA D) None of the choices are correct 86. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency. A) SCO B) ACL C) ACO D) SCL 87. Bluetooth uses ______ in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or other networks. A) DSSS B) FHSS C) FDMA D) None of the choices are correct 88. Packetizing at the network layer involves ___________________________. [2marks] A) encapsulating the payload at the source B) adds a header that contains the source and destination information C) decapsulating the payload at the destination D) All of the choices are correct 89. Routers in the path are not allowed to ___________________________. [2marks] A) fragment the packet they receive B) decapsulate the packet C) change source or destination address D) All of the choices are correct 90. The network layer in the Internet provides _________________. A) comprehensive error and flow control B) limited error control, but no flow control C) comprehensive error control but limited flow control D) All of the choices are correct 91. In a virtual-circuit approach, the forwarding decision is based on the value of the _____________ field in the packet header. [2marks] A) source address B) destination address C) label D) None of the choices are correct
  • 30.
    92. In adatagram approach, the forwarding decision is based on the value of the _____________ field in the packet header. [2marks] A) source address B) destination address C) label D) None of the choices are correct 93. The performance of a network can be measured in terms of ________. A) delay B) throughput C) packet loss D) All of the choices are correct 94. Transmission delay (time) is the ratio of______________________. [2marks] A) transmission rate to packet length B) transmission rate to distance C) packet length to transmission rate D) processing time to transmission rate 95. Propagation delay (time) is the ratio of______________________. [2marks] A) transmission rate to propagation speed B) propagation speed to distance C) packet length to propagation speed D) distance to propagation speed 96. When the load in the network reaches the network capacity, the packet delay ___________ and the network throughput reaches ______________. [2marks] A) increases sharply; its minimum B) increases sharply; its maximum C) decreases sharply; its minimum D) decreases sharply; its maximum 97. In open-loop congestion control, policies are applied ____________________. A) to prevent congestion before it happens B) to alleviate congestion after it happens C) to either prevent congestion before it happens or alleviate congestion after it happens D) None of the choices are correct 98. The __________________ technique is one of the open-loop congestion policies. A) backpressure B) choke packet C) implicit signaling D) None of the choices are correct 99. The__________________ technique is one of the close-loop congestion policies. A) acknowledgment policy B) choke packet C) discarding policy
  • 31.
    D) None ofthe choices are correct 100. An IPv4 address is normally represented in base ____ in dotted-decimal notation. A) 16 B) 256 C) 10 D) None of the choices are correct 101. In classful addressing, the IPv4 address space is divided into _______ classes. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 102. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) can be any number B) must be a multiple of 256 C) must be a power of 2 D) None of the choices are correct 103. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. [2marks] A) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses in the organization B) must be divisible by 128 C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes D) None of the choices are correct 104. In subnetting, the number of addresses in each subnet must _______. [2marks] A) be a power of 2 B) be a multiple of 128 C) be divisible by 128 D) None of the choices are correct 105. What is the default prefix length for class A in CIDR notation? A) 9 B) 8 C) 16 D) None of the choices are correct 106. What is the default prefix length for class B in CIDR notation? A) 9 B) 8 C) 16 D) None of the choices are correct 107. What is the default prefix length for class C in CIDR notation? A) 24 B) 8
  • 32.
    C) 16 D) Noneof the choices are correct 108. DHCP is a (an) ___________ layer protocol. A) application B) transport C) network D) data-link 109. In DHCP, the client uses ________ port and the server uses _________port. [2marks] A) an ephemeral; a well-known B) a well-known; a well-known C) a well-known; an ephemeral D) None of the choices are correct 110. DHCP uses the services of _______. A) UDP B) TCP C) IP D) None of the choices are correct 111. _________ allows a site to use a set of private addresses for internal communication and a set of global Internet addresses for communication with the rest of the world. A) DHCP B) NAT C) IMCP D) None of the choices are correct 112. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________ addressing. A) classful B) classless C) classful or classless D) None of the choices are correct 113. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables. A) reduce B) increase C) neither reduce nor increase D) None of the choices are correct 114. IP is a _________ protocol. A) connection-oriented unreliable B) connection-oriented reliable C) connectionless unreliable D) connectionless reliable 115. An HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. [2marks] A) there are 10 bytes of options
  • 33.
    B) there are10 bytes in the header C) there are 40 bytes of options D) there are 40 bytes in the header 116. If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______. A) the datagram has not been fragmented B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 D) None of the choices are correct 117. What is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? A) offset number B) total length C) both offset number and the total length D) None of the choices are correct 118. The IP header size is _______ bytes long. A) 20 to 60 B) 20 C) 60 D) None of the choices are correct 119. Packets in the IP layer are called _________. A) segments B) datagrams C) frames D) None of the choices are correct 120. The total length field defines the total length of the datagram _________. A) including the header B) excluding the header C) excluding the option length D) None of the choices are correct 121. When a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______. A) MUT B) MAT C) MTU D) None of the choices are correct 122. ICMP is a (an) _________ layer protocol. [2marks] A) application-layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer B) transport-layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer C) network-layer protocol D) data-link layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer 123. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message
  • 34.
    B) An ICMPerror message may be generated for a fragmented datagram C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram D) None of the choices are correct 124. When a host moves to a new network, its original address is referred to as __________. A) home B) care-of C) foreign D) None of the choices are correct 125. Which of the following addresses are permanent in mobile IP? A) home B) care-of C) foreign D) None of the choices are correct 126. To communicate with a remote host, a computer needs to go through __________ phase(s). A) one B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 127. In mobile IP communication, the first phase is called __________. A) agent discovery B) registration C) data transfer D) None of the choices are correct 128. In mobile IP communication, the second phase is called __________. A) agent discovery B) registration C) data transfer D) None of the choices are correct 129. In mobile IP communication, the third phase is called __________. A) agent discovery B) registration C) data transfer D) None of the choices are correct 130. In mobile IP communication, inefficiency in triangle routing is ________ the one in double crossing. A) more severe than B) less severe than C) in the same level as D) None of the choices are correct
  • 35.
    ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFERTHE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y
  • 36.
    UNIT – 3 ROUTING 1.An IPv6 address is _________ bits long. A) 32 B) 64 C) 128 D) 256 2. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets). A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) None of the choices are correct 3. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length. [2marks] A) 8; 2 B) 8; 3 C) 8; 4 D) None of the choices are correct 4. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits. A) 16 B) 32 C) 8 D) None of the choices are correct 5. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram. A) version B) priority C) hop limit D) None of the choices are correct 6. The _________ in IPv6 is designed to provide special handling for a particular flow of data. A) flow label B) next header C) hop limit D) None of the choices are correct 7. When two computers using IPv6 want to communicate but the packet must pass through an IPv4 region, which transition strategy should be used? [2marks] A) tunneling B) header translation C) either tunneling or header translation D) None of the choices are correct
  • 37.
    8. When themajority of the Internet has moved to the IPv6 but some still use IPv4, which transition strategy should be used? [2marks] A) tunneling B) header translation C) either tunneling or header translation D) None of the choices are correct 9. The protocols __________________________ in version 4 are combined into one single protocol, ICMPv6. A) ARP and IGMP B) ICMP and IGMP C) ICMP, ARP, and IGMP D) None of the choices are correct 10. The block prefix for global unicast address in IPv6 is __________. A) (110)2 B) (101)2 C) (100)2 D) (001)2 11. The global prefix in IPv6 is __________ bits long. A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 12. The subnet identifier in IPv6 is __________ bits long. A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 13. The interface identifier in IPv6 is __________ bits long. [2marks] A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 14. The EUI link-layer (physical) address is _________ bits long. [2marks] A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 15. The MAC address in the Ethernet is_________ bits long. A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64
  • 38.
    16. Routing insidean autonomous system is referred to as ________ routing. A) interdomain B) intradomain C) out-of-domain D) None of the choices are correct 17. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ______ routing. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) out-of-domain D) None of the choices are correct 18. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) None of the choices are correct 19. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) None of the choices are correct 20. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change. A) every other node B) its immediate neighbors C) one neighbor D) None of the choices are correct 21. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 22. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) None of the choices are correct 23. In RIP, the ________ timer controls the advertising of regular update messages. [2marks] A) garbage collection
  • 39.
    B) expiration C) periodic D)None of the choices are correct 24. In RIP, the ________ timer is used to purge invalid routes from the table. [2marks] A) garbage collection B) expiration C) periodic D) None of the choices are correct 25. In RIP, the ________ timer controls the validity of the route. [2marks] A) garbage collection B) expiration C) periodic D) None of the choices are correct 26. RIP uses the services of _______. A) TCP B) UDP C) IP D) None of the choices are correct 27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) None of the choices are correct 30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) None of the choices are correct
  • 40.
    31. In OSPF,a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) None of the choices are correct 32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network connected to only one router. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) None of the choices are correct 33. In OSPF, a ________ defines the links of a network. A) network link B) router link C) summary link to network D) None of the choices are correct 34. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing. A) BGP B) RIP C) OSPF D) None of the choices are correct 35. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 36. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 37. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct 38. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces. A) unicasting B) multicasting C) broadcasting
  • 41.
    D) None ofthe choices are correct 39. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) None of the choices are correct 40. In the _______ tree approach to multicasting, each router needs to create a separate tree for each source-group. A) group-shared B) source-based C) destination-based D) None of the choices are correct 41. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) routing uses the _______ tree approach. A) source-based B) group-shared C) destination-based D) None of the choices are correct 42. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing. [2marks] A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) None of the choices are correct 43. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. A) shortest B) longest C) average D) None of the choices are correct 44. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. A) forwarding B) backwarding C) flooding D) None of the choices are correct 45. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) None of the choices are correct
  • 42.
    46. RPB guaranteesthat each destination receives _________ of the packet. A) only one copy B) no copies C) multiple copies D) None of the choices are correct 47. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) None of the choices are correct 48. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. [2marks] A) RPM; RPB B) RPB; RPM C) RPF; RPM D) None of the choices are correct 49. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a source- based routing protocol based on RIP. [2marks] A) MOSPF B) DVMRP C) CBT D) None of the choices are correct 50. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol based on RIP. A) source-based B) group-shared C) destination-based D) None of the choices are correct 51. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) None of the choices are correct 52. PIM-DM is used when the number of routers with attached members is ______ relative to the number of routers in the internet. A) large B) small C) moderate D) None of the choices are correct 53. PIM-SM is used when the number of routers with attached members is ______ relative to the number of routers in the internet. [2marks]
  • 43.
    A) large B) small C)moderate D) None of the choices are correct 54. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has. What does the receiving router do with the LSA? [2marks] A) Ignores the LSA B) Adds it to the database C) Sends newer LSU update to source router D) Floods the LSA to the other routers 55. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does the router perform with the LSA? [2marks] a) Ignores the LSA b) Adds it to the database c) Sends newer LSU update to source router d) Floods the LSA to the other routers 56. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update? [2marks] a) 30 seconds b) 1 minute c) 30 minutes d) 1 hour 57. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not. a) True b) False 58. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________ a) Topology table b) Routing table c) Neighbor table d) Adjacency table 59. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets? [2marks] a) 89 b) 86 c) 20 d) 76 60. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use? [2marks] a) 224.0.0.5 b) 224.0.0.6 c) 224.0.0.7
  • 44.
    d) 224.0.0.8 61. TheHello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers. a) True b) False 62. DBD packets are involved during which two states? [2marks] a) Exstart and exchange b) Loading and Two-way c) Init and Full d) Down and Loading 63. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header? [2marks] a) Packet length b) Router ID c) Authentication type d) Maxage time 64. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header? a) Fragmentation field b) Fast-switching c) ToS field d) Option field 65. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4? [2marks] a) Fragmentation b) Header checksum c) Options d) Anycast address 66. Dual-stack approach refers to _________ [2marks] a) implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks b) implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks c) node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support d) implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks 67. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is ________ [2marks] a) Use dual-stack approach b) Tunneling c) No solution d) Replace the system 68. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol? a) Connectionless b) Offer reliable service c) Offer unreliable service
  • 45.
    d) Does notoffer error reporting 69. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have? [2marks] a) Complicates routers b) Open to DOS attack c) Overlapping of fragments d) All of the mentioned 70. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments? a) Offset b) Flag c) TTL d) Identifier 71. In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in ______ a) IPs b) Blocks c) Codes d) Sizes 72. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with ________ a) Classless Addressing b) Classful Addressing c) Classful Advertising d) Classless Advertising 73. First address in a block is used as network address that represents the ________ a) Class Network b) Entity c) Organization d) Codes 74. In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are ________ a) Organized b) Blocked c) Wasted d) Communicated 75. Which of this is not a class of IP address? a) Class E b) Class C c) Class D d) Class F
  • 46.
    ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFERTHE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y
  • 47.
    UNIT – 4 TRANSPORTLAYER 1. One of the main duties of the transport layer is to provide ____________ communication. A) node-to-node B) host-to-host C) process-to-process D) None of the choices are correct 2. A client program normally uses ____________ port number. A server program normally uses __________ port number. [2marks] A) a well-known; an ephemeral B) an ephemeral; a well-known C) a private; a well-known D) None of the choices are correct 3. A socket address is a combination of __________. A) a MAC address and a logical address B) a MAC address and a port number C) a user-specific address and a logical address D) None of the choices are correct 4. ______________ means accepting items from more than one source. ______________ means delivering items to more than one source. [2marks] A) Demultiplexing; Multiplexing B) Multiplexing; Demultiplexing C) Encapsulation; Decapsulation D) Pulling; Pushing 5. ________ means the producer delivers the items when they are produced. _______ means the consumer takes the items when it is ready to do so. [2marks] A) Pushing; Pulling B) Pulling; Pushing C) Forwarding; Accepting D) None of the choices are correct 6. In the stop-and-wait protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the maximum receive window size is _______, where m is the number of bits in the sequence. [2marks] A) 1; 1 B) 2m; 1 C) 1; 2m D) 2m; 2m 7. In the Go-Back-N protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the maximum receive window size is _______, where m is related to the number of bits in the sequence number. [2marks] A) 1; 1
  • 48.
    B) 1; 2m C)2m − 1; 1 D) 2m − 1; 2m − 1 8. In the selective-repeat protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the maximum receive window size is _______, where m is the number of bits in the sequence. [2marks] A) 1; 1 B) 1; 2m − 1 C) 2m − 1; 1 D) 2m − 1; 2m – 1 9. UDP is a ________________transport protocol. A) connectionless, reliable B) connection-oriented, unreliable C) connectionless, unreliable D) None of the choices are correct 10. UDP is an acronym for _______. A) User Delivery Protocol B) User Datagram Procedure C) User Datagram Protocol D) None of the choices are correct 11. At the transport layer, to define the processes, we need two identifiers called ____________. A) logical addresses B) physical addresses C) port addresses D) None of the choices are correct 12. The ports ranging from 0 to 1,023 are called the ___________ ports. The ports ranging from 1,024 to 49,151 are called ___________ ports. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 are called the ___________ ports. [2marks] A) well-known; registered; dynamic or private B) registered; dynamic or private; well-known C) private or dynamic; well-known; registered D) private or dynamic; registered; well-known 13. UDP and TCP are two protocols at the ___________ layer. A) data-link B) network C) transport D) application 14. A port number is _______ bits long. A) 8 B) 16 C) 32
  • 49.
    D) 64 15. Communicationat the transport layer is _________. A) node-to-node B) end-to-end C) node-to-host D) host-to-node 16. In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 6, the value of Sf is _______________. [2marks] A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 17. In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 6, the value of Sn is _______________. [2marks] A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) None of the choices are correct 18. In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 5, the window ________. [2marks] A) slides two slots B) slides one slot C) slides three slots D) does not slide 19. In Selective Repeat, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 5, the window ________. [2marks] A) slides two slots B) slides one slot C) slides three slots D) does not slide 20. In Selective Repeat, when a timeout occurs, the timer is ________. A) stopped B) started C) reset (stopped and started) D) None of the choices are correct 21. UDP and TCP are two protocols at the ___________ layer. A) data-link B) network C) transport D) application 22. A port number is _______ bits long.
  • 50.
    A) 8 B) 16 C)32 D) 64 23. Which of the following does UDP provide? A) Flow control B) Connection-oriented delivery C) Error control D) None of the choices are correct 24. The source port number on the UDP user datagram header defines _______. A) the sending computer B) the receiving computer C) the process running on the sending computer D) None of the choices are correct 25. To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses. A) four B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 26. UDP packets are called __________. A) user datagrams B) segments C) frames D) None of the choices are correct 27. UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes. A) 16 B) 8 C) 40 D) 32 28. TCP is a __________protocol. A) byte-oriented B) message-oriented C) block-oriented D) None of the choices are correct 29. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________. A) user datagram B) segment C) datagram D) None of the choices are correct 30. TCP is a(n) ___________ protocol. A) connection-oriented
  • 51.
    B) connectionless C) bothconnection-oriented and connectionless D) None of the choices are correct 31. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol. A) unreliable B) best-effort delivery C) reliable D) None of the choices are correct 32. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data. A) an acknowledgment mechanism B) out-of-band signaling C) the services of another protocol D) None of the choices are correct 33. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a __________________. [2marks] A) 0 B) 1 C) randomly generated number D) None of the choices are correct 34. In TCP, the sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte (virtual byte) carried in that segment. A) first B) last C) middle D) None of the choices are correct 35. Communication in TCP is ___________. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) None of the choices are correct 36. In TCP, the value of the acknowledgment field in a sent segment defines the sequence number related to the ______byte a party expects to receive next. A) first B) last C) next D) None of the choices are correct 37. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________. A) optional B) mandatory C) depends on the type of data D) None of the choices are correct
  • 52.
    38. In TCP,a SYN segment consumes _____ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) None of the choices are correct 39. In TCP, a SYN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence numbers. A) no B) three C) two D) one 40. In TCP, an ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) None of the choices are correct 41. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security problem called the _________ attack. A) ACK flooding B) FIN flooding C) SYN flooding D) None of the choices are correct 42. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____ attack. A) denial of service B) replay C) man-in-the middle D) None of the choices are correct 43. In TCP, a FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data. A) two B) three C) no D) one 44. In TCP, a FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry data. A) two B) three C) one D) no 45. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______ termination. A) half-close B) half-open
  • 53.
    C) full-close D) Noneof the choices are correct 46. TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented. A) packet B) segment C) byte D) None of the choices are correct 47. In TCP, the size of the send window is the ________ of rwnd and cwnd. A) maximum B) sum of C) minimum D) None of the choices are correct 48. In TCP, the window should not be _________. A) opened B) closed C) shrunk D) slide 49. In TCP, the receiver can temporarily shut down the window; the sender, however, can always send a segment of _____ byte(s) after the window is shut down. [2marks] A) ten B) zero C) one D) None of the choices are correct 50. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when either the sending application program creates data slowly or the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. This problem is called the ______. [2marks] A) silly window syndrome B) unexpected syndrome C) window bug D) None of the choices are correct 51. Nagle's algorithm can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________. A) sender B) receiver C) both sender and receiver D) None of the choices are correct 52. Clark's solution can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________. A) sender B) receiver C) both sender and receiver D) None of the choices are correct
  • 54.
    53. Delayed acknowledgmentcan solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________. A) sender B) receiver C) both sender and receiver D) None of the choices are correct 54. In TCP, an ACK segments that carry no data consumes _______ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) None of the choices are correct 55. In modern implementations of TCP, a retransmission occurs if the retransmission timer expires or ________ duplicate ACK segments have arrived. A) one B) two C) three D) None of the choices are correct 56. In TCP, ________ retransmission timer is set for an ACK segment. A) one B) a previous C) no D) None of the choices are correct 57. In TCP, there can be ______ RTT measurement(s) in progress at any time. A) two B) only one C) several D) None of the choices are correct 58. We need to multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of bytes in the TCP header. [2marks] A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) None of the choices are correct 59. In TCP, urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit (to be set) in the _______ field. [2marks] A) control B) offset C) sequence number D) None of the choices are correct 60. In TCP, if the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully. [2marks] A) 199
  • 55.
    B) 200 C) 201 D)None of the choices are correct 61. __________ control refers to the mechanisms and techniques to keep the load below the capacity. A) Flow B) Error C) Congestion D) None of the choices are correct 62. In TCP's ________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold. A) congestion avoidance B) congestion detection C) slow start D) None of the choices are correct 63. In TCP's __________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases additively until congestion is detected. A) congestion avoidance B) congestion detection C) slow start D) None of the choices are correct 64. ________ treats the two signs of congestion detections, timeout and three duplicate ACKs, in the same way. [2marks] A) Taho TCP B) Reno TCP C) New Reno TCP D) None of the choices are correct 65. In ______ TCP, when the connection is established, TCP starts the slow start algorithms and sets the ssthresh variable to a pre-agreed value (normally 64 or 128 kilobytes) and the cwnd variable to 1 MSS. [2marks] A) Taho B) Reno C) new Reno D) None of the choices are correct 66. The ___________ added a new state to the congestion control FSM, called the fast recovery state. [2marks] A) Taho TCP B) Reno TCP C) new Reno TCP D) None of the choices are correct 67. The ___________ treated the two signals of congestion, timeout and arrival of three duplicate ACKs, differently. [2marks]
  • 56.
    A) Taho TCP B)Reno TCP C) new Reno TCP D) None of the choices are correct 68. The __________ state in Reno TCP is a state somehow between the slow start and the congestion avoidance states. A) congestion avoidance B) congestion detection C) slow recovery D) None of the choices are correct 69. In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if duplicate ACKs continue to come, TCP ____________________________________. [2marks] A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially C) moves to slow start state D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflate the size of the cwnd to ssthresh value 70. In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if a timeout occurs, TCP ____________________________________. [2marks] A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially C) moves to slow start state D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflate the size of the cwnd to ssthresh value 71. In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if a new (non duplicate) ACK arrives, TCP ____________________________________. [2marks] A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially C) moves to slow start state D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflates the size of the cwnd to ssthresh value 72. A later version of TCP, called ______ TCP, made an extra optimization on the _______ TCP. [2marks] A) new Reno; Reno B) new Taho; Taho C) new Reno; Taho D) new Taho; Reno 73. In the slow start algorithm, the size of the congestion window grows ______________ until ___________________. [2marks] A) exponentially; it reaches a threshold B) exponentially; congestion is detected C) additively; it reaches a threshold D) additively; congestion is detected
  • 57.
    74. In thecongestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window grows ______________. [2marks] A) exponentially; it reaches a threshold B) exponentially; congestion is detected C) additively; it reaches a threshold D) additively; congestion is detected 75. The congestion window size, after it passes the initial slow start state, follows a saw tooth pattern called _________________________________. [2marks] A) exponential increase, additive decrease B) additive increase, exponential decrease C) multiplicative increase, additive decrease D) additive increase, multiplicative decrease 76. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol. A) reliable, character-oriented B) reliable, message-oriented C) unreliable, message-oriented D) None of the choices are correct 77. SCTP allows __________ service in each association. A) only single-stream B) multistream C) only double-stream D) None of the choices are correct 78. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________. A) a TSN B) an SI C) an SSN D) None of the choices are correct 79. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________. A) a TSN B) an SI C) an SSN D) None of the choices are correct 80. The control information in SCTP is carried in the ________. A) header control field B) control chunks C) data chunks D) None of the choices are correct 81. Which of the following is not a characteristic attributed to a data flow? A) Reliability B) Delay C) Bandwidth
  • 58.
    D) All choicesare correct 82. Which of the following method is used to improve QoS? A) Scheduling B) Resource reservation C) Traffic shaping or policing D) All choices are correct 83. Which of the following method is a scheduling technique? A) FIFO queuing B) Priority queuing C) Weighted-fair queuing D) All choices are correct 84. A _______ algorithm is a policing technique that shapes bursty traffic into fixed-rate traffic by averaging the data rate, but it does not give credit to the user during idle periods. A) leaky bucket B) token bucket C) priority queuing D) weighted-fair queuing 85. A _______algorithm is a policing technique that allows bursty traffic at a regulated maximum rate and give some credits to the user during idle periods. A) leaky bucket B) token bucket C) priority queuing D) weighted-fair queuing 86. Which QoS model depends heavily on resource reservation? [2marks] A) IntServ B) DiffServ C) Scheduling D) Policing 87. Integrated Services is a _______________ QoS model designed for IP. A) flow-based B) class-based C) reliability-based D) efficiency-based 88. Differentiated Services is a _______________ QoS model designed for IP. A) flow-based B) class-based C) reliability-based D) efficiency-based 89. Guaranteed services in IntServ model are required for __________application. [2marks]
  • 59.
    A) on-demand audio/video B)stored audio/video C) real-time D) All choices are correct 90. Controlled-Load services in IntServ model are designed for applications that ______________________. [2marks] A) can accept some delays, but are sensitive to packet loss B) can accept some packet loss, but are sensitive to delay C) are sensitive to both delay and packet loss D) are sensitive to neither delay nor packet loss 91. IntServ model is ________________________________________ [2marks] A) scalable but has service type limitation. B) scalable and does not have service type limitation. C) not scalable and has service type limitation. D) not scalable but does not have service type limitation. 92. To implement _________, the DS node uses _________________ such as meters, markers, shapers, and droppers. [2marks] A) Diffserv; traffic conditioners B) Diffserv; gadgets C) IntServ; traffic conditioners D) IntServ; gadgets 93. FTP requires a _________ level of reliability. A) low B) medium C) high D) None of the choices are correct 94. Voice over IP requires a _________ level of reliability. A) low B) medium C) high D) None of the choices are correct 95. In priority queuing, when the higher-priority queue is full, the next packet is _________. A) sent to the lower priority queue B) kept in the higher priority queue C) discarded D) None of the choices are correct 96. In weighted-fair queuing, there is _________ starvation. A) sometimes B) never C) always D) None of the choices are correct
  • 60.
    97. In theleaky-bucket implementation, we use ____________. A) FIFO queuing B) priority queuing C) weighted-fair queuing D) None of the choices are correct 98. In the token-bucket implementation, we use ____________. A) FIFO queuing B) priority queuing C) weighted-fair queuing D) None of the choices are correct 99. Integrated Services use ____________ class(es) of service. A) one B) two C) three D) four. 100. Integrated Services use ____________ messages. A) path B) reservation C) neither path nor reservation D) both path and reservation ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFER THE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y
  • 61.
    UNIT – 5 APPLICATIONLAYER 1. HTTP uses the services of _________. A) UDP B) IP C) TCP D) DNS 2. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first line in the response message is called the ________ line. [2marks] A) request; response B) status; response C) status; status D) None of the choices are correct 3. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response. A) persistent B) nonpersistent C) persistent or a nonpersistent D) None of the choices are correct 4. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after sending a response. A) persistent B) nonpersistent C) persistent or nonpersistent D) None of the choices are correct 5. In HTTP, _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent requests. A) a regular B) a proxy C) an auxiliary D) a remote 6. An HTTP request message always contains _______. [2marks] A) a header line and a body B) a request line and a header line C) a request line, a header line, and a body D) a request line, a header line, a blank line, and a body 7. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line? A) Version number B) URL C) Status code D) Method
  • 62.
    8. FTP usesthe services of ________. A) UDP B) IP C) TCP D) None of the choices are correct 9. In FTP, _________ well-known port(s) is (are) used. A) one B) two C) three D) four 10. During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______. A) once B) twice C) many times D) None of the choices are correct 11. During an FTP session the data connection may be opened _______. A) only once B) only two times C) as many times as needed D) None of the choices are correct 12. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are types of an attribute called _______. [2marks] A) file types B) data structures C) transmission modes D) None of the choices are correct 13. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed. A) file types B) data types C) transmission modes D) None of the choices are correct 14. An FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______. A) file type B) data structure C) transmission mode D) None of the choices are correct 15. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server. A) retrieve a file B) store a file C) open a file D) None of the choices are correct
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    16. In thecommon scenario, the electronic mail system needs _________________________. [2marks] A) two UAs, two MTAs, and one MAA B) two UAs, two MTAs, and two MAAs C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs D) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs 17. ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending or receiving a message easier. A) An MTA B) An MAA C) A UA D) None of the choices are correct 18. An e-mail message contains the ________ and the __________. [2marks] A) header; envelop B) header; body C) envelop; body D) None of the choices are correct 19. In the Internet, an e-mail address consists of two parts: a _______ and a _______. [2marks] A) local part; domain name B) global part; domain name C) label; domain name D) local part; label 20. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent through e-mail. [2marks] A) SMPT B) MPEG C) MIME D) POP 21. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called ___________. [2marks] A) SMTP B) SNMP C) TELNET D) SSH 22. SMTP is a __________protocol. A) pull B) push C) push and pull D) None of the choices are correct 23. The message access protocol is a ________ protocol. A) pull
  • 64.
    B) push C) pushand pull D) None of the choices are correct 24. In the _______ encoding scheme, each 24 bits become four 6-bit chunks, and eventually are sent as 32 bits. [2marks] A) 8bit B) binary C) base64 D) quoted-printable 25. In the _______ encoding scheme, a non-ASCII character is sent as 3 characters. A) 8bit B) base64 C) quoted-printable D) binary 26. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________. A) terminal network B) telephone network C) telecommunication network D) None of the choices are correct 27. When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________ login. A) local B) remote C) local or remote D) None of the choices are correct 28. When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote machine, he or she performs ___________ login. A) local B) remote C) local or remote D) None of the choices are correct 29. Network Virtual Terminal (NVT) uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for __________. [2marks] A) sending; receiving B) request; reply C) data; control D) None of the choices are correct 30. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. [2marks] A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 or 0 D) None of the choices are correct
  • 65.
    31. For control,NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. [2marks] A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 or 0 D) None of the choices are correct 32. The _______ translates local characters into NVT characters. [2marks] A) terminal driver B) TELNET client C) TELNET server D) pseudoterminal driver 33. The _______ translates local characters into NVT characters. [2marks] A) terminal driver B) TELNET client C) TELNET server D) pseudoterminal driver 34. The _________ component in the SSH provides confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and compression. [2marks] A) SSH Application B) SSH-AUTH C) SSH-CONN D) SSH-TRAN 35. Port forwarding is ____________________________. [2marks] A) a protocol used to forward messages from one port to another port B) a procedure for changing an ephemeral port to a well-known port C) a service, provided by SSH, that creates a secure channel for applications that do not have security services D) None of the choices are correct 36. In a (an) _______ name space, a name is a sequence of characters without structure. A) linear B) flat C) hierarchical D) organized 37. In a (an) _________name space, each name is made of several parts. A) linear B) flat C) hierarchical D) organized 38. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure. A) a linear list B) an inverted-tree
  • 66.
    C) a three-dimensional D)None of the choices are correct 39. The root of the DNS tree is _______. [2marks] A) a string of 127 characters B) a string of 63 characters C) a string of 15 characters D) an empty string 40. In the domain name space, a full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________. A) colons B) semicolons C) dots D) commas 41. In the domain name space, if a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) PQDN B) CQDN C) SQDN D) None of the choices are correct 42. In the domain name space, if a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) FQDN B) PQDN C) SQDN D) None of the choices are correct 43. In the domain name space, a _________ is a subtree of the domain name space. A) label B) name C) domain D) None of the choices are correct 44. In the domain name space, what a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________. A) domain B) label C) zone D) None of the choices are correct 45. A _______ server is a computer whose zone system consists of the whole tree. A) domain B) zone C) root D) primary
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    46. A ________server is a computer that stores a file about the zone for which it has an authority. A) primary B) secondary C) zone D) root 47. A ________ server is a computer that transfers the complete information about a zone from another server. A) primary B) secondary C) zone D) root 48. In the Internet, the country domain section uses ___________ country abbreviations. A) two-character B) three-character C) four-character D) None of the choices are correct 49. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final answer. A) iterative B) recursive C) straight D) None of the choices are correct 50. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that it thinks can resolve the query. A) iterative B) recursive C) straight D) None of the choices are correct 51. DNS can use the services of ________. A) UDP B) TCP C) either UDP or TCP D) None of the choices are correct 52. In a centralized P2P network, the directory system uses the ________paradigm; the storing and downloading of the files are done using __________ paradigm. [2marks] A) client-server; client-server B) peer-to-peer; client-server C) client-server; peer-to-peer D) peer-to-peer; peer-to-peer. 53. Napster is an example of a ____________ peer-to-peer network. A) centralized
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    B) structured-decentralized C) unstructured-decentralized D)None of the choices are correct 54. Gnutella is an example of a ____________ peer-to-peer network. [2marks] A) centralized B) structured-decentralized C) unstructured-decentralized D) None of the choices are correct 55. BitTorrent is an example of a ____________ peer-to-peer network. [2marks] A) centralized B) structured-decentralized C) unstructured-decentralized D) None of the choices are correct 56. In a structured-decentralized P2P network ________________. A) the directory system is kept in a center B) a query to find a file must be flooded through the network C) a pre-defined set of rules is used to link nodes so that a query can be effectively and efficiently resolved D) None of the choices are correct 57. In a DHT-based network, each peer [2marks] A) has a partial knowledge about the whole network. B) has a complete knowledge about the whole network. C) only has knowledge about its successor. D) None of the choices are correct 58. The finger table is the routing table used in ______________. A) Gnutella B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 59. Which of the following is not a Chord interface? A) Lookup B) Fix node C) Stabilize D) Join 60. In__________ a key is stored in a node whose identifier is numerically closest to the key. [2marks] A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct
  • 69.
    61. To resolvea query, _________ uses two entities: a routing table and a leaf set. [2marks] A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 62. In Kademlia, the distance between the two identifiers (nodes or keys) is measured as the bitwise- ___________ between them. A) AND B) NOR C) OR D) None of the choices are correct 63. In________, nodes and data items are m-bit identifiers that create an identifier space of 2m points distributed at the leaves of a binary tree. A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 64. In Kademlia, each node in the network divides the binary tree into m subtrees that___________. A) include the node itself B) do not include the node itself C) include the node itself and the successor node D) None of the choices are correct 65. Trackerless BitTorrent uses __________ DHT to do the job of tracking. [2marks] A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 66. Finger tables are used by __________. A) Chord B) Pastry C) Kademlia D) None of the choices are correct 67. Three security goals are _______________________________________. A) confidentiality, cryptography, and nonrepudiation B) confidentiality, encryption, and decryption C) confidentiality, integrity, and availability D) None of the choices are correct 68. Which of the following attacks is threatening integrity? A) Masquerading B) Traffic Analysis
  • 70.
    C) Denial ofservice D) None of the choices are correct 69. Which of the following attacks is threatening availability? A) Replaying B) Modification C) Denial of service D) None of the choices are correct 70. _____________ means concealing the contents of a message by enciphering. A) Steganography B) Cryptography C) Compressing D) None of the choices are correct 71. ______________means concealing the message by covering it with something else. A) Cryptography B) Steganography C) Compressing D) None of the choices are correct 72. In __________cryptography, the same key is used by the sender and the receiver. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) public-key D) None of the choices are correct 73. In _________ cryptography, the same key is used in both directions. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) public-key D) None of the choices are correct 74. _________ cryptography is often used for long messages. A) Symmetric-key B) Asymmetric-key C) Public-key D) None of the choices are correct 75. ___________ cryptography is often used for short messages. A) Symmetric-key B) Asymmetric-key C) Secret-key D) None of the choices are correct 76. __________means that the sender and the receiver expect confidentiality. A) Nonrepudiation B) Integrity C) Authentication
  • 71.
    D) None ofthe choices are correct 77. ___________ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as they were sent. A) Nonrepudiation B) Message integrity C) Authentication D) None of the choices are correct 78. ______________ can provide authentication, integrity, and nonrepudiation for a message. A) Encryption/decryption B) Digital signature C) Compression D) None of the choices are correct 79. Digital signature does not provide _________. A) nonrepudiation B) privacy C) authentication D) Provides all of the choices 80. In ___________, the identity of a party is verified once for the entire duration of system access. A) entity authentication B) message integrity C) message authentication D) None of the choices are correct 81. In __________ cryptography, everyone has access to everyone's public key. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) secret-key D) None of the choices are correct 82. After a message is encrypted, it is called _______. A) plaintext B) ciphertext C) cryptotext D) None of the choices are correct 83. In the asymmetric-key method used for confidentiality, which key is publicly known? A) Encryption key only B) Decryption key only C) Both keys D) None of the choices are correct 84. In the asymmetric-key method used for confidentiality, the receiver uses his/her own ______________ to decrypt the message.
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    A) private key B)public key C) no key D) None of the choices are correct 85. The RSA algorithm for confidentiality uses _______ cryptography. A) asymmetric-key B) symmetric-key C) substitution D) None of the choices are correct 86. In RSA, if user A wants to send an encrypted message to user B, the plaintext is encrypted with the public key of _______. A) user A B) user B C) the network D) None of the choices are correct 87. In the digital signature technique when the whole message is signed using an asymmetric key, the sender of the message uses _______ to sign the message. [2marks] A) his or her own symmetric key B) his or her own private key C) his or her own public key D) None of the choices are correct 88. In the digital signature technique when the whole message is signed using an asymmetric key, the receiver of the message uses _______ to verify the signature. [2marks] A) her or his own public key B) her or his own private key C) the sender's public key D) None of the choices are correct 89. A _______ is a trusted third party that solves the problem of symmetric-key distribution. [2marks] A) CA B) KDC C) TLS D) firewall 90. A _______ certifies the binding between a public key and its owner. [2marks] A) CA B) KDC C) TLS D) None of the choices are correct
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    ANSWER KEY: PLEASE REFERTHE PLAYLIST FOR ANSWERS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLA2UBjeRwle3Pm6YCBsPkSlAaKQ28Xo9y ***KEEP LEARNING***HAPPY LEARNING***