Tle exam-drill

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TLE Exam Drills
(Drafting)
1. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this
instrument.
a. triangles c. meter stick
b. ruler d. t-square
2. To completely describe a cone, sphere, and
rectangular pyramid, how many views are needed?
a. two c. three
b. One d. six
3. What line is projected as a shorter line in a
drawing?
a. vertical line c. curve line
b. inclined line d. horizontal line
4. Geometrical solids are usually drawn in how many
views?
a. two views c. six views
b. four views d. eight views
5. If all the information needed to complete
construction of a product is shown, then what do
you call this type of mechanical drawing?
a. working drawing
b. schematic drawing
c. orthographic drawing
d. pictorial drawing
6. One of the best practices of a good draftsman is to
NEVER letter without __________.
a. guidelines c. lettering pens
b. pencil d. ink
7. In dimensioning an object, which view shows most
clearly the shape of the object?
a. Top view c. Right side view
b. Front view d. Bottom view
8. Central horizontal strokes of some letters placed at
mid-height appear to be below center due to
optical illusion. Which letters are they?
a. b, e, f & h c. a, k, t & y
b. r, s, g & p d. b, p, g & f
9. Letters that are composed of uniform width
elements are classified as _________.
a. Italic letters c. Gothic letters
b. Text letters d. Roman Letters
10. Boxing method is the most widely used method of
drawing a _________.
a. isometric view c. mechanical view
b. pictorial view d. perspective view
11. What is the horizontal guide line used to determine
the general height of lower case letters?
a. Cap line c. Base line
b. Waist line d. Drop line
12. These are lines to indicate the measurement of
objects and are represented by fine dark solid lines.
a. dimension lines c. leader lines
b. extension lines d. center lines
13. Drafting is considered as the universal language of
__________.
a. artistry c. industry
b. humanity d. pottery
14. If a drawing has an equal measure, what does it
refers to?
a. isometric drawing
b. perspective drawing
c. mechanical drawing
d. oblique drawing
15. When parts that are not seen are represented by
series of light dash lines then this line is classified as
_________.
a. reference line c. section line
b. visible line d. invisible line
16. What kind of drawing has one surface that is
parallel to the picture plane?
a. oblique drawing
b. isometric drawing
c. perspective drawing
d. orthographic drawing
17. This pictorial view is normally seen by the
observer’s eyes. Which one is it?
b. oblique drawing
18. A drawing instrument that serves as guide in
drawing vertical and diagonal lines as in triangles. It
is generally used in drawing horizontal lines. Which
one it?
a. t-square c. triangle
b. extension line d. lettering guide
19. What is that fine line used to show clearly the
dimension limits?
a. center line c. dimension line
b. extension line d. phantom line
20. A type of section used to emphasize the interior
construction of an object without destroying the
continuity of the exterior view.
a. Phantom section or hidden section
b. Removed or detailed section
c. Revolved section
d. Full section
21. Where should you place the name of the top view
for labeling?
a. below the view
b. above the view
c. beside the view
d. inside the view
22. The lightest or finest line that represents the axis or
center of objects with symmetrical shapes is known
as _________.
a. extension line c. visible line
b. center line d. cutting plane line
23. These are considered as the heaviest or darkest
lines that surround a drawing and are usually
rectangular in shape.
a. border lines c. dimension lines
b. visible lines d. cutting plane lines
24. If a drawing is generally made without the aid of
drawing instruments and straight edges then it is
classified as __________.
a. orthographic drawing
b. isometric drawing
c. freehand drawing
d. axonometric drawing
25. This view is generally drawn directly above the front
view in an orthographic drawing. Which one is it?
a. bottom view c. side view
b. rear view d. top view
26. Which of the following drawing instruments will you
use if you are to create distances into equal parts,
transfer measurement and spacing points or lines?
a. dividers c. compass
b. French curves d. templates
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27. These lines are used to indicate the measurement
of objects and are represented by fine dark solid
lines.
a. dimension lines c. leader lines
b. extension lines d. center lines
28. When solidity of an object is shown by gradual
darkening of its particular portion or portions, what
process is involved?
a. darkening c. shadowing
b. shading d. lighting
29. When parts that are not seen are represented by
series of light dash lines then this line is classified as
_________.
a. visible line c. section line
b. invisible line d. reference line
30. One of the following is NOT included in the
participles of an orthographic drawing. Which one is
it?
a. vertical line is drawn from top to bottom
b. no line or edge of the object can be projected
longer than each true length
c. the width of the top view is equal to the width
of the side views
d. the side views are horizontally in line with the
front view
31. Miley is asked to draw an art project without the aid
of drawing instruments and straight edges. Which
of the following will she apply to perform the task?
a. freehand drawing
b. orthographic drawing
c. isometric drawing
d. axonometric drawing
32. If you are to present the pictorial drawing that is
most pleasing to the eyes of the viewer then one of
the following methods should be used.
b. oblique drawing
33. What is that kind of oblique drawing which is drawn
with the side reduced to one half of the
corresponding dimension in the orthographic
drawing?
a. cabinet drawing c. oblique drawing
b. cavalier drawing d. isometric drawing
34. if you are to draw an isometric drawing, how many
axes will you use to perform the job?
a. two c. four
b. five d. three
35. A kind of perspective drawing with one vanishing
point is known as _________.
a. parallel perspective c. cabinet drawing
b. cavalier drawing d. angular perspective
(Carpentry / Woodworking)
1. Which part of the wood is consisting of substances
that are insusceptible to attacks by insects and has
high level of durability?
a. Heartwood c. Cambium layer
b. Sap wood d. Late wood
2. Wood changes its shape during the drying process.
What should be the approximate moisture content
or drying percentage of hardwood for home
furniture?
a. 5 – 10% c. 20%
b. 6 – 12% d. 25%
3. Fiber direction of wood should be taken into
consideration when designing a product. Which
direction of fiber reaches the highest level of
bending strength?
a. Parallel to fiber direction
b. Across the fiber direction
c. Diagonal with the load
d. Along the fiber direction
4. What process is used in making bent wood products
to easily distort the shape of the wood without
reverting to its original state?
a. Cold water treatment
b. Sun drying
c. Heat treatment by hot stream
d. High pressure treatment
5. What tool is used to adjust the “kerf” or teeth of
the saw in order to reduce friction between the
saw blade and wood, and to discharge the saw dust
easily?
a. Triangular file c. Saw horse
b. Pliers d. Saw set
6. In sawing soft and thin wood, what is the
recommended angle of the saw to the wood?
a. 30 – 45 degrees c. 10 – 20 degrees
b. 15 – 30 degrees d. 40 – 50 degrees
7. Aside from having a sharp blade, how should you
run a hand plane in a wood to get a good result?
a. Run the hand plane parallel to the fiber
direction of the wood
b. Run the hand plane against the fiber direction
of the wood
c. Run the hand plane across the fiber direction of
the wood
d. Run the hand plane diagonally with fiber
direction of the wood
8. What type of wood joint should be used in
constructing chairs and tables to obtain strength
and durability?
a. Miter joint c. Lap joint
b. Butt joint d. Mortise and tennon joint
9. When you intend to disassemble the product later
or need to obtain a strong joint, what construction
hardware is appropriate to use?
a. Screws c. Hinges
b. Nails d. Dowel
10. What finishing material may be used to obtain a
suitable wood color before applying a transparent
finishing material?
a. Paint c. Stain
b. Base coat d. Filter
11. One of the following is the operation performed in
the preparation of wood for commercial purposes.
Which one is it?
a. sawing c. lumbering
b. logging d. seasoning
12. Lumber is as good as its preparation. When it is
dried the process involved is ____________.
a. seasoning c. lumbering
b. staining d. logging
13. What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to
centimeters?
a. 25.4 b. 2.54 c. 0.254 d. 0.0254
14. There are numerous kinds of saw. Which one is
used for sawing along the grain of wood?
a. back saw c. cross cut saw
b. rip saw d. turning saw
15. A surfaced lumber where four of its side are smooth
or planed is called _________.

a. S4S b. S2S c. Rough d. S3S
16. Which of the following is used for the cutting and
for making delicate wood joint?
a. turning saw c. compass saw
b. keyhole saw d. back saw
17. A kind of caliper used for measuring the inside
diameter of a cylinder is ____________.
a. vernier caliper c. inside caliper
b. outside caliper d. adjustable caliper
18. Removing or paring away some part of the wood
requires the use of this hand tool.
a. chisel c. spoke shave
b. plane d. file
19. Nails are essential material in putting in place pieces
of wood. To drive or pull a nail the right tool for the
job is ____________.
a. cross peen hammer
b. claw hammer
c. ball peen hammer
d. mallet
20. Sawing irregular shapes on thin pieces of wood is
done with the use of _________.
a. key hole saw c. rip saw
b. back saw d. coping saw
21. This fastening material holds better, look better,
and can be removed easily without damaging the
wood. It is commonly known as __________.
a. screw b. bolt c. spike d. nail set
22. A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles
used to distribute loads and stiffen the structure of
the roof.
a. Girt b. Rafter c. Truss d. Purlins
23. Cabinets and doors are common parts of a house.
They require swinging shutters for appropriate
attachment with the use of _________.
a. hinges c. bolts
b. screws d. handles
24. The finishing material has pigment, thinner, and
drier. Which one is it?
a. stain c. varnish
b. paint d. shellac
25. With the numerous classifications of paints the one
with flat finish used only to paint wood is called
__________.
a. flat wall enamel paint
b. cedar paint
c. trim paint
d. shake paint
26. It is a substance that makes paint less heavy. Which
one is it?
a. pigment c. vehicle
b. drier d. thinner
27. Chisels are only effective if they are driven. Which
of the following hand tool is used to drive them?
a. chipping hammer c. wooden mallet
b. ball peen hammer d. claw hammer
28. A level compact wood surface is a must in wood
works. Open grain and minor wood defects are
filled in by one of the following materials.
a. wood filler c. nail
b. saw dust d. shellac
29. Drills and bits are friendly tools that facilitates
project making. Which of the following are used for
boring holes on wood?
a. nail set c. auger bit
b. drill bit d. saw set
30. Buildings are necessarily constructed to be strong
and safe. What do you call the lowest support on
which it rests?
a. foundation c. post
b. floor d. ceiling
31. You are given a stock for measurement. Which of
the following rules will you use to appropriately
measure length, thickness, and width?
a. tape rule c. steel rule
b. folding rule d. push-pull rule
32. The smallest division of the metric scale that you
can find in the steel rule is _________.
a. millimeter c. decimeter
b. centimeter d. meter
33. Time frame, costs and specifications of materials,
steps and procedures and evaluation scale are
distinctive features of a __________.
a. project plan c. business plan
b. electrical plan d. mechanical plan
34. Which of the following tools is used in checking the
squareness of the corners and flatness of a surface?
a. Trammel point c. Sliding T-bevel
b. Steel Square d. Try square
35. Find the total number of board feet of five pieces of
lumber with a dimension of 2” x 4” x 12”.
a. 8 bd. ft c. 40 bd. ft
b. 96 bd. ft d. 480 bd. ft
(Basic Masonry and Concrete)
1. The most widely used masonry materials for
construction works.
a. Concrete hollow blocks
b. Bricks
c. Rubbles stone
d. Ashlar
2. It is the masonry material manufactured from clay
and other materials.
a. Stones c. Bricks
b. Adobe d. Course rubbles
3. What is the tool used to guide the vertical position
in laying bricks?
a. Plumb bob c. Spirit level
b. Water hose d. String or chord
4. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to
consider in proportioning concrete mixture?
a. Economy c. Strength
b. Workability d. Flexibility
5. Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded
or deformed without segregation. This
characteristic is known as _________.
a. Consistency c. Mobility
b. Plasticity d. Workability
6. Which of the following classes of mixture produces
a hard or tough concrete?
a. Class AA c. Class B
b. Class A d. Class C
7. A good concrete can be produced also by hand
mixing. Which of the following is a good concrete
mix proportion for hand mixing?
a. ½ kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand +
2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
b. 2 kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5
to 3 kg of gravel
c. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 2 kg sand +
d. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 3 kg sand +

8. Which of the following should be avoided in placing
concrete to its final form?
a. Segregation of particles
b. Displacement of form and displacement of
reinforcement in the form
c. Poor bond between successive layers of
concrete
d. All of the above should be avoided
9. Gravel tends to settle, lighter materials and water
to rise inside a container when displayed in the
delivery to the form. What do you call this
tendency?
a. Displacement
b. Segregation of Particles
c. Consistency
d. Mobility of particles
10. Which factor/s regulates the strength of concrete?
a. Correct proportion of the ingredients
b. Proper method of mixing
c. Adequate protection of concrete during the
process of curing
d. All of the abovementioned factors
11. What do you call the mixture of cement, sand and
water that used to bind stones, bricks or concrete
hollow blocks?
a. Mortar c. Concrete
b. Plaster d. Cement
12. A mixture of cement, sand and water applied wet to
an interior wall or ceiling and hardening to a
smooth surface is called _________.
b. Plaster d. Cement
13. What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used
in small and large construction including roads and
highways?
a. Hydraulic cement c. Pozzolan cement
b. Portland cement d. Lime
14. What material or ingredient in cement is added to
concrete before or during mixing to improve its
workability and consistency to fill all the voids of
aggregates inside the form?
a. Water c. Admixture
b. Sand d. Gravel
15. The inert material that is bound together into a
conglomerate mass by Portland cement and water
is known as __________.
a. Aggregate c. Admixture
b. Concrete d. Mortar
16. In a total mass of concrete, how many percent
comprises aggregate components?
a. 50% c. 80%
b. 75% d. 100%
17. Which of the following are known as coarse
aggregates in a concrete mixture?
a. Sand c. Concrete
b. Soil d. Stones
18. What do you call the artificial stone that is a result
from mixing cement, fine aggregates, coarse
aggregates and water?
b. Plaster d. Bricks
19. A conglomeration of cement, fine aggregates,
coarse aggregates water and reinforced by steel
bars is called __________?
a. Reinforced concrete
b. Plain concrete
c. Natural concrete
d. Concrete with bars
20. How many cubic feet of sand and gravel should be
mixed with one 40 kg bag of cement to form a Class
B mixture of concrete?
a. 3 cu. ft. and 6 cu ft. gravel
b. 2 cu. ft. and 4 cu ft. gravel
c. 2 cu. ft. and 5 cu ft. gravel
d. 1 cu. ft. and 3 cu ft. gravel
21. To produce a Class AA mixture of concrete, how
many cubic feet of gravel is added?
a. 3 cu. ft. c. 5 cu. ft.
b. 4cu. ft. d. 6 cu. ft.
22. What is the ration of cement, sand, and gravel to
produce a Class C mixture of concrete?
a. 1 : 1 : 3 c. 1 : 2 : 5
b. 1 : 2 : 4 d. 1 : 3 : 6
23. Following are factors that regulate the strength of
concrete except one. Which is it?
a. Correct portion of ingredient
b. Proper method of mixing
c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing
d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation
24. What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag
cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand and 4 cu. ft of gravel or
1:2:4?
a. Class AA c. Class B
b. Class A d. Class C
25. Which among the following is a surface finishing
tool for concrete?
a. Crandal c. Float
b. Bolster d. Spade
26. Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to
view. This arrangement is called __________.
a. Header c. Bond
b. Stretcher d. Ashlar
27. In setting up concrete pavers, what material is used
to prevent erosion from drainage?
a. Filter fabric c. Compacted gravel
b. Jute sack d. Bed of sand
28. What do you call the process of hardening of
concrete?
a. Curing c. Hardening
b. Setting d. Molding
29. In laying out concrete walls and fences, what
concrete material is commonly used?
a. CHB or Concrete hollow blocks
b. Bricks
c. Tiles
d. Boulders and stones
30. Seventy percent (70%) of concrete strength is
reached at the end of first week and thirty percent
(30%) could be lost by premature drying of
concrete. What must be done within the curing
period to prevent premature drying?
a. Moisten the concrete at all times within the
curing period
b. Submerge in water within the curing period
c. Flood with water within the curing period
d. Expose it to heavy rains during the curing
period
31. To prevent undue evaporation of moisture in the
concrete that may affect its strength, what should
be avoided?
a. Continuous sprinkling of water
b. Early removal of forms
c. Cover surface with wet burlap
d. Cover with wet sand

32. According to the building code of the Philippines,
for how many days shall concrete be maintained
above 10 °C temperature and in a moist condition?
a. 3 days c. 7 days
b. 5 days d. 10 days
33. What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral
level of a concrete fence?
a. Water hose level c. Plumb bob
b. Spirit level d. Straight edge
34. To obtain a fine textured concrete plaster, a mason
may use this very useful material. What is that
material?
a. Rubber or plastic foam
b. Plastic or nylon string
c. Aligning stick
d. Cotton cloth
35. What material may be used by a mason in guiding,
or making horizontal line particularly in bricks, tiles
and concrete blocks laying?
a. Aligning stick c. Plastic or nylon string
b. Meter stick d. Thin GI wire
(Basic Plumbing)
1. A person who install pipes, fixtures and other
apparatus to convey and supply water in buildings
to dispose and discharge waste water.
a. Carpenter c. Mason
b. Plumber d. Mechanic
2. What must be installed to prevent siphonage or
backflow of the water seal in the drainage system?
a. Vent Pipe c. Soil Pipe
b. Drain Pipe d. Cleanout
3. Which of the following is NOT required by the
National Plumbing Code?
a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a
downward gravity flow of water.
b. Drainage pipe should be provided with
adequate cleanout.
c. No ventilation pipe is needed.
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly
connected.
4. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture
other than from the water closet.
a. Waste pipe c. Vent pipe
b. Soil Pipe d. Drain pipe
5. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to
prevent the back passage of air.
a. Trap c. Sewer
b. Fixture d. Loop
6. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal
fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
a. Pipe vise c. Wrenches
b. Pliers d. Threader
7. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic
waste discharged from the house sewer.
a. Septic tank c. Water tank
b. Man hole d. Waste tank
8. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the
bottom of the septic tank.
a. Scum c. Sludge
b. Sediment d. Silt
9. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste
pipe as recommended by the National Plumbing
Code?
a. 2% slope c. 4% slope
b. 3% slope d. 0% slope or level position
10. For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage
of flow, what must be installed in the pipe system?
a. Vent pipe c. Drain
b. Cleanout d. Tee fitting
11. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage
and waste matter from a home or town is called
___________.
a. Sewer c. Sewerage
b. Fixture d. Drainage system
12. The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and
fixtures is a __________.
a. Union Fitting c. Wye fitting
b. Tee fitting d. Reducer
13. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water
pump to prevent backflow of water.
a. Check valve c. Suction valve
b. Inlet valve d. Gate valve
14. It is a device installed in water lines that can be
closed or opened to allow installation or
troubleshooting of fixtures.
a. Check valve c. Gate valve
b. Inlet valve d. Float valve
15. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller
pipe from a larger pipe.
a. Reducer c. Nipple
b. Bushing d. Coupling
16. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to
avoid leakage?
a. Masking tape c. Scotch tape
b. Teflon tape d. Adhesive tape
17. Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture
installation nowadays. Which of the following is
preferred?
a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
c. Unplasticized PVC (uPVC)
d. Styrene rubber plastic (SR)
18. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a
drainage system?
a. All pipe joints are well-fitted and tightly
connected with each other.
b. The drainage pipe should be leveled
horizontally towards the main sewer line.
c. The drainage system must be provided with a
ventilation pipe.
d. Each fixture should be provided with a suitable
trap that will prevent backflow.
19. Showers, lavatories and bath tubs are fixed
plumbing items in a household called _________.
a. Fixtures c. Sewers
b. Traps d. Accessories
20. What do you call the piece of apparatus, equipment
or furnishing used for pipe installation?
a. Fixtures c. Traps
b. Fittings d. Elbows
21. What part of the plumbing fixtures does a P-trap is
connected?
a. Floor drain c. Sinks and lavatories
b. Bath tubs d. Ventilation pipe
22. Organic waste discharged from the home sewer is
collected in a receptacle or vault called _________.
a. Sewerage c. Container vault
b. Septic tank d. Plumbing vault
23. The process of decomposition in the upper portion
of the septic tank is called _________.
a. Sedimentation
b. Anaerobic decomposition
c. Digestion
d. Accumulation

24. Sinks, lavatories, urinals and bath tubs are
connected to a pipe in a drainage installation to
convey its discharges to the house drain. What do
you call that pipe?
a. Drainage pipe c. Waste pipe
b. Sewer pipe d. fixture pipe
25. Which among the following are general conditions
for a good waste pipe installation?
a. Right slope or grade of the pipeline
b. Right location of the cleanout
c. Correct manner of joining the pipes
d. All of the conditions above
26. For a vertical to horizontal directions or horizontal
to horizontal change of pipes, what should NOT be
used?
a. Short radius fittings c. 45 ° fittings
b. Long sweep fittings d. Wye fittings
27. The ideal position of horizontal waste pipes were
those installed at 2 0/0 slopes. Given a pipe
installed with an inclined ratio of two (2)
centimeters per meter length, a three (3) meters
pipe installed as a waste line will have an inclination
of how many centimeters?
a. 6 cm b. 4 cm c. 10 cm d. 15 cm
28. The National Plumbing Code on soil pipe provides
that, at least one of the vertical stacks in the
plumbing system must extend full size to the roof.
What is its purpose?
a. To ventilate and dispose off the sewer gas
above the roof
b. To prevent siphoning of the water trap seal by
force of suction
c. To prevent the possibility of back pressure
which may force the water seal off the fixture
trap
d. All of the above purposes
29. Which pipe layout is susceptible to stoppage or
retarded flow?
a. Pipe with 2 % inclination
b. Pipe with less than 2 % inclination
c. Pipe with more than 2 % inclination
d. Pipe with 3 % inclination
30. In installing a water closet, what is the ideal
diameter of the pipe to be used as soil pipe?
a. At least 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
b. Less than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
c. Not more than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
d. At least 4 inches or more than 75 mm diameter
31. Among the processes that take place inside a septic
tank, which of them refers to the decomposition of
the accumulated sludge at the bottom of the tank?
a. Sedimentation
b. Digestion
c. Anaerobic decomposition
d. Decomposition
32. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that
there must be no more than two closets that shall
discharge into a _________ pipe diameter?
a. 3 inches or 75 mm c. less than 75 mm
b. 80 mm d. 70 mm
33. What should be provided in the house drain to
prevent breaking of the floor case of drain
stoppage?
a. Cleanout c. Drain flow
b. Trap d. Fitting
34. What is the interval distance of a cleanout in a pipe
layout as provided by the National Plumbing Code?
a. One (1) cleanout for every ten (10) meters pipe
layout
b. One (1) cleanout for every twenty (20) meters
pipe layout
c. One (1) cleanout for every fifteen (15) meters
pipe layout
d. One (1) cleanout for every twenty-five (25)
meters pipe layout
35. What is the most common plumbing tool used to
tighten or loosen metal pipe fittings and
connections?
a. Pipe wrench
b. Mechanical wrench
c. Adjustable wrench
d. Expansion wrench
(Basic Electricity)
1. Circuit breakers are used to protect household
electrical circuits. What is the capacity rating
breaker used for convenience outlets or general
purpose circuits?
a. 20 amperes c. 15 amperes
b. 30 amperes d. 60 amperes
2. A form of electricity where the flow of current is
always in the same direction _________.
a. power c. alternating current
b. direct current d. voltage
3. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of
electrical current is recognized as ________.
a. resistance c. electromagnetic force
b. power d. frequency
4. A part of an electrical circuit, consist of batteries,
generator or a main electrical power which supplies
electricity.
a. load c. control
b. source d. voltage
5. What is the voltage required by an automatic
pressure cooker having a resistance of 30 ohms
when the current flowing is 8 amperes?
a. 480 volts c. 120 volts
b. 160 volts d. 240 volts
6. A law that states that current is directly
proportional to voltage and inversely proportional
to resistance is known as _________.
a. kirchoff’s law c. ohm’s law
b. law of resistivity d. PEC
7. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent
lamp draw from a 220 volts power source?
a. 18 amperes c. 25.5 amperes
b. 55.5 amperes d. 50.5 amperes
8. There are several factors involved in electrical
wiring installation but the foremost consideration is
________.
a. cost b. labor c. safety d. function
9. What is the standard number or diameter of wire
for receptacles or convenience outlet layout?
a. No. 14 AWG c. No. 18 AWG
b. No. 12 AWG ` d. No. 10 AWG
10. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine
Electrical Code the appropriate fuse rating for
lighting outlet should be _________.
a. 20 amperes c. 60 amperes
b. 30 amperes d. 15 amperes
11. Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is
being done in order to __________.
a. provide efficient and effective wiring system of
the building
b. maintain quality workmanship
c. avoid overloaded circuit

d. protect the circuit from high current
12. In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt
incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel. How
many more bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is
open?
a. two b. one c. all d. none
13. An electrical component used to control electrical
circuit in two different locations.
a. Four-way switch
b. Three-way switch
c. Push-button switch
d. Remote controlled switch
14. In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of
the source is connected to __________.
a. Terminal 1 of the load
b. Terminal 2 of the load
c. Terminal 1 of the switch
d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
15. Which of the following electrical symbols means
that there are three wires running in a line?
a. --/--/--/------ c. ---------------
b. --/--/--/--/--- d. S3W
16. To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be
used in lighting fixtures?
a. Incandescent lamp
b. Mercury lamp
c. Compact fluorescent lamp
d. Neon lamp
17. The size of electrical wire recommended for
installing lighting fixtures.
b. No. 14 AWG d. No. 10 AWG
18. In calculating electrical usage, what is the
equivalent value per square foot of a living space as
established by the National Electric Code?
a. 10 watts per square foot
b. 5 watts per square foot
c. 4 watts per square foot
d. 3 watts per square foot
19. What is the normal value for a power used for each
20-amp small-appliance circuit that is used for
calculating electrical usage?
a. 1,000 watts c. 2,000 watts
b. 1,500 watts d. 2,500 watts
20. What type of category of lighting is used to
illuminate the area where a visual activity – such as
reading, sewing or preparing food – occurs?
a. Ambient or general lighting
b. Accent lighting
c. Task lighting
d. Decorative lighting
21. How do you classify that conduit made of PVC
plastic which is used to protect individual
conductors from moisture and physical harm and
often allowed for interior installation?
a. Rigid nonmetallic conduit
b. Thin wall metal conduit
c. Armored cable conduit
d. Flexible hose
22. Which of the following has the largest diameter of
wire according to the American Wire Gauge (AWG)?
b. No. 12 AWG d. No. 16 AWG
23. Which of the following test instrument is used to
determine the presence or absence of current
flowing in a receptacle for a small-appliance circuit?
a. Ohm meter c. Test lamp
b. Ammeter d. Oscilloscope
24. What unit is used to express the number of
complete cycles performed in one second in an
alternating current?
a. frequency c. resistance
b. power d. hertz
25. What condition of a circuit refers to a huge amount
of current flow caused by the line 1 of a live circuit
directly touching line 2 without passing through a
load?
a. short circuit c. open circuit
b. grounded circuit d. parallel circuit
26. A type of circuit in which the current flows in two or
more paths is known as _________.
a. series circuit c. open circuit
b. parallel circuit d. grounded circuit
27. This condition exists when there is a break in the
flow of electrons in some part of the circuit.
a. short circuit c. series circuit
b. shunt circuit d. open circuit
28. Following Ohm’s Law, what formula is used to find
the unknown voltage in the circuit?
a. E = 1 X R c. I = E / R
b. E = I / R d. E = R / I
29. It is a close conducting path by which a current can
transfer electric energy from a source to a load.
a. electric current c. load
b. resistance d. electric circuit
30. In the illustration below the total voltage across A
and B _________.
a. 3 volts c. 45 volts
b. 1.5 volts d. zero volts
31. A series connected dry cells will result to
_________.
a. increase in the amount of current
b. increase in the amount of voltage
c. increase total resistance
d. more powerful supply of electricity
32. When a coil of wire passes through the rotating
magnetic field electricity is generated. This
phenomenon is associated with ___________.
a. magnetism c. generating
b. relativism d. fluidity
33. Electrical symbols can be represented with
graphical symbols commonly known as
____________.
a. symbols and lines c. graphs and chart
b. schematic diagram d. pictorial diagram
34. The meaning of each symbol in an electrical plan is
indicated in the __________.
a. legend c. nameplate
b. schedule of load d. riser diagram
(Basic Electronics)
1. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the
electrode with an arrow is the _________.
a. Emitter c. Collector
b. Base d. Cathode
2. You will find an electrode nearest the white band
on a rectifier. What is it?
a. Gate c. Cathode
b. Anode d. Main terminal
3. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations.
The electronic component responsible for this
function is the _________.
a. Oscillator coil c. IF transformer
b. Tuning capacitor d. detector diode
4. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band
covering ____________.

a. 535 – 1,605 kHz
b. 88 – 108 MHz
c. 16 Hz – 20 kHz
d. 76 – 90 MHZ
5. Volt Ohm Millimeter or VOM is a measuring
instrument. Which of the following VOM functions
uses its internal battery?
a. DC milliameter c. DC voltmeter
b. Ohmmeter d. AC voltmeter
6. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more
accurately using one of the ranges listed below.
a. R x 1 b. R x 10 c. R x 1K d. R x 10K
7. There are various types of diodes. The diode that
acts as a regulator is the _________.
a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode
b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode
8. The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound
of a transistor radio is a defective _________.
a. Volume control c. Antenna
b. Amplifier d. Tuner
9. An appliance with 110 Volts AC supply is
accidentally plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet. What
component is usually destroyed?
a. Switch c. Line fuse
b. AC plug d. Power transformer
10. What happens to a transistor radio when batteries
are connected in reverse polarity?
a. It will operate normally.
b. It will operate for a while and eventually stops.
c. It will erratically operate.
d. It will not operate.
11. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it
means the diode is __________.
a. Shorted c. Leaky
b. Open d. Good
12. If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing
inward , it tells us that the transistor is:
a. NPN c. Bipolar
b. PNP d. Injunction
13. One of the following is a non-polarized electronic
component.
a. Resistor c. Diode
b. Transistor d. Electrolytic capacitor
14. A schematic diagram shows the components of an
electronic circuit by means of __________.
a. Linear appearance
b. Construction
c. Physical Appearance
d. Symbol
15. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called
__________.
a. Blow-up voltage c. Working voltage
b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage
16. The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero
periodically and is produced in rectifier is known as
________________.
a. Pulsating Direct Current
b. Damped Alternating Current
c. Varying Direct Current
d. Saw tooth wave
17. A resistor is color coded with Yellow-Violet-Black-
Gold. Which of the following is the value and
tolerance of the capacitor?
a. 47 ohms, 5% c. 4 ohms, 5%
b. 47 ohm, 5% d. 470 ohms, 5%
18. A diode is an electronic part that all times is
expected to do one of the following functions.
Which one is it?
a. allow current to flow in both directions
b. multiply voltage
c. allow current to flow in one direction only
19. There are varied sources of electrical power. The
220 volts power source from MERALCO is classified
as ____________.
a. Pulsating Direct Current
b. Alternating current
c. Pure Direct current
d. Varying Direct current
20. It is a type of metal used as a heat sink for power
transistor in the audio amplifier. Which one is it?
a. Aluminum c. Copper
b. Zinc d. Silver
21. When you are asked to amplify you are expected to
do this:
a. Filter c. Control
b. Decrease d. Increase
22. A device used to change sound waves to audio
signals is called ___________.
a. Microphone c. Loudspeaker
b. Transistor d. Diode
23. It is important for a radio mechanic to differentiate
an AM signal from an FM signal. AM means
__________.
a. Audio Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Altitude Modulation
d. Auxiliary Modulation
24. The antenna bar of an AM radio receiver is made of
this material
a. Ferrite c. Plastic
b. Iron d. Ceramic
25. An insulator that separates the two plates of a
capacitor is known as __________.
a. Vacuum c. Air
b. Dielectric d. Ceramic
26. If the components or instruments below are
connected in a circuit, which one would the polarity
be important?
a. Switch c. Bulb
b. DC ammeter d. Resistor
27. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called
__________.
a. Working voltage c. Blow-up voltage
b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage
28. There are various types of diodes. The diode that
acts as a regulator is the __________.
a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode
b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode
29. The common defect of a carbon resistor is
___________.
a. Change in value with respect to its tolerance
b. Shorted resistor
c. Open resistor
d. Broken resistor
30. Frequencies are essentials elements in the
operation of radio works. The basic unit frequency
is __________.
a. Hertz c. Siemens
b. Farad d. Henry
31. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the
tip of a soldering iron refers to:
a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper
b. Applying flux to the tip
c. Cutting the tip
d. Making the tip pointed

32. What is the rate or speed of the horizontal scanning
or horizontal retrace in the screen of a television
system?
a. 15,750 hertz c. 60 hertz
b. 100 megahertz d. 60 kilohertz
33. What do you call the design drawn on the foil side
of the printed circuit board?
a. foil pattern
b. schematic diagram
c. magnetic board
d. parts placement guide
34. In a schematic diagram of a radio, symbols of part
or components are indicated. Which of the
following symbols represents a transistor?
a. R1 b. C1 c. T1 d. Q1
35. What solution or chemical is used in etching copper
clad in a period circuit board?
a. Muriatic acid
b. Hydrogen peroxide solution
c. Ferric chloride
d. Sulfuric acid solution
(Foods)
1. Mila has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are
some brown bits left on the bottom of the pan.
While the pan is still on the stove, she added some
white wine and scrapped the bottom of the pan.
What do you call the technique she just used?
a. Cleaning c. Caramelizing
b. Deglazing d. Flambé
2. If a recipe calls for you to “beat” something, what
are you being asked to do?
a. Harass it.
b. Roll it with a rolling pin.
c. Agitate the mixture until it is smooth.
d. Cut it into smaller pieces.
3. Energy value is expressed in terms of calories which
represents the chemical energy that is released as
heat when food is oxidized. Which nutrient has
more than twice the calorie per gram?
a. Carbohydrate c. Fat
b. Protein d. Mineral
4. Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients
it needs. Which of the following nutrients is needed
as the main structural component of the body?
a. Carbohydrates c. Fat
b. Protein d. Fiber
5. Fresh produce contains chemical compounds called
enzymes which cause the loss of color, loss of
nutrients, flavor changes, and color changes in
frozen fruits and vegetables. These enzymes must
be inactivated to prevent such reactions from taking
place. What kind of vegetables needs pre-cooking
before packing?
a. Non-acidic c. Neutral
b. Acidic d. Basic
6. Which cooking method is the LEAST healthy?
a. Grilling c. Frying
b. Baking d. Broiling
7. Frostings are products that are closely associated
with sugar. What kind of sugar used primarily in the
preparation of flat icings and butter creams?
a. Brown sugar c. Granulated sugar
b. Refined sugar d. Confectioner sugar
8. While Rachel is reading a magazine, she comes
across a simple cake recipe. But the recipe calls for
one cup of buttermilk, which she don’t have. What
could she use instead of buttermilk?
a. regular milk and vinegar
b. coffee creamer
c. vinegar and butter
d. regular milk and butter
9. Martha, a busy mother is on a limited food budget.
Which of the dishes below is a good choice for her
to prepare the viands that will still give her family
their nutrient requirements?
a. Ampalaya con karne c. Pork adobo
b. Relienong talong d. Chicken tinola
10. Which ingredient practically used in all native
delicacies?
a. Sugar c. Butter
b. Coconut milk d. Rice flour
11. Water is a remarkable substance for it occurs and
used in various ways. When water boils at 212
degrees, what does “rolling boil” means?
a. the bubbles are rolling non-stop
b. the bubbles are forming rapidly and cannot be
stopped when stirred
c. the bubbles are forming slowly and can be
stopped when stirred
d. the bubbles are spilling out of a container
12. A cake just wouldn’t be a cake without frosting for it
adds visual appeal and flavor. What is the
classification of fudge frosting?
a. Soft c. Thick
b. Uncooked d. Cooked
13. Meat is cooked to improve its palatability, increase
tenderness and quality. To minimize meat shrinkage
and retain much of its nutritive value, the best
cooking temperature is:]
a. moist heat c. high heat
b. low to moderate heat d. dry heat
14. What does ‘proofing’ means?
a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are
the same size
b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon
dioxide
c. Testing cakes for doneness
d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg
whites for a shiny glazed finish
15. The boiling point of water is a very important
reference point in cooking. When boiling water
what does adding salt do?
a. Make the water softer
b. Makes the water boil more quickly
c. Makes the water boil at higher temperature
d. Makes the water boil at a lower temperature
16. Food safety is the most important factor in cooking.
It doesn’t matter how delicious or complicated the
recipe is: if the food makes people sick because of
improper cooking or handling, all the efforts will be
wasted. How long does it take for bacteria to
double their numbers at warm temperatures?
a. half an hour c. 4 hours
b. 2 hours d. 1 day
17. What is the final cooking temperature for raw
chicken?
a. 140 °F b. 165 °F c. 155 °F d. 140 °F
18. Several ingredients act as leaveners in baking.
Which ingredient for bread hurts the leavening
(rising) ability?
a. sugar b. flour c. salt d. water
19. Meats are considered rich in proteins, what kind of
protein is found in connective tissue of meat that
converts to gelatin when it is cooked?
a. Elastin c. Marbling

b. Gluten d. Collagen
20. How do you know if you are “simmering”
something?
a. If there is cooking oil involved
b. If the liquid you are dealing with has reached a
rolling boil
c. If you are maintaining the temperature of the
liquid just below boiling point
d. If the liquid has reached more than the boiling
point
21. Always serve beverage on _________ side of the
guest using the right hand.
a. right c. center
b. left d. left or right
22. One of the objectives of good food preparation is to
conserve the nutritive value of the food. What is the
best way to prepare vegetables to retain the most
antioxidant activity?
a. Serve raw c. Boil
b. Steam lightly d. Microwave
23. Salads usually use brightly colored fruits, vegetables
and greens. What’s the best way to help oil-based
salad dressings adhere to the greens?
a. Used only expensive lettuce
b. salt salad before tossing
c. Add a drop of sugar to dressing
d. Make sure greens are completely dry before
applying dressing
24. Nutrients are substances that enrich the body.
Which of these nutrients is needed for a healthy
immune and strong connective tissue?
a. Fiber c. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K d. Fluoride
25. Iron is absorbed the best from the diet comes from
which sources?
a. meat
b. milk and milk product
c. spinach, pechay, other green leafy vegetables
d. enriched whole grains
26. Healthy diets are:
a. adequate and balanced
b. do not include sugars
c. controlled
d. low in potassium
27. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about water in
the human body?
a. helps regulate body temperature
b. will relieve fatigue, migraines, and high blood
pressures
c. the largest component of the adult human body
weight
d. provides a medium for chemical reactions
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
stages in the breading procedure?
a. Flour, egg wash, flour
b. Flour, egg wash, bread crumbs
c. Flour, water, bread crumbs
d. Egg wash, flour, bread crumbs
29. Vera is planning to have a party of more than 50
guests. What type of table service would you
recommend to her?
a. Blue plate service c. Formal service
b. French service d. Buffet service
30. A kind of cloth plays vital role in setting the mood of
the dining table. What do you call that long narrow
strips of cloth used on bare tables?
a. Silence cloth c. Top cloth
b. Table cloth d. Table runner
31. When testing the doneness of the cake, a cake
tester is inserted at what part of the cake?
a. Bottom side c. side
b. Center d. Upper side
32. Chef Roy is preparing a chocolate frosting? What
cooking technique would you recommend to her?
a. Cook chocolate in a double boiler
b. Cook chocolate over high degree
c. Cook chocolate over low flame
d. Cook chocolate using steam
33. Ka Rosa is preparing a native rice cake (biko). She
ran out of panocha, a local sweetener, what could
be the best substitute for panocha?
a. Brown sugar c. Washed sugar
b. Powdered sugar d. White sugar
34. What is that kitchen tool appropriate in applying
egg wash to pies and pastries?
a. Rubber scraper c. Tong
b. Spatula d. Pastry Brush
35. Which of the following mixing technique is
described when a baker mixes the dough with a
pressing motion accompanied by folding and
pressing?
a. Beat b. Cream c. Knead d. Fold
36. What type of cakes contains butter or other fats?
a. Batter cakes c. Chiffon cakes
b. Butter cakes d. Sponge cake
37. The recipe calls to pour the mixture of flour and
liquid to the pan. What flour mixture is being
described?
a. Batter c. Dough
b. Butter d. Egg wash
38. Family Sebastiano is experiencing a hard time
financially. Which of the following shows a very
appropriate economic practice?
a. Reduced quantity of food prepared
b. Recycle leftovers
c. use substitutes
d. reduced quality of food prepared 30
39. What is the process that changes the flavor, breaks
down the cellulose and reduces the water content
of vegetables?
a. Cutting c. Washing
b. Preparation d. Cooking
(Cosmetology)
1. A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment.
She has some obvious abrasions on her scalp.
Which treatment should be acceptable?
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with
minimum massage.
b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and
reschedule her appointment.
d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with
manipulations.
2. During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is
applied to the skin using:
a. downward circular motion
b. rounded strong movements
c. upward circular movements
d. outward movements
3. If a powder foundation is being used for a facial
make-up application, a concealer is applied:
a. after eye color application
b. after lipstick application
c. after foundation application
d. before foundation

4. For which one of the following are oil manicures
recommended?
a. Leconychia c. Brittle nails
b. Split nails d. Free edge
5. When does the manicurist wash her hands for a
manicure service?
a. Before and after each manicure service.
b. Before each manicure service.
c. After each manicure service.
d. During each manicure service.
6. If the hair is cut partially wet and partially dry, the
results will be _________.
a. even c. perfect
b. uneven d. curly
7. The angle or degree at which a subsection of hair is
held, or elevated, from the head with cutting is
called _________.
a. sectioning c. angling
b. elevation d. graduation
8. Following a haircut, when is texturing most
effective?
a. When performed on dry hair styled the way it
will typically be worn.
b. When performed at the shampoo bowl after
the conditioner is applied.
c. When performed on soaking wet hair that has
been brushed.
d. When performed on moderately damp hair
prior to styling.
9. What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation,
giving a matte finish, and also to conceal small flaws
or blemishes?
a. powder c. eyeliner
b. lipstick d. blush
10. For corrective make-up application, how is a
highlight produced?
a. A highlight is produced when a darker
foundation than the original one is applied to a
particular part of the face.
b. A highlight is produced when a lighter shade
than the original one is applied to a particular
part of the face.
c. A highlight is produced when a medium shade
similar to the original one is applied to a
particular part of the face.
d. A shadow subdues or minimizes prominent
features.
11. What kind of cosmetic is used to smooth out the
face and cover spots or uneven skin coloration?
a. lipstick c. eyeliner
b. blush d. foundation
12. When cutting curly hair, keep in mind that:
a. curly naturally layers itself
b. curly hair expands less than straight hair
c. straight hair shrinks more than curly hair
d. curly hair expands more than straight hair
13. “Removing bulk” and “removing weight” are more
modern term for:
a. thinning the hair
b. Straightening the hair
c. shortening the hair
d. graduating the hair
14. During manicure service, do not shake the bottle to
mix nail polis, as this causes:
a. separation of ingredients
b. air bubbles
c. foaming
d. sprayed brush bristles
15. The classic barbering comb is used with clippers
when:
a. cutting longer lengths
b. detailing is not required
c. cutting thicker lengths
d. cutting the hair close to the head
16. The amount of elevation from head form is:
a. dictated by parting size
b. equal to the subsection size
c. measured in degrees
d. measured in inches
17. What is the skin type that has medium pores, a
smooth and even texture, good circulation, healthy
color, may tend toward dryness on the cheeks while
being oily in the t-zone?
a. oily skin
b. sensitive skin
c. combination/normal skin
d. dry skin
18. A section of hair that is molded in a circular
movement in preparation for the formulation of
curls is:
a. shaping b. parting c. base d. section
19. By parting the hair at the parietal ridge and
continuing all the way around the head, you can
locate the:
a. crown b. sides c. front d. top
20. Blunt or straight lines are cut in the hair with:
a. hair cutting shears c. a clipper
b. a straight razor d. thinning shears
21. The relationship between hair, face and body type
is called ___________.
a. emphasis c. symmetry
b. proportion d. contrasting lines
22. For corrective make-up application, a darker shade
of eye color makes the natural color of the eye
appear
a. lighter c. smaller
b. darker d. deeper
23. The condition of the hair and scalp is most
influenced by the shampoo products.
a. color c. thickness
b. acidity or alkalinity d. lathering ability
24. For nail polish application, the functions of top coat
include to :
a. prevent staining of the nail
b. protect the enamel from chipping
c. fill in ridges
d. prevent the nail from breaking
25. What type of nail products is a cuticle cream?
a. emulsion c. exfoliant
b. astringent d. emollient
26. What is the effect of highlighter above the
cheekbones?
a. To emphasize good bone structure
b. To diminish cheekbones
c. To attract attention to the eyes
d. To attract attention to the nose
27. During the nail application, when do excess nail
polish is best removed?
a. after all fingers are done
b. with the use of a pusher
c. when it is necessary
d. right after each application
28. In manicuring, softening the cuticle with cuticle oil
is good treatment for:
a. white spots on nails
b. hang nails

c. cut or bleeding cuticle
d. redness or swelling around the nail
29. Dead cuticle tissue is usually removed:
a. just before the base coat is applied to nail
b. as the last step of manicuring procedure
c. after loosing the cuticle by the pusher
d. right after the soaking period
30. the section of the pin curl between the base and
the first arch is the:
a. stem b. curl c. circle d. wave
31. During the haircutting procedure, the fine teeth or
the styling comb are used to:
a. detangle wet hair
b. holds the hair at high elevations
c. comb and part the hair
d. comb the subsection before cutting
32. During a shampoo service, manipulating the scalp
immediately follows:
a. squeezing excess water from hair
b. applying shampoo
c. adjusting water volume
d. comfortably seating the client
33. When preparing to shampoo a client, it’s important
to:
a. apply an infrared lamp
b. apply a scalp steamer
c. brush the hair for 15 minutes
d. examine the client’s hair and scalp
34. Moisturizers contain an ingredient that helps the
skin retain:
a. Oil b. water c. vitamins d. collagen
35. Madeleine requests for a scalp treatment service
because her hair is dry. Which of the following
products would you recommend?
a. alcoholic lotion
b. mineral or sulfonated oil
c. Baby shampoo
d. moisturizers or emollients
36. How often would you advice a person for a facial
with normal skin?
a. about once a week c. daily
b. about a month d. about twice a month
37. How can ingrown toe nails be prevented in
pedicuring?
a. File or clip corners of nail.
b. File toe nails rounding them slightly to conform
shape of toes.
c. Leave toe nails’ corner alone
d. Clipped dead skins near toenails’ corners.
38. When conducting a client consultation, you can
begin to make decisions about the most suitable
haircut for the client by analyzing the:
a. hair length c. hair color
b. skin type d. face shape
39. In haircutting, your __________ hand will generally
be your dominant hand.
a. holding c. cutting
b. weak d. controlling
40. Where all manicuring cosmetic supplies should be
kept when not being used?
a. On a clean shelf.
b. On the manicuring table
c. In a clean manicuring kit
d. In clean, closed containers
(Entrepreneurship)
1. A concept among business-minded individuals who
want to start small, but dream of becoming huge
financial success in the future is known as
_________.
a. Entrepreneurship c. Small business
b. Enterprise d. Buy and sell
2. You want to start your own business, what should
you consider?
a. Assess your entrepreneurial inclinations.
b. Get to know your target market.
c. Make a business plan.
d. All of the above should be considered.
3. To be able to steer your business in the first difficult
months, you need a good _________.
a. Marketing Plan c. Production Plan
b. Financial Plan d. Out-sourcing Plan
4. For the business to have a legal personality, a
business man has to __________.
a. Organize it.
b. Register it in proper institution / agency.
c. Hire lawyers for the business.
d. Hire an accountant for the business.
5. Which of the following implies that the
entrepreneur has a “word of honor”?
a. When he pays suppliers on due date.
b. Give employees salaries and benefits agreed on.
c. Deliver on the day his customer ask him to do.
d. All opinions above are correct.
6. In the business plan essentials, which part
encapsulates entire business plan?
a. The mission statement
b. The executive summary
c. The management team
d. The marketing plan
7. What type of entrepreneurial business actually
produces the products they sell?
a. Manufacturing c. Retailing
b. Wholesaling d. Service
8. A (n) __________ captures the reader’s attention,
should explain the business status, provide
objectives, and describe products or services.
a. Executive summary c. Table of contents
b. transmittal letter d. fact sheet
9. Locations, facilities, labor and manufacturing [plans
are part of:
a. Financial plan
b. Marketing plan
c. Implementation plan
d. Production / Operations Plan
10. Work Ethics are:
a. based on moral virtues of hard work
b. based on working hard only when the manager
is looking
c. based on looking for shortcuts
d. based on trying to get to work on time
11. An individual who can identify the various products
or services which people need and deliver these at
the right time and place and at the price:
a. Entrepreneur c. Industrialist
b. Capitalist d. Contractor
12. A business form which is owned by only one person
is:
a. Cooperative c. Partnership
b. Corporation d. Sole proprietorship
13. The ___________ plan tells what has to be done,
when, how and who as far as sales, advertising,
policy and distribution.
a. Marketing c. Pricing
b. Financial d. Selection

14. The aspect of business management that analyzes
and determines the supply and demand for the
product or service in the past and its competitive
position at present is:
a. Financial aspect c. Production aspect
b. Marketing aspect d. Budgeting aspect
15. A __________ statement should be short (one/two
sentences) easy to understand and easy to
remember.
a. Mission c. Cash flow
b. Vision d. Pro Forma
16. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to
create market and produce new goods and services:
a. Salesman c. Proprietorship
b. Partnership d. Entrepreneurship
17. The probable problems that a business and
entrepreneur faces are:
a. Strengths c. Weakness
b. Opportunities d. Threats
18. Reviewing at any point of the business period the
strength and weaknesses of the venture is referred
to as ___________.
a. Monitoring and evaluating
b. Risk taking
c. Opportunity seeking
d. SWOT analysis
19. A business form owned by only one person is:
a. Partnership c. Corporation
b. Sole Proprietorship d. Cooperative
20. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to
create market and produce new goods and services:
a. Proprietorship c. Partnership
b. Entrepreneurship d. Salesman
21. Quality control refers to the firm’s evaluation of its
___________.
a. overall performance
b. operational control
c. employee’s performance
d. organizational control
22. If an entrepreneur acts to do things that meet or
even exceed existing standards of excellence then
he is considered to be __________.
a. hard worker c. committed worker
b. risk taker d. goal setter
23. Profit is a concrete indicator of how well an
entrepreneur has managed his ___________.
a. business c. affairs
b. sales d. credits
24. If a lot of unknown and uncontrollable factors affect
the success or failure of a firm then an
entrepreneur should be competent in __________.
a. making decisions
b. seeking opportunity
c. introducing innovation
d. planning ahead
25. Environmental screening involves one of the
following basic principles in planning a business.
Which one is it?
a. the plan must respond to consumer tastes and
preferences
b. the plan must be based on simple projects
c. the plan must be based on the needs of the
community
d. the plan must be flexible
26. A business enterprise must obtain a business permit
from the ___________.
a. Mayor’s office c. DOLE
b. DTI d. SEC
27. Time frame, financial reserve and resources and
cost are distinctive features of __________.
a. business plan c. mechanical plan
b. electrical plan d. project plan
28. The competence to convince, use personal
influence and develop explicit strategies to
influence people is associated with __________.
a. persuasion and networking
b. information seeking and monitoring
c. opportunity seeking and creativity
d. self confidence and skill in decision making
29. Business Code of Ethics:
a. should provide a list that only new employees
must follow
b. Should exempt upper management
c. should change every week
d. should provide a framework for professional
responsibility
30. Entrepreneurs adopt risk management programs to
eliminate or reduce risk. Which of the following is
an exception?
a. Employee safety program
b. Inaccurate accounting and financial reports
c. Burglars alarm, security guard’s and guard dogs
d. Proper safety program
31. Whenever an entrepreneur recruits, selects a
person to fill a vacancy in the organizational
structure, he is performing a function of
management called:
a. controlling c. planning
b. directing d. staffing
32. Which of the following items is a trait that is NOT
observed among high achievers and entrepreneurs?
a. Willing to forego small inconveniences.
b. Persistent worker even in the face of difficulties
and hardships.
c. Likes to associate with the hardworking and the
knowledgeable about many things.
d. Consider is not important to attain a position or
to come up with accomplishment in society.
33. Which of the following Best explains why goal-
setting is important especially in entrepreneurship?
a. It assures you of your being able to attain your
objectives.
b. It helps make life more enjoyable and satisfying.
c. One is much more likely to get what he/she
wants and is willing to work for it.
d. You are only one who can tell what is important
to you.
34. Which of the following basic principles in planning a
business plan deals with the necessity of
environmental scanning?
a. The plan must be based on simple projects.
b. The plan must respond to consumer tastes and
preferences.
c. The plan must be flexible.
d. The plan must be based on the needs of the
community.
35. Business planning is a continuous process until
consumer satisfaction is maximized and sustained.
One of the components of business planning is
SWOT. What does SWOT means?
a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and
Threats
b. Strengths, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats
c. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats
d. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Time

(Business Mathematics)
1. At a supermarket, white sugar has increased from P
38 per kilo to P 46 per kilo. What is the percent
increase in the cost of the item?
a. 10% b. 20% c. 21% d. 25%
2. Tiger Woods shots the following scores in a recent
golf tournament (68, 71, 66, 67). What was Tiger’s
average score for that tournament?
a. 70 b. 68 c. 69 d. 67
3. If you are paid a certain amount of money for every
sale you make or a percent of the value of your
sales, which type of pay are you receiving?
a. commission c. piece work
b. straight time pay d. profit share
4. What is it called when you determine how many
units of a product must be made and sold to cover
production expenses?
a. quality control
b. break-even analysis
c. a time study analysis
d. unit analysis
5. Margie is buying donuts at the bakery for her
classmates at school. She wants to buy twice as
many as students in her class. Margie has 18
students in her class. About how many donuts
should Margie buy?
a. 20 donuts c. 40 donuts
b. 50 donuts d. 60 donuts
6. Mr. Calbo had 776 4/5 dozens of canned tuna
luncheon meat. He divided equally these dozens of
canned tuna luncheon meat to 8 buyers. How many
dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat did each
buyer get?
a. 90 dozens c. 98 dozens
b. 98.8 dozens d. 97 1/10 dozens
7. Lea’s Enterprise gives 10% profit to all items for
sale. What is the profit if the capital of the goods is
P 50.00, P 870.00?
a. P 5180.00 c. P 5, 087.00
b. P 5017.00 d. P 508.70
8. What is 125% expressed a s a mixed number in
simplest form?
a. 1 ¼ c. 4/5
b. 125/100 d. 25/20
9. An asset is considered to be a current asset if:
a. It has been bought recently and was bought
new and not used.
b. It could be sold immediately by the business for
other assets.
c. It could be realized in cash or sold or consumed
in the business within one year.
d. It is a piece of new machinery that is expected
to fast for at least ten years
10. Net income is:
a. revenues less the cost of goods sold to
customers and operating expenses
b. revenues less the cost of goods sold to
customers, operating expenses interest expense
and taxes
c. revenues less the cost of goods sold to
customers
d. cash collected less cash paid out
11. Find the profit of Manny’s water refilling business
with revenue of P 56, 000, 000 and costs of P 42,
000, 000.
a. P 14, 000, 000 c. P 1, 400, 000
b. P 140, 000 d. P 14, 000
12. How long it would take a $ 200 bank account
earning 8% simple interest to earn 4 40 interest?
a. 2 years c. 2.5 years
b. 1 year d. 1.5 years
13. Nora’s food stall has costs of P 2, 900. Her total
food sales are P 11, 600. What percent of her food
sales do the food costs represent?
a. 20% b. 25% c. 27% d. 30%
14. Jonie needs 250 cookies for a buffet. he will make
oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk
cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be oatmeal
raisin and 15% of the cookies to be macaroons. How
many chocolate chunk cookies must Jonie bake?
a. 150 b. 125 c. 140 d. 100
15. What is the total of your cash, plus items you have
purchased, plus money your customers owe you
called?
a. inventory c. liabilities
b. assets d. profit
16. What does a balance sheet show?
a. the financial position of your company on a
certain date
b. how much money everybody in your company
makes
c. the difference between two income statements
d. the summary of your company’s profit
17. If a shirt marked down 25%, what will the purchase
price be?
a. P 25 c. 50% off
b. 75% of its original price d. P 75
18. What is the difference between the cost of a
product and its selling price called?
a. the retail price c. the discount
b. the markup d. the percentage discount
19. What is the correct accounting name given to
distributions of cash or other assets from an
incorporated business to its shareholders?
a. business perks c. dividends
b. bonuses d. drawings
20. A customer places a special order through 480
Furniture Store. The list price in the manufacturer’s
catalog is P 1, 600. 480 Furniture receives a 35%
trade discount. What is the net price for the
furniture order?
a. P560 b. P1,535 c. P1,565 d. P1,040
21. Min’s Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its
products. What is the trade discount rate on an
item with a list price of P 16.79 and a net price of P
12.42?
a. 22% b. 26% c. 54% d. 74%
22. Lina buys 4 scrapbook kits at P 9.99 each, 2 sets of
scissors for P 9.99 each and 1 circle cutter for p
24.99. The sales tax rate is 5%. What is the total
purchase price?
a. P 8.25 c. P 68.22
b. P 162.69 d. P 173.18
23. During her vacation in the US, Carla had purchased
a sweater from the clearance rack and gave the
clerk $30.00. She received $4.96 in change. IF the
sales tax rate was 8%, find the total selling price?
a. $ 21.04 c. $ 23.19
b. $ 25.04 d. $ 27.22

24. To pay for his son’s tuition, Mr. Torre borrows P95,
800.00 from a lending institution with an interest
rate of 9.5% a year. How much is his interest for one
year?
a. P 910.00 c. P 9,101.00
b. P 9011.00 d. P 9,111.00
25. Last week, Michelle bought a new computer for
10% off the advertised price in an online store. The
advertised price was $ 1,800. How much did
Michelle have to pay for the computer?
a. $ 1, 800 c. $ 1, 980
b. $ 2, 200 d. $ 1, 620
26. Which of these is true statement?
a. Payment made for the use of someone else’s
money is called interest.
b. Payment made into an investment is called
interest.
c. Payment made for the use of someone else’s
money is called principal.
d. Payment made into a bank account is called
interest.
27. Paula always spends in full her P200 weekly
allowance. She decided to decrease her expenses
by 24% for savings. Compute for her new weekly
allowance.
a. P52 b. P142 c. P152 d. P132
28. After net income in entered on the work sheet, the
Balance Sheet debit and credit columns must:
a. be the same amount As the total amount of the
Income Statement debit and credit columns
b. equal each other
c. be the same amount as the amount in the
Adjusted Trial Balance debit and credit columns
d. not be equal to each other and need not to be
the same total amounts as any other pair of
columns on the work sheet
29. Adjusting entries:
a. need not be journalized since they appear on
the work sheet
b. need not be posted if the financial statements
are prepared from the work sheet
c. are not needed if reversing entries are prepared
d. must be journalized and posted
30. Mr. Montemayor harvested 890 kilograms of
shrimps from his fishpond. He sold 6/8 kilograms of
shrimps in international markets and 2/8 kilograms
of shrimps was sold in domestic markets. (a) How
many kilograms of shrimps did he sell in
international markets?
(b) How many kilograms did he sell in domestic
markets?
a. 660.25 kg / 140.75
b. 770 kg / 120 kg
c. 778.75 kg / 111 .25 kg
d. 667.5 kg / 222.5 kg
31. A marketing manager sold items worth P 189, 355,
000. His commission as incentive is 7%. How much
is his commission?
a. P 1,325.48 c. P 1,300.45
b. P 13,254.85 d. P 13,250.00
32. Aizza bought 3 ¼ kilograms of chico, 2 ½ kilograms
of grapes, 4 ¾ kilograms of water melon. how many
kilograms of fruits did she buy altogether?
a. 9 ½ kg b. 10 ½ kg c. 7 ½ kg d. 11 kg
33. What is the decimal 0.33 written as a fraction?
a. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/33
34. Jessa made a fruit tart using red and green grapes.
Forty percent of the grapes are green. If she used a
total of 80 grapes, how many red grapes did she
use?
a. 36 b. 42 c. 48 d. 50
35. Which of the following items should not be included
in a listing of current assets?
a. marketable securities
b. accounts payable
c. accounts receivable
d. inventories
ANSWER KEYS
Drafting
1. D 11. B 21. B 31. A
2. A 12. A 22. B 32. C
3. B 13. C 23. A 33. A
4. C 14. A 24. C 34. D
5. A 15. D 25. D 35. A
6. A 16. A 26. A
7. B 17. C 27. A
8. A 18. A 28. B
9. C 19. B 29. B
10. A 20. A 30. A
Carpentry / Woodworking
1. A 11. C 21. A 31. D
2. B 12. A 22. C 32. A

3. A 13. B 23. A 33. A
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. D
5. D 15. A 25. A 35. C
6. B 16. D 26. D
7. A 17. C 27. C
8. D 18. A 28. A
9. A 19. B 29. C
10. C 20. D 30. A
Basic Masonry and Concrete
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B
2. C 12. B 22. D 32. C
3. A 13. B 23. D 33. A
4. D 14. C 24. B 34. A
5. B 15. A 25. C 35. C
6. A 16. B 26. B
7. A 17. C 27. A
8. D 18. C 28. A
9. B 19. A 29. A
10. D 20.C 30.A
Basic Plumbing
1. B 11. A 21. C 31. C
2. A 12. A 22. B 32. A
3. C 13. A 23. A 33. A
4. A 14. C 24. C 34. B
5. A 15. A 25. D 35. A
6. C 16. B 26. A
7. A 17. A 27. A
8. C 18. B 28. D
9. A 19. A 29. B
10. B 20. B 30. A
Basic Electricity
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B
2. B 12. A 22. A 32. A
3. A 13. B 23. C 33. D
4. B 14. A 24. D 34. A
5. D 15. A 25. A
6. C 16. C 26. B
7. A 17. B 27. D
8. C 18. D 28. A
9. B 19. B 29. D
10. D 20.C 30.B
Basic Electronics
1. A 11. A 21. D 31. B
2. C 12. B 22. A 32. A
3. B 13. A 23. C 33. A
4. A 14. D 24. A 34. D
5. B 15. C 25. B 35. C
6. A 16. A 26. B
7. D 17. A 27. A
8. A 18. C 28. D
9. C 19. B 29. A
10. D 20. A 30. A
Foods
1. B 11. B 21. A 31. B
2. C 12. C 22. B 32. A
3. C 13. A 23. D 33. A
4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. C
6. C 16. C 26. A 36. B
7. D 17. B 27. B 37. A
8. A 18. C 28. B 38. B
9. D 19. D 29. D 39. D
10. A 20. C 30. D
Cosmetology
1. C 11. D 21. B 31. D
2. C 12. D 22. A 32. B
3. D 13. A 23. B 33. D
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. B
5. A 15. D 25. D 35. D
6. B 16. C 26. A 36. A
7. B 17. C 27. D 37. B
8. A 18. A 28. B 38. D
9. A 19. D 29. C 39. C
10. B 20. A 30. A 40. D
Entrepreneurship
1. A 11. A 21. B 31. D
2. D 12. C 22. D 32. A
3. A 13. A 23. B 33. A
4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
5. D 15. B 25. C 35. A
6. B 16. D 26. A
7. A 17. C 27. A
8. A 18. A 28. A
9. D 19. B 29. D
10. A 20. B 30. B
Business Mathematics
1. C 11. A 21. B 31. B
2. B 12. C 22. D 32. B
3. A 13. B 23. C 33. A
4. B 14. A 24. C 34. C
5. C 15. B 25. D 35. B
6. D 16. A 26. B
7. C 17. B 27. C
8. A 18. B 28. B
9. C 19. C 29. D
10. B 20. D 30. D

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