This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
The document discusses the electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG), including its history, the mechanisms behind cellular action potentials and their spread, how depolarization and repolarization waves are recorded, vector analysis, limb and precordial leads, relationships between electrical and mechanical events, types of cardiac arrhythmias like bradyarrhythmias and tachyarrhythmias, examples of different arrhythmias on ECG tracings, and tachycardia circuits.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
The document discusses the important role of the geosphere, or solid earth, in supporting plant growth and food production through soil. It describes the physical nature and composition of soil, as well as the key factors that influence soil quality like organic matter, water, and nutrients. Modern agricultural practices have increased food yields but also caused environmental damage that green chemistry aims to address through more sustainable approaches.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering techniques. This document discusses GMO crops, including their development process involving transgene construction, plant transformation, event selection, and commercialization. It also covers some key issues related to GMOs regarding food safety, environmental impacts, global trade, and corporate control of agriculture.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
This document provides information on medical applications of electrocardiograms (ECGs). It defines common ECG terms like electrocardiogram, holter monitor, and defibrillation. It then discusses ECG markets, waveform characteristics, patient skin characteristics, signal chains, and examples of diagnostic ECGs, holter monitors, AEDs, and exercise heart rate monitors.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their answer choice. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document provides an overview of electrocardiography (EKG/ECG) including the normal conduction system, common pathologies identified by EKGs, waveforms and intervals, the 12-lead system, and methods for determining heart rate and QRS axis. It describes the standard limb leads, augmented limb leads, and precordial leads. It outlines the rule of 300 and 10-second rule for calculating heart rate from EKGs. It also explains the quadrant and equiphasic approaches for determining QRS axis.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
The document discusses the electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG), including its history, the mechanisms behind cellular action potentials and their spread, how depolarization and repolarization waves are recorded, vector analysis, limb and precordial leads, relationships between electrical and mechanical events, types of cardiac arrhythmias like bradyarrhythmias and tachyarrhythmias, examples of different arrhythmias on ECG tracings, and tachycardia circuits.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
The document discusses the important role of the geosphere, or solid earth, in supporting plant growth and food production through soil. It describes the physical nature and composition of soil, as well as the key factors that influence soil quality like organic matter, water, and nutrients. Modern agricultural practices have increased food yields but also caused environmental damage that green chemistry aims to address through more sustainable approaches.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering techniques. This document discusses GMO crops, including their development process involving transgene construction, plant transformation, event selection, and commercialization. It also covers some key issues related to GMOs regarding food safety, environmental impacts, global trade, and corporate control of agriculture.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
This document provides information on medical applications of electrocardiograms (ECGs). It defines common ECG terms like electrocardiogram, holter monitor, and defibrillation. It then discusses ECG markets, waveform characteristics, patient skin characteristics, signal chains, and examples of diagnostic ECGs, holter monitors, AEDs, and exercise heart rate monitors.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their answer choice. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document provides an overview of electrocardiography (EKG/ECG) including the normal conduction system, common pathologies identified by EKGs, waveforms and intervals, the 12-lead system, and methods for determining heart rate and QRS axis. It describes the standard limb leads, augmented limb leads, and precordial leads. It outlines the rule of 300 and 10-second rule for calculating heart rate from EKGs. It also explains the quadrant and equiphasic approaches for determining QRS axis.
This document summarizes key aspects of cardiac electrophysiology and electrocardiography. It discusses the electrical properties and functions of different cardiac tissues, the roles of the sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and Purkinje fibers as pacemakers. It also describes the components of an electrocardiogram and how it provides information about heart rate, rhythm, and tissue health. Common conduction abnormalities and arrhythmias are outlined as well.
The document provides an overview of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) including what constitutes a GMO, procedures that do not result in GMOs, key duties regarding contained use of GMOs, risks associated with GMOs, classification of GMOs, and what to do in the event of a spill in a containment level 2 laboratory. It defines GMOs and discusses bacterial expression systems used to produce proteins of interest from gene inserts. It also outlines the risk assessment approach and regulations for working with GMOs.
A 68-year-old woman was brought to the emergency room after feeling weak and dizzy and passing out. She had a history of hypertension and congestive heart failure. Her EKG showed several arrhythmias and she went into ventricular fibrillation despite treatment efforts. Her irregular heart rate and EKG patterns indicated two types of arrhythmias: one with an irregular rhythm and one with a disrupted heartbeat.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document provides instructions for a social work exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates are given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions specify that candidates should verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions within the first 5 minutes. They also specify that candidates should fill in their test booklet number on their answer sheet and vice versa. The instructions state that each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D and that candidates should darken the oval on their answer sheet corresponding to the correct answer for each question. Finally, the instructions specify that rough work should be done at the end of the question booklet and that candidates must return both the question booklet and
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates must answer only 50. It describes how the exam booklet and answer sheet work and provides various rules for candidates to follow during the exam, such as filling in responses on the answer sheet, not writing anything else on the answer sheet, and raising your hand if you have any issues.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
A computer network connects two or more computers so they can share resources like printers and files. It can be wired or wireless. Based on geographic area, networks are classified as local area networks (LANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), or wide area networks (WANs). LANs connect computers within a building or home. MANs connect buildings within a city. WANs connect across large distances from hundreds to thousands of miles, like the Internet. They allow sharing of expensive devices, easy file/data access from different locations, and remote work. However, they require maintenance and have security/connection issues.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides a sleek design along with enterprise-level security features and durability expected of ThinkPad products.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides business features and security as well as consumer multimedia and entertainment capabilities in a thin and durable design.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C or D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing question booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid disqualification.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions and candidates have 1 1/4 hours to complete it.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is complete and not damaged or duplicated before starting the exam and to notify the invigilator if there are any issues.
How to Setup Warehouse & Location in Odoo 17 InventoryCeline George
In this slide, we'll explore how to set up warehouses and locations in Odoo 17 Inventory. This will help us manage our stock effectively, track inventory levels, and streamline warehouse operations.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
A review of the growth of the Israel Genealogy Research Association Database Collection for the last 12 months. Our collection is now passed the 3 million mark and still growing. See which archives have contributed the most. See the different types of records we have, and which years have had records added. You can also see what we have for the future.
This presentation was provided by Steph Pollock of The American Psychological Association’s Journals Program, and Damita Snow, of The American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE), for the initial session of NISO's 2024 Training Series "DEIA in the Scholarly Landscape." Session One: 'Setting Expectations: a DEIA Primer,' was held June 6, 2024.
A workshop hosted by the South African Journal of Science aimed at postgraduate students and early career researchers with little or no experience in writing and publishing journal articles.
The simplified electron and muon model, Oscillating Spacetime: The Foundation...RitikBhardwaj56
Discover the Simplified Electron and Muon Model: A New Wave-Based Approach to Understanding Particles delves into a groundbreaking theory that presents electrons and muons as rotating soliton waves within oscillating spacetime. Geared towards students, researchers, and science buffs, this book breaks down complex ideas into simple explanations. It covers topics such as electron waves, temporal dynamics, and the implications of this model on particle physics. With clear illustrations and easy-to-follow explanations, readers will gain a new outlook on the universe's fundamental nature.
বাংলাদেশের অর্থনৈতিক সমীক্ষা ২০২৪ [Bangladesh Economic Review 2024 Bangla.pdf] কম্পিউটার , ট্যাব ও স্মার্ট ফোন ভার্সন সহ সম্পূর্ণ বাংলা ই-বুক বা pdf বই " সুচিপত্র ...বুকমার্ক মেনু 🔖 ও হাইপার লিংক মেনু 📝👆 যুক্ত ..
আমাদের সবার জন্য খুব খুব গুরুত্বপূর্ণ একটি বই ..বিসিএস, ব্যাংক, ইউনিভার্সিটি ভর্তি ও যে কোন প্রতিযোগিতা মূলক পরীক্ষার জন্য এর খুব ইম্পরট্যান্ট একটি বিষয় ...তাছাড়া বাংলাদেশের সাম্প্রতিক যে কোন ডাটা বা তথ্য এই বইতে পাবেন ...
তাই একজন নাগরিক হিসাবে এই তথ্য গুলো আপনার জানা প্রয়োজন ...।
বিসিএস ও ব্যাংক এর লিখিত পরীক্ষা ...+এছাড়া মাধ্যমিক ও উচ্চমাধ্যমিকের স্টুডেন্টদের জন্য অনেক কাজে আসবে ...
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty,
International FDP on Fundamentals of Research in Social Sciences
at Integral University, Lucknow, 06.06.2024
By Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...
UGC Paper i set-z (1)
1. PAPER-I
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.
(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J 001
Time : 1 /4 hours]
1 2
Test Booklet Code Z
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ìü¿Ö
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆü»Öê ¯Öéšü Ûêú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸üÖê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü, וִ֮Öë ÃÖê ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of ÛúÖê ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ÛúÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü®ÖÖ ÆüÖêÝÖÖ … ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ÃÖê †×¬ÖÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë ÛúÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü®Öê ¯Ö¸ü ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë ÛúÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö ×ÛúµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸ü´³Ö ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¤êü ¤üß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆü»Öê
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛúß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, וÖÃÖÛúß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê †¾Ö¿µÖ Ûú¸ü®Öß Æîü :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖÛêú Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ü »ÖÝÖß ÛúÖÝÖ•Ö
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : Ûúß ÃÖᯙ ÛúÖê ±úÖ›Ìü »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æãü‡Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™üßÛú¸ü-ÃÖᯙ Ûúß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö Ûú¸ëü …
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet (ii) Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü ”û¯Öê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú ¯Öéšü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ûúß ÃÖÓܵÖÖ ÛúÖê †“”ûß ŸÖ¸üÆü “ÖîÛú Ûú¸ü »Öë ×Ûú µÖê ¯Öæ¸êü Æïü … ¤üÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÞÖÔ
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ×•Ö®Ö´Öë ¯Öéšü/¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûú´Ö ÆüÖë µÖÖ ¤ãü²ÖÖ¸üÖ †Ö ÝÖµÖê ÆüÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß׸üµÖ»Ö
the booklet with the information printed on the cover ´Öë ®Ö ÆüÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü Ûúß ¡Öã×™ü¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing Ûú¸ëü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™üÖÛú¸ü ˆÃÖÛêú ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ¤æüÃÖ¸üß ÃÖÆüß
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖÛêú ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü פüµÖê
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ®Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
†Öî¸ü ®Ö Æüß †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê †×ŸÖ׸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤üµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ÛúÖ ÛúÖê›ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü †Ó×ÛúŸÖ
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
Ûú¸ëü †Öî¸ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ÛÎú´Ö ÃÖÓܵÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¯Ö¸ü
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
†Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü ¤ëü …
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾ÖÛú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) פüµÖê
ÝÖµÖê Æïü … †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú ¾Öé¢Ö ÛúÖê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸üÛú¸ü ÛúÖ»ÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ Æîü
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Ûú ®Öß“Öê פüÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü …
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ :
the correct response against each item.
•Ö²Ö×Ûú (C) ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Æîü …
Example : 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö I †Öî¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö II Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ‹Ûú Æüß OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Æîü •ÖÖê ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö
where (C) is the correct response. ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †®¤ü¸ü פüµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü … ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú¾Ö»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR ¯Ö¸ü Æüß †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Æïü … µÖפü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü פüµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûêú
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ ×ÛúÃÖß †®µÖ ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü דÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ŸÖêü Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. †®¤ü¸ü פüµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú ¯ÖœÌëü …
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Ûú““ÖÖ ÛúÖ´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †×®ŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü Ûú¸ëü …
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. µÖפü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûêú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸üÖê»Ö
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ®Ö´²Ö¸ü, ±úÖê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖ®Ö ÆüÖê
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space ÃÖÛêú, †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ü ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your †®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê †µÖÖêݵÖ
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ‹¾ÖÓ OMR ´Öæ»Ö ¯Ö¡ÖÛú
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Original ×®Ö¸üßõÖÛú ´ÖÆüÖê¤üµÖ ÛúÖê »ÖÖî™üÖ®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛú Æîü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü
Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü ®Ö »ÖêÛú¸ü •ÖÖµÖë … ÆüÖ»ÖÖÓ×Ûú †Ö¯Ö
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ ¯Ö¸ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ›ãü¯»ÖßÛêú™ü ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ
Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/ÛúÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯Öê®Ö ÛúÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Ûú¸ëü …
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛú (Ûîú»ÖÛãú»Öê™ü¸ü) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü ÛúÖ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ÛúÖê‡Ô †ÓÛú ÛúÖ™êü ®ÖÆüà •ÖÖ‹ÑÝÖê …
Z-00 P.T.O.
2. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Question
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Number
Question
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................
(Evaluation) Date .........................
Z-00 2
3. Paper – I
¯ÖÏ¿®Ö¯Ö¡Ö – I
Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
®ÖÖê™ : • ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯Öß Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü … ¯ÖÏŸ ÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ¤üÖê (2) †ÓÛú Æïü …
• †³ Ö£Öá ÛúÖê ÛúÖê‡Ô ³Öß ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü®Öê Æïü …
• Öפü ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ÃÖê †×¬ÖÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü פü Öê ŸÖÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æüß •ÖÖÑ“Öê •ÖÖ ÖëÝÖê …
1. Which of the following rights was 1. ›üÖò. ²Öß.†Ö¸ü. †´²Öê›üÛú¸ü ®Öê ×®Ö´®Ö †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸üÖë ´Öë ÃÖê
considered the “Heart and Soul” of the
Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R.
×ÛúÃÖê ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖß Ö ÃÖÓ×¾Ö¬ÖÖ®Ö ÛúÖ ‘Çü¤ü Ö †Öî¸ü †ÖŸ´ÖÖ’
Ambedkar ? ÛúÆüÖ £ÖÖ ?
(A) Freedom of Speech (A) †×³Ö¾ Ö׌ŸÖ Ûúß Ã¾ÖŸÖÓ¡ÖŸÖÖ
(B) Right to Equality (B) ÃÖ´ÖÖ®ÖŸÖÖ ÛúÖ †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸ü
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion (C) ¬ÖÖÙ´ÖÛú þ֟ÖÓ¡ÖŸÖÖ ÛúÖ †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸ü
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies (D) ÃÖÓ¾Öî¬ÖÖ×®ÖÛú ˆ¯Ö“ÖÖ¸üÖë ÛúÖ †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸ü
2. Who among the following created the
2. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖ®Öê ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë וֻÖÖ Ûú»Öꌙü¸ü
office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis ÛúÖ ¯Ö¤ü ÃÖé×•ÖŸÖ ×Ûú ÖÖ ?
(B) Warren Hastings (A) »ÖÖò›Ôü ÛúÖ®ÖÔ¾ÖÖ×»ÖÃÖ
(C) The Royal Commission on (B) ¾ÖÖ¸êü®Ö ÆîüØÙüÝ•Ö
Decentralisation (C) ¤ü ¸üÖò Ö»Ö Ûú´Öß¿Ö®Ö †Öò®Ö ×›üÃÖê®™Òêü»ÖÖ‡•Öê¿Ö®Ö
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe (D) ÃÖ¸ü “ÖÖ»ÃÖÔ ´Öê™üÛúÖò±ú
3. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen
include 3. ‹Ûú ®ÖÖÝÖ׸üÛú Ûêú ´Öæ»Ö Ûú¢ÖÔ¾ ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖ×´´Ö×»ÖŸÖ Æïü :
1. Respect for the Constitution, the 1. ÃÖÓ×¾Ö¬ÖÖ®Ö, ¸üÖ™Òüß Ö ¬¾Ö•Ö ¾Ö ¸üÖ™ÒüÝÖÖ®Ö ÛúÖ
National Flag and the National ÃÖ´´ÖÖ®Ö
Anthem 2. ¾Öî–ÖÖ×®ÖÛú ´Ö®Ö:×ãÖ×ŸÖ ÛúÖ ×¾ÖÛúÖÃÖ
2. To develop the scientific temper. 3. ÃÖ¸üÛúÖ¸ü Ûêú ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ ÃÖ´´ÖÖ®Ö
3. Respect for the Government. 4. ¾Ö® Ö •Öß¾ÖÖë Ûúß ¸üõÖÖ
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the
×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ Ûæú™ü ´Öë ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®Ö Öê :
codes given below : Ûæú™ü :
Codes : (A) 1, 2 ¾Ö 3
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 ¾Ö 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 ¾Ö 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 ¾Ö 2
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
4. The President of India takes oath 4. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ÛúÖ ¸üÖ™Òü¯Ö×ŸÖ ¿Ö¯Ö£Ö »ÖêŸÖÖ Æîü
(A) to uphold the sovereignty and (A) ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ Ûúß ¯ÖϳÖãÃÖ¢ÖÖ †Öî¸ü †ÜÖÞ›üŸÖÖ ÛúÖê
integrity of India. ²Ö®ÖÖ‹ ¸üÜÖ®Öê Ûúß …
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to (B) ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ Ûêú ÃÖÓ×¾Ö¬ÖÖ®Ö ´Öë ÃÖŸ Ö×®ÖšüÖ †Öî¸ü
the Constitution of India. ×¾Ö¿¾ÖÖÃÖ Ûúß …
(C) to uphold the Constitution and (C) ¤êü¿Ö Ûêú ÃÖÓ×¾Ö¬ÖÖ®Ö †Öî¸ü ÛúÖ®Öæ®Ö ÛúÖê ²Ö®ÖÖ‹
Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend ¸üÜÖ®Öê Ûúß …
the Constitution and the law of (D) ¤êü¿Ö Ûêú ÃÖÓ×¾Ö¬ÖÖ®Ö †Öî¸ü ÛúÖ®Öæ®Ö ÛúÖê ÃÖÓ¸ü×õÖŸÖ,
the country. ÃÖã¸ü×õÖŸÖ ‹¾ÖÓ ¯ÖÏןָü×õÖŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûúß …
Z-00 3 P.T.O.
4. 5. If you get an opportunity to teach a 5. Öפü †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ® Ö ×¾ÖªÖÙ£Ö ÖÖë Ûêú ÃÖÖ£Ö-ÃÖÖ£Ö
visually challenged student along with ¥ü×™üÆüß®Ö ×¾ÖªÖ£Öá ÛúÖê ¯ÖœÌüÖ®Öê ÛúÖ †¾ÖÃÖ¸ü ×´Ö»Öê, ŸÖÖê
normal students, what type of treatment †Ö¯Ö ÛúõÖÖ ´Öë ×ÛúÃÖ ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ˆÃÖÛêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ¾ Ö¾ÖÆüÖ¸ü
would you like to give him in the
class ?
Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ “ÖÖÆëüÝÖê ?
(A) Not giving extra attention because (A) †×ŸÖ׸üŒŸÖ ¬ ÖÖ®Ö ®ÖÆüà ¤êü®ÖÖ Œ ÖÖë×Ûú †×¬ÖÛúÖÓ¿Ö
majority may suffer. ÛúÖê ÆüÖ×®Ö ˆšüÖ®Öß ¯Ö›Ìü ÃÖÛúŸÖß Æîü …
(B) Take care of him sympathetically (B) ÛúõÖÖ ´Öë ÃÖÆüÖ®Öã³Öæ×ŸÖ ÃÖê ˆÃÖÛúß ¤êüÜÖ ¸êüÜÖ
in the class- room. Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(C) You will think that blindness is (C) †Ö¯Ö ÃÖÖê“ÖëÝÖê ×Ûú †®¬ÖÖ¯Ö®Ö ˆÃÖÛúÖ ³ÖÖÝ Ö Æîü
his destiny and hence you cannot †Öî¸ü ‡ÃÖ×»Ö Öê †Ö¯Ö Ûãú”û ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸ü ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü…
do anything.
(D) †ÖÝÖê Ûúß ¯ÖÓ׌ŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖß™ü Ûúß ¾ Ö¾ÖãÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row
and try to teach at a pace †Öî¸ü ˆÃÖÛêú ×»Ö Öê ÃÖã×¾Ö¬ÖÖ•Ö®ÖÛú ÝÖ×ŸÖ ÃÖê ¯ÖœÌüÖ®Öê
convenient to him. Ûúß ÛúÖê×¿Ö¿Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
6. Which of the following is not a 6. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê Œ ÖÖ ˆ¢Ö´Ö ˆ¯Ö»Öײ¬Ö ¯Ö¸üßõÖÞÖ Ûúß
characteristic of a good achievement ×¾Ö¿ÖêÂÖŸÖÖ ®ÖÆüà Æîü ?
test ?
(A) ×¾Ö¿¾ÖÃÖ®Öß ÖŸÖÖ (B) ¾ÖßÖã×®ÖšüŸÖÖ
(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity
(C) †Ã¯Ö™üŸÖÖ (D) ¾Öî¬ÖŸÖÖ
(C) Ambiguity (D) Validity
7. Which of the following does not belong 7. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê Œ ÖÖ ¯ÖÏõÖê×¯ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ´Öë ®ÖÆüà †ÖŸÖÖ
to a projected aid ? Æîü ?
(A) Overhead projector (A) †Öê¾Ö¸üÆîü›ü ¯ÖÏÖê•Öꌙü¸ü
(B) Blackboard (B) ²»ÖîÛú²ÖÖê›Ôü
(C) Epidiascope (C) ”ûÖ ÖÖ õÖê×¯Ö¡Ö (‹×¯Ö›üÖ‡ÃÛúÖê¯Ö)
(D) Slide projector
(D) ûÖÖ‡›ü ¯ÖÏÖê•Öꌙü¸ü
8. For a teacher, which of the following 8. ‹Ûú †¬ ÖÖ¯ÖÛú Ûêú ×»Ö‹, ²»ÖîÛú ²ÖÖê›Ôü ¯Ö¸ü ×»ÖÜÖ®Öê Ûêú
methods would be correct for writing on ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖß ¯Ö¨ü×ŸÖ ÃÖÆüß Æîü ?
the blackboard ?
(A) ŸÖê•Öß ÃÖê ŸÖ£ÖÖ •ÖÆüÖÑ ŸÖÛú ÃÖ´³Ö¾Ö ÆüÖê ïÖ™ü
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as
possible. ×»ÖÜÖ®ÖÖ
(B) Writing the matter first and then (B) ÃÖ¾ÖÔ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ×¾ÖÂÖ Ö¾ÖßÖã ÛúÖê ×»ÖÜÖ ¤êü®ÖÖ ŸÖ£ÖÖ
asking students to read it. ×±ú¸ü ×¾ÖªÖÙ£Ö ÖÖë ÛúÖê ˆÃÖê ¯ÖœÌü®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö Öê ÛúÆü®ÖÖ
(C) Asking a question to students and (C) ÃÖ¾ÖÔ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ×¾ÖªÖÙ£Ö ÖÖë ÃÖê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öæ”û®ÖÖ †Öî¸ü
then writing the answer as stated ×±ú¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ÛúÖê ײֻÛãú»Ö ¾ÖîÃÖê Æüß ×»ÖÜÖ®ÖÖ
by them.
(D) ´ÖãÜ Ö ²ÖÖŸÖÖë ÛúÖê •ÖÆüÖÑ ŸÖÛú ÃÖ´³Ö¾Ö ÆüÖê ïÖ™üŸÖÖ
(D) Writing the important points as ÃÖê ×»ÖÜÖ®ÖÖ
clearly as possible.
Z-00 4
5. 9. A teacher can be successful if he/she 9. ‹Ûú †¬ ÖÖ¯ÖÛú ÃÖ±ú»Ö ÆüÖê ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü Öפü ¾ÖÆü
(A) helps students in becoming better (A) ×¾ÖªÖÙ£Ö ÖÖë ÛúÖê ²ÖêÆüŸÖ¸ü ®ÖÖÝÖ׸üÛú ²Ö®Ö®Öê ´Öë ´Ö¤ü¤ü
citizens Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü …
(B) imparts subject knowledge to (B) ×¾ÖªÖÙ£Ö ÖÖë ÛúÖê ×¾ÖÂÖ Ö ÛúÖ –ÖÖ®Ö ¤êüŸÖÖ Æîü …
students
(C) prepares students to pass the (C) ×¾ÖªÖÙ£Ö ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ´Öë ˆ¢ÖßÞÖÔ ÆüÖê®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö Öê
examination ŸÖî ÖÖ¸ü Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü …
(D) presents the subject matter in a (D) ×¾ÖÂÖ Ö¾ÖßÖã ÛúÖê ÃÖã¾ Ö¾Ö×Ã£ÖŸÖ œÓüÝÖ ÃÖê ¯Öê¿Ö
well organized manner Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü …
10. Dynamic approach to teaching means 10. †¬ ÖÖ¯Ö®Ö Ûêú ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ ÝÖŸ ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ˆ¯ÖÖÝÖ´Ö ÛúÖ ŸÖÖŸ¯Ö ÖÔ Æîü
(A) Teaching should be forceful and (A) †¬ ÖÖ¯Ö®Ö ÃÖ¿ÖŒŸÖ ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Ö¿ÖÖ»Öß ÆüÖê®ÖÖ
effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and “ÖÖ×Æü Öê …
dynamic (B) †¬ ÖÖ¯ÖÛúÖë ÛúÖê ‰ú•ÖÖÔ¾ÖÖ®Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ ÝÖןֿÖᯙ ÆüÖê®ÖÖ
(C) The topics of teaching should not “ÖÖ×Æü Öê …
be static, but dynamic (C) †¬ ÖÖ¯Ö®Ö Ûêú ¯ÖÏÛú¸üÞÖ Ã£ÖîןÖÛú ®ÖÆüà ÝÖןֿÖß»Ö
(D) The students should be required to ÆüÖê®Öê “ÖÖ×Æü Öê …
learn through activities
(D) ×¾ÖªÖÙ£Ö ÖÖë ÃÖê ÝÖןÖ×¾Ö×¬Ö ÖÖë Ûêú ´ÖÖ¬ Ö´Ö ÃÖßÜÖ®Öê
11. The research that aims at immediate
application is Ûúß †¯ÖêõÖÖ Ûú¸ü®Öß “ÖÖ×Æü Öê …
(A) Action Research 11. •ÖÖê ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ŸÖÖŸÛúÖ×»ÖÛú †®Öã¯ÖÏ Öã׌ŸÖ ÛúÖ »Öõ Ö Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü
(B) Empirical Research ¾ÖÆü ÛúÆü»ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü :
(C) Conceptual Research (A) ×ÛÎú ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö (B) †Ö®Öã³Ö×¾ÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö
(D) Fundamental Research (C) ¯ÖÏŸ Ö ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö (D) ´ÖÖî×»ÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö
12. When two or more successive footnotes 12. •Ö²Ö ¤üÖê ÖÖ • ÖÖ¤üÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖê¢Ö¸ü ±Ìåú™ü®ÖÖê™ü (¯ÖÖ¤ü×™ü¯¯Ö×ÞÖ ÖÖÑ)
refer to the same work which one of the ‹Ûú Æüß Ûéú×ŸÖ ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÛêúŸÖ ¤êüŸÖê Æïü ŸÖÖê ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê
following expressions is used ?
(A) ibid (B) et.al ‹Ûú †×³Ö¾ Ö׌ŸÖ ÛúÖ ˆ¯Ö ÖÖêÝÖ ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü :
(C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit. (A) ibid (B) et.al
(C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.
13. Nine year olds are taller than seven year
olds. This is an example of a reference 13. ®ÖÖî ¾ÖÂÖá Ö ²Ö““Öê ÃÖÖŸÖ ¾ÖÂÖá Ö ²Ö““ÖÖë ÃÖê • ÖÖ¤üÖ »Ö´²Öê
drawn from ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü … ÖÆü ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ÃÖê ×»Ö Öê ÃÖÓ¤ü³ÖÔ ÛúÖ
(A) Vertical study ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ Æîü :
(B) Cross-sectional study (A) ‰ú¬¾ÖÖÔÛúÖ¸ü †¬ Ö Ö®Ö
(C) Time series study (B) ¯ÖÏןÖ×®Ö¬ ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú (ÛÎúÖòÃÖ-ÃÖꌿֻ֮Ö) †¬ Ö Ö®Ö
(D) Experimental study (C) ÃÖ´Ö Ö ÁÖêÞÖß †¬ Ö Ö®Ö
14. Conferences are meant for (D) ¯ÖÏ ÖÖêÝÖÖŸ´ÖÛú †¬ Ö Ö®Ö
(A) Multiple target groups 14. ÃÖ´´Öê»Ö®Ö ×ÛúÃÖÛêú ×»Ö Öê ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü ?
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research (A) ²ÖÆãü »Öõ ÖÖÓÛú ÃÖ´ÖæÆü
(D) All the above (B) ÃÖ´ÖæÆü “Ö“ÖÖÔ‹Ñ
(C) ®Ö¾Öß®Ö ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ¯ÖϤüÙ¿ÖŸÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ
15. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after (D) ˆ¯Ö ÖãÔŒŸÖ ÃÖ³Öß
the incident 15. ÛúÖ ÖÖì¢Ö¸ü ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ÛúÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü
(B) The research is carried out prior (A) ‘Ö™ü®ÖÖ Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü …
to the incident (B) ‘Ö™ü®ÖÖ Ûêú ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü …
(C) The research is carried out along (C) ‘Ö™ü®ÖÖ Ûêú ‘Ö™ü®Öê Ûêú ÃÖÖ£Ö-ÃÖÖ£Ö ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ×Ûú ÖÖ
with the happening of an incident. •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü …
(D) The research is carried out
keeping in mind the possibilities (D) ‘Ö™ü®ÖÖ Ûúß ÃÖ´³ÖÖ¾Ö®ÖÖ†Öë ÛúÖê ¬ ÖÖ®Ö ´Öë ¸üÜÖŸÖê
of an incident. Æãü‹ ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü …
16. Research ethics do not include 16. ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ®ÖîןÖÛúŸÖÖ ×ÛúÃÖê ¿ÖÖ×´Ö»Ö ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸üŸÖß Æîü ?
(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity (A) ‡Ô´ÖÖ®Ö¤üÖ¸üß (B) ¾ Ö׌ŸÖ¯Ö¸üÛúŸÖÖ
(C) Integrity (D) Objectivity (C) ® ÖÖ Ö×®ÖšüÖ (D) ¾ÖßÖã×®ÖšüŸÖÖ
Z-00 5 P.T.O.
6. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 17 to 22 :
James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves
with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient
smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has
traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it
is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a
major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that
affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the
Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil
servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing
Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a
friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further
said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain
experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant
reviews.”
The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in
Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act
in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny,
Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700
crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of
records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity
building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from non-
transparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of
State.
17. A person gets power
(A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings (D) by denying public information
18. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
19. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly,
caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
20. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation
21. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above
22. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
Z-00 6
8. 23. Video-Conferencing can be classified as 23. ¾Öß×›ü ÖÖê ÛúÖò®±ÏëúØÃÖÝÖ ÛúÖê ×®Ö´®Ö ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü Ûêú ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ´Öë
one of the following types of ¾ÖÝÖáÛéúŸÖ ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü :
communication : (A) ¥ü¿ Ö ‹Ûú ŸÖ¸ü±úÖ
(A) Visual one way (B) ¥ü¿ Ö-ÁÖ¾ Ö ‹Ûú ŸÖ¸ü±úÖ
(B) Audio-Visual one way (C) ¥ü¿ Ö-ÁÖ¾ Ö ¤üÖê ŸÖ¸ü±úÖ
(C) Audio-Visual two way (D) ¥ü¿ Ö ¤üÖê ŸÖ¸ü±úÖ
(D) Visual two way
24. MC National University of Journalism 24. ‹´Ö.ÃÖß. ¸üÖ™Òüß Ö ¯Ö¡ÖÛúÖ׸üŸÖÖ ‹¾ÖÓ ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü
and Communication is located at ×¾Ö¿¾Ö×¾ÖªÖ»Ö Ö ÛúÆüÖÑ ¯Ö¸ü ×Ã£ÖŸÖ Æîü ?
(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal (A) »ÖÜÖ®Ö‰ú (B) ³ÖÖê¯ÖÖ»Ö
(C) Chennai (D) Mumbai (C) “Öê®®Ö‡Ô (D) ´Öã´²Ö‡Ô
25. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for 25. †ÖÛúÖ¿Ö¾ÖÖÞÖß ×ÛúÃÖ ¾ÖÂÖÔ ´Öë ¯ÖÏÃÖÖ¸üÞÖ ÛúÖê ®ÖÖ´Ö ×¤ü ÖÖ
broadcasting was named in the year ÝÖ ÖÖ ?
(A) 1926 (B) 1936 (A) 1926 (B) 1936
(C) 1946 (D) 1956 (C) 1946 (D) 1956
26. In India for broadcasting TV 26. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë ™êü»Öß×¾Ö•Ö®Ö ÛúÖ ÖÔÛÎú´ÖÖë Ûêú ¯ÖÏÃÖÖ¸üÞÖ Ûêú ×»Ö‹
programmes which system is followed ? ×ÛúÃÖ ¯Ö¨ü×ŸÖ ÛúÖê †¯Ö®ÖÖ ÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) NTCS (B) PAL (A) NTCS (B) PAL
(C) NTSE (D) SECAM (C) NTSE (D) SECAM
27. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for 27. ›üß.‹ê.¾Öß.¯Öß. ÛúÖ ¯ÖæÞÖÔ ºþ¯Ö Æîü
(A) Directorate of Advertising & (A) ›üÖ‡¸êüŒ™üÖê¸êü™ü †Öò±ú ‹›ü¾Ö™üÖԇؕÖÝÖ ‹Þ›ü ¾ÖÖòÛêú»Ö
Vocal Publicity ¯Ö²»Öß×ÃÖ™üß
(B) Division of Audio-Visual (B) ×›ü¾Öß•Ö®Ö †Öò±ú †Öò×›ü ÖÖê-×¾Ö• ÖㆻÖ
Publicity
¯Ö²»Öß×ÃÖ™üß
(C) Department of Audio-Visual
Publicity (C) ×›ü¯ÖÖ™Ôü´Öê®™ü †Öò±ú †Öò×›ü ÖÖê-×¾Ö• ÖㆻÖ
(D) Directorate of Advertising & ¯Ö²»Öß×ÃÖ™üß
Visual Publicity (D) ›üÖ‡¸êüŒ™üÖê¸êü™ü †Öò±ú ‹›ü¾Ö™üÖԇؕÖÝÖ ‹Þ›ü
×¾Ö• Öã†»Ö ¯Ö²»Öß×ÃÖ™üß
28. The term “TRP” is associated with TV 28. ‘TRP’ ¯Ö¤ü •ÖÖê ™üß.¾Öß. ¿ÖÖê•Ö ÃÖê ÃÖ´²Ö×®¬ÖŸÖ Æîü,
shows stands for ˆÃÖÛúÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü
(A) Total Rating Points (A) ™üÖê™ü»Ö ¸êüØ™üÝÖ ¯ÖÖò‡Õ™ËüÃÖ
(B) Time Rating Points (B) ™üÖ‡Ô´Ö ¸êüØ™üÝÖ ¯ÖÖò‡Õ™ËüÃÖ
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(C) £Öß´Öê×™üÛú ¸êüØ™üÝÖ ¯ÖÖò‡Õ™ËüÃÖ
(D) Television Rating Points
(D) ™êü»Öß×¾Ö•Ö®Ö ¸êüØ™üÝÖ ¯ÖÖò‡Õ™ËüÃÖ
29. Which is the number that comes next in 29. ‡ÃÖ ÀÖÓéÜÖ»ÖÖ ´Öë ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖß ÃÖÓÜ ÖÖ †ÖÝÖê †Ö ÖêÝÖß ?
the following sequence ?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
(A) 60 (B) 64 (A) 60 (B) 64
(C) 72 (D) 70 (C) 72 (D) 70
Z-00 8
9. 30. Find the next letter for the series 30. YVSP …….. ÀÖÓéÜÖ»ÖÖ Ûêú ×»Ö‹ †ÝÖ»ÖÖ †õÖ¸ü
YVSP ……… Œ ÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) N (B) M (A) N (B) M
(C) O (D) L (C) O (D) L
31. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ 31. Ûæú™ü ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ´Öë Öê ¯ÖϤü¢Ö Æîü ×Ûú, ‘645’ ÛúÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü
means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘ÝÖ¸ü´Ö פü®Ö Æîü’ ; ‘42’ ÛúÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü ‘ÝÖ¸ü´Ö ¾ÖÃÖ®ŸÖ’
‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring †Öî¸ü ‘634’ ÛúÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü ‘¾ÖÃÖ®ŸÖ ¬Öæ¯Ö´Ö Öß Æîü’…
is sunny’; which digit represents ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ †ÓÛú ‘¬Öæ¯Ö´Ö Öß’ ÛúÖê
‘sunny’ ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
¯ÖϤüÙ¿ÖŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5
32. The basis of the following classification 32. ×®Ö´®Ö ¾ÖÝÖáÛú¸üÞÖ ÛúÖ †Ö¬ÖÖ¸ü Æîü :
is : ‘³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ Ûêú ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¸üÖ™Òü¯Öן֒, ‘ÝÖÖê¤üÖ®Ö’ Ûêú »ÖêÜÖÛú,
‘first President of India’ ‘author of ‘´Öê¸êü ÝÖÏ£ÖÖ»Ö Ö ´Öë ×ÛúŸÖÖ²Öë’, ‘®Öß»Öß “Öß•ÖÌë’ †Öî¸ü
Ó
Godan’ ‘books in my library’, ‘blue ‘×¾ÖªÖ£Öá •ÖÖê Ûú›Ìüß-´ÖêÆü®ÖŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü’ …
things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A) ÃÖ¾ÖÔÃÖÖ´ÖÖ® Ö ®ÖÖ´Ö
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names (B) ¾ Ö׌ŸÖ¾ÖÖ“ÖÛú ®ÖÖ´Ö
(C) Descriptive phrases (C) ¾ÖÞÖÔ®ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ÃÖÓ×õÖ¯ŸÖ ¾ÖÖŒ Ö
(D) Indefinite description (D) †×®Ö׿“ÖŸÖ ¾ÖÞÖÔ®Ö
33. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than 33. ‘ÛúÖê‡Ô “Öß•ÖÌ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖê ²Ö›Ìüß ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêŸÖß’ – ‡ÃÖ
itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is †×³Ö¾ Ö׌ŸÖ ´Öë ‘†¯Ö®Öê ÃÖê ²Ö›Ìüß Æîü’ ÖÆü ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Ö Æîü
(A) antisymmetric (A) ÃÖ×´´ÖŸÖ ×¾Ö¸üÖê¬Öß
(B) asymmetrical (B) †ÃÖ×´´ÖŸÖß Ö
(C) intransitive (C) †Ûú´ÖÔÛú
(D) irreflexive
(D) †×®Ö•Ö¾ÖÖ“ÖÛú
34. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on 34. Ûú£Ö®Ö (A) : ¯ÖÆü»Öê Ûúß ŸÖã»Ö®ÖÖ ´Öë †Ö•ÖÛú»Ö Ûúß
the books today than ever before, ÛúÖ®Öæ®Öß ×ÛúŸÖÖ²ÖÖë ´Öë ÛúÆüà †×¬ÖÛú ÛúÖ®Öæ®Ö Æîü,
and more crimes being committed †Öî¸ü ¯ÖÆü»Öê Ûúß ŸÖã»Ö®ÖÖ ´Öë ÛúÆüà †×¬ÖÛú
than ever before. †¯Ö¸üÖ¬Ö ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü …
Reason (R) : Because to reduce ÛúÖ¸üÞÖ (R) : Œ ÖÖë×Ûú, †¯Ö¸üÖ¬Ö Ûú´Ö Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö‹
crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
Æü´Öë ÛúÖ®Öæ®ÖÖë ÛúÖê ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®Ö Öê :
is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) ÃÖŸ Ö Æîü, (R) ¿ÖÓÛúÖï֤ü Æîü †Öî¸ü (R),
(A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is (A) Ûúß ÃÖÆüß ¾ ÖÖÜ ÖÖ ®ÖÆüà Æîü …
the correct explanation of (A). (B) (A) †ÃÖŸ Ö Æîü, (R) ÃÖŸ Ö Æîü †Öî¸ü (R), (A)
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful Ûúß ÃÖÆüß ¾ ÖÖÜ ÖÖ Æîü …
and (R) is not the correct (C) (A) ¿ÖÓÛúÖï֤ü Æîü, (R) ¿ÖÓÛúÖï֤ü Æîü †Öî¸ü
explanation of (A). (R), (A) Ûúß ÃÖÆüß ¾ ÖÖÜ ÖÖ ®ÖÆüà Æîü …
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R)
is not the correct explanation of (D) (A) ¿ÖÓÛúÖï֤ü Æîü, (R) ÃÖŸ Ö Æîü †Öî¸ü (R),
(A). (A) Ûúß ÃÖÆüß ¾ ÖÖÜ ÖÖ ®ÖÆüà Æîü …
Z-00 9 P.T.O.
10. 35. If the proposition “All men are not 35. Öפü Ûú£Ö®Ö “ÃÖ³Öß »ÖÖêÝÖ ®ÖÖ¿Ö¾ÖÓŸÖ Æïü” ÃÖ“Ö Æîü, ŸÖÖê
mortal” is true then which of the ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ †®Öã´ÖÖ®ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ †®Öã´ÖÖ®Ö ÃÖÆüß
following inferences is correct ? Choose Æîü ? ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ÛúÖê›ü ´Öë ÃÖê “Ö Ö®Ö Ûú¸ëü :
from the code given below : 1. ‘ÃÖ³Öß »ÖÖêÝÖ ®ÖÖ¿Ö¾ÖÓŸÖ Æïü …’ ÖÆü ÃÖ“Ö Æîü …
1. “All men are mortal” is true. 2. ‘Ûãú”û »ÖÖêÝÖ ®ÖÖ¿Ö¾ÖÓŸÖ Æïü …’ ÖÆü ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ Æîü …
2. “Some men are mortal” is false. 3. ‘ÛúÖê‡Ô †Ö¤ü´Öß ®ÖÖ¿Ö¾ÖÓŸÖ ®ÖÆüà Æîü …’ ÖÆü ¿ÖÓÛúÖï֤ü
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful. Æîü …
4. “All men are mortal” is false. 4. ‘ÃÖ³Öß »ÖÖêÝÖ ®ÖÖ¿Ö¾ÖÓŸÖ Æïü …’ ÖÆü ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ Æîü …
Code : 󜅐ݟ :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (A) 1, 2 †Öî¸ü 3 (B) 2, 3 †Öî¸ü 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 (C) 1, 3 †Öî¸ü 4 (D) 1 †Öî¸ü 3
36. Determine the nature of the following 36. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ¯Ö׸ü³ÖÖÂÖÖ Ûúß ¯ÖÏÛúé ×ŸÖ ×®Ö¬ÖÖÔ׸üŸÖ Ûúßו֋ :
definition : “³ÖÏæÞÖÆüŸ ÖÖ” ÛúÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü ×®Ö¤üÖìÂÖ »ÖÖêÝÖÖë Ûúß ×®Ö´ÖÔ´Ö
“Abortion” means the ruthless ÆüŸ ÖÖ …
murdering of innocent beings. (A) ¯Ö¤üÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Öß (B) ×¾Ö¿¾ÖÖÃÖÖ꟯ÖÖ¤üÛú
(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive
(C) þÖ×®ÖÙ¤ü™ü (D) ÃÖî¨üÖÓןÖÛú
(C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical
37. Which one of the following is not an 37. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ Öã׌ŸÖ ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖß Öã׌ŸÖ ®ÖÆüà Æîü ?
argument ? (A) ¤êü¾Ö¤ü¢Ö פü®Ö ´Öë ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü, ‡ÃÖß
(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day ×»Ö Öê ¾ÖÆü ¸üÖŸÖ ´Öë ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü …
so he must be eating at night.
(B) Öפü ¤êü¾Ö¤ü¢Ö ´ÖÖê™üÖ ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü, †Öî¸ü Öפü ¾ÖÆü
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if
he does not eat during the day, he פü®Ö ³Ö¸ü ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü, ¾ÖÆü ¸üÖŸÖ ´Öë
will be eating at night. ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö Ûú¸êüÝÖÖ …
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he (C) ¤êü¾Ö¤ü¢Ö ¸üÖŸÖ ´Öë ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü, ‡ÃÖß×»Ö‹ ¾ÖÆü
does not eat during the day. פü®Ö ´Öë ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü …
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the (D) “ÖæÑ×Ûú ¤êü¾Ö¤ü¢Ö פü®Ö ´Öë ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü,
day, he must be eating in the ¾ÖÆü ¸üÖŸÖ ´Öë ³ÖÖê•Ö®Ö Ûú¸üŸÖÖ ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
night.
38. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to 38. ¾Öê®Ö ›üÖ ÖÝÖÏÖ´Ö ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ›üÖ ÖÝÖÏÖ´Ö Æîü, •ÖÖê
(A) represent and assess the validity (A) ÃÖÓ¾ÖÖŒ Ö-ÃÖ´²Ö®¬Öß ® ÖÖ× ÖÛúß †ÖÛúÖ¸ü Ûêú
of elementary inferences of ¯ÖÏÖ£Ö×´ÖÛú †®Öã´ÖÖ®ÖÖë Ûúß ¾Öî¬ÖŸÖÖ ÛúÖ
syllogistic form. ¯ÖÏןÖ×®Ö׬֟¾Ö †Öî¸ü ´Öæ» ÖÖÓÛú®Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(B) represent but not assess the (B) ® ÖÖ× ÖÛúß †ÖÛúÖ¸ü Ûêú ¯ÖÏÖ£Ö×´ÖÛú †®Öã´ÖÖ®ÖÖë Ûúß
validity of elementary inferences ¾Öî¬ÖŸÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏןÖ×®Ö׬֟¾Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ, ¯Ö¸ü®ŸÖã
of syllogistic form. ´Öæ» ÖÖÓÛú®Ö ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(C) represent and assess the truth of (C) ® ÖÖ× ÖÛúß †ÖÛúÖ¸ü Ûêú ¯ÖÏÖ£Ö×´ÖÛú †®Öã´ÖÖ®ÖÖë Ûúß
elementary inferences of ÃÖŸ ÖŸÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏןÖ×®Ö׬֟¾Ö †Öî¸ü ´Öæ» ÖÖÓÛú®Ö
syllogistic form. Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(D) assess but not represent the truth (D) ® ÖÖ× ÖÛúß †ÖÛúÖ¸ü Ûêú ¯ÖÏÖ£Ö×´ÖÛú †®Öã´ÖÖ®ÖÖë Ûúß
of elementary inferences of ÃÖŸ ÖŸÖÖ ÛúÖ ´Öæ» ÖÖÓÛú®Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ, ¯Ö¸ü®ŸÖã
syllogistic form. ¯ÖÏןÖ×®Ö׬֟¾Ö ®ÖÆüà Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
Z-00 10
11. 39. Reasoning by analogy leads to 39. ÃÖÖ´ ÖÖ®Öã´ÖÖ®Ö ÃÖê ŸÖÛÔú Ûú¸ü®Öê ÃÖê
(A) certainty (A) ×®Ö׿“ÖŸÖŸÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü …
(B) definite conclusion (B) ÃÖãïÖ™ü ×®ÖÂÛúÂÖÔ ×®ÖÛú»ÖŸÖÖ Æîü …
(C) predictive conjecture (C) ³Ö×¾Ö ÖÃÖæ“ÖÛú †®Öã´ÖÖ®Ö »ÖÝÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü …
(D) surety
(D) ×®ÖÃÖÓ¿Ö Ö
40. Which of the following statements are 40. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ Ûú£Ö®ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖê Ûú£Ö®Ö †ÃÖŸ Ö
false ? Choose from the code given Æïü ? ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ Ûæú™ü ´Öë ÃÖê “Öã®Öë :
below :
1. Inductive arguments always
1. †ÖÝÖ´Ö®ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú Öã׌ŸÖ ÖÖÑ ÃÖ¤îü¾Ö ×¾Ö¿ÖêÂÖ ÃÖê ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ® Ö
proceed from the particular to the Ûúß †Öê¸ü •ÖÖŸÖß Æïü …
general. 2. ÖãŒŸÖ Öã׌ŸÖ †ÖÝÖ´Ö®ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ¥ü×™ü ÃÖê ´Ö•Ö²ÖæŸÖ ÆüÖêÝÖß …
2. A cogent argument must be 3. ¾Öî¬Ö Öã׌ŸÖ ÛúÖ ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ¯Öæ¾ÖÖÔ¾Ö Ö¾Ö †Öî¸ü ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ
inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a ×®ÖÂÛúÂÖÔ ÆüÖê ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
false premise and a false 4. Öã׌ŸÖ ÛúÖê ˆ×“ÖŸÖ ºþ¯Ö ÃÖê ‘ÃÖ“Ö’ ÖÖ ‘ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ’ ÛúÆü
conclusion. ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
4. An argument may legitimately be
spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Ûæú™ü :
Code : (A) 2, 3 †Öî¸ü 4 (B) 1 †Öî¸ü 3
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 †Öî¸ü 4 (D) 1 †Öî¸ü 2
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
41. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are 41. ”û: ¾ Ö׌ŸÖ A, B, C, D, E †Öî¸ü F ‹Ûú ¾Öé¢Ö ´Öë
standing in a circle. B is between F and ÜÖ›Ìêü Æïü … F †Öî¸ü C Ûêú ²Öß“Ö B Æîü, E †Öî¸ü D Ûêú
C, A is between E and D, F is to the left ²Öß“Ö A Æîü, †Öî¸ü F, D Ûêú ²ÖÖ‹Ñ Æîü … A †Öî¸ü F Ûêú
of D. Who is between A and F ? ²Öß“Ö ÛúÖî®Ö Æîü ?
(A) B (B) C (A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) E (C) D (D) E
42. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By 42. ¯Öê™ÒüÖê»Ö Ûúß Ûúß´ÖŸÖ ´Öë 25% ¾Öéרü ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü … ÝÖÏÖÆüÛú
what percentage must a customer reduce ÛúÖê †¯Ö®ÖÖ ˆ¯Ö³ÖÖêÝÖ ×ÛúÃÖ ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ¿ÖŸÖ ´Öë Ûú´Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ
the consumption so that the earlier bill “ÖÖ×Æü‹ וÖÃÖÃÖê ×Ûú ¯Öê™üÒÖê»Ö ÛúÖ ¯ÖÆü»ÖÖ ×²Ö»Ö ²Ö¤ü»Öê ®ÖÆüà ?
on the petrol does not alter ? (A) 20% (B) 25%
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 33.33%
(C) 30% (D) 33.33%
43. If Ram knows that y is an integer 43. Öפü ¸üÖ´Ö •ÖÖ®ÖŸÖÖ Æîü ×Ûú y 2 ÃÖê ²Ö›ÌüÖ †Öî¸ü 7 ÃÖê Ûú´Ö
greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari ¯ÖæÞÖÖÕÛú Æîü †Öî¸ü Æü׸ü •ÖÖ®ÖŸÖÖ Æîü ×Ûú y 5 ÃÖê ²Ö›ÌüÖ †Öî¸ü
knows that y is an integer greater than 5 10 ÃÖê Ûú´Ö ¯ÖæÞÖÖÕÛú Æîü, ŸÖÖê ×±ú¸ü ¾Öê šüßÛú-šüßÛú ×®ÖÂÛúÂÖÔ
and less than 10, then they may ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÆãÑü“Ö ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü ×Ûú
correctly conclude that (A) y ÛúÖê šüßÛú-šüßÛú ×®Ö¬ÖÖÔ׸üŸÖ ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ
(A) y can be exactly determined Æîü …
(B) y may be either of two values (B) y ¤üÖê ´Öæ» ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖê ‹Ûú ÆüÖê ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü …
(C) y may be any of three values (C) y ŸÖß®Ö ´Öæ» ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖê ‹Ûú ÆüÖê ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü …
(D) there is no value of y satisfying (D) y ÛúÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô ´Öæ» Ö ®ÖÆüà Æîü •ÖÖê ‡®Ö ¿ÖŸÖÖí ÛúÖê
these conditions ÃÖÓŸÖã™ü Ûú¸êü …
Z-00 11 P.T.O.
12. 44. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 44. ‹Ûú ÛãÓú›ü ÛúÖê “ÖÖ¸ü ¯ÖÖ‡¯Ö 15, 20, 30 †Öî¸ü 60 ‘ÖÓ™üÖë
30 and 60 hours respectively. The first ´Öë ÛÎú´Ö¿Ö: ³Ö¸ü ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü … ¯ÖÆü»Öê ÛúÖê 6 AM ¯Ö¸ü
one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 ÜÖÖê»ÖÖ ÝÖ ÖÖ, ¤æüÃÖ¸êü ÛúÖê 7 AM ¯Ö¸ü, ŸÖßÃÖ¸êü ÛúÖê 8
AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM †Öî¸ü “ÖÖî£Öê ÛúÖê 9 AM ¯Ö¸ü ÜÖÖê»ÖÖ ÝÖ ÖÖ … ÛãÓú›ü
AM. When will the reservoir be filled ? Ûú²Ö ³Ö¸êüÝÖÖ ?
(A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM (A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon (†¯Ö¸üÖÅ®Ö)
(C) 1 PM (D) 1.30 PM
The total electricity generation in a
country is 97 GW. The contribution of ‹Ûú ¤êü¿Ö ´Öë Ûãú»Ö ×¾ÖªãŸÖ ˆŸ¯ÖÖ¤ü®Ö 97 GW Æîü …
various energy sources is indicated in ×¾Ö׳֮®Ö ‰ú•ÖÖÔ ÄÖÖêŸÖÖë ÛúÖ ÖÖêÝÖ¤üÖ®Ö ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ¿ÖŸÖ ºþ¯Ö ´Öë
percentage terms in the Pie Chart given
below ;
®Öß“Öê פü Öê ¯ÖÖ‡Ô “ÖÖ™Ôü ´Öë ‡Ó×ÝÖŸÖ ×Ûú ÖÖ ÝÖ ÖÖ Æîü :
45. What is the contribution of wind and 45. ×¾ÖªãŸÖ ˆŸ¯ÖÖ¤ü®Ö ´Öë ¾ÖÖ Öã ‹¾ÖÓ ÃÖÖî¸ü ¿Ö׌ŸÖ ÛúÖ ÖÖêÝÖ¤üÖ®Ö
solar power in absolute terms in the ÃÖã×®Ö׿“ÖŸÖ ºþ¯Ö ÃÖê Œ ÖÖ Æîü ?
electricity generation ? (A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW
(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW
(C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW
(C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW
46. What is the contribution of renewable 46. ×¾ÖªãŸÖ ˆŸ¯ÖÖ¤ü®Ö ´Öë ®Ö¾ÖßÛú¸üÞÖß Ö ‰ú•ÖÖÔ ÄÖÖêŸÖÖë ÛúÖ
energy sources in absolute terms in the ÖÖêÝÖ¤üÖ®Ö ÃÖã×®Ö׿“ÖŸÖ ºþ¯Ö ÃÖê Œ ÖÖ Æîü ?
electricity generation ? (A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW
(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW
(C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW
For Blind Students Only
Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ¥ü×™üÆüß®Ö ”ûÖ¡ÖÖë Ûêú ×»Ö Öê
(Questions 45 – 46) (¯ÖÏ¿®Ö 45 – 46)
45. In a normally distributed data set, what 45. ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ® Ö ºþ¯Ö ÃÖê ×¾ÖŸÖ׸üŸÖ †ÖÑÛú›ÌüÖ ÃÖ´Öã““Ö Ö ´Öë, ´ÖÖ¬ Ö
percentage of data points lie between ± 2 * ´ÖÖ®ÖÛú ×¾Ö“Ö»Ö®Ö Ûêú ²Öß“Ö †ÖÑÛú›ÌüÖ ×²Ö®¤ãü†Öë
mean + 2 * standard deviation ? Ûúß Œ ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ¿ÖŸÖ ¸üÆüŸÖß Æîü ?
(A) ~ 95% (B) ~ 68% (A) ~ 95% (B) ~ 68%
(C) ~ 50% (D) ~ 37% (C) ~ 50% (D) ~ 37%
46. 10 is the mean of a set of 7 observations 46. 7 ¯ÖÏêõÖÞÖÖë Ûêú ÃÖ´Öã““Ö Ö ÛúÖ ´ÖÖ¬ Ö 10 Æîü †Öî¸ü 3
and 5 is the mean of a set of 3 ¯ÖÏêõÖÞÖÖë Ûêú ÃÖ´Öã““Ö Ö ÛúÖ ´ÖÖ¬ Ö 5 Æîü … ÃÖÓ Ö㌟Ö
observations. The mean of the ÃÖ´Öã““Ö Ö ÛúÖ ´ÖÖ¬ Ö Æîü
combined set is given by (A) 7.5 (B) 8.5
(A) 7.5 (B) 8.5
(C) 10 (D) 15
(C) 10 (D) 15
Z-00 12
13. 47. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect 47. TCP/IP †Ö¾Ö¿ ÖÛú Æîü Öפü ‹Ûú ÛúÖê ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ
to the ÃÖê ÃÖÓ²Ö¨ü ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü :
(A) Phone lines (A) ±úÖê®Ö »ÖÖ‡®Ö
(B) LAN (B) LAN
(C) Internet (C) ‡Ó™ü¸ü®Öê™ü
(D) a Server (D) ÃÖ¾ÖÔ¸ü
48. Each character on the keyboard of 48. Ûú´¯ Öæ™ü¸ü Ûêú Ûúß²ÖÖê›Ôü ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÏŸ ÖêÛú Ûîú¸êüŒ™ü¸ü ÛúÖ
computer has an ASCII value which ASCII ´Öæ» Ö/´ÖÖ®Ö ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü וÖÃÖÛúÖ †£ÖÔ ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü
stands for
(A) †´Öê׸üÛú®Ö ÙüÖòÛú ÛúÖê›ü ±úÖò¸ü ‡®±úÖê´Öì¿Ö®Ö
(A) American Stock Code for ‡Ó™ü¸ü“Öë•Ö
Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for (B) †´Öê׸üÛú®Ö Ùîü®›ü›Ôü ÛúÖê›ü ±úÖò¸ü ‡®±úÖê´Öì¿Ö®Ö
Information Interchange ‡Ó™ü¸ü“Öë•Ö
(C) African Standard Code for (C) †±ÏúßÛú®Ö Ùîü®›ü›Ôü ÛúÖê›ü ±úÖò¸ü ‡®±úÖê´Öì¿Ö®Ö
Information Interchange ‡Ó™ü¸ü“Öë•Ö
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for (D) ‹›îü¯Ö™êü²Ö»Ö Ùîü®›ü›Ôü ÛúÖê›ü ±úÖò¸ü ‡®±úÖê´Öì¿Ö®Ö
Information Change ‡Ó™ü¸ü“Öë•Ö
49. Which of the following is not a 49. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖß ¯ÖÏÖêÝÖÏÖØ´ÖÝÖ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ®ÖÆüà
programming language ? Æîü ?
(A) Pascal (A) ¯ÖÖÃÖÛú»Ö
(B) Microsoft Office (B) ´ÖÖ‡ÛÎúÖêÃÖÖê°™ü †Öò×±úÃÖ
(C) Java (C) •ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
(D) C++ (D) C++
50. Minimum number of bits required to 50. ÛúÖê‡Ô 3 †ÓÛú ¤ü¿Ö´Ö»Ö¾Ö ÃÖÓÜ ÖÖ ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÏÆü (ÙüÖê¸ü)
store any 3 digit decimal number is Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö Öê ײ֙ËüÃÖ («ü ÖÓÛú) Ûúß ® Öæ®ÖŸÖ´Ö ÃÖÓÜ ÖÖ
equal to ×ÛúÃÖÛêú ²Ö¸üÖ²Ö¸ü Æîü ?
(A) 3 (A) 3
(B) 5 (B) 5
(C) 8 (C) 8
(D) 10 (D) 10
51. Internet explorer is a type of 51. ‡Ó™ü¸ü®Öê™ü †®¾ÖêÂÖÛú ×ÛúÃÖ ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ Æîü ?
(A) Operating System (A) ¯ÖÏ“ÖÖ»ÖÛú ¯Ö¨üןÖ
(B) Compiler (B) Ûú´¯ÖÖ‡»Ö¸ü
(C) Browser (C) ²ÖÎÖˆ•Ö̸ü
(D) IP address (D) IP ¯ÖŸÖÖ (‹›ÒêüÃÖ)
Z-00 13 P.T.O.
14. 52. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in 52. POP3 ŸÖ£ÖÖ IMAP ‡Ô-´Öê»Ö †ÛúÖˆÓ™ü Æïü וÖÃÖ´Öë
which (A) ‹Ûú †¯Ö®Öê †Ö¯Ö Æüß ¯ÖÏןÖפü®Ö †¯Ö®Öß ´Öê»Ö
(A) One automatically gets one’s mail ¯ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü …
everyday
(B) ‹Ûú ÛúÖê †¯Ö®Öß ´Öê»Ö ¯ÖœÌü®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö Öê ÃÖ¾ÖÔ¸ü ÃÖê
(B) One has to be connected to the ÃÖ´²Ö×®¬ÖŸÖ ÆüÖê®ÖÖ ¯Ö›ÌüŸÖÖ Æîü …
server to read or write one’s mail
(C) ‹Ûú ÛúÖê ‡Ô-´Öê»Ö ³Öê•Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûêú
(C) One only has to be connected to ×»Ö Öê Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ÃÖ¾ÖÔ¸ü ÃÖê ÃÖ´²Ö×®¬ÖŸÖ ÆüÖê®ÖÖ
the server to send and receive ¯Ö›ÌüŸÖÖ Æîü …
email
(D) ‹Ûú ÛúÖê ×ÛúÃÖß ™êü»Öß±úÖê®Ö »ÖÖ‡®Ö Ûúß •Ö̺þ¸üŸÖ
(D) One does not need any telephone
lines
®ÖÆüà Æîü …
53. Irritation in eyes is caused by the 53. ®Öê¡ÖÖë ´Öë •Ö»Ö®Ö ×ÛúÃÖ ¯ÖϤüæÂÖÛú ¾ÖßÖã Ûêú ÛúÖ¸üÞÖ ÆüÖêŸÖß
pollutant Æîü ?
(A) Sulphur di-oxide (A) ÃÖ»±ú¸ü ›üÖ‡Ôü-†ÖòŒÃÖÖ‡›ü
(B) Ozone (B) †Öê•ÖÌÖê®Ö
(C) PAN (C) PAN (¯Öî®Ö)
(D) Nitrous oxide (D) ®ÖÖ‡™ÒüÃÖ †ÖòŒÃÖÖ‡›ü
54. Which is the source of 54. Œ»ÖÖê¸üÖê°»Öæ¸üÖêÛúÖ²ÖÔ®ÖËÃÖ ÛúÖ ÄÖÖêŸÖ ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ Æîü ?
chlorofluorocarbons ?
(A) ŸÖÖ¯Öß Ö ¿Ö׌ŸÖ ÃÖÓ ÖÓ¡Ö
(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles (B) þ֓ÖÖ×»ÖŸÖ ¾ÖÖÆü®Ö
(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning (C) ¯ÖÏ¿ÖßŸÖ®Ö ‹¾ÖÓ ¾ÖÖŸÖÖ®ÖãÛæú»Ö®Ö
(D) Fertilizers (D) ˆ¾ÖÔ¸üÛú
55. Which of the following is not a 55. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ ®Ö¾ÖßÛú¸üÞÖß Ö ¯ÖÏÖÛéúןÖÛú
renewable natural resource ? ÃÖÓÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ®ÖÆüà Æîü ?
(A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil (A) þ֓”û ¾ÖÖ Öã (B) ˆ¯Ö•ÖÖ‰ú ´Öé¤üÖ
(C) Fresh water (D) Salt
(C) ŸÖÖ•ÖÖ •Ö»Ö (D) »Ö¾ÖÞÖ
56. Which of the following parameters is 56. ×®Ö´®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ“Ö»Ö •Ö»Ö ´Öë ¯ÖϤæüÂÖÞÖ
not used as a pollution indicator in ÃÖÓÛêúŸÖÛú Ûêú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë ˆ¯Ö ÖÖêÝÖ ®ÖÆüà ×Ûú ÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
water ?
(A) Ûãú»Ö ×¾Ö‘Ö×™üŸÖ šüÖêÃÖ ¯Ö¤üÖ£ÖÔ
(A) Total dissolved solids
(B) Coliform count (B) ÛúÖò×»Ö±úÖò´ÖÔ ÛúÖ‰Óú™ü
(C) Dissolved oxygen (C) ×¾Ö‘Ö×™üŸÖ †ÖòŒÃÖß•Ö®Ö
(D) Density (D) ‘Ö®ÖŸ¾Ö
Z-00 14
15. 57. S and P waves are associated with 57. S ‹¾ÖÓ P ŸÖ¸ÓüÝÖë ×ÛúÃÖÛêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ÃÖ´²Ö×®¬ÖŸÖ Æïü ?
(A) floods (A) ²ÖÖœÌü
(B) wind energy (B) ¾ÖÖ Öã ‰ú•ÖÖÔ
(C) earthquakes
(C) ³ÖæÛú´¯Ö
(D) tidal energy
(D) •¾ÖÖ¸üß Ö ‰ú•ÖÖÔ
58. Match Lists I and II and select the 58. ÃÖæ“Öß-I †Öî¸ü ÃÖæ“Öß-II ÛúÖê ÃÖã´Öê×»ÖŸÖ Ûúß×•Ö Öê †Öî¸ü ®Öß“Öê
correct answer from the codes given פü Öê Ûæú™üÖë ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü ÛúÖ “Ö Ö®Ö Ûúß×•Ö Öê :
below :
List – I List – II ÃÖæ“Öß-I ÃÖæ“Öß-II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(i) †Öê•ÖÌÖê®Ö ×”û¦ü (a) ÃÖã®ÖÖ´Öß
(ii) Greenhouse (b) UV
effect radiations (ii) Æü׸üŸÖÝÖéÆü ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Ö (b) UV ×¾Ö×Ûú¸üÞÖë
(iii) Natural (c) Methane (iii) ¯ÖÏÖÛéúןÖÛú (c) ×´Ö£Öê®Ö (ÝÖîÃÖ)
hazards †Ö¯Ö¤üÖ‹Ñ
(iv) Sustainable (d) Eco-centrism (iv) ¬ÖÖ¸üÞÖß Ö ×¾ÖÛúÖÃÖ (d) ¯ÖÖ׸ü×ãÖןÖÛúß Ö-
development Ûëú¦ü¾ÖÖ¤ü
Codes : Ûæú™ü :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d) (A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d) (B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b) (C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a) (D) (d) (b) (c) (a)
59. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is 59. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖß Ö ˆ““Ö †¬ Ö Ö®Ö ÃÖÓãÖÖ®Ö ÛúÆüÖÑ ×Ã£ÖŸÖ Æîü ?
located at
(A) ¬Ö´ÖÔ¿ÖÖ»ÖÖ
(A) Dharmshala
(B) Shimla (B) ׿ִֻÖÖ
(C) Solan (C) ÃÖÖê»Ö®Ö
(D) Chandigarh (D) “ÖÓ›üßÝÖœÌü
60. Indicate the number of Regional Offices 60. ¸üÖ™Òüß Ö †¬ ÖÖ¯ÖÛú ׿ÖõÖÖ ¯Ö׸üÂÖ¤Ëü (NCTE) Ûêú õÖê¡Öß Ö
of National Council of Teacher ÛúÖ ÖÖÔ»Ö ÖÖë Ûúß ÃÖÓÜ ÖÖ ²ÖŸÖÖ‡ Öê …
Education.
(A) 04
(A) 04
(B) 05
(B) 05
(C) 06 (C) 06
(D) 08 (D) 08
Z-00 15 P.T.O.