1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It details that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates only need to answer 50.
2. The instructions emphasize verifying the exam booklet upon receiving it to check for issues like missing pages or questions. Candidates are told to raise any issues within 5 minutes to receive a replacement.
3. Candidates are to mark their answers on the provided answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question instead of writing anywhere else, and are warned that writing anywhere identifying like their name will disqualify them.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates must answer only 50. It describes how the exam booklet and answer sheet work and provides various rules for candidates to follow during the exam, such as filling in responses on the answer sheet, not writing anything else on the answer sheet, and raising your hand if you have any issues.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions within the allotted time.
2. Candidates are to darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to their chosen alternative (A, B, C or D) for each question. They are also instructed to fill details on the answer sheet like roll number and test booklet code for evaluation.
3. The instructions provide guidance on receiving and verifying the question paper booklet, handling multiple answers, doing rough work, and completing the exam within the specified time and as per guidelines.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam containing 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, with the first 50 attempted being evaluated.
2. At the start of the exam, candidates have 5 minutes to verify the question booklet matches the cover details. They must fill in identification details on the answer sheet and question booklet.
3. The exam consists of multiple choice questions with options A, B, C or D. Candidates must darken the correct answer oval on the answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions over 24 pages. It instructs students to write their roll number on the paper and check that their question booklet is intact and in order. Students must fill in their assigned identification number and use a provided answer sheet to select only one answer for each question by darkening the corresponding circle. They are advised to follow the given instructions carefully and not write any identifying marks besides the spaces provided.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It details that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates only need to answer 50.
2. The instructions emphasize verifying the exam booklet upon receiving it to check for issues like missing pages or questions. Candidates are told to raise any issues within 5 minutes to receive a replacement.
3. Candidates are to mark their answers on the provided answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question instead of writing anywhere else, and are warned that writing anywhere identifying like their name will disqualify them.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates must answer only 50. It describes how the exam booklet and answer sheet work and provides various rules for candidates to follow during the exam, such as filling in responses on the answer sheet, not writing anything else on the answer sheet, and raising your hand if you have any issues.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions within the allotted time.
2. Candidates are to darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to their chosen alternative (A, B, C or D) for each question. They are also instructed to fill details on the answer sheet like roll number and test booklet code for evaluation.
3. The instructions provide guidance on receiving and verifying the question paper booklet, handling multiple answers, doing rough work, and completing the exam within the specified time and as per guidelines.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam containing 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, with the first 50 attempted being evaluated.
2. At the start of the exam, candidates have 5 minutes to verify the question booklet matches the cover details. They must fill in identification details on the answer sheet and question booklet.
3. The exam consists of multiple choice questions with options A, B, C or D. Candidates must darken the correct answer oval on the answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions over 24 pages. It instructs students to write their roll number on the paper and check that their question booklet is intact and in order. Students must fill in their assigned identification number and use a provided answer sheet to select only one answer for each question by darkening the corresponding circle. They are advised to follow the given instructions carefully and not write any identifying marks besides the spaces provided.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, and only the first 50 attempted will be graded.
2. Examinees have 5 minutes to verify the test booklet is not damaged or missing pages before starting. They must fill in test booklet and OMR sheet codes for matching.
3. Instructions provide details on selecting answers, handling the OMR sheet, writing in the test booklet, and general exam policies like starting and ending on time.
1. What organizational and supervisory steps can you take to encourage original thinking on the part of your library staff?
Decentralize decision making and delegate more authority to encourage original thinking. Also loosen departmental lines and jurisdiction to increase interdepartmental contact and communication.
2. How can decentralization of decision making encourage original thinking?
By increasing feedback from all levels and peer recognition, which will enhance the sense of purpose for staff and may lead to innovative ideas even if original thinking does not directly increase.
3. What effect can interdepartmental communication have?
It can produce innovative ideas. Greater communication provides a slightly stressful situation which stimulates creative thinking. It creates situations to generate new ideas for tasks or problems
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a computer science and applications exam. It details procedures for receiving and verifying the exam booklet, how to indicate answers in the answer sheet, exam rules, and provides other important details to guide candidates through the exam process. It is an exam instruction sheet that outlines expectations and protocols for a standardized test.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam with 50 questions.
2. Examinees will be given a question booklet to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page within 5 minutes or get a replacement.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR answer sheet provided in the booklet. The test booklet number should also be entered on the answer sheet.
4. Questions have 4 options labelled A, B, C or D. Only the correct response should be darkened on the OMR sheet.
5. Rough work should be done on the inside pages and exam materials must be returned after the exam. Calculators are not permitted.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions. It details that students should fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. It explains that each question will have 4 answer options (A, B, C, D) and students should fill the oval of the correct response on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions on rough work, use of calculators, and that there are no negative marks for incorrect answers. The document concludes by stating the number of pages and questions in the question booklet.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It begins with spaces to fill in the invigilators' signatures and details of the candidate's roll number and test booklet number.
The instructions state that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be completed in 1.25 hours. Candidates are asked to verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. They should not accept faulty booklets and must enter the test booklet number on their OMR answer sheet.
Each question has four answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should darken the oval for the correct response on their common OMR answer sheet. They are advised to follow the instructions carefully and do any
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that candidates should write their roll number on the exam paper. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates will be given the question booklet at the start of the exam and instructed to verify the number of pages and questions. They must fill in their OMR sheet number on the booklet. Each question has 4 answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. Answers should only be marked on the OMR sheet. The exam is out of 100 marks and lasts 1 hour and 15 minutes.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, and only the first 50 attempted will be graded.
2. Examinees have 5 minutes to verify the test booklet is not damaged or missing pages before starting. They must fill in test booklet and OMR sheet codes for matching.
3. Instructions provide details on selecting answers, handling the OMR sheet, writing in the test booklet, and general exam policies like starting and ending on time.
1. What organizational and supervisory steps can you take to encourage original thinking on the part of your library staff?
Decentralize decision making and delegate more authority to encourage original thinking. Also loosen departmental lines and jurisdiction to increase interdepartmental contact and communication.
2. How can decentralization of decision making encourage original thinking?
By increasing feedback from all levels and peer recognition, which will enhance the sense of purpose for staff and may lead to innovative ideas even if original thinking does not directly increase.
3. What effect can interdepartmental communication have?
It can produce innovative ideas. Greater communication provides a slightly stressful situation which stimulates creative thinking. It creates situations to generate new ideas for tasks or problems
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a computer science and applications exam. It details procedures for receiving and verifying the exam booklet, how to indicate answers in the answer sheet, exam rules, and provides other important details to guide candidates through the exam process. It is an exam instruction sheet that outlines expectations and protocols for a standardized test.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam with 50 questions.
2. Examinees will be given a question booklet to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page within 5 minutes or get a replacement.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR answer sheet provided in the booklet. The test booklet number should also be entered on the answer sheet.
4. Questions have 4 options labelled A, B, C or D. Only the correct response should be darkened on the OMR sheet.
5. Rough work should be done on the inside pages and exam materials must be returned after the exam. Calculators are not permitted.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions. It details that students should fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. It explains that each question will have 4 answer options (A, B, C, D) and students should fill the oval of the correct response on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions on rough work, use of calculators, and that there are no negative marks for incorrect answers. The document concludes by stating the number of pages and questions in the question booklet.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It begins with spaces to fill in the invigilators' signatures and details of the candidate's roll number and test booklet number.
The instructions state that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be completed in 1.25 hours. Candidates are asked to verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. They should not accept faulty booklets and must enter the test booklet number on their OMR answer sheet.
Each question has four answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should darken the oval for the correct response on their common OMR answer sheet. They are advised to follow the instructions carefully and do any
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that candidates should write their roll number on the exam paper. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates will be given the question booklet at the start of the exam and instructed to verify the number of pages and questions. They must fill in their OMR sheet number on the booklet. Each question has 4 answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. Answers should only be marked on the OMR sheet. The exam is out of 100 marks and lasts 1 hour and 15 minutes.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there will be 75 questions and candidates have 2.5 hours to complete the exam.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number on the exam booklet. They should verify the number of pages and questions before starting.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet using a blue or black pen. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions over 12 pages.
2. Students must fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. They are instructed to carefully examine the question booklet for issues like missing pages or questions and to notify invigilators if problems are found.
3. Students must mark their answers on the OMR sheet provided. Using other areas could result in the answers not being evaluated. They are warned that writing identifying information could result in disqualification.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam for Computer Science and Applications. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions to be completed within 1 1/4 hours. It provides instructions on filling out identification details, how to check that the exam paper is correct, how to fill in answers on the answer sheet, and other rules around conduct including no calculators allowed.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number, verify that their question booklet is correct, and fill in their OMR sheet number. It describes how to mark answers in the OMR sheet and provides other exam rules like doing rough work in the designated area and not discussing exam content after leaving.
This document provides an introduction to computer networking concepts for students. It discusses the basic components of a network, including cables, switches, routers and wireless access points. It explains the differences between peer-to-peer and client-server network configurations. Advantages of networking for schools include faster sharing of files and resources, lower costs through shared software licenses, and easier collaboration between students and teachers. Some considerations for setting up a wireless network are also outlined.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their answer choice. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid disqualification.
The La Franci Hotel focuses on providing luxurious, elegant, and formal service with precise standards and specifications for treating customers. Employees receive thorough training and are committed to serving guests like royalty, as reflected in their motto "We are Ladies and Gentlemen serving Ladies and Gentlemen." The hotel's culture emphasizes innovation, attention to detail, outstanding customer service, training employees as individuals and in groups, and creating a stable environment for guests.
This document outlines the topics covered in the CS958 Wireless Security course, including an introduction to wireless technologies and standards, common wireless threats such as eavesdropping and denial of service attacks, security considerations for different wireless networks and protocols, and Bluetooth security architecture and threats. Specific areas covered are WEP, wireless standards, CDPD, GPRS, GSM, SSL, WTLS, WAP security, and Bluetooth baseband security. References for further reading are also provided.
This document outlines a course on vehicular ad hoc networks (VANETs). The course contains 5 units that cover topics such as traffic monitoring applications, models for vehicle movement and traffic flow, networking issues like routing protocols, delay-tolerant networking approaches, and localization techniques. Recommended textbooks and reference books on VANETs and wireless ad hoc networks are also provided.
This document outlines the contents of a course on ad hoc networks. The course is divided into 5 units that cover: 1) fundamentals of wireless communication and ad hoc network introduction, 2) ad hoc routing protocols, 3) multicast routing in ad hoc networks, 4) transport layer and security protocols for ad hoc networks, and 5) quality of service and energy management in ad hoc networks. Each unit discusses key issues, classifications, and examples of protocols and solutions for the various aspects of building and managing ad hoc networks.
The project aims to provide video lecture classes through DVDs to poor and rural students in India to improve access to education and reduce gaps between rich and poor. It will record lectures from the best teachers in various subjects and distribute the DVDs to schools and students in underdeveloped regions for free. Initially, the project will focus on subjects like English, math, science, and computers in two districts in India and hopes to expand nationwide by 2020. The DVD lessons are intended to help students prepare for important exams by bringing high-quality teaching resources to remote areas that lack access to coaching and teachers.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the question paper contains 50 multiple choice questions with 4 answer options each. It provides details on how to fill the answer sheet and instructions that candidates must follow during the exam.
2. Key points mentioned include writing the roll number on the question paper, indicating answers on the OMR answer sheet within the allotted time, not writing anything else on the test booklet except in the designated space, and returning the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3. The document also specifies the number of pages in the question booklet, that blue or black ballpoint pen should be used, calculators and
How to Fix the Import Error in the Odoo 17Celine George
An import error occurs when a program fails to import a module or library, disrupting its execution. In languages like Python, this issue arises when the specified module cannot be found or accessed, hindering the program's functionality. Resolving import errors is crucial for maintaining smooth software operation and uninterrupted development processes.
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRMCeline George
Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
it describes the bony anatomy including the femoral head , acetabulum, labrum . also discusses the capsule , ligaments . muscle that act on the hip joint and the range of motion are outlined. factors affecting hip joint stability and weight transmission through the joint are summarized.
How to Build a Module in Odoo 17 Using the Scaffold MethodCeline George
Odoo provides an option for creating a module by using a single line command. By using this command the user can make a whole structure of a module. It is very easy for a beginner to make a module. There is no need to make each file manually. This slide will show how to create a module using the scaffold method.
This presentation includes basic of PCOS their pathology and treatment and also Ayurveda correlation of PCOS and Ayurvedic line of treatment mentioned in classics.
A workshop hosted by the South African Journal of Science aimed at postgraduate students and early career researchers with little or no experience in writing and publishing journal articles.
Thinking of getting a dog? Be aware that breeds like Pit Bulls, Rottweilers, and German Shepherds can be loyal and dangerous. Proper training and socialization are crucial to preventing aggressive behaviors. Ensure safety by understanding their needs and always supervising interactions. Stay safe, and enjoy your furry friends!
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BÀI TẬP BỔ TRỢ TIẾNG ANH 8 CẢ NĂM - GLOBAL SUCCESS - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 (CÓ FI...
UGC NET - DEC-2009- PAPER-I-SET-W
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render
yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. Negative Marking :- For each incorrect answer 0.5 marks
shall be deducted.
W-00 P.T.O.
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : .........................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In words)
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.____________________________
D-0009
PAPER-I
Test Booklet No.
[Maximum Marks : 100Time : 1 1
/4
hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖëêú×»Ö‹×Ö¤ìü¿Ö
(In figures as per admission card)
A B C D
A B C D
W
UGC-NET -DEC-2009
3. W-00 3 P.T.O.
Paper – I
¯ÖÏ¿−Ö-¯Ö¡Ö – I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than 50 questions are attempted, only the first 50 questions will be
evaluated.
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1. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own
channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively
with the classroom teaching ?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3 (B) 2 & 3 (C) 2, 3 & 4 (D) 2 & 4
3. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India ?
(A) NAAC and UGC (B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE (D) NCTE and IGNOU
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¤ü¿ÖÖÔŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ˆÃ´ÖÖ×−ÖµÖÖ µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß (B) µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß †Öò±ú ¯ÖæÖê
(C) †−−ÖÖ´Ö»ÖÖ‡ µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß (D) ‡Óפü¸üÖ ÖÖѬÖß −Öê¿Ö−Ö»Ö †Öê¯Ö−Ö µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß (‡−ÖÖê)
2. ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖß úÖµÖÔãú¿Ö»ÖŸÖÖ Æîü •ÖÖê †Ö•Ö êú †¬µÖÖ¯Öú êú ×»Ö‹ úÖÖ-†¬µÖÖ¯Ö−Ö ´Öë ÃÖ´ÖÖµÖÖê•Ö−Ö ú¸ü−Öê ´Öë
¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Ö¿ÖÖ»Öß ×ÃÖ¨ü ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü ?
1. ¯ÖÏÖîªÖê×Öúß úÖ –ÖÖ−Ö
2. †¬µÖÖ¯Ö−Ö †×¬ÖÖ´Ö ´Öë ¯ÖÏÖîªÖê×Öúß úÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÖ
3. ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë úß †Ö¾Ö¿µÖúŸÖÖ†Öë úÖ –ÖÖ−Ö
4. ×¾ÖÂÖµÖ ¯Ö¸ü †×¬ÖúÖ¸ü
(A) 1 †Öî¸ü 3 (B) 2 †Öî¸ü 3 (C) 2, 3 †Öî¸ü 4 (D) 2 †Öî¸ü 4
3. ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×úÃÖ−Öê ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ úß †¬µÖÖ¯Öú ׿ÖÖÖ ÃÖÓãÖÖ−ÖÖë ÃÖê †×¬ÖþÖßéú×ŸÖ êú ×»Ö‹ ÃÖ´Ö—ÖÖîŸÖÖ-¯Ö¡Ö ¯Ö¸ü ÆüßÖÖÖ¸ü
×úµÖê Æïü ?
(A) ‹−Ö.‹.‹.ÃÖß. †Öî¸ü µÖæ.•Öß.ÃÖß. (B) ‹−Ö.ÃÖß.™üß.‡Ô. †Öî¸ü ‹−Ö.‹.‹.ÃÖß.
(C) µÖæ.•Öß.ÃÖß. †Öî¸ü ‹−Ö.ÃÖß.™üß.‡Ô. (D) ‹−Ö.ÃÖß.™üß.‡Ô. †Öî¸ü †Ö‡Ô.•Öß.‹−Ö.†Öê.µÖæ. (‡−ÖÖê)
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
4. W-00 4
4. The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
5. Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher ?
(A) Idealist philosophy (B) Compassion
(C) Discipline (D) Entertaining
7. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
8. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research (B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research (D) Content analysis
9. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation (B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling (D) Content Analysis
11. Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research (B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research (D) Experimental research
12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and
intelligence ?
(A) 1.00 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.3
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
6. W-00 6
Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18 :
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the
autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing
Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very
foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the
20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial
no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red
Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and
a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai,
Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his
barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide
protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom
been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say,
sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A
journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that
‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of
the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that
Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became
extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January
the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had
been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.
13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage ?
(A) Wavell’s Journal (B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials (D) Red Fort Prisoners
14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
15. I.N.A. stands for
(A) Indian National Assembly (B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association (D) Indian National Army
16. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest
and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across
communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom ?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were
the
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs (D) Hindus and Muslims both
18. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore
indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
8. W-00 8
19. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers
in the world is
(A) Great Britain (B) The United States
(C) Japan (D) China
20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
21. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication ?
(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C) Information is power.
(D) Telepathy is technological.
22. Communication becomes circular when
(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008
was
(A) Orkut (B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com (D) Twitter
24. Assertion (A) : For an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to
use the projection technology.
Reason (R) : Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of
course contents.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
25. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996 ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
ANSWERV
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
10. W-00 10
26. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage
error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be
(A) 74 (B) 75
(C) 76 (D) None of the above
28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be
answered in
(A) 20 ways (B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways (D) 1024 ways
29. What will be the next term in the following ?
DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO (B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ (D) LMRS
30. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They used
it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y ?
(A) Rs. 290 (B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360 (D) Rs. 440
31. Deductive argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence (B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations (D) repeated observation
32. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature (B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature (D) laws of nature
33. To be critical, thinking must be
(A) practical (B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying (D) analytical
34. Which of the following is an analogous statement ?
(A) Man is like God
(B) God is great
(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being.
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12. W-00 12
Questions from 35 - 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three
intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian Express and T
representing The Times of India. A total of 50 persons were surveyed and the number in the
Venn diagram indicates the number of persons reading the newspapers.
35. How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers ?
(A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 29
36. How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers ?
(A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 48
37. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic) behaviour of the
variable f(t) ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
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14. W-00 14
Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40 :
38. In which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y was the
maximum ?
(A) 2003 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
39. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two hospitals in a
year ?
(A) 8000 (B) 6000
(C) 4000 (D) 2000
40. In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in hospital X ?
(A) 2003 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
No. of
Patients
Registered
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16. W-00 16
[For Blind Students Only]
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 35 to 40 :
London’s phenomenal growth was probably at its fastest in the sixteenth century,
a period when the population was growing everywhere. Many people were attracted to
the rapidly growing port, which handled upto 90% of total English foreign trade and
gave rise to a wide range of ancillary industries. Other sectors provided goods and
services for the court, which now settled permanently in the capital, and for the
growing numbers of the rich and ambitious who were attracted by court’s presence.
This concentration of the wealthy made London a great leisure centre and the main
purveyor of professional services, especially in medicine and law. Population growth
now tended to become cumulative. More people needed even more people to provide
them with goods and services that they required to survive in a large city. London was
always an unhealthy place and mortality rates were much higher than elsewhere in the
country, sometime rising to catastrophic heights, as in the terrible plagues of 1603,
1625 and 1665, the last of which killed 80,000 people, 1/6th
of the total population of
the city. Such high death rates coupled with rather low fertility, meant that London
could never grow by its own natural increase. In the century after 1650, when London
continued to grow but the English population remained fairly stable, immigration to the
city drained the countryside of people and gave London its highest-yet population. It
has probably then, in the early eighteenth century London of Defoe and Hogarth, that
the city also had its greatest significance as a school centre and a school of manners and
ideas for the rest of the country.
35. London’s rate of population increase was at its greatest in the seventeenth century
because
(A) Its death rate was the highest in Britain at that time
(B) It was a time when the population growth was declining everywhere
(C) Migrants were drawn to London because of the vast increase in trading
(D) Its high rate of mortality was offset by a low birthrate
36. In comparison to the rest of the country, the population decline in London in the
seventeenth century was as a result of
(A) frequent outbreaks of plague
(B) low rate of fertility
(C) immigration to other parts of the country
(D) movement of people to other countries
18. W-00 18
37. After 1600 A.D., the demography of London was characterised by
(A) high deathrates and birthrates
(B) three major outbreaks of disease, the last of which was responsible for the death
of over 80,000 people
(C) a rise in population through natural growth
(D) population stability
38. Examples of the economic hegemony of London in the seventeenth century include
(A) the movement of the Court permanently to the capital
(B) 9/10th
of England’s overseas trade passing through its docks
(C) a large variety of secondary industries growing up around the port of London.
(D) London becoming England’s major intellectual and cultural centre at the time of
Defoe and Hogarth.
39. Which one of the following was not the cause of high rate of death among the people of
London ?
(A) Increasing low fertility among people
(B) Absence of diseases
(C) Family planning regulations of the State
(D) Migration of population
40. What made London a great leisure centre ?
(A) Growth of ancillary industries.
(B) Concentration of wealth among people who were earlier poor.
(C) Increased rate of mortality.
(D) Due to increase in immigrant population.
41. Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data collection ?
(A) Census of India (B) National Sample Survey
(C) Statistical Abstracts of India (D) National Family Health Survey
42. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion ?
(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1 1 0 –1 –2
(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 –2 –8
43. Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet ?
(A) Data Encryption (B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding (D) Information Retrieval
44. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following ?
(A) Terabyte (B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte
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20. W-00 20
45. bit stands for
(A) binary information term (B) binary digit
(C) binary tree (D) Bivariate Theory
46. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure ?
(A) Array (B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue (D) Stack
47. Which one of the following is not a network device ?
(A) Router (B) Switch
(C) Hub (D) CPU
48. A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be executed
(A) High-level language (B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language (D) Natural language
49. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan (B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast (D) Delta regions
50. The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of
which mountain peak ?
(A) Kanchenjunga (B) Mount Everest
(C) Annapurna (D) Dhaulavira
51. Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
52. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most
economically ?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
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22. W-00 22
55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of
1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public
institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall
be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric ?
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
58. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of
Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while
considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
60. Assertion (A) : The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve
the quality of teachers.
Reason (R) : University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and
refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
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