This document provides information about communication protocol engineering. It begins with an introduction to communication models and their key subsystems. It then discusses network reference models and the OSI model in particular. The document covers topics like communication software, protocols, formal modeling techniques for protocols including finite state machines and Petri nets. It also discusses the phases of protocol engineering like specification, validation, implementation etc. and compares informal vs formal approaches to protocol design and development.

2. COMMUNICATION PROTOCOL ENGINEERING
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CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION
1>A communication model comprises of the following subsystems
a: source
b: transmitter
c: transmission system
d: receiver
e: destination
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
2>Match the following
source: accepts the incoming data
transmitter: carrier the data
transmission system: generates the data to be transmitted
receiver: converts the data into transmittable signals
destination: converts the received signals into data__________
3>_____are small networks which connect the systems in a building/campus, whereas_____cover a large geographical area,
cross public rights of way. And rely, in part , on common carrier circuits (LAN/MAN/WAN)
4>__________is a set of computer programs, procedures and associated documentation concerned with the operation of a data
processing system (program/software)
5>__________is defined as a set of computer programs which are used for generation, transmission and reception of
information between/among a set of computers connected by wired or wireless media (communication model/communication
software)
6>Following are some of the communication software programs
a: dialing
b: file transfer
c: terminal emulation
d: data encryption
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
7>___________software tells the computer how to place a call on a phone line connected to it (calling/dialing)
8>Identify features of dialling software
a: it tells the computer how to place a call on a phone line connected to it
b: it displays messages about the progress of the call
c: it can automatic redial, store phone numbers, voice based dial, transfer calls, answer calls
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
9>___________program encodes the data (data conversion/data encryption)
10>The communication software development must have the following objectives
a: to shorten the time of porting communication software to a new environment
b: to shorten the time of new communication software component developments
c: to make new developments easier by applying reusable components and design patterns
d: to assure higher quality
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
11>___________in communication software are the communication protocols which are based on several set of rules or
standards (computer software/computer program)
12>The main purpose of the __________is to keep all the subsystems informed of any changes in the design parameters
(communication environment/communication software)
13>Following are different types of events that can occur in a communication system
a: change reported from one of the subsystem
b: request for data from one subsystem to another
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
14>wrt to updating of changes of one subsystem in another, arrange the following events in correct sequence
a: take action
b: action taken
c: report changes
d: acknowledge changes
Ans: ___________ (cdba/cdab)
15>wrt requested data transfer from one subsystem to another, arrange the following events in correct sequence
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a: request to send
b: data sent
c: data request
d: data found
Ans: ___________ (cabd/cdab)
16>__________are the grammars through which computers or computer-based devices communicate with one another, the
way they organize and transmit the bits and bytes of electronic on-off signals, whose patterns encode the data (communication
software/communication protocol)
17>___________is a set of rules that governs, how a message containing data and control information are assembled at a
source for their transmission across the network and then disassembled when they reach their destination (software/protocol)
18>___________is defined as a set of rules governing the interactions of concurrent processes in a distributed system
(software/protocol)
19>The interactions in a protocol can be divided into following types
a: network level interactions
b: end to end level interactions for reliable transfer
c: application level interactions
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
20>___________are used for communications between entities in a system (software/protocol)
21>The key elements of a protocol are
a: syntax
b: semantics
c: timing
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
22>Match the following
Syntax : says about the control information and error handling
Semantic : talks about the speed matching and sequencing
Timing : includes data formats and signal levels
23>___________define a format, order of messages sent and received among the network entities, and actions taken on
message transmission and receipt (protocol/software)
24>A computer storage representation of a protocol can be represented by
a: sequence of message exchanges
b: flowchart i.e. an informal description of a protocol
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
25>Following are some formal methods used for protocol representation
a: finite state machines
b: petrinets
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
26>FSM stands for___________
27>A finite state machine M Is ___tuple (5/6)________
28>A finite state machine M is a five tuple, and is represented by M= (I, O, S, N, A) where__, __&__ are finite & nonempty
sets of input symbols, output symbols and states respectively.
29>In M= (I, O, S, N, A), __is a state transition function which gives next state from the current state based on the specified
input
30>In M= (I, O, S, N, A), __is an output function which represents set of actions for a given set of inputs in the current state
31>In FSM of simple message exchange protocol, the sender can be in any one the following states
a: idle
b: ready_send
c: send_data
d: wait_ack
e: receive
f: data-cons
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/de/f/all)
32>In FSM of simple message exchange protocol, the receiver can be in any one the following states
a: idle
b: ready_send
c: send_data
d: wait_ack
e: receive
f: data-cons
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)___________
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33>FSM's states and transitions can be represented in the form of tables called as___________ (truth table/state transition
table)
34>Following are some properties of FSM
a: strongly connected
b: completely specified
c: minimal
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
35>FSM is___________ connected if for every state pair (Si, Sj), there is transition path going from Si to Sj ie N (Si;I)=Sj
(completely/strongly/minimal)
36>FSM is___________ specified if from each state, it has a transition for each input symbol (completely/strongly/minimal)
37>FSM is___________ (completely/strongly/minimal), if number of states of FSM M is less than or equal to number of states
of M' equivalent to M, and no pair of states of M are equivalent ie for every pair of states (Si;Sj), i!=j, there is an input
sequence that distinguishes them, that is , ASi, I)!=A (Sj, I)
38>CFSM stands for___________
39>If the FSMs of the message exchange protocol are combined together using the channels for the signal and data transfers, it
is called as___________ (MFSM/CFSM)
40>___________representation is more suitable for the protocol process representation (CFSM/FSM)
41>___________is described as a set of CFSMs (protocol/software)
42>Each CFSM is represented by a directed labeled graph where____ represent states of the process, and_______ represent
transitions of the process (node/edge)
43>___________deals only with the state-transition aspect of protocols, and does not address the data aspect of protocols
(CFSM/FSM)
44>CFSM does not deal with the message contents or formats (true/false)___________
45>___________model is the model of communicating FSMs that has a finite number of message types and a finite number of
major states of each FSM (CFSM/extended FSM)
46>An extended FSM model is similar to CFSM but has following extended features
a: each type of message may be associated wrh typed message parameters
b: each FSM may be characterized by additional state variables
c: each transition may be associated with an additional condition
d: for each output produced, it is necessary to specify the values of the associated message parameters
e: for each transition, there is an additional action which performs an update of the additional state variables
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
47>A petrinet is a five tuple (P, T, IN, OUT, MO) where
___is a set of places, ___is a set of transitions, ___=initial marking , __ is an input function that defines directed arcs from
places to transitions, __is an output function that defines directed arcs from transitions to places
48>In pertinet, ___are represented by circles, ___by a period in a place, and _____by horizontal or vertical bars
(token/places/transition)
49>Petrinet model consist of following parts
a: the net structure that represents the static part of the system
b: marking that represents the overall state on the structure
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
50>The token distribution among the places of a petrinet is called it___________ (transition firing/marking)
51>In Pertinet, ___________means that tokens in the input places are apparently moved to the output places (transition
firing/marking)
52>In petrinet model for producer-consumer protocol with initial markings, the sequence of production-consumption is as
following (in order)
a: on firing of transition 'consume', the token in place c2 moves to c1
b: on firing of 'read' transition, the token in consumer moves from place c1 to c2 and the token in buffer moves from b2 to b1
c: after transition 'write' is fired, the token in producer moves to place p1 and the token in buffer moves from place b1 to b2
d: when transition 'produce' is fired by the producer. The token in place p1 moves to p2
Ans: ___________ (dacb/dcab/dcba)
53>Following are ways of design and development of communication protocols: ___________ (informal/formal/both)
54>The protocol design and development through informal and formal methods includes
a: specification
b: validation
c: implementation
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
55>___________way of specifications of the protocols include textual description and message exchange sequence
(informal/formal)
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56>___________description does not facilitate to represent large complex protocols which has enormous events and
conditions, and often leads to unclear and ambiguous specifications (informal/formal)
57>The complexity of protocols make them very hard to analyze in ___________way (informal/formal)
58>The communication software development process takes place in___ phases (5/6)________
59>The communication software development process takes place in following phases
a: informal specification of requirements
b: conceptual representation
c: concepts coding in a programming language
d: compilation
e: implementation
f: debugging/execution
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
60>wrt informal way of protocol software development, arrange the following phases in correct sequence
a: informal specification of requirements
b: concepts coding in a programming language
c: conceptual representation
d: implementation
e: compilation
f: debugging/execution
Ans: ___________ (acbfed/acbefd/acbedf)
61>FDT stands for___________
62>The use of ___________techniques will facilitate design and implementation of communication software protocols quickly
and efficiently (informal/formal)
63>Following are examples of ___________ methods: FSM, extended FSM, Petrinet, Timed pertinet, CCS, temporal logic,
algebra calculi, formal grammar (informal/formal)
64>CCS stands for___________
65>Software development using FDT has following phases
a: informal specification of requirements
b: formal specification
c: simulation validation compilation
d: implementation
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
66>wrt Software development using FDT, arrange the following events in correct sequence
a: simulation validation compilation
b: formal specification
c: informal specification of requirements
d: implementation
Ans: ___________ (badc/cbda/cbad)
67>___________is an interdisciplinary area that deals with application of formal techniques and software engineering
methodologies to protocol design and implementation (communcation engineering/protocol engineering)
68>___________is used to describe the activities pertaining to construction of large scale software systems (protocol
engineering/software engineering)
69>___________specification techniques are used to facilitate unambiguous specificaton of protocol standards and automation
in the various phases of protocol development (formal/informal)
70>___________of protocol engineering includes the activities related to protocol design and development (domain/range)
71>___________deals with implementation, performance analysis and conformance testing (communication
engineering/protocol engineering)
72>Following are phases of protocol engineering
a: service specification
b: synthesis
c: protocol specification
d: protocol verification/validation
e: performance analysis
f: conformance testing
g: protocol implementation
h: monitoring/diagnosis
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/g/h/all)
73>Match the following
service specification :
Synthesis : it monitors the working of implemented protocol and checks for the errors
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protocol specification : it deals with the real coding of the protocol using software aspects
protocol verification/validation: it tests whether the protocol conforms to the specifications laid down in the
protocol specification phase
performance analysis : the services to be carried out by the protocol are being specified in a
formalized way
conformance testing : an automated tool is used to generate the formal specifications of a
protocol that represents the service specifications
protocol implementation : it looks into syntax and semantics of protocol specifications
monitoring/diagnosis : it checks for correctness and liveness properties of the protocol
___________
ANSWERS:
1>all
2>1-c 2-d 3-b 4-e 5-a
3>LAN ,WAN
4>software
5>communication software
6>all
7>dialing
8>all
9>data encryption
10>all
11>computer
12>communication environment
13>both
14>cdab
15>cdab
16>communication protocol
17>protocol
18>protocol
19>all
20>protocol
21>all
22>1-c 2-a 3-b
23>protocol
24>both
25>both
26>Finite State Machine
27>5
28>I ,O and S
29>N
30>A
31>abcd
32>aef
33>state transition
34>all
35>strongly
36>completely
37>minimal
38>Communicating FSM
39>CFSM
40>CFSM
41>protocol
42>node ,edge
43>CFSM
44>T
45>extended FSM
46>all
47>P ,T ,M0 ,IN ,OUT
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48>places ,token ,transition
49>both
50>marking
51>transition firing
52>dcba
53>both
54>all
55>informal
56>informal
57>informal
58>6
59>all
60>acbedf
61>Formal Description Technique
62>formal
63>formal
64>Calculi of Communication Systems
65>all
66>cbad
67>protocol engineering
68>software engineering
69>formal
70>domain
71>protocol
72>all
73>1-e 2-f 3-g 4-h 5-a 6-d 7-c 8-b
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CHAPTER 2: NETWORK REFERENCE MODEL
1>__________is a group of computers, printers and other devices that are connected together either with a cable or wireless
media (WAN/network)
2>In general, __________reference model defines the functions of communication software in a generalized and structured
manner which helps to carry out the network product development activities (OSI/network)
3>It is impractical to write a single protocol to handle all the communication tasks (true/false) __________
4>It is impractical to solve a wide range of problems that may arise in digital data communication. Some of the problems
include the following
a: host/link failure
b: network congestion
c: data delay or loss
d: data corruption
e: data duplication or packets out-of-sequence
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
5>Match the following
host failure: transmission errors can corrupt the data being transmitted
link failure: sometimes data is lost during the transmission or may experience excessive delay
network congestion: networks have finite capacity which cannot beexceeded
data delay or loss: transmission link may be damaged or disconnected
data corruption: host or gateway may fail due to a hardware or software crash
data duplication: whenever there is existence of more than one roote in a network connection, it is possible for transmitted
packets to arrive out of sequence at the receiver__________
6>In abstract representation of network architecture, at the_____level, we have application programs and hardware at
______level is required for data transmission across a network (top/bottom)
7>The layered architectures are the rulebooks upon which implementations are based, consisting of collection of protocols, the
rules by which physically separated entities interact, which is called as___________ reference model (network/OSI)
8>The entities in the same layer on different machines are called as___________entities (paired/peer)
9>___________define a technique to organize a network system into a succession of logically distinct entities, such that
service provided by one entity is solely based on the service provided by the previous entity (top down architecture/layered
architecture)
10>Layered architecture is suitable to deal with complex systems due to following reasons
a: explicit structure allows identification of the relationship among a complex system's pieces
b: modularization eases maintenance and updating of the system
c: change of implementation of a layer's service transparent to rest of system
d: if no layering is there, each new application has to be re-implemented for every network technology
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
11>___________is a set of primitives that a layer provides to the layer above it (procedure/service)
12>A service relates to an interface between two layers, with_____layer being the service provider and _____layer being the
service user (lower/upper)
13>___________is a point at which the services are accessible to the layers (socket/layer interface)
14>A Layer interface is a point at which the services are accessible to the layers.The services are available throgh
___________ (SIP/SAP)
15>SAP stands for___________
16>IDU stands for__________
17>SDU stands for___________
18>PDU stands for___________
19>ICI stands for___________
20>IDU consists of___________ (SDU/ICI/both)
21>_____is the information passed across a network to the peer entity and then up to the layer n+1.______is needed to help the
lower layer do its job but is not part of the data itself (SDU/ICI)
22>___________is a set of rules governing the format and meaning of frames, packets or messages that are exchanged by the
peer entities within a layer (protocol/program)
23>A protocol has to perform following functions
a: encapsulation
b: segmentation & reassembly
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c: flow & error control
d: multiplexing
e: addressing
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
24>A communication message contains________information (data/control/both)
25>______information consists of addresses, error-detection and dialog control._____information contains the data in standard
formats required for communication among machines (data/control)
26>__________is the technique used by layered protocols in which a layer accepts a message from a layer above it and places
it in the data portion of the lower level layers message unit (segmentation/encapsulation)
27>_________is needed for reliable end-to-end and link transmission (flow control/error control)
28>______error control makes sure that data is reliably transferred between hosts._____error control is done between the
intermediate nodes of a network which are used to switch the data from a sender to receiver (link level/end-to-end)
29>_______is necessary between host-to-host and intermediate node to intermediate node in order to control the congestion in
a network (congestion control/flow control)
30>A flow control entity at_____layer controls the flow of PDUs between the hosts and avoids flooding of PDUs at the
receiver, whereas flow control in entities at ______layer avoids the network congestion , and prevent network jamming
(lower/higher)
31>The ISO recommended a generally acceptable network reference model called________ (OSI or TCP/IP)
32>_______comprises of seven layers that serves a reference framework for the development of protocol specifications and
standards (OSI or TCP/IP)
33>In OSI referece model, each layer is associated with certain set of protocols facilitating ___________communication
among the corresponding layers between the computer systems (viral/virtual)
34>The advantage of OSI approach is that each layer can be considered independently of the other as long as the interfaces
remain the same (true/false)___________
35>TPDU stands for___________
36>wrt OSI model, arrange the following layers in correct sequence (from bottom to top)
a: data link
b: transport
c: presentation
d: physical
e: network
f: session
g: application
Ans: ___________ (daebfgc/daebfcg/daebgfc)
37>The ___________layers of the OSI model deal with application issues and are generally implemented only in software
(lower1to4/upper5to7)
38>In OSI model, ___________layer is closest to the end-user (application/physical)
39>___________layers of the OSI model handle data transport issues (lower1to4/upper5to7)
40>In OSI model, the physical layer and the data link layer are implemented in___________ (software/hardware/both)
41>In OSI model, __________layer is responsibald for actually placing information on the medium (physical/application)
42>Features of Physical layer are
a: it provides direct mechanical and electrical connections between the computer system and the network nodes
b: it concerns transmission of raw data over the medium
c: it has set of interfacing rules to communicate with devices like modems, the broadband or carrier band etc
d: data sent in this layer are bit string
e: it makes and breaks connections with the medium
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
43>Identify features of data link layer
a: it establishes and maintains a communication path between nodes of the network
b: it is responsible for transferring frames from one computer to another w/o errors
c: it is diveded into two sublayers LLC and MAC
d: it can perform flow control
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
44>In data link layer, ______sublayer manages communications between the devices over a single link of a network , and
_____sublayer manages protocol access to the physical network mediumLLC/MAC)
45>___________control moderates the transmissom of data so that the receiving euthad is not overwhelmed with more traffic
than it can handle at one time (flow/congestion)
46>Identify features of network layer
a: it is concerned with routing of data from one network node to another
b: routers use this layer to determine how to forward packets
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c: it has the responsibility of interconnecting two or more dissimilar networks
d: data sent in this layer are packets
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
47>Identify features of transport layer
a: it accepts the data from session layer and segments the data for transport across the network
b: it is responsible for making sure that the data is delivered error-free and in the proper sequence
c: flow control occurs at this layer
d: it provides multiplexing
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
48>___________control manages data transmission between devices so that the transmitting device does not send more data
than the receiving device can process (flow/congestion)
49>___________enables ata from several applications to be transmitted onto a single physical link
(encapsulation/multiplexing)
50>Identify features of session layer
a: it establishes , manages and terminates communication sessions
b: it determines which of the three modes of interaction the communication may take ie simplex, half duplex or full duplex
c: it provides synchronization and check-pointing to keep the two end devices in step with each other
d: SPDUs are types of data units exchanged
Ans: ______ (a/b/c/d/all)
51>Identify features of presentation jewes
a: it provides a variety of coding and conversion functions that are applied to application layer data
b: PPDUs are the types of data units exchanged
c: it includes common data representation formats, conversion of character representation formats, common data compression
schemes and common data encryption schemes
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
52>Identify features of application layer
a: it is the OSI layer closest to the end user
b: it provides the mechanisms and interfaces that enable an end user to communicate within the network environment
c: it includes logging in, checking password, file request, file transfer etc
d: APDUs are the data units exchanged
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
53>Match the following
physical layer: any service provided to end users
data link layer: full duplex, accesses management eg token control synchronization
network layer: delivers a packet to a specified destination, performs fragmentation/reassembly of packets, packet scheduling ,
buffer mangement
transport layer: moves information between two systems connected by a physical link
session layer: framing ie attach frames separator , send data frames between peers, arbitrates the access to common physical
media, ensures reliable transmission, provides flow control
presentation layer: provides an inorder, error free and flow & congestion controlled end to end connection,
multiplexing/demultiplexing packets
application layer: converts data between various representation___________
54>Match the following
physical layer: defines data formats and rules to convert from one format to another
data link layer: implements reliability as well as flow & congestion control
network layer: layer addresses, implement MAC , provides error control
transport layer: coding scheme used to represent a bit, voltage levels, duration of a bit
session layer: defines global unique addresses, constructs routing tables, implements packet forwarding, fragments/
reassembler packets
presentation layer: token management, inserts checkpoints, implementsrolling back functions
application layer: depends on the application ___________
55>Match the following
physical layer: FTP, Telnet.WWW
data link layer: RPC
network layer: RIP, OSPF, IP
transport layer: CSMA/CD, CSMA/CA, Token ring, HDLC
session layer: ASN.1
presentation layer: TCP & UDP
application layer: coaxial cable, optical fiber links___________
56>The TCP/IP protocol suite is the world's most popular open system protocol quite because
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a: they can be used to communicate across any set of interconnected networks b: they are well suited for LAN and WAN
communications
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
57>DARPA stands for___________
58>In TCP/IP suite application, ______&_____layers are combined together to form one layer called application layer
(application/session/presentation)
59>In TCP/IP protocol suite, arrange the following layers in correct order (from bottom to top)
a: network access
b: IP
c: TCP
d: application
e: physical
Ans: ___________ (eadbc/eabdc/eabcd)
60>in TCP/IP protocol suite, Host to network interface is a combinationof_____&______ (network
access/IP/TCP/application/physical)
61>Network access layer in TCP/IP suite is similar to___________layers in OSI (LLC/MAC/both)
62>___________protocols are used for sharing a single broadcast channel among several users by avoiding conflicts between
the sending hosts (LLC/MAC)
63>MAC protocols may be categorized into following types
a: channel partitioning
b: random access protocols
c: taking turn protocols
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
64>___________category protocols mainly divides the channel into smaller pieces and allocate a piece to a node for exclusive
use (channel partitioning/random access protocols/taking turn protocols)
65>Examples of___________MAC protocols are: TDMA, FDMA & CDMA (channel partitioning/random access /taking turn)
66>In___________, access to a channel by the hosts is in rounds ie each station gets a fixed length slot in each round
(FDMA/TDMA/CDMA)
67>In___________, the unused slots by nodes go idle and hence the bandwidth is wasted (FDMA/TDMA/CDMA)
68>In___________, channel spectrum is divided into frequency bands where each host is assigned a fixed frequency band
(FDMA/TDMA/CDMA)
69>In___________, the unusedtransmission time in frequency bands goes idle and hence bandwidth is wasted
(FDMA/TDMA/CDMA)
70>In___________, a unique code is assigned to each host in a network (FDMA/TDMA/CDMA)
71>___________is used mostly in wireless broadcast channels where all hosts share same frequency, but each host has its own
chipping sequence to encode the data (FDMA/TDMA/CDMA)
72>In CDMA, the encoded signal is given as___________of original data and chipping sequence (sum/product)
73>In___________category protocols, channel is not divided into fixed slots but, are allowed collisions between the nodes and
some mechanisms to recover from collision are used (channel partitioning/random access/taking turn)
74>Examples of __________MAC protocols are pure Aloha, slotted Aloha , CSMA/CD (channel partitioning/random
access/taking turn)
75>In___________, the nodes can start transmission as and when the frames are ready.If transmission is not successful, a node
retransmits the frame ( pure Aloha or slotted Aloha or CSMA/CD)
76>___________has higher collsion probability ( pure Aloha or slotted Aloha or CSMA/CD)
77>___________considers all frames of same size since it divides time into equal sized slots which is given as the time to
transmit one frame ( pure Aloha or slotted Aloha or CSMA/CD)
78>In___________, if a node senses the channel to be idle, it transmits an entire frame otherwise defers the transmission ( pure
Aloha or slotted Aloha or CSMA/CD)
79>Match the following
IEEE 802.3 (CSMA/CD): wireless network topology
IEEE 802.4 (token bus): wired ring topology
IEEE 802.5 (token ring): wired logical ring topology
IEEE 802.11 (wireless CSMA/CA): wired bus topology___________
80>To avoid collisions, MAC protocols use following methods____________ (polling/token passing/both)
81>In__________, a master node invites the slave nodes to transmit in turn. In_______, a control token is passed from one
node to next sequentially where presence of token indicates transmit permission (polling/token passing)
82>The concerns of polling method are_____.The concerns of token passing mehod are______ (polling overhead/token
overhead/latency/single point of failure)
83>___________protocol is used for storing the data in the buffers until media is accessed and data sent is acknowledged
(MAC/LLC)
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84>Some we LLC protocols are
a: simple stop wait protocol
b: stop wait protocol with timers and ARQ
c: sliding window protocol
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
85>Match the following
simple stop wait protocol: it considers two channels in which regular frames will be sent in forward channel and ACKs will be
sent in the reverse channel
stop wait protocol with timers & ARQ: it assumes an error free channel with finite buffer capacity and processing speed at the
nodes, and prevents a sender from flooding the receiver
sliding window protocols: it is used in case of error prone channels which may either cause damage to frames or loss of the
frames___________
86>In__________protocol, sender sends one frame at a time and then waits for ACK before proceeding to transfer next data
(sliding window/stop wait/stop wait with ARQ)
87>In___________protocol, sender could send a frame and timeout, and send a frame again if it does not receive ACK from
the receiver (sliding window/stop wait/stop wait with ARQ)
88>___________protocol considers two channels in which regular frames will be sent in forward channel and ACKs will be
sent in the reverse channel (sliding window/stop wai/stop wait with ARQ)
89>In___________protocol, sender sends N frames and waits for an acknowledgment. If rth frame is in error, it starts sending
from rth to Nth frame and early packets received after rth frame will be discarded (sliding window/stop wait/stop wait with
ARQ/Goback)
90>wrt simplex stop wait protocol, arrange the following in correct sequence
a: frame2
b: frame1
c: ACK
Ans: ___________ (acb/bac/bca)
91>wrt one bit sliding window protocol, arrange the following in correct sequence
a: seq=0, ack=0, RF=1
b: seq=1, ack=1, RF=2
c: seq=0, ack=1, SF=1
d: seq=1, ack=1, SF=2
Ans: ___________ (cbda/cabd/cadb)
92>HDLC stands for___________
93>___________specifies a packetization standard for serial links connecting the remote devices in the network with central
computer, either point-to-point or point-to-multipoint (HDLC/SLIP/PPP)
94>___________is used to connect a computer to Internet over dialup line using the modem (HDLC/SLIP/PPP)
95>___________protocol does not support error checking , correction, detection & authentication bu supports only IP
networks and uses character stuffing for data framing (SLIP/PPP)
96>___________is an approved and widely used protocol to connect home PCs to Internet over dial-up lines
(HDLC/SLIP/PPP)
97>___________handles error detection (SLIP/PPP)
98>PPP has following components: ___________ (LCP/NCP/both)
99>LCP stands for___________
100>NCP stands for___________
101>_____is used for authentication , bringing up lines, negotiating and bring down lines when needed whereas_____handles
negotiation with network layer and gets the IP address allocated at connection time (LCP/NCP)
102>SLIP stands for______
103>The function of________protocols is to find the routes in a computer network to provide connectionless best effort
datagram delivery service to the network users, and perform fragmentation and reassembly of datagrams to support data links
with different MTU sizes (network/transport)
104>__________is mainly concerned with addressing of network nodes, security, remove quality of service and
fragmentation/reassembly of packets (IP/TCP)
105>IP header is___bytes long and can carry data upto___kb including header, but in practice, maximum size of IP packet
is____bytes (20/32/64/500/1500)
106>_______field in the IP packet helps to remove the orphan packets ie it acts as a counter that gradually decrements to zero,
and at this point the datagram is discarded, thus preventin looping of packets (TLV/TTL)
107>An IP address is___bits long (32/64)
108>IP networks can be divided into smaller networks called_______ (supernetwork/subnetwork)
109>__________provides the network administrator with extra flexibility and efficient use of network addresses
(supernetwork/subnetwork)
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110>Maximum hosts in class A, B & C is___ ___&____respectively (254/65543/16777214)
111>Match the following
class A: 192.0.1.0 to 223.255.254.0
class B: 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
class C: 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0
class D: 128.1.0.0 to 191.254.0.0
112>The Internet has been divided into logical clusters called__________ (autonomous system/autonomy system)
113>AS concept improves the connectivity of__________networks (small/large/both)
114>Following are different types of ASs
a: stub AS
b: multihomed AS
c: transit AS
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
115>Match the following
stub AS: used for large corporation which has multiplex connections to other ASs
multi-homed AS: used by service providers to hook many ASs together
transit AS: used forsmall corporation which has single connection to other ASs___________
116>Internet performs hierarchical routing (true/false)__________
117>Internet takes up the tasks of
a: routing within the ASs (intra-AS routing)
b: routing between the ASs (inter-AS routing)
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
118>The routing protocol run by a router in an AS to find the routes within AS is called as_____AS routing protocol whereas
the routing protocol used by the gateway routers to find the paths between the ASs Is called ____AS routing protocol
(inter/intra)
119>In _____AS routing, the administrator is responsible for choice of routing algorithm within network whereas in______AS
routing, there is a unique standard for inter-AS routing (inter/intra)
120>Distance vector and link state routing are examples of ______AS routing (inter/intra)
121>BGP is an example of__________AS routing (inter/intra)
122>RIP is __________gateway routing protocol (interior/exterior)
123>ADBF stands for__________
124>The routing algorithm used in_____is ADBF (RIP/OSF/BGP)______
125>OSPF is ___________gateway protocol (exterior/interior)
126>_________uses link state or shortest path first based routing algorithm (RIP/OSPF/BGP)
127>Dijkstra algorithm is used in___________ (RIP/OSPF/BGP)
128>Distance vector algorithm is used in__________ (RIP/OSPF/BGP)
129>BGP is an________AS routing protocol (intra/inter)
130>Hosts using BGP communicate using_________ (TCP/UDP)
131>___________is a major protocol used in the Internet routing (RIP/OSPF/BGP)
132>IP supports multicasting by using class___addresses (C/D)________
133>IGMP stands for__________
134>__________is used by IP hosts to report their host group memberships to any immediately neighbouring multicast routers
(IGMP/ICMP)
135>Examples of multicast protocols are
a: DVMRP
b: PIM
c: MOSPF
Ans: ________ (a/b/c/all)
136>DVMRP stands for__________
137>PIM stands for__________
138>MOSPF stands for__________
139>__________allows a diskless client machine to discover its own IP address, the address of a server host and the name of a
file to be loded into memory and executed (DHCP/BOOTP)
140>__________is used to control vital networking parameters of hosts with the help of a server (DHCP/BOOTP)
141>DHCP supports following types of addresses
a: automatic
b: dynamic
c: manual
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
142>Match the following
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automatic addressing: address is assigned manually by network administrator
dynamic addressing: permanent IP address is assigned to the client
manual addressing: address is assigned for a limited period of time
143>Mobile IP allows the mobile node to use___IP addresses (2/3)
144>In mobile IP, ____address is static and is used whereas______address changes at each new point of attachment and can be
called as the mobile node's topologically significant address (home/care of )
145>The home address makes it appear that the mobile node is continually able to receive data on its home network, where
Mobile IP requires the existence of a network node known as__________ (home agent/foreign agent)
146>__________messages , delivered in IP packets, are used for out-of-band messages related to network operation or
misoperation (IGMP/ICMP)
147>CIDR overcomes following problems
a: running short of IP addresses
b: running out of capacity in the global routing tables
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
148>CIDR currently uses prefixes anywhere in the range of__to__bits (12/13/24/27)______
149>With CIDR, blocks of addresses can be assigned to networks as small as____hosts or to those with over______hosts
(32/64/250000/500000)
150>In the CIDR ddress 206.13.01.48/25, the '/25' indicates the _____ 25 bits are used to identify the specific host
(first/last)_____
151>The CIDR addressing scheme enables___________in which a single high level route entry can represent many lower
level routes in the global routing tables (route association/route aggregation)
152>___________is used to negotiate with network nodes to reserve bandwidth to support QoS path setup (RSVP/RARP)
153>RSVP can be used for_________traffic flows (unicast/multicast/both)
154>___________maps IP address to MAC address (ARP/RARP)
155>___________maps the 48 bits MAC address to IP address (ARP/RARP)
156>___________provides reliable transmission of data over the Internet (TCP/UDP)
157>__________provides stream data transfer, reliability, efficient flow control, full duplex operation and multiplexing
(TCP/UDP)
158>TCP segments consist of fixed ____ byte header and the data segment not greater than ____kbytes (16/20/32/64)__
159>TCP consists of source and destination port numbers which are called_________ (TSAP/TPDU)
160>Using TCP, host must establish a connection oriented session with one another and it is performed by using_____way
handshake mechanism (two/three)
161>wrt TCP connection establishment, arrange the following events in correct sequence
a: syn (seq=y, ack=x+1)
b: syn (seq=x+1, ack=y+1)
c: syn (seq=x)
Ans: __________ (acb/cba/cab)
162>wrt TCP data transfer, arrange the following events in correct sequence
a: conn-response
b: conn-confirm
c: Ack
d: conn-request
Ans: __________ (dcab/dacb/dabc)
163>wrt TCP window control , arrange the following events in correct order
a: 2k, seq=2k
b: 2k, seq=0
c: ack=2k, w=2k
Ans: __________ (acb/bac/bca)
164>TCP uses ________ management for traffic flow control (window/timer)
165>__________is the time spent in waiting for Ack after sending a segment (delay/RTT)
166>TCP performs congestion control (true/false)__________
167>In TCP congestion control, congestion window (CWND) uses_____start algorithm (slow/fast)_____
168>Smoothed RTT is computed by using__________estimate (old/observed/both)
169>I TCP exponential averaging, the following equations are used in estimating SRTT & RTO when an acknowledgement for
(i+1)th packet is recieved
a: SRTT (i+1)=a*RTT (i+1)+ (1-a)*SRTT (i)
b: RTO=SRTT (i+1)*d
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
170>In TCP exponential averaging, the value of 'a must' be _____than unity (less/greater)_____
171>The values of 'a' within___&___give better RTT estimates (0.7/0.8/0.9)____
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172>In TCP Jacobson algorithm, the following equations are used to find SRTT when an acknowledgment is received for an
(i+1)th packet
a: SRTT (i+1)={ (1-a)SRTT (i)}+{a*RTT (i+1)}
b: SRTT (i+1)=RTT (i+1)-SRTT (i)
c: SDEV{ (i+1)={ (1-h)SDEV (i)}+{h*SERR (i+1)}
d: RTO (i+1)=SRTT (i+1)+B*SDEV (i+1)
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
173>In TCP Jacobson algorithm, typical taver for a, B and h are____, ___and____respectively (0.125/0.25/4)
174>TCP__________algorithm suffers from retransmission ambiguity (karn/jacobson)
175>_________supports connectionless transport of data across the network (TCP/UDP)
176>__________does not provide reliablity, flow control or eror recovery functions to IP (TCP/UDP)
177>___headers contain fewer bytes and consumes less network overhead them_______ (TCP/UDP)
178>_____supports multimedia data transfer over Internet (RTP/RSVP)
179>RTP uses_______as a transport mechanism (TCP/UDP)___
180>The RTP services include
a: payload type identification
b: sequence numbering
c: timestamping
d: delivery monitoring
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
181>RTU uses__________to monitor the quality of service and to convey information about the participants in an ongoing
session (RTCP/RSVP)
182>RTCP stands for__________
183>Application layer protocols typically has following pieces_________ (client/server/both)
184>__________is used to make reliable file transfer between the machines connected across the network by using TCP as a
transport protocol (FTP/TFTP)
185>In FTP, port=___is used for control and port=____is used for data (20/21)___
186>FTP server maintains following states
a: current directory
b: earlier authentication
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
187>__________is used to perform unreliable file transfers between two machines connected across the network by using
UDP as a transport prtocol (FTP/TFTP)
188>__________is used in emulating the terminal (Telnet/TFTP)
189>Following are major components of email
a: user agents
b: mail servers
c: SMTP
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
190>Match the following
user agent: is a protocol between mail servers to exchange email messages
mailbox: is used for composing, editing and reading mail messages
SMTP: contains messages for the user
191>__________is used to fetch email from the remote mailbox and store it on the user's local machine to be read later
(IMAP/POP)
192>__________is designed to help the user who uses multiplex computers, perhaps, a workstation in office, a PC at home,
and a laptop on the road (IMAP/POP)
193>__________does not copy email to user's personal machines (IMAP/POP)
194>__________provides a systematic way of monitoring and managing a computer network (SNMP/SMTP)
195>SNMP is a request reply protocol running over _____ (TCP/UDP)_____
196>__________is primarily used for mapping host names and email destinations to IP addresses (DNS/HTTP)
197>DNS uses____conection to DNS server (TCP/UDP)______
198>Following are different types of DNS servers
a: local name server
b: root name server
c: authoritative name server
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
199>There are about____root name servers in the world (12/13/14)______
200>__________is a standard web transfer protocol used to retrieve HTML documents stored across the hosts in the Internet
(WAP/HTTP)
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201>HTTP uses _______as transport protocol (TCP/UDP)__
202>Using HTTP, client initiates TCP connection to server at port ___ (69/80/94)____
203>RTSP stands for_______
204>RTCP stands for_______
205>_______is a client server multimedia presentation protocol to enable controlled delivery of streamed multimedia data over
IP network (RTCP/RTSP)
ANSWERS:
1>network
2>network
3>T
4>all
5>1-e 2-d 3-c 4-b 5-a 6-f
6>top ,bottom
7>network
8>peer
9>layered architecture
10>all
11>service
12>lower ,upper
13>layer interface
14>SAP
15>Service Access Point
16>Interface Data Unit
17>Service Data Unit
18>Protocol Data Unit
19>Interface Control Information
20>both
21>SDU ,ICI
22>protocol
23>all
24>both
25>control ,data
26>encapsulation
27>error control
28>end-to-end
29>flow control
30>higher ,lower
31>OSI
32>OSI
33>virtual
34>T
35>Transport Protocol Data Unit
36>daebfcg
37>upper 5to7
38>application
39>lower 1to4
40>both
41>physical
42>all
43>all
44>LLC ,MAC
45>flow control
46>all
47>all
48>flow
49>multiplexing
50>all
51>all
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52>all
53>1-d 2-e 3-c 4-f 5-b 6-g 7-a
54>1-d 2-c 3-e 4-b 5-f 6-a 7-g
55>1-g 2-d 3-c 4-f 5-b 6-e 7-a
56>both
57>Defense Advanced Research Project Agency
58>presentation & session
59>eabcd
60>network access ,physical
61>both
62>MAC
63>all
64>channel partitioning
65>channel partitioning
66>TDMA
67>TDMA
68>FDMA
69>FDMA
70>CDMA
71>CDMA
72>product
73>rndom access
74>pure ALOHA
75>random access MAC
76>pure ALOHA
77>slotted ALOHA
78>CSMA
79>1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a
80>both
81>polling, token passing
82>polling overhead, latency & single point of failure; token overhead ,latency & single point of failure
83>LLC
84>all
85>1-b 2-c 3-a
86>simple stop-wait protocol
87>stop-wait protocol with timers & ARQ
88>Sliding window protocol
89>Goback
90>bca
91>cadb
92>High level Data Link Control
93>HDLC
94>SLIP
95>SLIP
96>PPP
97>PPP
98>both
99>Link Control Protocol
100>Network Control Protocol
101>LCP ,NCP
102>Serial Line IP
103>network
104>IP
105>20 ,64 ,1500
106>TTL
107>32
108>subnetwork
109>subnetting
110>16777214 ,65545 ,254
111>1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b
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112>Autonomous System
113>both
114>all
115>1-c 2-a 3-b
116>T
117>both
118>intra ,inter
119>intra, inter
120>intra
121>inter
122>interior
123>Asynchronous Distributed Bellman Ford algorithm
124>RIP
125>interior
126>OSPF
127>OSPF
128>RIP
129>inter
130>TCP
131>BGP
132>D
133>Internet Group Management Protocol
134>IGMP
135>all
136>Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol
137>Protocol Independent Multicast
138>Multicast OSPF
139>BOOTP
140>DHCP
141>all
142>1-b 2-c 3-a
143>2
144>home, care-of-address
145>home agent
146>ICMP
147>both
148>13-27
149>32, 500000
150>first
151>route aggregation
152>RSVP
153>both
154>ARP
155>RARP
156>TCP
157>TCP
158>20 ,64
159>TSAP
160>3
161>cab
162>dabc
163>bca
164>window
165>RTT
166>T
167>slow
168>both
169>both
170>less
171>0.8-0.9
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172>all
173>0.125, 4 & 0.25
174>Jacobson
175>UDP
176>UDP
177>UDP ,TCP
178>RTP
179>UDP
180>all
181>RTCP
182>RTP Control Protocol
183>both
184>FTP
185>21 ,20
186>both
187>TFTP
188>Telnet
189>all
190>1-b 2-c 3-a
191>POP
192>IMAP
193>IMAP
194>SNMP
195>UDP
196>DNS
197>UDP
198>all
199>13
200>HTTP
201>TCP
202>80
203>Real Time Streaming Protocol
204>RTP Control Protocol
205>RTSP
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CHAPTER 3: PROTOCOL SPECIFICATION
1>__________is a representation of communication services, entities, interfaces and interactions ( protocol
specification/protocol engineering)
2>Following are components of a protocol
a: communication service
b: peer entity of a protocol
c: communication interfaces
d: interactions
e: message formats
Ans: __________ ( a/b/c/d/e/all)
3>Match the following
communication service: defines the sub-components of the message which includes the data as well as the control information
interactions: is a process that describes the behaviour of a protocol and its relation to its peer entity
peer entity: defines the way the service primitives of a protocol provides services to its upper layer, and uses services from its
lower layer
communication interfaces: is the message exchanged between the two processes of a protocol
message formats: describes the type of communications services of a protocol__________
4>__________are also called a service access points ( interface/interaction)
5>__________is based on a set of service priitive which is an abstract manner describe the interactions at the interface through
which the service is provided ( service specification/protocol specification)
6>Service specification primitives are
a: request
b: response
c: indication
d: confirm
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
7>Connection establishment uses____primitives whereas data transfer uses only_______ (
request/response/indication/confirm)
8>The interactions exchanged through the underlying communication service between the entities are called___________ (
PDU/SAP)
9>In FSM, the transitions are represented by___________ ( Event/Action/both)
10>_____indicates the occurrence of some function in a protocol and______corresponds to actions taken when those events
happen ( Event/Action)
11>In FSM of service specification for reliable data transfer of sender, arrange the following in correct sequence
a: send ( sndpkt) & start timer
b: compute checksum ( 2 bytes)
c: make pkt ( sndpkt, data, checksum)
Ans: ___________ ( acb/bac/bca)
12>In FSM of service specification for reliable datatransfer from receiver, arrange the following in correct sequence
a: deliver-data ( data)
b: rdt-send ( ACK)
c: extract ( revpkt, data)
Ans: __________ ( abc/cba/cab)
13>wrt service primitives for a conversation between the two machines, arrange the following primitives in correct order
a: connect_confirm
b: connect_response
c: connect_request
d: connect_indication
Ans: ___________ ( caba/cdba/cdab)
14>Following are behavior aspects of the protocol specifaction
a: temporal ordering of interactions
b: parameter range
c: selecting values of parameters
d: coding of PDUs
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e: liveners properties
f: real time properties
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
15>Match the following
temporal ordering of interactions: provide quantitative measures usually related to communication delay, attainable throughput,
probabilities of refusing service requests etc
parameter range: deals with specifying the order of events' occure of a protocol in time continuous manner
selecting values of parameters: defines the format in which the protocol data units and their paameters are coded for
transmission
coding of PDUs: range of possible values of interaction parameters of service primitives based on the protocol data units
liveners properties: define that certain interactions will actually happen, and the interactions will properly terminate
real time properties: defines i)the permissible parameter values for each interaction ii)for each received interaction the
significance of the parameter values for the subsequent processing___________
16>__________correspond for times when an entity is waiting for some event ( transition/state)
17>The transitions of a protocol entity occur typically when a packet is ___________ ( received/timed out/either)
18>wrt FSM of sender entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'initial data ready'
a: get_data ( data), rdt_data_request ( data)
b: sndpkt=make_pkt ( 0, data, checksum)
c: send ( sndpkt)
d: start_timer
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/e)
19>wrt FSM of sender entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'rdt_rev ( revpkt)&&notcorrupt ( revpkt)'
astop_timer
b: get_data ( data), rdt_data_request ( data)
c: sndpkt=make_pkt ( 1, data, checksum)
d: send ( sndpkt)
e: start_timer
Ans: _________ ( a/b/c/d/e/all)
20>wrt FSM of sender entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'rdt_rev ( revpkt)&&notcorrupt ( revpkt)
a: stop_timer and get_data ( data)
b: rdt_data_request ( data)
c: sndpkt=make_pkt ( 0, data, checksum)
d: send ( sndpkt)
e: start_timer
Ans: _________ ( a/b/c/d/e/all)
21>wrt FSM of receiver entity specification, identify primitids of the event 'rdt_data_indication ( revpkt)&&corrupt ( revpkt)'
a: compute chksum
b: rdt_send ( NACK)
c: sndpkt=make_pkt ( sndpkt, NACK, chksum )
d: send ( sndpkt)
Ans: _________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
22>wrt FSM of receiver entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'rdt_data_indication ( revpkt)&&notcorrupt (
revpkt)&&has_seq0 ( revpkt)'
a: compute chksum
b: rdt_send ( NACK)
c: sndpkt=make_pkt ( sndpkt, ACK, chksum )
d: send ( sndpkt)
Ans: _________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
23>wrt FSM of receiver entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'rdt_data_indication ( revpkt)&&notcorrupt (
revpkt)&&has_seq0 ( revpkt)'
a: extract ( revpkt, etc)
b: deliver_data ( data)
c: compute checksum
d: rdt_send ( ACK)
e: sndpkt=make_pkt ( sndpkt, AC, chksum)
f: send ( sndpkt)
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
24>wrt FSM of receiver entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'rdt_data_indication ( revpkt)&&notcorrupt (
revpkt)&&has_seq1 ( revpkt)'
a: extract ( revpkt, etc)
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b: deliver_data ( data)
c: compute checksum
d: rdt_send ( ACK)
e: sndpkt=make_pkt ( sndpkt, ACK, chksum)
f: send ( sndpkt)
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/e/f/all)___________
25>wrt FSM of receiver entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'rdt_data_indication ( revpkt)&&corrupt ( revpkt)
a: compute chksum
b: rdt_send ( NACK)
c: sndpkt=make_pkt ( sndpkt, NACK, chksum )
d: send ( sndpkt)
Ans: _________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
26>wrt FSM of receiver entity specification, identify primitives of the event 'rdt_data_indication ( revpkt)&&notcorrupt (
revpkt)&&has_seq1 ( revpkt)
a: compute chksum
b: rdt_send ( NACK)
c: sndpkt=make_pkt ( sndpkt, ACK, chksum )
d: send ( sndpkt)
Ans: _________ ( a/b/c/d/all)___________
27>___________are the communication paths used to connect one or more FSMs of protocol processes ( channel/connection)
28>The channel can be odeled as___________channel ( lossless/lopsy/either)
29>___________of a channel FSM represent one of the transitions ( transition edge/state edge)
30>___________are mechanisms that support interactions in protocol implementation ( communication/interace)
31>Following are different types of interfaces: ___________ ( internal/external/both)
32>_____interfaces are mechanisms that are internal to the protocol whereas______interfaces are mechanisms that make it
possible for other implementations like applications, higher or lower layer services or both to interact with the protocol being
developed ( internal/external)
33>The protocol designers are free to implement the___________interfaces ( internal/external)
34>Following are states in FSM of an interface of bus access protocol
a: idle
b: wait_for_bus
c: get_data
d: write_data
e: release_bus
Ans: __________ ( a/b/c/d/e/all)
35>Following are transitions in FSM of an interface of bus access protocol
a: bus_req
b: bus_idle
c: data_ready
d: data_write
e: bus_release
Ans: ________ ( a/b/c/d/e/al)
36>Interface options can be handled in following ways
a: options are considered as an inherent part of an interface such that different options can be used during operation
b: desired options are selected before operation
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/both)
37>In FSM of interactions between ISDN system and a user for activation of call forwarding service, FSM has___states for
ISDN system and___states for user ( 3/4/5)_____
38>___________systems are characterized by the differnt types of media streams they use ( communication/multimedia)
39>A video has to be transferred and presented to the user at a rate of atleast__to___pictures per second to create the
impression of a movie ( 15/16/25/36)____
40>Audio should be transferred and presented to the user at a rate of________samples per second ( 8000/6400)
41>Following are important parameters of multimedia systems
a: throughput
b: transfer delay
c: jitter
d: error rates
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
42>Match the following
throughput: indicates the loss of data in a continuous data tranfer
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transfer delay: expresses the variance of the transfer delay
jitter: defines the data transmission rate
error rates: is the time between the production of data at the source and its presentation at the sink
43>Considering a picture size of 640*480 pixels with 24 bits/pixel representing the colour of the pixel, a throughput of
about_____Mbps will be necessary ( 17.5/175/1.75)______
44>Jitter can be reduced in the end-systems by the use of___________ ( memory/buffer)
45>For reliable video transfer, loss of one frame per___frames is acceptable ( 30/300/3000)________
46>For data communication, only___________services have been offered ( guaranteed/best effort )
47>In the___________service, the service user can rely on the initially negotiated service characteristics (guaranteed/best
effort )
48>The QOS requirements of a multimedia application are given as___________information in the protocol specifications (
data/control)
49>ABP stands for___________
50>___________is a one bit sliding window protocol ( ABP/ARQ)
51>ABP transmits the packets with sequence number___________in a reliable manner ( 0/1/either)
52>ABP consists of
a: Sender_ABP
b: Receiver_ABP
c: Data_Medium
d: Ack_Medium
Ans: _______ ( a/b/c/d/all)
53>wrt ABP , arrange the following events in correct sequence
a: The Reciever_ABP acknowledges all incoming messages
b: The Sender ABP waits for an acknowledgement from the Reciever_ABP containin the same sequence number
c: if the appropriate acknowledgment does not arrive withintimeout period, the Sender_ABP resends the same message
d: The Sender_ABP takes a message which is ready to be sent and transmits the message together with a sequence number
Ans: _______ ( dbca/dbac/dacb)
54>HDLC is ___oriented protocol ( bit/byte)________
55>In HDLC, the frame is delimited with a flag sequence___________ ( 0111110/01111110)
56>In HDLC, if a frame contains sequence 01111110, it will be stuffed with zero after consecutive ___one ( 4/5/6)________
57>HDLC uses following types of control frames
a: information
b: supervisory
c: unnumbered
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/all)
58>Match the following wrt supervisory frame in HDLC
type0: receive not ready
type1: selective reject
type2: ACK frame
type3: reject frame___________
59>Match the following wrt unnumbered frame in HDLC
type0: frame reject ( FRMR)
type1: set async balance mode ( SABM)
type2: set normal response mode ( SNRM)
type3: disconnect ( DISC)___________
60>In HDLC frame format, when used as___, the computer is inviting the terminal to send data. All frames sent by the
terminals, xcept the final one, have this bit set ( P/F)________
61>In HDLC, ___________command is used between two asymmetric partners like dumb terminal and computer (
SNRM/SABM)
62>In HDLC, control frames may be lost or damaged, so they must be acknowledged.A special control frame
called___________frame is provided for this purpose ( UA/NACK)
63>Following are components of HDLC protocol
a: link setup
b: PF control
c: source
d: sink
e: clock
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/e/all)
64>In HDLC, the components can exchange messages with communication interfaces using following methods
a: direct coupling
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b: shared variables
c: hierarchical independence
d: complete independence
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
65>Match the following
direct coupling: variables shared between components such as between P/F control & clock, and sink & source
shared variables: link setup is initiated first, afterwards source and sink are initiated
hierarchical independence: it is locally independent and depends on local properties such as frame size
complete independence: executon of instructions simultaneously or sequentially at both ends happen whenever transition takes
place___________
66>Match the following wrt FSM of HDLC P/F control
P0, P=0: finished transfer, goto no polling
P1, P=1: finish=0
F0, F=0: polling mode
F1, F=1: not in polling mode___________
67>The working of FSM is different in SNRM and SABM modes, since_______mode treats all as equal partners (
SABM/SNRM)
68>___________is used to reserve the resources over the path connecting the server and the client to facilitate smooth running
of multimedia applications ( RTCP/RSVP/RTSP)
69>The types of messages used by RSVP protocol to establish and maintain the reserved paths are
a: PATH
b: RESV
c: PATH_ERR
d: RESV_ERR
e: PATH_TEAR
f: RESV_TEAR
Ans: _______ ( a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
70>Match the following
PATH: it removes the reservation along the route
RESV: it indicates an error in response to the RESV message
PATH_ERR: it carrier the reservation request from the receiver
RESV_ERR: it carries the data flow information from the sender to the receivr
PATH_TEAR: it is generated at the nodes where the node does not have path from sender to receiver
RESV_TEAR: it removes the PATH state along the route___________
71>An RSVP application has the following states
a: Idle
b: Arr
c: Join
d: Data_Send
Ans: __________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
72>Match the following
Idle: creates a data packet and sends it to a selected single/multicast destination that it rejects
Join: this state is activated whenever a message or a packet arrives for the application and by default returns to Idle state
Arr: the application will send a session call to local RSVP daemon.In response it receives the session Id from the Local daemon
Data_Send: this state has transitions to three states__________
73>In RSVP router states, the state Arr has following functions to be executed based on the type of message received
a: pathmsg
b: ptearmsg
c: resvmsg
d: rtearmsg
e: rconfmsg
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/e/all)
74>Match the following wrt Arr state in RSVP router
pathmsg: it is invoked by the Arr state when a PATH_TEAR message is recieved
ptearmsg: it is invoked by the Arr when a RESV message is received
resvmsg: it is invoked by the Arr when a RESV_TEAR message is receive
rtearmsg: it is invoked by the Arr when a RESV_CONF message is received
rconfmsg: it is invoked by the Arr when a PATH message is received___________
75>PSB stands for___________
76>In RSVP host state diagram, the functions which are executed as internal events are as follows
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a: session
b: sender
c: reserve
d: receive
Ans: ___________ ( a/b/c/d/all)
77>Match the following wrt RSVP host state diagram
Session: it is called from the Arr state whenever a sender call is received from the local application
sender: it is called from the Arr state whenever a Reserve call is received from the local application
reserve: it is called from the Arr state whenever a Release call is received from the local application
receive: it is called from the Arr state whenever a session call is received from the local application___________
ANSWERS:
1>protocol specification
2>all
3>1-e 2-d 3-b 4-d 5-a
4>interface
5>service specification
6>all
7>all; request & indication
8>PDU
9>both
10>event , action
11>bca
12>cab
13>cdba
14>all
15>1-b 2-d 3-f 4-c 5-e 6-a
16>state
17>either
18>all
19>all
20>all
21>all
22>all
23>all
24>all
25>all
26>all
27>channel
28>either
29>transition edge
30>interfaces
31>both
32>internal ,external
33>internal
34>all
35>all
36>both
37>3 ,4
38>multimedia
39>16-25
40>8000
41all
42>1-c 2-d 3-b 4-a
43>175
44>buffer
45>300
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46>best-effort
47>guaranteed
48>control
49>Alternating Bit Protocol
50>ABP
51>either
52>all
53>dbca
54>bit
55>01111110
56>5
57>all
58>1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b
59>1-d 2-b 3-b 4-a
60>P
61>SNRM
62>UA(Unnumbered Acknowledgment)
63>all
64>all
65>1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c
66>1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a
67>SABM
68>RSVP
69>all
70>1-d 2-c 3-e 4-b 5-f 6-a
71>all
72>1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a
73>all
74>1-e 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-d
75>Reservation State Block
76>all
77>1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c
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CHAPTER 4: SDL—A PROTOCOL SPECIFICATION
LANGUAGE
1>A protocol specification language specifies the communication protocols by using __________notation
(formal/graphical/either)
2>Following are some specification languages
a: LOTUS
b: ESTELLE
c: SDL
d: SPIN
e: CPN
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
3>LOTUS stands for__________
4>ESTELLE stands for__________
5>SDL stands for__________
6>SPIN stands for___________
7>CPN stands for___________
8>Identify features of SDL
a: It uses FSMs and its extensions for protocol specifications
b: it provides a clear and simple modular approach for protocol modeling
c: it can use ASN.1 and the programming language C type packages for a better message description
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
9>SDL is a formal language defined by___________ (ITU-T/CCITT)
10>SDL follows ___________oriented approach (object/procedure)
11>SDL provides
a: well defined set of concepts
b: unambiguous, clear, precise and concise specifications
c: thorough basis for analyzing specifications and conformance testing
d: basis for determining the consistency of spec factions
e: good computer support interface for generating applications w/o the need for the traditional coding phase
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
12>SDL provides
a: high degree of testability
b: portability, scalability and open specification
c: high degree of reuse
d: facility for applying optimization techniques and thus improves protocol efficiency
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
13>A communication system described by an SDL specification is actually ___________ (ECFSM/CFSM)
14>A communication system described by an SDL specification is actually an ECFSM because
a: it consists of a set of concurrent processes, extended with variables and data space, which communicate by exchanging data
signals on finite length synchronous channels
b: it consists of a set of concurrent processes, extended with variables and data space, which communicate by exchanging
control signals on finite length asynchronous channels
Ans: ___________ (a/b/either)
15>figure 4.1___________
16>SDL uses the following components to specify and describe a communication system
a: structure
b: communication
c: behavior
d: data
e: inheritance
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
17>Match the following
Structure describing relations and specialization
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Communication abstract data types or predefined data types
Behavior a system, block, process and procedure hierarchy
Data signals with optional signal parameters and channels
Inheritance processes or entities
19>___________is the one that actually executes where the class is a declaration (class instance/object/either)
20>The instance methods provide computer _____and the class object characteristics provide relevant______ (instruction/data)
21>The SDL structure comprises of following main hierarchical levels
a: system
b: blocks
c: processes
d: procedures
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
22>___________consists of a set of instances, which are of different kinds such as block, process and service instance
(system/component)
23>The set of blocks are connected with each other and the environment by using___________ (channel/connection)
24>___________is a container for either sets of processes connected by signal routes or for a set of sub-structures of blocks
connected by channels (block/system)
25>___________is a primary instance of a system (block/process)
26>___________defines the properties of a category of process instances (data type/process type)
27>Communication by means of sending signals is___________, where the sending process does not wait until the signal is
handled by the receiver, and the receiving process keeps signals in a queue until it reaches a state in which it is prepared to
handle it (synchronous/asynchronous)
28>___________are part of processes and they define the patterns of behaviour of a protocol (procedure/subroutine)
29>SDL accepts following ways of describing data
a: predefined data types
b: ADT
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
30>SDL supports ASN.1 data types (true/false)___________
31>The set of ___________data types in SDL are as follows: integer, real, natural, Boolean, character, duration, time,
charstring, Pid (predefined/abstract)
32>Match the following
INTEGER uses usual real numbers
REAL allowed values are TRUE and FALSE
BOOLEAN uses characters
CHARACTER the data contains string of characters
CHARSTRING the data contains ASCII characters
STRING are used to represent sequence of bits
BIT_STRING uses negative & positive integer numbers
33>Match the following
TIME the data contains a value representing a relative TIME
DURATION contains the process instance identifier
PId signal associated at a certain time
TIMER data contains indexed collection of items which are all of the same data type
ARRAY natural sequence of numbers
NATURAL it uses a real number
34>Match the following
first ('hello') : ll
last ('hello') : hello
length ('hello') : o
'he'//'llo' : h
: 5
35>______&_____are used to concatenate the string in CHARSTRING & STRING data types respectively (/ or //)
36>Using TIME data type, SET (NOW+2.0, mytimer),
a: sets the mytimer to current time plus two minutes
b: sets the mytimer to current time plus two seconds
Ans: ___________ (a/b/either)
37>In TIMER data type, the allowed operations are
a: SET
b: RESET
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c: active
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
38>___________data type is a data type with no specified data structure (abstract/predefined)
39>The constants in SDL are declared by using___________ (SYNONYM/SYNTYPE/both)
40>SYNTYPE Ex integer constants 0: 10 ENDSYNTYPE
In this, Ex is an integer type but a variable of this type is only allowed to contain values in the specified range 0 to 10.Such a
constant is called ___________condition (boundary/range)
41>The structure element__________ is used in SDL to encapsulate certain types of data (struct/class)
42>The variables can be imported and exported among he processes using the keywords ____&___in the variable declaration
of a process .The keyword ____is used to tell the system that a variable is remote to a process (remote/exported/imported)
43>Blocks in a system are interconnected by _____while processes & services within a block are interconnected by______
(signal routes/channels)
44>In SDL, communication on the bidirectional routes that connect processes is always ___________
(synchronous/asynchronous)
45>In___________ communication, each process has its own input queue, where signals coming from the environment or from
another process are buffered and sequentially processed (synchronous/asynchronous)
46>___________communication is provided by the remote procedure call instruction (synchronous/asynchronous)
47>SDL supports non-ordered signal reception by means of the _________operator, which postpones the consumption of a
specified signal to the next transition (RECORD/SAVE)
48>SDL uses following declarations for communication paths
a: signal CR, CI, CW /*signal declaration*/
b: signal list val=ok, nok, err/*list of signals in the subchannel val*/
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
49>A SDL specification consists of
a: system type diagram
b: block type diagram
c: process type diagram
d: service (procedure) type diagram
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
50>Following are examples of SDL based protocol specification
a: QA protocol
b: Xon-Xoff protocol
c: Alternating bit protocol
d: Sliding window protocol
e: BGP
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
51>___________protocol provides the service in the form of answers from the user A to the questions framed by the user Q
(QA/BGP)
52>In service specification of Question Answer protocol, arrange the following operations in correct sequence
a: user A generates the signal 'Areq' as an answer to 'Qreq' and sends it to the protocol entity of a user A
b: signal 'Areq' is sent as signal 'Dreq' to the service provider protocol entity
c: QA service provider sends signal 'Dind' to protocol entity of user Q
d: protocol entity at user Q forwards this as an 'Aind' to the user Q
e: signal 'Qreq' is sent to the protocol entity of user Q from the user Q
f: signal 'Qreq' is forwarded as signal 'Dreq' to service provider protocol entity
g: QA service provider forwards the 'Dreq' signal as 'Dind' signal to the user A's protocol entity
h: signal 'Dind' is sent as signal 'Qind' to the protocol entity of user A
Ans: ___________ (feghabdc/feghabcd/efghabcd)
53>The components of the QA protocol are
a: one block called QA protocol
b: three processes called 'Qentity', 'Aentity' and 'ServicePro' representing the user Q, user A , service provider respectively
c: three bidirectional signal routes represented as Q1, Q2, A1 and A2 are used in the protocol model
d: six signals are declared using the keyword 'SIGNAL'-Dreq, Dind, Qreq, Qind, Aind and Areq
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
54>___________is primitive flow control protocol, in which a receiver controls the data transfer by signaling the sender
(QA/Xon-Xoff)
55>Xon-Xoff protocol uses following types of PDUs
a: Data_PDU
b: Suspend_PDU
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c: Resume_PDU
Ans: ________ (a/b/c/all)
56>Match the following
Data_PDU it is sent to the sender PE by the receiver PE to signal the sender to resume sending
Data-PDUs
Suspend_PDU it is sent to the sender PE by the receiver PE to signal the sender to stop sending Data-
PDUs
Resume_PDU it is sent to the sender PE by the receiver PE
57>In Xon-Xoff, arrange the following operations in correct sequence
a: sender starts sending the data if it has received Resume PDU, else keeps waiting until the Resume_PDU is sent by the
receiver
b: signal 'LDreq (pdu)' from the receiver is received at them sender
c: the receiver sends either Resume_PDU or Suspend_PDU to the sender along with the signal 'LDreq (pdu)'
d: the sender sends the Data_PDU along with the signal 'LDreq (pdu)' to the receiver
Ans: _______ (dacb/dcab/dcba)
58>Match the following
! indicates not equal
// is used to access the member of the structure
/= indicates appending the buffer
59>The Components of Alternating bit protocol are
a: one block, which has sender and receiver entities along with the channel process
b: package defining all the signals used in the protocol model
c: two communication channels-ack loss signal and data loss signal connect the system to environment
d: input signals from the environment-Lose Data and Lose Ack
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
60>In system specification of ABP , the block consists of following processes
a: ULSenderP
b: ULRecieverP
c: DataMedium
d: SenderP
e: ReceiverP
f: AckMedium
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
61>In ABP, the sender process contains the following items
a: data declarations : Timer1
b: states: Wait_0, Wait_1, Idle_0, Idle_1
c: inputs : AckS_0, AckS_1, Send
d: output : DataS_0, DataS_1, Sender_Ready
Ans: _________ (a/b/c/d/all)
62>In ABP, the receiver process contains the following items
a: states: Wait_0, Wait_1, Idle_0, Idle_1
b: inputs: DataR_1, DataR_0, Recieve
c: outputs: AckR_0, AckR_1, Deliver, Reciever_Ready
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
63>In ABP, the upper layer process at sender contains the following items
a: states: Wait
b: inputs: Sender_Ready
c: outputs_Send
Ans: _________ (a/b/c/all)
64>In ABP, the upper layer process at receiver contains the following items
a: states: Wait
b: inputs: Receiver_Ready, Deliver
c: outputs: Receive
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
65>In ABP, the data medium process contains the following items
a: states: Empty, Lose
b: inputs: DataS_0, DataS_1, Lose_Data
c: outputs: DataR_0, DataR_1
Ans: ______ (a/b/c/all)
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66>In ABP, the ack medium process contains the following items
a: states: Empty, Lose
b: inputs: AckR_0, AckR_1Lose_Ack
c: outputs: AcksS_0, AckS_1
Ans: ______ (a/b/c/all)
67>___________is used as MAC protocol in wireless networks, where signalling mechanisms are used to avoid the collisions
(CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA)
68>___________acts as an interface between the wireless and wired network (bridge/switch)
69>In specifications of bridge connecting CSMA/CD and CSMA/CA protocol, the components defined are
a: it has three blocks: bridge, csma_cd and csma_ca
b: package defining all the signals used in the block and process specifications
c: it has four channels connecting the blocks: c1, c2, c3 and c4 where each carrier different signals which are defined in the
package
d: input signals from the environment: user1 & user2 are the users of csma_cd block and user3 & user4 are users of csma_ca
Ans: _______ (a/b/c/d/all)
70>In specifications of a bridge connecting CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA protocols, the bridge block consists of the following
items
a: process: bridge_p
b: signal routes: p1 and pa which are connected to channels c1 and c2 respectively
c: input signls carried by p1 and pa are: fpacket1, res and end_pac
d: output signals carried by p1 are: packet1_bridge , req_chan_state and end_packet
e: output signals carried by p2 are: packet_bridge, req_chan_state and end_packet
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
71>In sliding window protocol, the components of the Transmitter process are
a: declaration: win, ns, nr and timer t initialization
b: states: transfer
c: inputs: tack
d: outputs: tpdu
e: the statement ns: = (ns+1) determines the next sequence number of the packet to be transmitted
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
72>In sliding window protocol, the recieve process comprises of following components
a: declarations: ns, nr and as integers
b: states: reception
c: input: rpdu
d: output: rack
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
73>In SDL specifications of TCP, Go back n sliding window protocol uses_____ (linear/exponential) increase in window size
upto maximum of window size and window size is reduced to____ (half/one) whenever the data losses are detected.
74>In SDL specifications of TCP, the components defined in the block are
a: transmitter: this process sends packet and uses Go-back-n principle to retransmit the data as well as controls the window size
b: channel1: provides service to transmit data from sender to receiver which is modeled to introduce losses
c: Receiver: this process receives packet from the channel1 process and keeps track of sequence number of packet
d: signals: Starsim, ACK1, ACK, packet , thr, packet1 and packet_junk
e: package p in which all the signals used in the block are defined
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
75>A simulating ___________can be used to give stimuli to the network specifications and record the performance parameters
(manager/analyst)
76>OSPF is an _____domain routing protocol which performs route computations in a network (intra/inter)______
77>___________uses link state vector routing algorithm (BGP/OSPF)
78>LSA stands for___________
79>In OSPF, ___________is used in updating routing tables (LSP/LSA)
80>In OSPF, the modeled components include
a: interface function
b: flooding function
c: LS refreshment function
d: router port interfaces
Ans: ____________ (a/b/c/d/all)
81>In OSPF, following types of modeled in SDL
a: point to point
b: broadcast
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Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
82>In OSPF, the components of the SDL model are
a: three router process instances: R1 (0, 1), R2 (0, 1) and R3 (0, 1) router type
b: three link process instances of type point-to-point: L1 (0, 1), L2 (0, 1) and L3 (0, 1)
c: five signal routes: C11, C12, C21, C22 and C31 each with two signals RouterLink and LinkRouter
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
83>In OSPF, a RoutesType process does the following operations
a: whenever an LSA refresh message arrives at the router. It calculates the delay
b: updates the database registering new LSAs
c: floods LSAs to the network
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
84>_______is considered to be a path vector protocol (OSPF/BGP)____
85>A router rejects the 'best BGP' route when there are multiple BGP route possibilities of the same specificity. It goes on
following parameters
a: route specificity and reachability
b: BGP weight metric MED (Multi exit discriminator)
c: BGP local_pref metric
d: internally originated vs. externally originated
e: AS-path length
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
86>For competing BGP routes, the most likely way the router's is going to pick the best route is by looking at the_________
a: route specificity and reachability
b: BGP weight metric MED (Multi exit discriminator)
c: BGP local_pref metric
d: internally originated vs. externally originated
e: AS-path length
87>BGP selects only one path as the best path (true/false)___________
88>BGP uses the following criteria to select a path for a destination, arrange in correct sequence
a: if all paths have the same AS path length, prefer the path with the lowest origin type
b: if the origin codes are the same, prefer the path with the lowest MED attribute
c: if the paths have the same MED, prefer the external path over the internal path
d: if the paths are still the same, prefer the path through the closest IGP neighbour
e: prefer the path with the lowest IP address , as specified by the BGP router ID
f: if the path specifies a next host that is inaccessible, drop the update
g: prefer the path with the largest weight
h: if the weights are the same, prefer the path with he largest local preference
i: if the local preferences are the same, prefer the path that originated by BGP running on this router
j: if no route was originated, prefer the route that has the shortest AS path
Ans: ___________ (fhgijabcde/fghijabcde/fghjiabcde)
89>BGP systems send following types of messages
a: open
b: update
c: keepalive
d: notification
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
90>For TCP connection establishment, the typical messages exchanged between BGP peers are
a: transport connection open
b: transport connection open failed
c: transport connection closed
d: transport fatal error
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
91>BGP systems send___________ messages to exchange network reachability information
(open/update/keepalive/notification)
92>BGP systems exchange___________ messages to determine whether a link or host has failed or is no longer available
(open/update/keepalive/notification)
93>___________messages consist of the BGP header plus the optional fields (open/update/keepalive/notification)
94>BGP systems send__________ messages when an error condition is detected (open/update/keepalive/notification)
95>___________messages consist of the BGP header plus the error code and subcode, and data that describes the error
(open/update/keepalive/notification)
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96>___________is a set of rules that are applied to a BGP speaker's set of configured peers for the BGP operation (BGP
FSM/BGP CFSM)
97>BGP uses ___________as transport protocol (TCP/UDP)
98>following are different states of BGP FSM or BGP process for its peers
a: IDLE
b: CONNECT
c: ACTIVE
d: OPENSENT
e: OPENCONFIRM
f: ESTABLISHED
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
99>Match the following wrt BGP process
IDLE BGP peer connection is established and exchanges UPDATE, NOTIFICATION
& KEEPALIVE messages with its peer
CONNECT BGP peer Is waiting for KEEPALIVE or NOTIFICATION message from its peer
ACTIVE BGP peer is waiting for OPEN message from its peer
OPENSENT state in which BGP peer tries to acquire a peer by listening and accepting TCP
connection
OPENCONFIRM state in which BGP peer waits for is TCP connection to be completed
ESTABLISHED state when BGP peer refuses any incoming connections
100>In MPLS, data transmission occurs on___________ (LSP/LSA)
101>In MPLS, the labels are distributed using__________ (LDP/RSVP/either)
102>The devices that participate in the MPLS protocol mechanisms can be classified into__________ (LER/LSR/both)
103>LER stands for__________
104>LSR stands for__________
105>__________is a device that operates at the edge of the access network and MPLS network (LER/LSR)
106>__________is a representation of a group of packets that share the same requirements for their transport (ARQ/FEC)
107>In MPLS, each LSR builds a table to specify how a packet must be forwarded.This table is called__________ (LIB/MIB)
108>LIB stands for__________
109>In MPLS, a label is carried or encapsulated in a layer-___header along with the packet (1/2/3)_______
110>MPLS operations are
a: label creation and distribution
b: creation of label table
c: label switched path creation
d: packet forwarding
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
111>In MPLS, the contents of __________table specify the mapping between a label and an FEC (LIB/MIB)
112>LDP uses __________as transport protocol (TCP/UDP)
113>in LDP, __________routers initiate the distribution of labels and the label FEC binding (downstream/upstream)
114>In MPLS, traffic related characteristics and MPLS capabilities are negotiated using__________ (LSR/LSP/LDP)
115>A router supporting the MPLS with LDP consists of processes for
a: session initialization at ingress router, LER
b: session initialization at core router, LSR
c: operational ingress router
d: operational core router
e: operational egress router
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
116>Following are some popular protocol specification languages
a: SPIN
b: Estelle
c: LOTUS
d: Uppal
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
117>SPIN stands for__________
118>__________is a widely used tool for specification, simulation and validation of communication protocols
(LOTUS/SPIN/Estelle/CPN)
119>SPIN census a strong formal like SDL , basis and is established, on___________ theory (FSM/CFSM/ECFSM)
120>SPIN uses a programming language C like specification notation called__________ (Petrinet/ProMeLa)
121>__________is a textual notation for ECFSM that comprises the constructs for data manipulation and communication
between processes (Petrinet/ProMeLa)
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122>__________supports efficient model checking (SPIN/LOTUS/CPN)
123>__________means validation of consistency requirements, invariant assertions and temporal properties expressed in an
adhoc linear temporal logic (model verification/model checking)
124>___________is a formal description technique for the specification of distributed and concurrent systems
(Estelle/SPIN/UML)
125>Estelle is based on_____ (CFSM/ECFSM)theory in modeling event-driven behaviours and employs ______in data
manipulation (C/Pascal/java)
126>A standard Estelle specification is a unique document that collects following fields
a: declaration of data types
b: channel types
c: procedures and functions
Ans: _________ (a/b/c/all)
127>LOTUS stands for___________
128>__________is a formal description technique for specifying concurrent and communicating systems (LOTUS/SPIN)
129>LOTUS adopts a peculiar modeling approach called___________ (linear algebra/process algebra)
130>CPN stands for_________
131>___________is a specification formalism that employs PN features to model parallel behaviour and high level
programming languages to define data types (LOTUS/CPN/SPIN)
132>CPN supports
a: hierarchical description by means of transition refinements
b: model checking for static and dynamic properties
c: formal analysis methods
d: simulation
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
133>__________is a toolbox for modeling, simulation and verification of Timed Automata (SPIN/Lotus/Uppaal/UML)
134>Uppaal has been provided with a graphical, platform independent interface, being written in__________ (Pascal/C/Java)
135>In Uppaal, __________regions makes it possible to convert the unbounded behaviour into a finite state space
(stochastic/temporal)
136>UML stands for__________
137>__________is the most important graphic notation for object oriented software systems (CPN/UML)
138>OMG stands for__________
139>__________specifications are collections of diagrams (UML/Uppaal)
140>__________specification language is based on the theory of timed automata, which can be interpreted as an extension of
FSMs by means of timers (UML/Uppaal)
141>Some features of UML have been included in SDL=______to enrich SDL communication software architecture
description capabilities (2000/2005)
ANSWERS:
1>either
2>all
3>Language of Temporal Ordering Specification
4>Extended State Transition Language
5>Specification and Description Language
6>Simple Promela Interpreter
7>Coloured PetriNets
8>all
9>ITU-T
10>object
11>all
12>all
13>ECFSM
14>b
15>
16>all
17>1-c 2-d 3-c 4-b 5-a
18>
19>either
20>instruction,data
21>all
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22>system
23>channel
24>block
25>process
26>process type
27>asynchronous
28>procedures
29>both
30>T
31>predefined
32>1-g 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-c 6-e 7-f
33>1-f 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-d 6-e
34>1-d 2-c 3-e 4-b 5-a
35>// and /
36>b
37>all
38>abstract
39>both
40>range
41>struct
42>imported,exported,remote
43>channels,signal routes
44>asynchronous
45>asynchronous
46>synchronous
47>SAVE
48>both
49>all
50>all
51>QA
52>efghabcd
53>all
54>Xon-Xoff
55>all
56>1-c 2-b 3- a
57>dcba
58>1-b 2-c 3-a
59>all
60>all
61>all
62>all
63>all
64>all
65>all
66>all
67>CSMA/CA
68>bridge
69>all
70>all
71>all
72>all
73>exponential
74>all
75>manager
76>intra
77>OSPF
78>Link State Advertisement
79>LSA
80>all
81>both
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82>all
83>all84>BGP
85>all
86>e
87>T
88>fghijabcde
89>all
90>all
91>update
92>keepalive
93>update
94>notification
95>notification
96>BGP FSM
97>TCP
98>all
99>1-f 2-e 3-d 4-c 5-b 6-a
100>LSP
101>either
102>both
103>Label Edge Router
104>Label Switching Router
105>LER
106>FEC
107>LIB
108>Label Information Base
109>2
110>all
111>LIB
112>TCP
113>downstream
114>LDP
115>all
116>all
117>Simple ProMeLa Interpreter
118>SPIN
119>ECFSM
120>ProMeLa
121>ProMeLa
122>SPIN
123>model checking
124>Estella
125>ECFSM,pascal
126>all
127>Language Of Temporal Ordering Specifications
128>LOTUS
129>process algebra
130>Coloured PetriNets
131>CPN
132>all
133>Uppaal
134>Java
135>temporal
136>Unified Modeling Language
137>UML
138>Object Management Group
139>UML
140>Uppaal
141>2000
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CHAPTER 5: PROTOCOL VERIFICATION/VALIDATION
1>__________are the foundations of modern communication networks such as the Internet, intelligent networks and wireless
networks (communication protocol/communication specification)
2>Programs that implement computer communication protocols can exhibit extremely complicated behaviour because they
must cope with
a: asynchronous computing programs
b: the possibility of failures in the programs and in the communication medium
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
3>__________mainly concentrates on verifying the correctness of liveness and safety properties of a given protocol
specification (protocol validation/protocol verification)
4>___________ properties have the form 'bad things will not happen' (safety/liveness)
5>The safety properties of a protocol are
a: non-violation of assertions
b: invariants
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
6>___________ properties of a protocol have the form 'good things will happen' (safety/liveness)
7>Liveness properties include
a: termination requirements in sequential protocols
b: recurrent properties in non-terminating protocols like network operating system protocols
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
8>In a protocol verification approach, a protocol is modeled by a set of interacting ___________that represent logical units of
the communication system such as the communication medium, transmitter and the receiver (components/modules)
9>Modules of a protocol can be categorized into ___________ (processes/monitors)
10>_____is an active protocol component, and ______is a data abstraction with synchronization (processes/monitors)
11>At the___________ level, the properties of processes and monitors are verified by examination of their code
(lowest/highest)
12>Following are approaches used for protocol verification
a: FSM
b: petrinet
c: temporal logic
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
13>The steps required to perform verification of a protocol (ABP) are
a: each of the protocol entities, namely sender , receiver and channel have individual FSM consisting of states and transitions
b: create a global system combining all the processes of given protocol
c: generate all transition events of the protocol and create a table with the following items: transition event, frames accepted,
frame emitted and frame delivered to the receiver
d: check for the safety and liveness properties of the protocol from the table
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
14>___________state in a state of a system whose occurrence means all the specified messages have been transmitted and
received correctly (finished/terminator)
15>Many protocol implementations used in the Internet have almost suffered design failures because
a: of some serious design errors due to ambiguous protocol requirement specification
b: of some serious design errors due to unambiguous protocol requirement specification
Ans: ___________ (a/b/either)
16>__________is a method of checking whether the interactions of protocol entities are according to the protocol specification
(protocol verification/protocol validation)
17>___________refers to check the protocol specification such that it will not get into protocol design errors like deadlock,
unspecified receptions and livelock errors (validation/verification)
18>The following are the possible design errors that can occur during protocol design and development
a: non-executable interaction
b: unspecified receptions
c: unboundedness of a protocol
d: state ambiguity of protocol
e: lack of adaptation in a protocol
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f: state deadlocks
g: livelocks
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/g/all)
19>Match the following
non-executable interaction : the protocol execution sequence that can be repeated indefinitely often w/o
ever making effective progress
unspecified receptions : this leads the protocol for huge loss of data, heavy buffer space
requirement, high bandwidth requirement et
unboundedness of a protocol : this design error causes overflowing of known system limits such as the
limited capacity of message queues
state ambiguity of protocol : this design error may lead to unreachable or unexecutable code in the
protocol
lack of adaptation in a protocol : this design error states that the protocol is in a state where no further
protocol execution is possible
state deadlocks : this is a transient error, which arbitrarily changes the protocol states
Livelocks : this design error causes unspecified receptions during its execution
20>A state ___________occurs when every process of a protocol has no alternative but to remain indefinitely in the same state
(deadlock/ livelock)
21>___________prevails when no transmissions are possible from the current state of each process of a protocol, and when no
messages are in transit i.e. all channels are empty (deadlock/ livelock)
22>___________occurs when a positive arc of the process of a protocol that can be traversed is missing (unspecified
reception/non-executable interactions)
23>To avoid the unspecified receptions, protocols can be protected by___________ mechanism (rate ambiguity/state check)
24>___________is present when a design includes message transmissions and receptions that cannot occur under the normal
operating conditions (non-executable interaction/unspecified reception)
25>___________is equivalent to dead-code in a computer (non-executable interaction/unspecified reception)
26>A stable state pair (X, Y) Is said to exist
a: when a state X of a process and a state Y in another process can be reached with both channels full
b: : when a state X of a process and a state Y in another process can be reached with both channels empty
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
27>Monitoring stable state pairs is useful for detecting the loss of___________ (perturbation /synchronization)
28>A ___________exists when a state of one process can coexist stably with several different states in the other process (state
ambiguity/state deadlock)
29>One of the most commonly used technique for validation is based on global state generation, which is referred to as
___________technique (synchronization/perturbation)
30>In___________ technique, communicating processes are represented as FSMs that may send or receive a message when it
executes a state transition (synchronization/perturbation)
31>The sequence generated in perturbation technique can be represented as ___________tree (binary/reachability)
32>The perturbation technique is capable of diagnosing the design errors like
a: state deadlock
b: unspecified receptions
c: non-executable code
d: state ambiguities
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
33>The advantages of using the reachability tree for protocol validation are
a: the tree generation can be easily automated
b: many logical errors can be detected by only examining individual global states in the reachability graph
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
34>The disadvantages of using reachability graphs are
a: state space explosion problem
b: does not work on unbounded protocols
c: many relationships among the protocol state variables, expressing the desirable logical correctness properties of the protocol,
are not apparent from simply traversing the reachability tree
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
35>The method of generating fail ___________graph removes the redundancy involved in the perturbation technique
(reachability/connected)
36>The errors handled by fair reachablity graph are
a: unspecified receptions
b: deadlocks
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
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37>FRG stands for___________
38>In___________ method, the sequence is treated as a series of executing steps, where each sequence consists of a protocol
process sending or receiving a message (GRF/FRG)
39>in fair reachablity graph, the redundancy can be removed by imposing ___________rule when more than one process can
execute a state transition from a given global state (transmission ordering/transition ordering)
40>All the states in the FRG are called fail states since
a: the number of messages in both the channels is different
b: the number of messages in both the channels is same
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
41>___________are used to model concurrent systems and communicating systems (process algebra/procedure algebra)
42>CCS stands for___________
43>PEPA stands for___________
44>Following are process algebra which are used for validation of protocols, and concurrent and distributed systems:
___________ (CCS/PEPA/both)
45>Following steps are involved in the SDL based verification of the communication protocols. Arrange in correct order
a: check the MSC diagrams of the test-cases to verify the safety and liveness properties
b: generate the MSC diagrams using the SDL tool
c: input the required signals to check for safety and liveness properties of the specified protocol
d: run the simulation and check that all the processes are running in the given specifications
e: translate the FSMs into the SDL based specification
f: create the FSMs of all the entities of the protocol
Ans: ___________ (fdecba/fedcba/defcba)
46>Following steps are involved in the SDL based validation of the communication protocols. Arrange in correct order
a: create the FSMs of all the entities of the protocol
b: translate the FSMs into the SDL based specification
c: run the simulation and check that all the processes are running
d: input the required signals to the processes to check for the design errors
e: generate the MSC diagrams using the SDL tool
f: check the MSC diagrams of the test cases to validate the behavior
Ans: ___________ (dfecba/fdecba/fedcba)
ANSWERS:
1>communication protocol
2>both
3>protocol verification
4>safety
5>both
6>liveness
7>both
8>modules
9>both
10>process,monitor
11>lowest
12>all
13>all
14>terminator
15>a
16>protocol validation
17>validation
18>all
19>1-g 2-g 3-c 4-f 5-b 6-e 7-a
20>deadlock
21>deadlock
22>unspecified reception
23>state check
24>non-executable interaction
25>nonexecutable interaction
26>b
27>synchronization
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28>state ambiguity
29>perturbation
30>perturbation
31>reachability
32>all
33>both
34>all
35>reachability
36>both
37>Fair Reachability Graph
38>FRG
39>transition ordering
40>b
41>process algebra
42>Calculus of Communication System
43>Performance Evaluating Process Algebra
44>both
45>fedcba
46>abcdef
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CHAPTER 6: PROTOCOL CONFORMANCE TESTING
1>__________is used to check that the external behaviour of a given implementation of a protocol is equivalent to its formal
specification (conformance assessment/conformance test)
2>__________is the process of testing the extend to which implementations of protocol intuition adhere to the requirements
stated in the relevant standard or specification (conformance assessing/conformance testing)
3>Following are the problems to be solved in the conformance testing
a: finding a generally applicable, efficient procedure for generating a conformance test suite for a given protocol
implementation
b: finding a method for applying the test suite to a running implementation
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
4>In conformance testing, for all practical purposes, the implementation is __________with a finite set of inputs and outputs
(blackbox/whitebox)
5>The only type of experiment we can do with the __________is to provide it with sequences of input signals and observe the
resulting output signals (blackbox/whitebox)
6>IUT stands for___________
7>A series of input sequences that is used to exercise protocol implementation is called___________ (abstract test
suite/conformance test suite)
8>The conformance testing requirements are classified as
a: mandatory requirements
b: conditional requirements
c: prohibitions and optional requirements
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
9>The OSI conformance testing procedure is defined in the international ISO/IEC standard ______CTMF (9646/9664/9664)
10>CTMF stands for___________
11>CTMF stands for___________
12>CTMF consists of seven parts and covers the following aspects
a: part1 protocol concepts
b: part2 test suite specification and test system architecture
c: part3 test notation
d: part4 test realization
e: part5, 6 & 7 means of testing and organizational aspects
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
13>Match the following
part1: test realization
part2: protocol concepts
part3: test suite specification and test system architecture
part4: test notation
part5, 6 & 7: means of testing and organizational aspects__________
14>A conceptual test architecture observe the following components
a: IUT (implementation under test)
b: PCO (point of control & observation)
c: ASP (abstract service primitive)
d: PDU
e: LT & UT (lower & upper tester)
f: TCP (test coordination procedures)
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
15>Match the following
IUT : can be used to coordinate the actions of LT and UT
PCO : controls the upper interface of IUT
ASP : controls the lower interface of IUT
PDU : are the data exchanged between the protocol entity to be tested and the lower interface
LT : are the protocol service definitions exchanged at the interface of protocol entity
UT : is an implementation of a protocol entity which has to be tested
TCP : are standardized interfaces where test is observed
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16>The IUT is a part of open system called__________ (SUT/TCP)
17>Typically, the___________ interface of an IUT is accessible only from a remote site (lower/higher)
18>In conceptual test architecture, a PCO is modeled by____ FIFO queue (1/2/3)_______
19>In conceptual test architecture, ____plays the role of a user that makes use of the service provided by the IUT and____
plays the role of a peer entity of the IUT (LT/UT)___
20>In a conceptual test architecture, ___& IUT communicate in order to provide the service to the___ (LT/UT)_____
21>In a conceptual test architecture, ___& IUT communicate by means of ASPs (LT/UT)
22>The IUT and ____provide their service by exchanging PDUs (LT/UT)
23>CTMF defines ____party context which allows to combine the different test architectures in order to specify tests with
several UT & LT processes (single/multi)
24>___________is a prose description of a single requirement or a set of related requirements which should be tested (test
purpose/test case)
25>___________is the implementation of a test for a particular test architecture (test purpose/test case)
26>___________is used to test generation or test derivation (abstract test suite/conformance test suite)
27>Abstract test suite consists of
a: preamble step
b: test body
c: optional verification step
d: postamble
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
28>With the___________, the IUT is driven from a stable testing state to the test state from which the test body is performed
in order to check the test purpose (preamble/postamble)
29>Test cases developed according to the principles of CTMF are___________ (abstract/concrete)
30>Executable test cases are derived from abstract ones by compilation and adaptation to___________ (MSC/MoT)
31>MoT stands for___________
32>___________is the combination of equipment and procedures that can perform the derivation, selection, parameterization
and execution of test cases (MSC/MOT)
33>___________consists typically of dedicated test devices and facilities for the coordination of test devices and the
observation of the IUT (MSC/MOT)
34>A judgment of conformance is based on ___________aspect of an implementation (static/dynamic/both)
35>___________conformance criteria focus on the proper formation of data structures, coding of protocol data units and
conditional criteria which depend upon the legitimate choices by an implementers about services offered by IUT
(static/dynamic)
36>___________conformance criteria focus on the behaviour of an IUT as it interacts with another implementation or a test
system (static/dynamic)
37>Following are some of the conformance test architectures
a: local test method
b: distributed method
c: remote method
d: coordinated method
e: distributed combined with local methods
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
38>A basic assumption of ___________architecture is that exposed interfaces exist above and below the IUT. These interfaces
serve as PCOs (distributed/local test/coordinated)
39>___________is a points at which a real test system can control inputs and observe outputs from an IUT (ASP/PCO)
40>___________comprise a logical set of test events which can be controlled and observed at the interfaces of an IUT
(ASP/PCO)
41>Each protocol defines a set of messages to be exchanged with a peer entity called___________ (ASP/PDU/PCO)
42>Local test method includes following logically distinct elements___________ (upper tester/lower tester/both)
43>In local test architecture, the model comprises ___________around the IUT which coordinates the actions of the upper and
lower testers (test case/test harness)
44>In local test architecture, ___________tester is assumed to generate and receive a set of test events complementary to the
set of ASPs generated and received by the IUT at its top interface (lower/upper)
45>In local test architecture, ___________tester is assumed to record test events so that the behaviour of IUT may be accessed
and there is evidence supporting pass/fail verdicts (lower/upper)
46>In local test architecture, ___________provide the means of specifying the actions of the upper and lower testers (test
cases/test harness)
47>When an implementor arranges for a test laboratory to test a protocol implementation, direct access to the bottom interface
of the IUT is not likely to be available (true/alse)___________
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48>In___________ architecture, there is no assumption about the existence of a PCO at the bottom of the IUT
(distributed/local test)
49>In distributed test architecture, _____tester and IUT reside in two different computer systems (lower/upper)______
50>In distributed test architecture, ____tester and IUT are connected by an underlying service which offers N-1 service
(lower/upper)_______
51>In distributed test architecture ._________tester is a peer entity of the IUT (lower/upper)__
52>In distributed test architecture, ___________tester is part of the model and an exposed top interface is assumed at the PCO
(lower/upper)
53>in___________ test architecture, synchronization and control are more difficult because elements of the test system are
distributed over two systems (local/distributed)
54>___________method does not have upper exposed interface within the IUT (coordinated/distributed)
55>___________model uses a standardized TMPDUs to automate the test management procedures (coordinated/distributed)
56>TMPDU stands for___________
57>In coordinated test method, lower tester is assumed to be the _____ and upper tester is the _____ that minimizes the effort
in realizing upper layer (slave/master)
58>___________test method allows a very high degree of coordination and reporting of information observed and collected at
both the upper and lower testers (distributed/coordinated)
59>In coordinate test method, communication between upper and lower tester may be
a: in-band (TMPDUs are carried as data via the protocol is being tested)
b: out-of-band (use lower layer protocol which is assumed to be reliable to carry TMPDU)
Ans: ___________ (a/b/either)
60>The significant feature of ___________test method is that there is no top interface of the IUT and no explicit test
coordination procedures are assumed (coordinated/remote/distributed)
61>___________test method relies solely on the protocol being tested for synchronization of the lower tester and the IUT
(coordinated/remote/distributed)
62>___________for a protocol is a sequence of input/output pairs derived from protocol specification (conformance test
suite/conformance test sequence)
63>A test sequence is generated as a combination of a test subsequences (true/false)___________
64>A test subsequence can be illustrated by considering the mealy machine (true/false) ___________
65>Match the following wrt notations used in mealy machine
M|s : is reset input symbol, ties M to initial state from any state
M|s (a) : null output
M|<a> : the output string on input string a to M-s
: the last output symbol on input string a to M-s
R : machine M at state s
66>Some of the methods used for test sequences are ___________methods (T/U/D/W/all)
67>The test sequence generation methods are based on
a: generation of transition sequence
b: unique input/output sequences
c: distinguished sequence
d: characterization sets consisting of input strings
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
68>___________method is relatively simple compared to other methods (T/U/D/W)
69>In________ method, a test sequence can be generated by simply applying random inputs to a fault free machines unit
machine has traversed every transition at least once (T/U/D/W)
70>In_____ method, the sequence generated may contain many redundant inputs which in turn generate loops in the transition
tour (T/U/D/W)______
71>In______ method, a machine does not need to be completely specified but it must be strongly connected as it is the
necessary condition for producing transition tour (T/revised T)_____
72>_____method involves deriving a unique input/output sequence for each state of M (T/U/D/W)______
73>In U method, ___________sequence for a state of M is an I/O behaviour that is not exhibited by any other state of M
(B/UIO)
74>In U method, ______sequence is a total test sequence which is generated by concatenating the test subsequence for each
transition (B/UIO)_____
75>Algorithm: Test subsequence generation using U method. Arrange in correct order
a: apply UIO sequence for state sj
b: apply an input symbol such that M makes the state transition for state si to state sj
c: apply reset input r to M so that M is reset to initial state S0
d: if the transition starts at state si, then find the shortest path SP (si) from state S0 to state si
Ans: ___________ (acdb/cadb/cdab)
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76>In U method, ___________test sequence is a test sequence such that no subsequence of it is completely contained in any
other subsequence (optional/optimized)
77>In___ method, B-sequence is generated by using distinguished sequence (T/U/D/W)________
78>Algorithm: Test subsequence generation using D method. Arrange in correct order
a: apply an input symbol such that M makes a state transition from state si to state sj
b: apply DS sequence for state sj
c: apply reset input r to M so that M is reset to initial state S0
d: if the transition starts at state st, then find the shortest path SP (si) from state S0 to state si
Ans: ___________ (dcab/cdab/bcda)
79>In___ method, B-sequence is generated by using character set (T/D/U/W)________
80>____________for FSM is a set consisting of input strings {a1, . . . . . ak} kg such that the last output symbols observed
from the application of these strings are different at each state of M (distinguishing sequence/characterization set)
81>Algorithm: Test subsequence generation using W-method. Arrange in correct order
a: apply an input symbol (z) such that M makes the state transition from state si to state sj
b: if the transition starts a si, then find the shortest path SP (si) from state S0 to state si
c: apply reset input r to M so that M is reset to initial state S0
d: apply W sequence for state sj with understanding that
Ans: ___________ (cbad/bcad/acbd)
82>To test a distributed IUT which is communicating with n number of peer entities, we need atleast ____testers to test the
IUT for its simultaneous communications with n peer entities (n/n-1/n+1)_______
83>A multiport FSM with n ports is defined as a ___ (5/6) tuple (St, £, Y, T, O, SO) where
__ is finite set of states or labels, __is an n tuple , __is an n tuple , __is a transition over subset D, __is an output function , __is
the initial state belongs to St
84>In___ method, the derived test subsequences do not satisfy the requirements since there must be synchronization for all the
communications among the IUT and its n ports (T/W)________
85>Considering two consecutive transitions t1 and t2 of a given np-FSM (n>=2), one of the testers is said to face a
synchronization problem if the tester did not take art in the _____transition and if the_____ transition requires that it sends a
message to the machine 1 (first/second/third)
86>Transition [pi, PO] is said to be an ___________of a given transition t if t receives an input from the port pi, and sends
output on port PO (PCO/IP)
87>IP stands for___________
88>Given an ordered pair of transitions t1 and t2 of machine 1, let [pi, PO] & [pi', PO] be their IPs respectively. Then t1 and t2
are said to be___________ if pi=pi' or pi'€PO (synchronizable/interchangable)
89>A given test sequence is said to be synchronizable if any ___________consecutive transitions of the sequence are
synchronizable (two/three)
90>TTCN stands for___________
91>___________is a semi-formal notation which supports the specification of abstract test suites for protocol conformance
testing (TTCN/TOPO)
92>___________is a collection of abstract test cases (abstract test suite/conformance test suite)
93>In___________, test cases are described in the form of behaviour trees and differnt kinds of tables are used for the
graphical representation of test suites (TTCN/TOPO)
94>___________is part of CTMF for the specification and description of abstract test suites for conformance testing of
communication protocols (TTCN/TOPO)
95>TTCN has following syntactical forms
a: TTCN/gr
b: TTCN/mp
Ans: _________ (a/b/both)
96>TTCN/gr stands for___________
97>TTCN/mp stands for___________
98>_____is intended to be used by humans and______ is developed for the exchange of documents between different
computers and for further processing of TTCN test suites (TTCN/gr or TTCN/mp)
99>A TTCN test suite consists of following parts
a: overview
b: declaration
c: constraints
d: dynamics
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
100>Match the following
Overview part: it contains the test trees that should be executed to check a protocol implementation against the standard
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declaration part: it assigns values for parameters of declared items
constraints part: it declares all items used in the test suite
dynamic part: it identifies the protocol test suite and the test method used, and also defines the structure of the whole test suite
101>The documents related to the test procedure are __________ (PICS/PIXIT/both)
102>PICS stands for __________
103>PIXIT stands for__________
104>____document is a questionnaire on mandatory and optional features of the IUT and______ document is a questionnaire
on additional information required for the test execution such as address and timer information (PICS/PIXIT)
105>__________has its own data types and allows the usage of definition of ASN.1 data types (TOPO/TTCN)
106>Test suite parameters in TTCN are __________parameters of the test suite (local/global)
107Test suite parameters in TTCN are derived from__________ document (PICS/PIXIT/both)
108>TTCN supports following types of variables
a: test suite variables
b: test case variables
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
109>__________are defined globally and retain their values throughout the whole test campaign (test suite variable/test case
variable)
110>__________are used to pass information from of test case to another (test suite variable/test case variable)
111>__________are declared globally but their scope is local to a test case (test suite variable/test case variable)
112>__________part of a TTCN test suite provides the values of the PDUs to be sent to or recieved from the IUT
(constraint/dynamic)
113>__________is a complete program, which has to be executed in order to judge whether a test purpose is fulfilled or not
(test case/test verdicts)
114>TTCN supports following different verdicts
a: PASS
b: INCONCLUSIVE
c: FAIL
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
115>In TTCN, _____verdicts are given in parentheses and the______ verdict assignments are specified w/o parentheses
(preliminary/final)
116>Multiple communicating entities may create race conditions during testing (true/false)__________
117>IAP stands for__________
118>If a PCO of an IUT is not accessible within an SUT, this PCO is called__________ (ICP/IAP)
119>In conformance testing, each input can be one of the following types
a: directly controllable
b: semi-controllable
c: uncontrollable
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)120>Match the following
directly controllable : tester cannot directly apply the input to the IUT through the PCO. However, it is
possible to utilize one of the FSMs interacting with the IUT to supply this input indirectly
Semi-controllable : the input may be supplied through a PCO w/o any explicit action of the tester
Uncontrollable : tester can directly apply the input to the IUT through the PCO
__________
121>If the buffer sizes of the semi-controllable interfaces are ______, each variable can have infinite number of values. If the
buffer sizes are________, the reachability analysis is PSPACE complete for the most general case (finite/infinite)_
122>To avoid the inefficiency in test sequence, the so called__________ suggests that FS, must be kept in its initial state and
brought into a desired state only when needed, yielding test sequences of feasible length (controllability restriction/reachability
restriction)
123>In an embedded testing environment, __________conditions may arise during testing due to multiple communicating
interfaces (rare/race)
124>The basic representation of test cases is the stimuli-response pairs (true/false)___________
125>In conformance testing of RIP, we need to deal with following different layer concepts
a: the Internet layer and its datagrams, that is used to check the arrival of forwarded data
b: the application layer or the routing application in question
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
126>The conformance test case of routing protocols has following phases of actions
a: preamble
b: test case body
c: postamble
Ans: _________ (a/b/c/all)
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127>Routing is the main building block for the Internet to operate and plays a crucial role in the enormous growth of the
Internet (true/false)___________
128>Routing table modifications vary between recalculating the metric according to the following formula
a: metric=min (metric+cost, 16)
b: metric=max (metric+cost, 16)
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
129>___________is a set of test events that is responsible for issuing a test verdict, indicating the correctness of behaviour
(preamble/test case body/postamble)
130>The following list summarizes the tasks associated to test components
a: simulating RIP
b: test coordination and management
c: executing test cases
Ans: _________ (a/b/c/all)
131>___________interface is a interface to SDL specifications to get the TTCN (CCS/SCS)
132>In a test application for RIP based routing, testing is handled with software components called _____and with the standard
______interface (router/gateway/SCS/CCS)
133>>In a test application for RIP based routing, ____test port is used to transfer the sample IP datagram and_____ test port to
send & receive routing updates (TCP/UDP/IP)_
134>__________is meant to be a tool for specifying and implementing test cases for distributed/multimedia applications
(TTCN/TelCom TSL)
135>__________defines a novel testing architecture (TTCN/TelCom TSL)
136>__________aims at defining a QoS testing architecture and a test specification language (TTCN/TelCom TSL)
137>QoS testing extends protocol conformance testing approaches in several directions as follows
a: the IUT is distributed
b: multimedia applications generally make use of several data streams
c: the specification of QoS parameters may be given per data stream or for several streams
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
138>The QoS testing architecture consists of
a: test components
b: IUT
c: network facility
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
139>In Qos testing architecture, the test components access the IUT via__________ (SAP/PCO/IP)
140>In Qos testing architecture, _____&_____are connected via network interfaces (test components/IUT/network facility)
141>In QOS testing architecture, _____&_____are interconnected by communication links (test components/IUT/network
facility)
142>In Qos testing architecture, __________is responsible for generating and processing a multimedia data stream (test
components/IUT/network facility)
143>In Qos Testing architecture, __________provides underlying network service (test components/IUT/network facility)
144>The specification of a test case for Qos testing starts with definition of the __________requirements (functional/formal)
145>In QOS testing with TTCN & MSC, we need a language which meets following requirements
a: allows the description of static test information
b: allows the definition of dynamic test information
c: supports the treatment of test specific information
d: includes facilities to express non-functional requirements
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
146>__________indicate whether an SUT conforms to the relevant protocol requirements (test verdict/test case)
147>The TTCN testing architecture supports the definition of complex test configurations called__________ testing contexts
(multiple/multiparty)
148>LTCF stands for__________
149>In multiparty testing context, __________is responsible for the creation of all lower and upper tester components
(LTCF/LMDS)
150>in multiparty testing context, communication between TCs and SUT is performed via __________through which they
exchange ASPs (CP/PCO/IP)
151>In multiparty testing context, the rules that govern the exchange of CMs (coordination messages) and the coordination
between LTs and UTs are defined in___________ (TCP/UDP)
152>Following are SDL based tools for conformance testing
a: TESDL
b: TTCN link
c: SAMSTAG
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d: TOPIC V2
e: TvedaV3
f: TAG tool
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
153>Match the following
TESDL : it generates test cases from SDL systems
TTCN link : it is a tool for automatic test case generation
SAMSTAG : it works by co-simulating the SDL specification and an observer representing the test purpose
TOPIC V2 : it has been developed within the research and development project 'conformance testing- a
tool for the generation of test cases' which is funded by the Swiss PTT
TvedaV3 : it is an environment for efficient development of TTCN test suites based on SDL
specifications in SDT3.0
TAG tool : it is a prototype tool for the automatic generation of test cases from SDL specifications in the
context of the OSI conformance testing methodology and framework
154>ACT stands for___________
155>TESDL implements a heuristic algorithm to derive the global behaviour of a protocol s a tree called___________ which is
based on a restricted set of SDL diagrams (SCS/ACT)
156>In TESDL, ___________is the global system description as obtained using reachability analysis by perturbation
(SCS/ACT)
157>SDL-PR stands for__________
158>Tests are derived from the ACT of a specification by a software tool called_____ (TTCN/TESDL)
159>__________assures consistency between the SDL specification and the TTCN test suite (TESDL/LINK)
160>The intended user of the LINK tool is a ________test suite developer (TTCN/TESDL)
161>__________is a widespread mean for the graphical visualization of selected system runs of communication systems
(MSC/MoT)
162>In LINK, Developers inputs are an SDL specification and a test suite structure with test purposes and his task is to
develop an abstract TTCN test suite , based on this input. This tool is __________ (fully automatic/semi automatic)
163>__________method formalizes test purposes and defines the relation between test purposes, protocol specifications and
test cases (TOPIC V2/SMSTAG)
164>__________is a prototype of TTC GEN (TOPIC V2/TvedaV3 )
165>In TOPIC V2, the observer is described in a language called__________ (FOUL/GOAL)
166>GOAL stands for__________
167>TvedaV3 is a tool for automatic test case generation which incorporates several features such as
a: modular architecture
b: semantic module
c: functional extensions
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
168>Match the following
Specification languages : TTCN or Menuet
Test description languages : single transition, extended transition tour
Test selection strategy : SDL or Estelle
169>Match the following
modular architecture : such as hypertext links between tests and specification, test coverage analysis etc
semantic module : that makes it possible to choose between the specification languages, test
description languages and test selection strategy
functional extensions : that can be called from the strategy modules to compute feasible paths
170>The goal of test sequence generation is to _________ the number of tests with a guaranteed overage
(minimize/maximize)_
171>Algorithm1: Find a path that covers a maximum number of transitions in the following manner. Arrange in correct order
a: find out the maximum number of outgoing transitions from all states and retain those transitions that are of maximum length
from each state discarding other transitions
b: initial state chooses the state path having maximum number of transitions
c: consider an initial state which makes transition to n states
d: these n states may in turn make transitions to other states and so on
Ans: __________ (acdb/cdab/bdca)
172>Use the generated test sequence from Q171 (Algorithm1) and apply algorithm2. Arrange in correct order
a: find again a path that covers a second maximum number of transitions by the method given in algorithm1
b: repeat the same process until all the transitions have been covered
c: give this test sequence to MPLS simulation, see the behaviour of the simulation
Ans: __________ (cab/acb/bca)
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173>Following is the procedure to perform conformance testing of MPLS. Arrange in correct order
a: after initializing the system, each MPLS router gets to know about the current topology from their neighbors
b: now that the topology is stabilized , apply the message to ingress node, you get the same message at egress node
c: now MPLS three node topology is tested for its functionality
d: find test sequences according to method given in algorithm 1 & 2 and apply the test sequences to perform conformance
testing
e: generate the MSCs to observe the message exchanges as per the test sequence
f: MPLS ECFSM is transformed into an equivalent formal SDL model
g: the SDL model is simulated to view the TRANSPORT and MPLS messages exchanged between the two LDPs
h: during this exchange of messages that is witnessed in the message sequence chart each of these MPLS nodes traverse
through all states in the FSM thereby making associated transitions
i: now that the MPLS process is verified, further enhancement is done to simulate a three node topology and look into the
stability issue of MPLS Ans: ___________ (efghiabcd/eghiabcd/gfehiabcd)
ANSWERS:
1>conformance test
2>conformance test
3>both
4>blackbox
5>blackbox
6>Implementation Under Test
7>conformance test suite
8>all
9>9646
10>Conformance Testing Methodology & Framework
11>
12>all
13>1-b 2-c 3-d 4-a 5-e
14>all
15>1-f 2-g 3-e 4-d 5-c 6-b 7-a
16>SUT
17>lower
18>2
19>UT,LT
20>LT,UT
21>UT
22>LT
23>multi
24>test purpose
25>test case
26>abstract test suite
27>all
28>preamble
29>abstract
30>MoT
31>Means of Testing
32>MoT
33>MoT
34>both
35>static
36>dynamic
37>all
38>local test
39>PCO
40>ASP
41>PDU
42>both
43>test harness
44>upper
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45>lower
46>test cases
47>T
48>distributed
49>lower
50>lower
51>lower
52>upper
53>distributed
54>coordinated
55>coordinated
56>Test Management Protocol Data Unit
57>master,slave
58>coordinated
59>either
60>remote
61>remote
62>conformance test sequence
63>T
64>T
65>1-e 2-d 3-c 4-b 5-a
66>all
67>all
68>T
69>T
70>T
71>revised T
72>U
73>UIO
74>B
75>cdba
76>optimized
77>D
78>cdab
79>W
80>characterization set
81>cbad
82>n
83>6,St, , ,T,O,S0
84>T
85>first,second
86>I
87>Interaction point
88>synchronizable
89>2
90>Tree & Tabular Combined Notation
91>TTCN
92>abstract test suite
93>TTCN
94>TTCN
95>both
96>TTCN GRaphical
97>TTCN Machine Processable
98>TTCN/gr,TTCN/mp
99>all
100>1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a
101>both
102>Protocol Implementation Conformance Statement
103>Protocol Implementation eXtra Information for Testing
104>PICS,PIXIT
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105>TTCN
106>global
107>both
108>both
109>test suite variable
110>test suite variable
111>test case variable
112>constraint
113>test case
114>all
115>preliminary,final
116>T
117>Implementation Access Point
118>IAP
119>all
120>1-c 2-a 3-b
121>infinite,finite
122>controllability restrication
123>race
124>T
125>both
126>all
127>T
128>a
129>test case body
130>all
131>SCS
132>gateway,SCS
133>IP,UDP
134>TelCom TSL
135>TelCom TSL
136>TSL
137>all
138>all
139>SAP
140>IUT,network facility
141>test component,network facility
142>test component
143>network facility
144>functional
145>all
146>test verdict
147>multiparty
148>Lower Tester Control Function
149>LTCF
50>PCO
151>TCP
152>all
153>1-f 2-e 3-d 4-c 5-b 6-a
154>Asynchronous Communication Tree
155>ACT
156>ACT
157>SDL specification
158>TESDL
159>LINK
160>TTCN
161>MSC
162>semi automatic
163>SAMSTAG
164>TOPIC V2
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165>GOAL
166>Geode Observation Automata Language
167>all
168>1-c 2-a 3-b
169>1-b 2-c 3-a
170>minimize
171>cdab
172>cab
173>fghiabcde
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CHAPTER 7: PROTOCOL PERFORMANCE TESTING
1>The primary objective of the performance __________study is to detect unanticipated phenomena of the system in order to
avoid malfunction (validation/evaluation)
2>A communication protocol should be tested for the following before it is introduced into the systems
a: interoperability testing
b: scalability testing
c: reliability testing
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
3>Match the following
interoperability testing : deals with the effectiveness of functioning of the protocol with rise in system
load, system topology, change in configuration etc
scalability testing : is used to test the functioning of the protocol wrt changes in the network
environment such as link failures, host failures, router failures et
reliability testing : to test the protocol interworking with the different systems and other protocols
4>Following are important performance parameters to be measured for communication protocols
a: message response time
b: throughput
c: reliability
d: cost
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
5>Match the following
message response time : is the sum of all packets received at their destinations successfully
Throughput : can be defined as the percentage of time a user can communicate with required
points in a network
Reliability : is described as a function of application and instance where the response is to be
measured
6>Following are different types of response time
a: terminal response time
b: overall response time
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
7>From the time the user presses the send key until he receives the first character of output is called ___________response
time (terminal/overall)
8>From the time the user generates a message until the complete response is received at user end is called___________
response time (terminal/overall)
9>Message___________ time is concerned with the speed at which the message arrives at destination (response/delivery)
10>The difficulty with cost is that its significance depends on who you are with relation to the network (true/false)
___________
11>Techniques for communication protocol performance analysis are divided into following broad classes
a: analytic modeling
b: simulation modeling
c: performance measurement
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
12>Both _____&_____techniques require the construction of a model i.e. an abstract representation of the real protocol
(analytic/simulation/measurement)
13>_____performance model is a mathematical construct while ______model is a specialized computer program
(analytic/simulation/measurement)
14>___________technique does not use models but instead relies on direct observation of the protocol of interest or a similar
protocol system (analytic/simulation/measurement)
15>Following are examples of Protocol performance testing by analytic methods
a: bounding calculations
b: queuing network models
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
16>__________are simple "back of the envelope" calculations that are done to quickly assess the maximum throughput of a
communication protocol (bounding calculations/performance instrumentation)
17>In example of slotted CSMA/CD, the number of transmissions in a slot after idle is given by
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a: poison (B )+binomial (nq)_=poison ( B+nq) and g (n)= B+nq
b: g (n) exp[-g (n)]=Psuccess=Pr[poison random variale takes value 1], Pcollection=1-exp[-g (n)]=g (n)exp[-g (n)],
Pnotransmission=exp[-g (n)]
c: E[epoch]=Psuccess* (1+B)+Pcollision*2B+Pnotransmission*B , E[#success]=Pr[success]=g (n)exp (-g (n))
d: 1/ (1+3.31B) when g (n)=0.77
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d)
18>___________is defined to be from one end of transmissions to the next end of transmission (estelle/epoch)
19>In example of slotted CSMA/CD , probability of success of transmission in slot followed by idle slot is given by
a: poison (B )+binomial (nq)_=poison ( B+nq) and g (n)= B+nq
b: g (n) exp[-g (n)]=Psuccess=Pr[poison random variable takes value 1], Pcollection=1-exp[-g (n)]=g (n)exp[-g (n)],
Pnotransmission=exp[-g (n)]
c: E[epoch]=Psuccess* (1+B)+Pcollision*2B+Pnotransmission*B , E[#success]=Pr[success]=g (n)exp (-g (n))
d: 1/ (1+3.31B) when g (n)=0.77
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d)
20>In example of CSMA/CD, the expected duration of epoch where next lot is followed by an idle slot is given by
a: poison (B )+binomial (nq)_=poison ( B+nq) and g (n)= B+nq
b: g (n) exp[-g (n)]=Psuccess=Pr[poison random variable takes value 1], Pcollection=1-exp[-g (n)]=g (n)exp[-g (n)],
Pnotransmission=exp[-g (n)]
c: E[epoch]=Psuccess* (1+B)+Pcollision*2B+Pnotransmission*B , E[#success]=Pr[success]=g (n)exp (-g (n))
d: 1/ (1+3.31B) when g (n)=0.77
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d)
21>In the example of slotted CSMA/CD, the maximum throughput is given by
a: poison (B )+binomial (nq)_=poison ( B+nq) and g (n)= B+nq
b: g (n) exp[-g (n)]=Psuccess=Pr[poison random variable takes value 1], Pcollection=1-exp[-g (n)]=g (n)exp[-g (n)],
Pnotransmission=exp[-g (n)]
c: E[epoch]=Psuccess* (1+B)+Pcollision*2B+Pnotransmission*B , E[#success]=Pr[success]=g (n)exp (-g (n))
d: 1/ (1+3.31B) when g (n)=0.77
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d)
22>In example of slotted CSMA/CD, the departure rate at state (n) is
a: E[#success]/E[epoch]
b: E[epoch]/E[#success]
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
23>___________model of a protocol represents a set of services that process data (markov chain/queuing network)
24>__________ models can predict the latency, throughput and utilization of a system (markov chain/queuing network)
25>___________can be used to model communication systems as a finite set of states with known rates of transition between
states (markov chain/queuing network)
26>___________are well suited to predict communication system availability given component failure rates and repair rates
(markov chain/queuing network)
27>There are several motivations for measuring system performance. These include
a: marketing
b: product validation
c: model validation
d: support performance tuning
e: data & trace collection
f: selecting a workload
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
28>Match the following
Marketing : the only way to demonstrate unequivocally that a product meets its
performance goals is to measure performance under realistic conditions
product validation : the best way to validate a performance model is to compare the model
predictions to measured performance
model validation : a protocol performance can be measured at any time with any workload
support performance tuning : properly selected & measured data/logs can be very useful for future
performance analysis
data & trace collection : support & development organizations must often respond to vague
complaints of poor performance
selecting a workload : favorable measurement results can be used to support claims that a product
is superior to its competition
29>All performance measurement experiments require following basic elements
a: SUT
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b: load generator that apply a workload to the SUT
c: instrumentation to collect performance data
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
30>Depending on the experiment, load generation can be implemented by
a: special purpose hardware
b: software running on separate system
c: process running on the SUT
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/either)
31>___________models a real world system as a computer program (simulation/measurement)
32>___________allows a protocol to be modeled at any level of detail (simulation/measurement)
33>Simulations of computer systems written for the purpose of performance analysis are generally___________ event
simulations (discrete/continuous)
34>In___________ event simulation, the representation of time is quantified, and the system state only changes when an event
occurs (discrete/continuous)
35>Following are basic technique to generate workloads for simulation
a: stochastic
b: trace driven
c: execution based
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
36>___________simulation describe the arrival patterns of customers and other aspects of the workload by sampling from a
probability distribution (stochastic/trace driven/execution based)
37>___________workloads are a good choice when detailed information about the workload isn't available or where there is a
need to vary workload characteristics (stochastic/trace driven/execution based)
38>___________simulation represents the workload as a sequence of operations or requests (stochastic/trace driven/execution
based)
39>The procedure for performance testing using SDL are as follows. Arrange in correct order
a: apply the inputs to the specifications and run the simulation
b: create a message sequence chart as well as record the performance by using some performance variables
c: create FSMs of processes of TCP
d: draw SDL specifications of the FSMs
Ans: ___________ (cdab/acdb/dcab)
40>The throughput obtained for the given specifications, 200 packets, timeout-period=400ms, maximum window size=8, is
___% (25/50/75) for random loss created in the channel. Average delays for a packet observed are ____ms (100/200/300)
41>Conformance yields___________ (interworking/interoperability/both)
42>___________testing measures whether two or more protocols correctly implement the technical specifications necessary to
ensure successful integration supporting particular communication protocols (interworking/interoperability)
43>The verification of ___________is the process of demonstrating a successful communication between tested protocols
(interworking/interoperability)
44>The correlation of conformance and interoperability can be categorized into
a: complementation
b: correspondance
c: followness
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
45>______refers to the correlation, when test suites contain no overlapping in terms of tested features . On the other hand,
_____ comprises overlapping (complementation/correspondance)
46>Followness is a modified version of___________ (complementation/correspondance)
47>In___________ category, protocol features are viewed separately and the required number of test cases are generated with
no overlapping (complementation/correspondance/followness)
48>ITS stands for___________
49>CTS stands for___________
50>In spite of the fact that ___________category provides the optimum distribution. It is not applicable for large protocols
(complementation/correspondance/followness)
51>___________can be regarded as a practical approach and it gives way for interoperability test suite to be generated
independently from conformance test suite (complmentation/correspondance/followness)
52>___________test cases consist of pairs of stimulus and response (interworking/interoperability)
53>_____are those test actions that correspond to sending PDUs while ______are those test actions where received PDUs are
checked (stimuli/response)
54> _____are rules that govern the communication of open system . On the other hand, ______corresponds to providing a
service to the upper layers (stimuli & response/communication)
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55>______services require two stimulus-response pairs. On the other hand, _____services require single stimulus-response
pair (confirmed/unconfirmed)
56>The procedure for interoperability testing of CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA by using SDL is as follows. Arrange in correct order
a: create the MSCs for the different kinds of inputs
b: observe interworking of CSMA/CA & CSMA/CD from MSCs using a bridge
c: create FSMs for the protocols and their interoperations using a bridge
d: create SDL diagrams of the protocols and the bridge operations
e: run the system by giving the inputs from the environment such as source, destination and number of packets
Ans: ___________ (cdeab/dcabe/ebcda)
57>___________refers to the ability of communication protocol to support the network even when the network size grows w/o
consuming much of the resources such as bandwidth and buffers (scalability/interoperability)
58>BGP is designed to support scalability (true/false)___________
59>___________are fundamental scalability and performance tests (packet throughput/bandwidth capacity/both)
60>VRF stands for___________
61>The outcome of network scenario testing configuration is that RUT being tested supports the following
a: 50 MP-IBGP sessions
b: 50 MPLS RSVP LSPs
c: OSPF connection to a grid of 50 routers
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
ANSWERS:
1>evaluation
2>all
3>1-c 2-a 3-b
4>all
5>1-c 2-a 3-b
6>both
7>terminal
8>overall
9>delivery
10>T
11>all
12>analytic,simulation
13>analytic,simulation
14>measurement
15>both
16>bounding calculation
17>a
18>epoch
19>b
20>c
21>d
22>a
23>queueing network
24>queueing network
25>markov chain
26>markav chain
27>all
28>1-f 2-a 3-b 4-e 5-d 6-c
29>all
30>all
31>simulation
32>simulation
33>discrete
34>discrete
35>all
36>stochastic
37>stochastic
38>trace driven
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39>cdab
40>50,200
41>both
42>interoperability
43>interoperability
44>all
45>complementation
46>correspondence
47>followness
48>Interoperability Test Suite
49>Conformance Test Suite
50>complementation
51>correspondence
52>interoperability
53>stimuli,responses
54>stimuli & response,communication
55>confirmed
56>cdeab
57>scalability
58>T
59>both
60>Virtual Routing & Forwarding
61>all
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CHAPTER 8: PROTOCOL SYNTHESIS
1>A protocol synthesis method cannot synthesize service specifications (true/false)__________
2>No automated tool can determine the purpose of a new protocol (true/false)__________
3>In protocol synthesis, the design objective is to find a protocol which
a: realizes a given service
b: does so in an error free manner
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
4>Protocol__________ completes protocol specifications so that interactions among all software modules in the service
specifications satisfy the properties required for correctness (synthesis/implementation)
5>In the approach based on synthesis, the protocol specifications can be designed efficiently at the expense of flexibility
because
a: protocol errors are corrected manually
b: protocol errors are corrected automatically
Ans: __________ (a/b/both)
6>The protocol specifications can be synthesized to show the following parameters
a: protocol entities
b: interactions among protocol entities
c: transitions and states in a protocol entity
d: internal events
e: tasks or service execution in an entity
f: interface
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
7>The synthesis methods for protocols are broadly classified as___________ approaches (service oriented/non-service
oriented/both)
8>Some general features that characterize the methods are as follows
a: the starting point of a method
b: the modeling formalism
c: the constraints on communication model
d: mode of interaction with the designer
e: protocol properties guaranteed by the methods
f: specific protocol functions in the design
g: complexity of the method
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/g/all)
9>_____methods start from the given service definition .______methods do not consider the service as the authoritative
reference point, and start from either partial or complete protocol descriptions (service oriented/non-service oriented)
10>Synthesis approach can be classified into following categories___________ (automatic/interactive/both)
11>In___________ synthesis method, let the designer first specifies one of the two protocol machines and then the synthesis
tool automatically constructs the other one (automatic/interactive)
12>In__________ synthesis method, the designer first specifies the two incomplete protocols and then the synthesis tool
automatically completes the two protocols (automatic/interactive)
13>The___________ synthesis method is one where a designer simultaneously builds two finite state machines interactively
with the synthesis tools (automatic/interactive)
14>___________synthesis methods can use a global state to synthesize a protocol (automatic/interactive)
15>The interactive synthesis algorithm consists of following components
a: set of production rules
b: set of deadlock avoidance rules
c: construction of the global state transition graph
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
16>__________rules defines the rules for producing global states, arcs and transitions between global states
(production/deadlock avoidance)
17>Deadlock avoidance rules check for non-occurrence of following conditions
a: the two process states are both receiving states or one is a receiving state and the other is a final state
b: the two channels are empty___________
18>______rules can be stated as rule for selecting a progressing global state. _____rules can be stated as the rule for selecting
an entry state (production/deadlock avoidance)
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19>The steps followed in interactive synthesis algorithm are as follows. Arrange in correct order
a: perform validation of global state transition graph by using perturbation technique to check for design errors
b: the processes are given as output of the algorithm
c: take the inputs from the designer about the message interactions and processes behavior in an interactive way
d: construct a global state transition graph by using the production rules and deadlock avoidance rules
e: decompose the global state transition graph into processes
Ans: ___________ (cdeab/dcabe/cabed)
20>The steps performed in the protocol synthesis are as follows. Arrange in correct order
a: In this case SP originates from the service user at SAP.
b: protocol entity specifications must not expect any message at this point, since according to the service specification, no
service action is expected at SAP
c: project the service specification onto each SAP to obtain the projected service specifications
d: apply the transition synthesis rules to each transition in the projected service specifications to obtain protocol entity
specifications
e: reception transition in PE-SPECs are synthesized and correspond to the rules 2 and 4
Ans: ___________ (cdeab/dcabe/cabed)
21>PE-SPEC stands for___________
22>Following are different kinds of MSC diagrams___________ (BMSC/HMSC/both)
23>The MSC standard has _____for some data-related aspects of specifications, but does not describe any______ for them
(syntax/semantic)
24>The synthesis algorithm is based on the concept of___________ (event automata/action automata)
25___________is a finite automaton corresponding to an MSC instance, such that the alphabet of the input symbols for the
automaton is the same as the alphabet of MSC events of the given MSC instance (event automata/action automata)
26>The synthesis algorithm constructs a particular kind of event automata, which is called as___________ (MSC slices/MSC
piece)
27>___________is an event automation, accepting all valid even september for the instance i (MSC slices/MSC piece)
28>Following are different categories of MSC events
a: input
b: active
c: idle
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
29>___________event is a trivial event, which is added to simplify algorithm descriptions (input/active/idle)
30>___________events require synchronization with other instances, decision about event is taken by another instance
(input/active/idle)
31>___________events do not require synchronization with other instances, decision is local to the current instance
(input/active/idle)
32>The following algorithm can be used to construct MSC slices. Arrange incorrect order
a: each MSC reference is replaced by the corresponding sequence of states
b: the start symbol of the event automation corresponds to the HMSC start symbol
c: initial states of the event automaton correspond to symbols at HMSC graph with idle events
d: for each basic MSC, a sequence of states is created corresponding to the sequence of events involving the instance i
Ans: ___________ (cdab/dabc/bcad)
33>Synthesis algorithm consists of the following steps
a: minimize MSC slices
b: generate SDL behaviour
c: generate SDL structure
d: integrate HMSC model
e: construct MSC slices
f: make MSC slices deterministic
Ans: ___________ (defabc/edfabc/cefabd)
34>The synthesis methodology is an iterative process that consists of the following phases
a: preparation
b: dynamic collection of probe traces
c: synthesis of SDL
d: investigation of the SDL
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
35>In synthesis methodology, the aim of___________ phase in to develop a probe placement strategy and select the set of
scenarios which will drive execution of the instrumented system and resulting probe trace capture
(preparation/investigation/synthesis)
36>In synthesis methodology, preparation phase has following steps. Arrange in correct sequence
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a: set coverage goal and select probes
b: collect known primary scenarios + regression tests
c: analyze code
d: select modeling viewpoint
Ans: ___________ (cdab/dacb/acdb)
37>In preparation phase of synthesis methodology, following models of software can be used as guidelines for probe
placement
a: architectural model of the system
b: call graph of the system
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
38>Match the following
analyze code : it is used to re-engineer & revert legacy code from a black box,
white box or grew box point of view
select modeling viewpoint : at this step, probe placement is finalized by selecting particular
locations in the source code of the system
set coverage goal & select probes : the dynamic capture of probe traces is driven by the test suites
collect known primary scenarios + regression tests: this step uses well know methods of static structural
analysis to select probe placements
39>Match the following
black box : core code
white box : collaborations among subsystems
grey box : environment
40>___________tests consists of a blend of conformance tests, primary scenarios and a few known important secondary
scenarios (regression/resynthesis)
41>In synthesis methodology, the aim of___________ phase is to capture the set of probe traces, which corresponds to the
probe placement strategy and selected scenarios (dynamic collection of probe traces/investigation/synthesis)
42>Match the following
preparation phase : aim is to capture the set of probe traces , which correspond to the
probe placement strategy and selected scenarios
dynamic collection of probe traces : aim is to synthesize an SDL model of the legacy system
synthesis of SDL model : aim is to check termination criteria by investigating the probe
coverage and complexity metrics of the synthesized model
investigation of SDL model : aim is to develop a probe placement strategy and select the set of
scenarios which will drive execution of the instrumented system and
resulting probe trace capture
43>Dynamic collection of probe traces in synthesis methodology consists of following steps
a: instrument legacy
b: run legacy code to generate probe traces
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
44>Synthesis of SDL model in synthesis methodology consists of following steps
a: translate probe traces into event-oriented MSC
b: add conditions to MSCs
c: synthesize SDL model
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
45>In synthesis methodology, the outputs of synthesize SDL model step are
a: synthesized SDL model and some complexity metrics of the model
b: number of states in SDL model
c: non-determinism metric of the model
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
46>In synthesis methodology, inadequate behaviour of the model may be caused by following factors
a: some important primary scenario is not captured in regression tests
b: an abstracted interface of the protocol is incorrectly selected
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
47>Protocol ___________is a process of re-synthesizing the protocol specifications from modified service specifications
(regression/resynthesis)
48>In synthesis methodology, arrange the following steps in correct sequence
a: instrument legacy
b: run legacy code to generate probe traces
c: translate probe traces into event-oriented MSCs
d: ad conditions to MSCs
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e: synthesize SDL model
f: terminating criteria
g: analyze come
h: select modeling viewpoint
i: set coverage goal and select probes
j: collect known primary scenarios + regression tests
Ans: ___________ (ghijabcdef/higjabcdef/jighabcdef)
ANSWERS:
1>T
2>T
3>both
4>synthesis
5>b
6>all
7>both
8>all
9>service,non-service
10>both
11>automatic
12>automatic
13>interactive
14>interactive
15>all
16>production
17>both
18>production,deadlock avoidance
19>cdeab
20>cdeba
21>Protocol Entity Specification
22>both
23>syntax,semantic
24>event automata
25>event automation
26>MSC slice
27>MSC slice
28>all
29>idle
30>input
31>active
32>cdab
33>all
34>all
35>preparation
36>cdab
37>both
38>1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c
39>1-c 2-a 3-b
40>regression
41>dynamic collection of probe traces
42>1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c
43>both
44>all
45>all
46>both
47>resynthesis
48>ghijabcdef
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CHAPTER 9: PROTICOL IMPLEMENTATION
1>The protocol implementation process consists of mapping the concepts of the design model onto the concepts of the
implementation model (true/false) __________
2>__________refers to design models and implementation models (meta data/meta model)
3>__________resembles a program with a 'hole', which has to be 'filled in' with specific functions in order to be executed
(design pattern/framework)
4>In order that the frameworks provide the expected contributions to the protocol implementation process, the frameworks
themselves must have the following characteristics
a: good balance between code maintenance and performance
b: clear and intuitive documentation
c: conformance between frameworks and the concepts they implement
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/all)
5>A systematic approach to develop frameworks consists of following steps
a: domain analysis
b: definition of the software architecture
c: coding
d: documentation
Ans: __________ (a/b/c/d/all)
6>In___________, we strive for a clear definition of the design model we intnd to support (design pattern/domain analysis)
7>The modeling techniques used in order to describe design concepts and their relations are___________ (data
dictionaries/class diagrams/both)
8>___________consists of one paragraph for each design concept, describing the semantics of this concept and its association
to other concepts (data dictionaries/class diagrams)
9>___________are used to describe the static relations between concepts (data dictionaries/class diagrams/both)
10>The concepts identified in the basic meta model are
a: behaviour
b: component
c: interaction
d: interaction means
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/all)
11>Match the following
Behaviour : an abstraction that models an instance of common activity between protocol parts
Component : an abstraction that represents the mechanisms through which components cooperate
Interaction : an abstraction that models the functionality of a protocol
interaction means : an abstraction that models protocol entities or protocol functions
12>__________is a general description of communicating objects that have to be customized to solve a general design problem
in a particular context (domain analysis/design pattern)
13>___________represent a compromise between a class implementation solution and a more complex solution (domain
analysis/design pattern)
14>Some Examples of design pattern.___ can be used to share the opportunity of execution among different parts of a system,
____can be used to supply an event driven execution model, ____can be used to mapping a finite state machine
(state/scheduler/reactor)
15>___________diagrams are possibly used to represent scenarios that are relevant for the understanding of dynamic aspects
of the software architecture (class/interaction)
16>In__________ step, the framework software architecture is mapped onto the constructs of a specific implementation
environment (coding/documentation)
17>In___________ step, the trade off between portability and performance is resolved (coding/documentation)
18>___________approach is advised in software development process (incremental/interactive)
19>In documentation, in order to combine the instantiated concepts, different techniques may be applied, such as
a: template code to be filled in with code for each specific protocol function
b: suggested mappings of behaviour structures of the protocol specification onto implementation patterns
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
20>In object oriented approach to protocol implementation, each state is implemented by___________ (function/object)
21>___________of an object are the interface events that trigger state transitions (member function/friend function)
22>Object design is divided into following steps
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a: identify objects
b: define member functions of the objects
c: implement the member functions of objects
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
23>Match the following
identify objects : are the interface events that trigger state transitions
define member functions of the objects : the body of a member function is constituted by actions
associated with a state transition triggered by the corresponding
interface even
implement the member functions of objects : are the states of the FSM
24>The design steps and mappings between specification level entities and implementation level entities can be summarized as
follows
a: design object classes for the protocol which is modeled by an FSM
b: design member functions for each object class
c: the actions associated with a transition are implemented as body of the member function that implements that interface event
triggering the transition
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
25>By___________ implementation of a protocol, we mean modifications of an existing protocol by adding or deleting states
or interface events of an FSM or refinements of a state by splitting it into some sub-states with some interface events that are
visible only to the sub-states (integration/incremental)
26>The splitting of a state is different from the synthesis of a protocol, in the sense that the purpose of the_____ is to
implement a protocol whose specification is already given, and the purpose of the ______is to derive its service specification
(former/latter)
27>In ISO or CCITT recommendations, a protocol is specified using following different kinds of activities
a: peer to peer
b: inter-layer
c: local
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
28>wrt incremental implementation and inheritance, the specification is divided into following levels
a: protocol level
b: detail level
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
29>_____level contains only peer-to-peer activities, and ______level adds inter-layer & local activities (detail/protocol)
30>The implementation of a protocol software can be decomposed into following levels
a: functional level
b: abstract state machine level
c: detail level
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
31>At ___________level, a protocol machine is viewed as a black box that accepts requests, which are interface events, and
performs the required functions (functional/detail/abstract state machine)
32>At ______ level, which corresponds to protocol level in OSI framework, peer-to-peer activities are specified and
represented by a simplified FSM. In contrast, _____level is the same as that of OSI framework (functional/detail/abstract state
machine)
33>To incrementally implement a protocol, one starts from ___level, then proceeds to ____level, and finally to____ level
(functional/detail/abstract state machine)
34>If a state, X, which is implemented by an object class, O, is split into sub-states, X1, X2. . . . . Xn which are implemented
by object classes O1, O2. . . . On, respectively, then O1, O2. . . .0n should be made as subclasses of O. This is called
___________principle (merge/split)
35>When a set of states, X1, X2. . . . .Xn, which are implemented by object classes, O1, O2. . . . On respectively, are merged
into a single state. X, which is implemented by object class O, then O1, O2. . . . On should be made as subclasses of O. This is
called ___________principle (merge/split)
36>XEC stands for___________
37>XEC is called experimental because it is intended as a platform for experiments with implementation and optimization
methods (true/false)___________
38>The implementation generator builds upon the Estelle compiler front-end and translates Estelle2 specifications into object
oriented C++ code (true/false)___________
39>Following compilers that have been developed in LOTOS sphere project and are available in LITE: ___________
(TOPO/COLOS/both)
40>___________is a tool that generates C code from a LOTOS specification by transforming the specification into a model
(TOPO/COLOS)
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41>___________is targeted to the implementation of the behaviour part of annotated LOTOS specifications which are rather
near to the implementation (TOPO/COLOS/both)
42>BUT stands for___________
43>In___________, the LOTOS specification is implemented as a composition of BUTs which communicate via a
synchronization kernel (TOPO/COLOS)
44>___________allows the use of annotations in specifications in order to represent aspects which cannot be formally
represented in LOTOS such as time delays (TOPO/COLOS)
45>The restrictions on the LOTOS specifications that can be implemented with _____are more severe than in______
(TOPO/COLOS)
46>___________does not support the direct implementation of internal events (TOPO/COLOS)
47>___________transforms a LOTOS specification into a set of extended finite state automata that cooperate using a
synchronization kernel (TOPO/COLOS)
48>COCOS stands for___________
49>The COCOS parser accepts the full SDL___ language (92/93/94)________
50>In COCOS, the code generation supports SDL 92 w/o object oriented features and the axiomatic definition of data types
(true/false)___________
51>The COCOS compiler consists of following main components
a: analyzer
b: intermediate format analyzer (IFanalyzer)
c: synthesizer
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
52>In COCOS compiler, the analyzer consists of following parsers
a: one for the SDL text
b: one for the iSDL annotation
Ans: ___________ (a/b/both)
53>In COCOS, the computations performed by the IF-analyzer are
a: the detection of execution paths which prevent the application of the activity thread model
b: the avoidance of data copy operations
c: the identification of the receiving process instances if they are not explicitly given
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
54>In COCOS compiler, the synthesizer consists of following parts
a: selector
b: set of code writing functions
c: user repository
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
55>CVOPS stands for___________
56>The basic service of the ___________tool is the transformation of textual representation of protocol into operating software
for environments with a C or C++ language compiler (COCOS/CVOPS)
57>CVOPS is fully portable to the most commonly used operating systems (true/false)___________
58>___________is a set of highly integrated software tools used to manage and automate the development and maintenance
process of real-time and interactive systems (SDL/SDT)
59>SDT stands for___________
60>SDT is based on___________ (SDL/MSC/both)
61>In SDT, the various phases of system life cycle include
a: analysis
b: specification and design
c: verification
d: validation
e: implementation
f: maintenance
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/f/all)
62>Match the following
SDL Editor : creates, edits and prints MSCs and visualizes simulation output in terms of
sending, receiving and consuming signals and timers, and dynamic creation and
termination of processes
MSC Editor : supports automatic validation of SDL specification and included C-code
Validator : is the link between specification to implementation
SDT C-Code generator: is used for specification and design of the SDL system at the different SDL levels
63>In SDT, ___________contains a number of data objects hat represent certain SDL objects in the system being simulated
(analyzer/simulator)
VTU
N
O
TESBYSR
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64. COMMUNICATION PROTOCOL ENGINEERING
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64>Following tools are provided with the SDT tool set (called the overview generator)
a: File viewer to customize the SDT storage system
b: Structure browser as the navigation tool
c: analyzer
d: print tool
e: SDT CHILL code generator
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/d/e/all)
65>The SDT tool set "the overview generator" is renamed as_____ (Tau SDL suite/TGA SDL suite) and is marketed by______
(Telelogic/Telecom)
66>___________is a real time protocol software development tool (Tau SDL suite/TGA SDL suite)
67>___________is based on the object-oriented design language SDL and the trace language MSC (Tau SDL suite/TGA SDL
suite)
68>Tau SDL suite provides the following
a: UML SDL transition and integration
b: flexible integrations with other languages
c: typical scenarios with a visual trace language
Ans: ___________ (a/b/c/all)
69>The MSC editor is a graphical tool for handling MSCs, supporting the graphical notation defined in the standard Z.___
(120/100)_______
70>___________are also called road maps (BMSC/HMSC)
71>_____allows automatic TTCN test case generation from SDL specification .______provides a smooth and controlled
transition between requirement analysis and formal design (SDL to TTCN link/UML to SDL converter)
ANSWERS:
1>T
2>meta model
3>framework
4>all
5>all
6>domain analysis
7>both
8>data dictionary
9>class diagram
10>all
11>1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b
12>design pattern
13>design pattern
14>scheduler,reactor,state pattern
15>interaction
16>initialization
17>coding
18>incremental
19>both
20>object
21>member function
22>all
23>1-c 2-a 3-b
24>all
25>incremental
26>former,latter
27>all
28>both
29>protocol,detail
30>all
31>functional
32>abstract
33>functional,abstract state machine,detail
34>split
35>merge
VTU
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O
TESBYSR
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65. COMMUNICATION PROTOCOL ENGINEERING
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36>eXperimental Estelle Compiler
37>T
38>T
39>both
40>TOPO
41>COLOS
42>Behaviour Unit
43>TOPO
44>TOPO
45>COLOS,TOPO
46>COLOS
47>COLOS
48>COnfigurable COmpiler for SDL
49>92
50>T
51>all
52>all
53>all
54>all
55>C-based Virtual Operating System
56>CVOPS
57>T
58>SDT
59>SDL Design Tool
60>both
61>all
62>1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c
63>simulator
64>all
65>Tau SDT,Telelogic
66>Tau SDT
67>Tau SDT
68>all
69>120
70>HMSC
71>SDL to TTCN link, UML to SDL converter
VTU
N
O
TESBYSR
I