Rheumatology MCQs Practice questions with explanationDr. Almas A
Topic: Rheumatology
Exam type: MCQs Practice questions
Q. A 26-year-old female presented to ER with dry cough and shortness of breath and often complains of chest pain. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Which of the following will indicate that the patient suffers from sarcoidosis?
Q: A 50-year-old female presents to ER with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, red painful eyes. She complains of chronic dull pain in the gluteal region for the last 5 years and stiffness in the lower back that wakes her up in the morning. X-ray spine reveals squaring of vertebrae with bone spur formation. On MRI sacroiliitis is seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q: A 60-year-old female presents in OPD with knee joint stiffness in the morning and increases with activity and decreases on rest. She also complains about a crackling noise on joint movement. X-ray shows narrowing of the joint space and osteophytes. Which of the following treatments is recommended in this patient?
Q: A 70-year-old female presented to ER with swelling of knee joint and severe pain. Arthrocentesis revealed rhomboid-shaped crystals that stained deeply blue with H&E stain, and show weak positive birefringence on light microscopy. X-ray reveals chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following statements is true?
Q: A 40-year-old female comes to OPD with dry eyes and dyspareunia for the last 6 months. She also complains of cough and fatigue with joint pains. On examination, her parotid gland was enlarged and laboratory tests revealed anti-Ro antibodies are positive. Which of the following tests is recommended to this patient?
Rheumatology MCQs Practice questions with explanationDr. Almas A
Topic: Rheumatology
Exam type: MCQs Practice questions
Q. A 26-year-old female presented to ER with dry cough and shortness of breath and often complains of chest pain. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Which of the following will indicate that the patient suffers from sarcoidosis?
Q: A 50-year-old female presents to ER with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, red painful eyes. She complains of chronic dull pain in the gluteal region for the last 5 years and stiffness in the lower back that wakes her up in the morning. X-ray spine reveals squaring of vertebrae with bone spur formation. On MRI sacroiliitis is seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q: A 60-year-old female presents in OPD with knee joint stiffness in the morning and increases with activity and decreases on rest. She also complains about a crackling noise on joint movement. X-ray shows narrowing of the joint space and osteophytes. Which of the following treatments is recommended in this patient?
Q: A 70-year-old female presented to ER with swelling of knee joint and severe pain. Arthrocentesis revealed rhomboid-shaped crystals that stained deeply blue with H&E stain, and show weak positive birefringence on light microscopy. X-ray reveals chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following statements is true?
Q: A 40-year-old female comes to OPD with dry eyes and dyspareunia for the last 6 months. She also complains of cough and fatigue with joint pains. On examination, her parotid gland was enlarged and laboratory tests revealed anti-Ro antibodies are positive. Which of the following tests is recommended to this patient?
Internal Medicine Board Review - Rheumatology Flashcards - by KnowmedgeKnowmedge
Internal Medicine Board Review Flashcards - This eBook contains 50 Rheumatology
Flashcards. The Flashcards are review questions and can be used to study for medical board exams including the USMLE Step Exams and the ABIM Internal Medicine Exam. More questions can be found at www.knowmedge.com
Internal Medicine Practice Questions for ABIM Exam / NBME Internal Medicine S...Knowmedge
This free study guide contains 50 internal medicine practice questions to help you prepare for the ABIM exam / NBME internal medicine shelf exam.
Topics covered include Cardiovascular Disease, Endocrinology & Metabolism, Gastroenterology, General Internal Medicine, Hematology, Infectious Disease, Nephrology / Urology, Oncology, Neurology, Dermatology, Pulmonary Disease & Critical Care, Rheumatology / Orthopedics
To learn more, visit www.knowmedge.com
ALL THE QUESTIONS ARE HAVING VERY STANDARD ANSWERS FROM THE STANDARD BOOKS)
REF : ROBBINS & COTRAN PATHOLOGIC BASIS OF DISEASE.
COMPREHENSIVE IMAGE BASED REVIEW OF PATHOLOGY BY SONI .
GARG & GUPTA PATHOLOGY REVIEW & GENETICS.
Internal Medicine Board Review - Rheumatology Flashcards - by KnowmedgeKnowmedge
Internal Medicine Board Review Flashcards - This eBook contains 50 Rheumatology
Flashcards. The Flashcards are review questions and can be used to study for medical board exams including the USMLE Step Exams and the ABIM Internal Medicine Exam. More questions can be found at www.knowmedge.com
Internal Medicine Practice Questions for ABIM Exam / NBME Internal Medicine S...Knowmedge
This free study guide contains 50 internal medicine practice questions to help you prepare for the ABIM exam / NBME internal medicine shelf exam.
Topics covered include Cardiovascular Disease, Endocrinology & Metabolism, Gastroenterology, General Internal Medicine, Hematology, Infectious Disease, Nephrology / Urology, Oncology, Neurology, Dermatology, Pulmonary Disease & Critical Care, Rheumatology / Orthopedics
To learn more, visit www.knowmedge.com
ALL THE QUESTIONS ARE HAVING VERY STANDARD ANSWERS FROM THE STANDARD BOOKS)
REF : ROBBINS & COTRAN PATHOLOGIC BASIS OF DISEASE.
COMPREHENSIVE IMAGE BASED REVIEW OF PATHOLOGY BY SONI .
GARG & GUPTA PATHOLOGY REVIEW & GENETICS.
when are mrcp results out
what are mrcp paces
what time are mrcp results released
can mrcp detect pancreatic cancer
can mrcp be done without contrast
can mrcp miss pancreatic cancer
can mrcp detect cancer
can mrcp cause pancreatitis
can mrcp detect gallstones
can mrcp detect liver cancer
what can mrcp detect
can an mrcp be done in an open mri
what can mrcp show
why do mrcp
why do mrcp exam
do both mrcp and mrcs
how to do mrcp in india
how to do mrcp after mbbs
how to do mrcp in uk
how to do mrcp in pakistan
how long do mrcp results take
how to do mrcp test
when to do mrcp part 1
does mrcp use contrast
does mrcp exempt from plab
does mrcp require contrast
does mrcp show pancreatic cancer
does mrcp score matter
does mrcp use gadolinium
does mrcp show liver
does mrcp require fasting
does mrcp show sphincter of oddi
does mrcp part 1 expire
does mrcp have contrast
how mrcp test is done
mrcp how to apply
Infections and salivary gland disease in pediatric age: how to manage - Slide...WAidid
The slideset by Professor Susanna Esposito aims at explaining how to manage the salivary gland infections in pediatric age, from pathogenesis, to transmission, treatments and vaccination coverage, that should be urgently increased in Italy as well as in EU Countries.
Atypical Presentation of Orbital Natural Killer cell Lymphoma | Crimson Publi...CrimsonpublishersMSOR
Natural killer (NK)/T-cell lymphoma is a rare malignancy accounting for less than 1 percent of all lymphomas in North America and Europe. Ocular manifestations frequently presented as orbital cellulites that does not improve with adequate antibiotics. We report a case of NK/T cell lymphoma with rare ocular manifestation that was initially confused with orbital cellulites and chronic sinusitis due to multiple negative biopsies. 92-year-old female presented with right eye vision loss, and ipsi lateral orbital swelling for four weeks. MRI demonstrated right intra-orbital extension to the orbital apex. Workups for infection and vasculitis were negative. Multiple biopsies with histopathology and flow cytology were unrevealing for malignancy. Patient failed to improve on antibiotics and steroids. Five months after the initial presentation, patient presented with the same complaint; however, the orbital mass had grown in size and involved the maxillary sinus and contra lateral side. Re-biopsy revealed positive CD 56 for NK lymphoma.
NVBDCP.pptx Nation vector borne disease control programSapna Thakur
NVBDCP was launched in 2003-2004 . Vector-Borne Disease: Disease that results from an infection transmitted to humans and other animals by blood-feeding arthropods, such as mosquitoes, ticks, and fleas. Examples of vector-borne diseases include Dengue fever, West Nile Virus, Lyme disease, and malaria.
Ethanol (CH3CH2OH), or beverage alcohol, is a two-carbon alcohol
that is rapidly distributed in the body and brain. Ethanol alters many
neurochemical systems and has rewarding and addictive properties. It
is the oldest recreational drug and likely contributes to more morbidity,
mortality, and public health costs than all illicit drugs combined. The
5th edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
(DSM-5) integrates alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence into a single
disorder called alcohol use disorder (AUD), with mild, moderate,
and severe subclassifications (American Psychiatric Association, 2013).
In the DSM-5, all types of substance abuse and dependence have been
combined into a single substance use disorder (SUD) on a continuum
from mild to severe. A diagnosis of AUD requires that at least two of
the 11 DSM-5 behaviors be present within a 12-month period (mild
AUD: 2–3 criteria; moderate AUD: 4–5 criteria; severe AUD: 6–11 criteria).
The four main behavioral effects of AUD are impaired control over
drinking, negative social consequences, risky use, and altered physiological
effects (tolerance, withdrawal). This chapter presents an overview
of the prevalence and harmful consequences of AUD in the U.S.,
the systemic nature of the disease, neurocircuitry and stages of AUD,
comorbidities, fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, genetic risk factors, and
pharmacotherapies for AUD.
Lung Cancer: Artificial Intelligence, Synergetics, Complex System Analysis, S...Oleg Kshivets
RESULTS: Overall life span (LS) was 2252.1±1742.5 days and cumulative 5-year survival (5YS) reached 73.2%, 10 years – 64.8%, 20 years – 42.5%. 513 LCP lived more than 5 years (LS=3124.6±1525.6 days), 148 LCP – more than 10 years (LS=5054.4±1504.1 days).199 LCP died because of LC (LS=562.7±374.5 days). 5YS of LCP after bi/lobectomies was significantly superior in comparison with LCP after pneumonectomies (78.1% vs.63.7%, P=0.00001 by log-rank test). AT significantly improved 5YS (66.3% vs. 34.8%) (P=0.00000 by log-rank test) only for LCP with N1-2. Cox modeling displayed that 5YS of LCP significantly depended on: phase transition (PT) early-invasive LC in terms of synergetics, PT N0—N12, cell ratio factors (ratio between cancer cells- CC and blood cells subpopulations), G1-3, histology, glucose, AT, blood cell circuit, prothrombin index, heparin tolerance, recalcification time (P=0.000-0.038). Neural networks, genetic algorithm selection and bootstrap simulation revealed relationships between 5YS and PT early-invasive LC (rank=1), PT N0—N12 (rank=2), thrombocytes/CC (3), erythrocytes/CC (4), eosinophils/CC (5), healthy cells/CC (6), lymphocytes/CC (7), segmented neutrophils/CC (8), stick neutrophils/CC (9), monocytes/CC (10); leucocytes/CC (11). Correct prediction of 5YS was 100% by neural networks computing (area under ROC curve=1.0; error=0.0).
CONCLUSIONS: 5YS of LCP after radical procedures significantly depended on: 1) PT early-invasive cancer; 2) PT N0--N12; 3) cell ratio factors; 4) blood cell circuit; 5) biochemical factors; 6) hemostasis system; 7) AT; 8) LC characteristics; 9) LC cell dynamics; 10) surgery type: lobectomy/pneumonectomy; 11) anthropometric data. Optimal diagnosis and treatment strategies for LC are: 1) screening and early detection of LC; 2) availability of experienced thoracic surgeons because of complexity of radical procedures; 3) aggressive en block surgery and adequate lymph node dissection for completeness; 4) precise prediction; 5) adjuvant chemoimmunoradiotherapy for LCP with unfavorable prognosis.
HOT NEW PRODUCT! BIG SALES FAST SHIPPING NOW FROM CHINA!! EU KU DB BK substit...GL Anaacs
Contact us if you are interested:
Email / Skype : kefaya1771@gmail.com
Threema: PXHY5PDH
New BATCH Ku !!! MUCH IN DEMAND FAST SALE EVERY BATCH HAPPY GOOD EFFECT BIG BATCH !
Contact me on Threema or skype to start big business!!
Hot-sale products:
NEW HOT EUTYLONE WHITE CRYSTAL!!
5cl-adba precursor (semi finished )
5cl-adba raw materials
ADBB precursor (semi finished )
ADBB raw materials
APVP powder
5fadb/4f-adb
Jwh018 / Jwh210
Eutylone crystal
Protonitazene (hydrochloride) CAS: 119276-01-6
Flubrotizolam CAS: 57801-95-3
Metonitazene CAS: 14680-51-4
Payment terms: Western Union,MoneyGram,Bitcoin or USDT.
Deliver Time: Usually 7-15days
Shipping method: FedEx, TNT, DHL,UPS etc.Our deliveries are 100% safe, fast, reliable and discreet.
Samples will be sent for your evaluation!If you are interested in, please contact me, let's talk details.
We specializes in exporting high quality Research chemical, medical intermediate, Pharmaceutical chemicals and so on. Products are exported to USA, Canada, France, Korea, Japan,Russia, Southeast Asia and other countries.
Recomendações da OMS sobre cuidados maternos e neonatais para uma experiência pós-natal positiva.
Em consonância com os ODS – Objetivos do Desenvolvimento Sustentável e a Estratégia Global para a Saúde das Mulheres, Crianças e Adolescentes, e aplicando uma abordagem baseada nos direitos humanos, os esforços de cuidados pós-natais devem expandir-se para além da cobertura e da simples sobrevivência, de modo a incluir cuidados de qualidade.
Estas diretrizes visam melhorar a qualidade dos cuidados pós-natais essenciais e de rotina prestados às mulheres e aos recém-nascidos, com o objetivo final de melhorar a saúde e o bem-estar materno e neonatal.
Uma “experiência pós-natal positiva” é um resultado importante para todas as mulheres que dão à luz e para os seus recém-nascidos, estabelecendo as bases para a melhoria da saúde e do bem-estar a curto e longo prazo. Uma experiência pós-natal positiva é definida como aquela em que as mulheres, pessoas que gestam, os recém-nascidos, os casais, os pais, os cuidadores e as famílias recebem informação consistente, garantia e apoio de profissionais de saúde motivados; e onde um sistema de saúde flexível e com recursos reconheça as necessidades das mulheres e dos bebês e respeite o seu contexto cultural.
Estas diretrizes consolidadas apresentam algumas recomendações novas e já bem fundamentadas sobre cuidados pós-natais de rotina para mulheres e neonatos que recebem cuidados no pós-parto em unidades de saúde ou na comunidade, independentemente dos recursos disponíveis.
É fornecido um conjunto abrangente de recomendações para cuidados durante o período puerperal, com ênfase nos cuidados essenciais que todas as mulheres e recém-nascidos devem receber, e com a devida atenção à qualidade dos cuidados; isto é, a entrega e a experiência do cuidado recebido. Estas diretrizes atualizam e ampliam as recomendações da OMS de 2014 sobre cuidados pós-natais da mãe e do recém-nascido e complementam as atuais diretrizes da OMS sobre a gestão de complicações pós-natais.
O estabelecimento da amamentação e o manejo das principais intercorrências é contemplada.
Recomendamos muito.
Vamos discutir essas recomendações no nosso curso de pós-graduação em Aleitamento no Instituto Ciclos.
Esta publicação só está disponível em inglês até o momento.
Prof. Marcus Renato de Carvalho
www.agostodourado.com
Tom Selleck Health: A Comprehensive Look at the Iconic Actor’s Wellness Journeygreendigital
Tom Selleck, an enduring figure in Hollywood. has captivated audiences for decades with his rugged charm, iconic moustache. and memorable roles in television and film. From his breakout role as Thomas Magnum in Magnum P.I. to his current portrayal of Frank Reagan in Blue Bloods. Selleck's career has spanned over 50 years. But beyond his professional achievements. fans have often been curious about Tom Selleck Health. especially as he has aged in the public eye.
Follow us on: Pinterest
Introduction
Many have been interested in Tom Selleck health. not only because of his enduring presence on screen but also because of the challenges. and lifestyle choices he has faced and made over the years. This article delves into the various aspects of Tom Selleck health. exploring his fitness regimen, diet, mental health. and the challenges he has encountered as he ages. We'll look at how he maintains his well-being. the health issues he has faced, and his approach to ageing .
Early Life and Career
Childhood and Athletic Beginnings
Tom Selleck was born on January 29, 1945, in Detroit, Michigan, and grew up in Sherman Oaks, California. From an early age, he was involved in sports, particularly basketball. which played a significant role in his physical development. His athletic pursuits continued into college. where he attended the University of Southern California (USC) on a basketball scholarship. This early involvement in sports laid a strong foundation for his physical health and disciplined lifestyle.
Transition to Acting
Selleck's transition from an athlete to an actor came with its physical demands. His first significant role in "Magnum P.I." required him to perform various stunts and maintain a fit appearance. This role, which he played from 1980 to 1988. necessitated a rigorous fitness routine to meet the show's demands. setting the stage for his long-term commitment to health and wellness.
Fitness Regimen
Workout Routine
Tom Selleck health and fitness regimen has evolved. adapting to his changing roles and age. During his "Magnum, P.I." days. Selleck's workouts were intense and focused on building and maintaining muscle mass. His routine included weightlifting, cardiovascular exercises. and specific training for the stunts he performed on the show.
Selleck adjusted his fitness routine as he aged to suit his body's needs. Today, his workouts focus on maintaining flexibility, strength, and cardiovascular health. He incorporates low-impact exercises such as swimming, walking, and light weightlifting. This balanced approach helps him stay fit without putting undue strain on his joints and muscles.
Importance of Flexibility and Mobility
In recent years, Selleck has emphasized the importance of flexibility and mobility in his fitness regimen. Understanding the natural decline in muscle mass and joint flexibility with age. he includes stretching and yoga in his routine. These practices help prevent injuries, improve posture, and maintain mobilit
New Directions in Targeted Therapeutic Approaches for Older Adults With Mantl...i3 Health
i3 Health is pleased to make the speaker slides from this activity available for use as a non-accredited self-study or teaching resource.
This slide deck presented by Dr. Kami Maddocks, Professor-Clinical in the Division of Hematology and
Associate Division Director for Ambulatory Operations
The Ohio State University Comprehensive Cancer Center, will provide insight into new directions in targeted therapeutic approaches for older adults with mantle cell lymphoma.
STATEMENT OF NEED
Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is a rare, aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) accounting for 5% to 7% of all lymphomas. Its prognosis ranges from indolent disease that does not require treatment for years to very aggressive disease, which is associated with poor survival (Silkenstedt et al, 2021). Typically, MCL is diagnosed at advanced stage and in older patients who cannot tolerate intensive therapy (NCCN, 2022). Although recent advances have slightly increased remission rates, recurrence and relapse remain very common, leading to a median overall survival between 3 and 6 years (LLS, 2021). Though there are several effective options, progress is still needed towards establishing an accepted frontline approach for MCL (Castellino et al, 2022). Treatment selection and management of MCL are complicated by the heterogeneity of prognosis, advanced age and comorbidities of patients, and lack of an established standard approach for treatment, making it vital that clinicians be familiar with the latest research and advances in this area. In this activity chaired by Michael Wang, MD, Professor in the Department of Lymphoma & Myeloma at MD Anderson Cancer Center, expert faculty will discuss prognostic factors informing treatment, the promising results of recent trials in new therapeutic approaches, and the implications of treatment resistance in therapeutic selection for MCL.
Target Audience
Hematology/oncology fellows, attending faculty, and other health care professionals involved in the treatment of patients with mantle cell lymphoma (MCL).
Learning Objectives
1.) Identify clinical and biological prognostic factors that can guide treatment decision making for older adults with MCL
2.) Evaluate emerging data on targeted therapeutic approaches for treatment-naive and relapsed/refractory MCL and their applicability to older adults
3.) Assess mechanisms of resistance to targeted therapies for MCL and their implications for treatment selection
These simplified slides by Dr. Sidra Arshad present an overview of the non-respiratory functions of the respiratory tract.
Learning objectives:
1. Enlist the non-respiratory functions of the respiratory tract
2. Briefly explain how these functions are carried out
3. Discuss the significance of dead space
4. Differentiate between minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation
5. Describe the cough and sneeze reflexes
Study Resources:
1. Chapter 39, Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition
2. Chapter 34, Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 26th edition
3. Chapter 17, Human Physiology by Lauralee Sherwood, 9th edition
4. Non-respiratory functions of the lungs https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/13/3/98/278874
2. What is the diagnosis? 1. Carcinoid syndrome 2. Dermatomyositis 3. Endocarditis 4. Lichen planus 5. Porphyria Q1:
3. What term is used to describe this finding? 1. Arc eye 2. Asthenopia 3. Choroideremia 4. Coloboma 5. Corectopia Q2:
4. What is the diagnosis? 1. Coarctation of the aorta 2. Lung cancer 3. Pneumothorax 4. Rib fracture 5. Substernal goiter Q3:
5. Which one of the following conditions is the most likely to be responsible for this clinical picture? 1. Excessive fluoride supplementation 2. Hyperbilirubinemia 3. Treatment with tetracycline 4. Trichophyton rubrum infection 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection Q:4
6. Serum levels of which one of the following laboratory tests would be expected to be most abnormal in this patient? 1. 17-hydroxyprogesterone 2. Angiotensin-converting enzyme 3. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody 4. Prolactin 5. Vitamin B6 Q5:
7. What clinical presentation would be expected in this patient? 1. Asymmetrical mydriasis 2. Ataxic hemiparesis 3. Hypothermia 4. Quadriplegia 5. Upward gaze palsy Q6:
8. This 22-year-old man presented with a 1-month history of severe pubic itch that was worst at night. What is the most appropriate topical treatment? 1. Hydrocortisone 2. Hydroxyzine 3. Mupirocin 4. Permethrin 5. Selenium sulfide Q7:
9. What is the diagnosis? 1. Contact dermatitis 2. Discoid lupus erythematosus 3. Melanoma 4. Nummular eczema 5. Tinea corporis Q8:
10. What is the diagnosis? 1. Epidural hematoma 2. Glioblastoma multiforme 3. Meningioma 4. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 5. Subdural hematoma Q:9
11. This patient presented following a high-speed motor vehicle crash. Which structure has been disrupted? 1. Aorta 2. Diaphragm 3. Esophagus 4. Myocardium 5. Trachea Q:10
12. Which one of the following biochemical measures would be most likely to be elevated in this patient? 1. Alkaline phosphatase 2. Calcium 3. Ferritin 4. Phosphorus 5. 25-hydroxy-vitamin D Q:11
13. What is the diagnosis? 1. Neuropathic arthropathy 2. Rheumatoid arthritis 3. Hemophilia 4. Chondrocalcinosis 5. Rickets Q:12
14. What endocrine diagnosis is affecting the identical twin on the right side of the image? 1. Acromegaly 2. Addison's disease 3. Cushing's syndrome 4. Hypogonadism 5. Hypothyroidism Q:13
15. This patient recently returned from Brazil. What is the diagnosis? 1. Dracunculiasis 2. Ingrown toenail 3. Leptospirosis 4. Scabies 5. Tungiasis Q:14
16. This patient with chronic alcoholism presented with dysarthria and horizontal nystagmus. What is the diagnosis? 1. Brainstem glioma 2. Central pontine myelinolysis 3. Neurosarcoidosis 4. Pontine stroke 5. Tabes dorsalis Q:15
17. What diagnosis is suggested by this barium swallow? 1. Ingested foreign body 2. Esophageal diverticula 3. Diffuse esophageal spasm 4. Gastric linitis plastica 5. Esophageal carcinoma Q:16
18. What is the diagnosis? 1. Angioid streaks 2. Glaucoma 3. Macular degeneration 4. Ocular myiasis 5. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum Q:17
19. This man had cervical adenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1. Arteriovenous malformation 2. Cellulitis 3. Graves' disease 4. Lymphoma 5. Orbital fracture Q:18
20. What is the diagnosis? 1. Chronic paronychia 2. Dermatomyositis 3. Selenium deficiency 4. Rheumatoid arthritis 5. Psoriasis Q:19
21. What diagnosis is suggested by this corneal photograph? 1. Anterior uveitis 2. Chlamydia trachomatis infection 3. Cytomegalovirus retinitis 4. Herpes simplex virus infection 5. Toxocariasis Q:20
22. What is the diagnosis? 1. Amelanotic melanoma 2. Cicatricial pemphigoid 3. Keratoacanthoma 4. Hidrocystoma 5. Papular mucinosis Q:21
23. What is the diagnosis? 1. Asbestosis 2. Colonic interposition surgery 3. Suppurative mediastinitis 4. Pneumopericardium 5. Thoracic aortic aneurysm Q:22
24. What is the diagnosis? 1. Condylomata lata 2. Neurofibromatosis type 1 3. Keloid 4. von Hippel-Lindau disease 5. Tuberous sclerosis Q:23
25. What is the diagnosis? 1. Aspiration pneumonia 2. Sarcoidosis 3. Silicosis 4. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis 5. Lymphangioleiomyomatosis Q:24
26. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1. Amyloidosis 2. Craniopharyngioma 3. Leukemia 4. Neuroblastoma 5. von Willebrand's disease Q:25
27. MRCP April 2009 A 20 year old boy whose younger brother died suddenly last year requested for the ECG(shown above).What is the diagnosis 1. HOCM 2. Arrhythmogenic Right ventricular dysplasia 3.Brugadas syndrome 4. Long QT interval syndrome 5. Acute MI Q:26
28. MRCP April 2009 A 30 year old female presented with proximal muscle weakness. Examination of hands is shown as in picture.What is the definite investigation of choice in this patient ? 1. Skin biopsy 2. Muscle biopsy 3. Creatine kinase 4. Nerve conduction studies 5. CT head Q:27
29. MRCP April 2009 A 25 year old asthmatic presented with increasing shortness of breath.An chest X-Ray was done as shown in picture.What is the diagnosis? 1. Status Asthmaticus 2. Brochopneumonia 3. Mucus plug 4. pneumothorax 5. Normal chest X-ray Q:28
30. MRCP April 2009 A 40 year old alcoholic presented with rash on the hands shown in picture which increased on exposure to sunlight.What is the diagnosis? 1. SLE 2. Steven Johnson’s syndrome 3. Porphyria cutanea tarda 4. Lichen planus 5. Superficial pyoderma Q:29
31. What is the diagnosis? 1. Psoriatic arthropathy 2. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy 3. Osteoarthritis 4. Gout 5. Rheumatoid arthritis Q:30
32. MRCP April 2009 A caregiver of 30 year old destitute noticed discolouration of nail recently. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1. Subungual hematoma 2. Subungual melanoma 3. onycholysis 4. Thimble pitting 5. Yellow nail syndrome Q:31
33. This patient had left knee pain. What is the diagnosis? 1. Acanthosis nigricans 2. Erythema ab igne 3. Lymphangitis 4. Mycosis fungoides 5. Livedo reticularis Q:32
34. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1. Amyloidosis 2. Celiac disease 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Kawasaki disease 5. Type 2 diabetes Q:33
35. MRCP APRIL 2009 A 40 year old man presented with past history acute severe chest one year back for which he did not take any medical treatment.The ECG done now is shown in the picture.What is the diagnosis? 1. Acute anterior MI 2. HOCM 3. Old inferior wall MI 4. Lateral wall MI 5. Unstable angina Q:34
36. Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for this finding? 1. Amiodarone 2. Cinacalcet 3. Lithium 4. Palifermin 5. Trastuzumab Q:35
37. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:1 2. Dermatomyositis Dilated and tortuous blood vessels with areas of atrophy, telangiectases, and bushy loop formation along the fingernail bed are most consistent with dermatomyositis. Periungual telangiectases also occur in patients with scleroderma and systemic lupus erythematosus.
38. Answer: What term is used to describe this finding? Q:2 4. Coloboma Colobomas are the result of abnormal closure of the optic fissure. They may occur anywhere along the optic fissure and can affect the iris, choroid, or macula. Isolated iris colobomas are asymptomatic, but those involving the macula or the optic disk can result in severe visual impairment. Typical iris colobomas occur in the inferonasal quadrant.
39. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:3 5. Substernal goiter The chest radiograph demonstrates tracheal deviation. Ultrasonography of the neck revealed a large goiter with the right lobe extending into the anterior superior mediastinum.
40. Answer: Which one of the following conditions is the most likely to be responsible for this clinical picture? Q:4 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection Green nails, a form of chromonychia, may be caused by bacterial infection with P. aeruginosa. This syndrome is typically seen in patients with nail disease such as onycholysis, onychotillomania, or paronychia, particularly in those whose abnormal nails have been exposed to moist environments. The green color is caused by the fluorescent siderophore pyoverdin, produced by P. aeruginosa.
41. Answer: Serum levels of which one of the following laboratory tests would be expected to be most abnormal in this patient? Q:5 2. Angiotensin-converting enzyme Lupus pernio is a manifestation of sarcoidosis that involves the nasal bridge and cheeks. Serum levels of the angiotensin-converting enzyme are elevated in the majority of patients with untreated sarcoidosis.
42. Answer: What clinical presentation would be expected in this patient? Q:6 4. Quadriplegia The most common presentation of a pontine hemorrhage is quadriplegia. Small, reactive pupils are characteristic of pontine hemorrhages. Hemiparesis would be expected if the hemorrhage were asymmetrical. Hypothermia is unusual. Upward gaze palsy occurs with midbrain involvement.
43. Answer: This 22-year-old man presented with a 1-month history of severe pubic itch that was worst at night. What is the most appropriate topical treatment? Q:7 4. Permethrin The visible nits are consistent with pubic pediculosis. The recommended treatments include permethrin or pyrethrin lotions. Alternative regimens to treat lice include topical malathion or oral ivermectin. Patients with pediculosis pubis should be evaluated for other sexually transmitted diseases.
44. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:8 4. Nummular eczema The image illustrates discoid (nummular) eczema in an infant. This pattern of eczema is frequently associated with atopic dermatitis and is often confused with ringworm infection.
45. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:9 1. Epidural hematoma Computed tomogram shows a 2.5-cm epidural hematoma in the left parietal region with mass effect, effacement, and left-to-right midline shift. Epidural hematomas have a lens-shaped appearance. Subdural hematomas are typically sickle-shaped.
46. Answer: This patient presented following a high-speed motor vehicle crash. Which structure has been disrupted? Q:10 2. Diaphragm The elevated right hemidiaphragm suggests traumatic diaphragmatic rupture. The other listed structures appear to be intact. A computed tomographic scan confirmed the diaphragmatic rupture and showed that the dome of the liver had herniated into the right hemithorax.
47. Answer: Which one of the following biochemical measures would be most likely to be elevated in this patient? Q:11 1. Alkaline phosphatase The patient has genu varum and enlarged wrists consistent with nutritional rickets. Alkaline phosphatase usually is increased markedly over the age-specific reference range in rickets. Serum phosphorus and vitamin D concentrations are usually low; serum calcium concentration is decreased only in hypocalcemic rickets. Ferritin is not usually elevated in these patients.
48. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:12 4. Chondrocalcinosis The radiograph reveals chondrocalcinosis in the knee outlining the articular cartilage and especially the lateral meniscus. Chondrocalcinosis is the presence of linear, stippled calcification in joint cartilage. It is often found in association with pseudogout.
49. Answer: What endocrine diagnosis is affecting the identical twin on the right side of the image? Q:13 4. Hypogonadism The man on the right has evidence of central adiposity, preservation of scalp hair, loss of body hair, and gynecomastia compared to his identical brother. These findings are most suggestive of hypogonadism. This patient was diagnosed with a pituicytoma.
50. Answer: This patient recently returned from Brazil. What is the diagnosis? Q:14 5. Tungiasis Tungiasis is an ectoparasitosis in which the fertilized female sand flea (Tunga penetrans) burrows into the skin, with a predilection for periungual regions. The diagnosis is suggested by the appearance of small white eggs on the skin. The dead adult sand flea and additional eggs appeared with the application of lateral pressure and was fully excised. The parasite is endemic in tropical Africa and South America, as well as in subtropical regions of Asia.
51. Answer: This patient with chronic alcoholism presented with dysarthria and horizontal nystagmus. What is the diagnosis? Q:15 2. Central pontine myelinolysis The brain MRI reveals central pontine myelinolysis with a well-defined lesion in the pons of low T1-signal intensity, with sparing of the ventral lateral and cortical spinal tracts and no space-occupying effect or distortion of the adjacent fourth ventricle. Central pontine myelinolysis is a noninflammatory, demyelinating condition that was originally described in those with chronic alcoholism.
52. Answer: What diagnosis is suggested by this barium swallow? Q:16 3. Diffuse esophageal spasm Radiographs of the esophagus that were performed with the use of barium contrast material showed a spiral formation of the barium column up to the cervical esophagus, most consistent with diffuse esophageal spasm.
53. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:17 4. Ocular myiasis These linear and arcuate disturbances in the retina, which were most striking in the macula are most consistent with ocular myiasis. Angioid streaks and the retinal changes of pseudoxanthoma elasticum tend to originate near the papilla and radiate in a ringlike fashion.
54. Answer: This man had cervical adenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis? Q:18 4. Lymphoma Binocular proptosis with conjunctival injection and chemosis along with multiple enlarged cervical lymph nodes suggests a diagnosis of lymphoma. In this patient, the proptosis resolved following treatment with combination chemotherapy.
55. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:19 5. Psoriasis Nail involvement is frequent in patients with psoriasis, and mild cases are characterized by small pits and yellowish discoloration of the nail plate.
56. Answer: What diagnosis is suggested by this corneal photograph? Q:20 4. Herpes simplex virus infection A dendritic ulcer is indicative of herpes simplex virus infection.
57. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:21 3. Keratoacanthoma Keratoacanthoma is typically a benign crateriform neoplasm that often involutes spontaneously after a few months of rapid growth. It is important to differentiate keratoacanthoma from squamous-cell carcinoma.
58. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:22 4. Pneumopericardium The chest radiograph shows pneumopericardium without evidence of pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum. This patient had a perforating esophageal ulcer. The radiograph is not consistent with the other listed diagnoses.
59. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:23 5. Tuberous sclerosis Periungual fibromas such as those in the image are typical in adults with tuberous sclerosis. This patient had tuberous sclerosis.
60. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:24 4. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis The chest radiograph reveals bilateral reticular infiltrates. There is subpleural and lower-lobe predominance, consistent with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
61. Answer: What is the most likely diagnosis? Q:25 4. Neuroblastoma The image shows bilateral periorbital ecchymosis with dysconjugate gaze; the sclera appear normal. The "raccoon eyes" appearance is characteristically associated with neuroblastoma metastases to the skull. The appearance is not consistent with the other choices.
62. Answer: A 20 year old boy whose younger brother died suddenly last year requested for the ECG(shown above).What is the diagnosis Q:26 3.Brugadas syndrome Characterized by a coved-type ST-segment elevation in the right precordial leads
63. Answer: What is the definite investigation of choice in this patient ? Q:27 2. Muscle biopsy
64. Answer: What is the most likely diagnosis? Q:28 3. Mucus plug The image shows classical left middle lobe collapse caused by mucus plugging.
65. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:29 3. Porphyria cutanea tarda Typical cutaneous lesions in a patient with porphyria cutanea tarda. Chronic, crusted lesions resulting from blistering due to photosensitivity are on the dorsum of the hand of a PCT patient.
66. Answer: What is the diagnosis? Q:30 3. Osteoarthritis Examination of this patient's right hand reveals typical changes of osteoarthritis, with both Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes in association with irregular deformities.
67. Answer: A caregiver of 30 year old destitute noticed discolouration of nail recently. What is the most likely diagnosis? Q:31 1. Subungual hematoma
68. Answer: This patient had left knee pain. What is the diagnosis? Q:32 2. Erythema ab igne This reticular, reddish-brown, pruritic, nontender, macular, nonblanching discoloration around the medial aspect of the left knee, with a few superficial erosions, is most consistent with erythema ab igne. This patient had repeatedly applied a heating pad to his left knee in the preceding weeks to relieve discomfort from osteoarthritis.
69. Answer: What is the most likely diagnosis? Q:33 2. Celiac disease Atrophic glossitis is a typical manifestation of celiac disease.
70. Answer: Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for this finding? Q:34 3. Old inferior wall MI Old inferior wall infarction as evidenced by pathological Q waves in inferior leads (II, III and aVf). .
71. Answer: Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for this finding? Q:35 4. Palifermin Palifermin, a recombinant keratinocyte growth factor, is used for the prevention of oral mucosal injury induced by cytotoxic therapy in patients undergoing hematopoietic stem-cell transplantation. Palifermin stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of epithelial cells. The white tongue is commonly observed in patients treated with palifermin and most likely reflects transient, protective mucosal thickening.