1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document provides instructions for a social work exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates are given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions specify that candidates should verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions within the first 5 minutes. They also specify that candidates should fill in their test booklet number on their answer sheet and vice versa. The instructions state that each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D and that candidates should darken the oval on their answer sheet corresponding to the correct answer for each question. Finally, the instructions specify that rough work should be done at the end of the question booklet and that candidates must return both the question booklet and
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document provides instructions for a social work exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates are given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions specify that candidates should verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions within the first 5 minutes. They also specify that candidates should fill in their test booklet number on their answer sheet and vice versa. The instructions state that each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D and that candidates should darken the oval on their answer sheet corresponding to the correct answer for each question. Finally, the instructions specify that rough work should be done at the end of the question booklet and that candidates must return both the question booklet and
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering techniques. This document discusses GMO crops, including their development process involving transgene construction, plant transformation, event selection, and commercialization. It also covers some key issues related to GMOs regarding food safety, environmental impacts, global trade, and corporate control of agriculture.
This document provides information on medical applications of electrocardiograms (ECGs). It defines common ECG terms like electrocardiogram, holter monitor, and defibrillation. It then discusses ECG markets, waveform characteristics, patient skin characteristics, signal chains, and examples of diagnostic ECGs, holter monitors, AEDs, and exercise heart rate monitors.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
The document discusses the electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG), including its history, the mechanisms behind cellular action potentials and their spread, how depolarization and repolarization waves are recorded, vector analysis, limb and precordial leads, relationships between electrical and mechanical events, types of cardiac arrhythmias like bradyarrhythmias and tachyarrhythmias, examples of different arrhythmias on ECG tracings, and tachycardia circuits.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
The document discusses the important role of the geosphere, or solid earth, in supporting plant growth and food production through soil. It describes the physical nature and composition of soil, as well as the key factors that influence soil quality like organic matter, water, and nutrients. Modern agricultural practices have increased food yields but also caused environmental damage that green chemistry aims to address through more sustainable approaches.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their answer choice. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document provides an overview of electrocardiography (EKG/ECG) including the normal conduction system, common pathologies identified by EKGs, waveforms and intervals, the 12-lead system, and methods for determining heart rate and QRS axis. It describes the standard limb leads, augmented limb leads, and precordial leads. It outlines the rule of 300 and 10-second rule for calculating heart rate from EKGs. It also explains the quadrant and equiphasic approaches for determining QRS axis.
This document summarizes key aspects of cardiac electrophysiology and electrocardiography. It discusses the electrical properties and functions of different cardiac tissues, the roles of the sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and Purkinje fibers as pacemakers. It also describes the components of an electrocardiogram and how it provides information about heart rate, rhythm, and tissue health. Common conduction abnormalities and arrhythmias are outlined as well.
The document provides an overview of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) including what constitutes a GMO, procedures that do not result in GMOs, key duties regarding contained use of GMOs, risks associated with GMOs, classification of GMOs, and what to do in the event of a spill in a containment level 2 laboratory. It defines GMOs and discusses bacterial expression systems used to produce proteins of interest from gene inserts. It also outlines the risk assessment approach and regulations for working with GMOs.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering techniques. This document discusses GMO crops, including their development process involving transgene construction, plant transformation, event selection, and commercialization. It also covers some key issues related to GMOs regarding food safety, environmental impacts, global trade, and corporate control of agriculture.
This document provides information on medical applications of electrocardiograms (ECGs). It defines common ECG terms like electrocardiogram, holter monitor, and defibrillation. It then discusses ECG markets, waveform characteristics, patient skin characteristics, signal chains, and examples of diagnostic ECGs, holter monitors, AEDs, and exercise heart rate monitors.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
The document discusses the electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG), including its history, the mechanisms behind cellular action potentials and their spread, how depolarization and repolarization waves are recorded, vector analysis, limb and precordial leads, relationships between electrical and mechanical events, types of cardiac arrhythmias like bradyarrhythmias and tachyarrhythmias, examples of different arrhythmias on ECG tracings, and tachycardia circuits.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
The document discusses the important role of the geosphere, or solid earth, in supporting plant growth and food production through soil. It describes the physical nature and composition of soil, as well as the key factors that influence soil quality like organic matter, water, and nutrients. Modern agricultural practices have increased food yields but also caused environmental damage that green chemistry aims to address through more sustainable approaches.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their answer choice. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document provides an overview of electrocardiography (EKG/ECG) including the normal conduction system, common pathologies identified by EKGs, waveforms and intervals, the 12-lead system, and methods for determining heart rate and QRS axis. It describes the standard limb leads, augmented limb leads, and precordial leads. It outlines the rule of 300 and 10-second rule for calculating heart rate from EKGs. It also explains the quadrant and equiphasic approaches for determining QRS axis.
This document summarizes key aspects of cardiac electrophysiology and electrocardiography. It discusses the electrical properties and functions of different cardiac tissues, the roles of the sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and Purkinje fibers as pacemakers. It also describes the components of an electrocardiogram and how it provides information about heart rate, rhythm, and tissue health. Common conduction abnormalities and arrhythmias are outlined as well.
The document provides an overview of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) including what constitutes a GMO, procedures that do not result in GMOs, key duties regarding contained use of GMOs, risks associated with GMOs, classification of GMOs, and what to do in the event of a spill in a containment level 2 laboratory. It defines GMOs and discusses bacterial expression systems used to produce proteins of interest from gene inserts. It also outlines the risk assessment approach and regulations for working with GMOs.
A 68-year-old woman was brought to the emergency room after feeling weak and dizzy and passing out. She had a history of hypertension and congestive heart failure. Her EKG showed several arrhythmias and she went into ventricular fibrillation despite treatment efforts. Her irregular heart rate and EKG patterns indicated two types of arrhythmias: one with an irregular rhythm and one with a disrupted heartbeat.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid disqualification.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C or D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing question booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates must answer only 50. It describes how the exam booklet and answer sheet work and provides various rules for candidates to follow during the exam, such as filling in responses on the answer sheet, not writing anything else on the answer sheet, and raising your hand if you have any issues.
A computer network connects two or more computers so they can share resources like printers and files. It can be wired or wireless. Based on geographic area, networks are classified as local area networks (LANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), or wide area networks (WANs). LANs connect computers within a building or home. MANs connect buildings within a city. WANs connect across large distances from hundreds to thousands of miles, like the Internet. They allow sharing of expensive devices, easy file/data access from different locations, and remote work. However, they require maintenance and have security/connection issues.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides a sleek design along with enterprise-level security features and durability expected of ThinkPad products.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides business features and security as well as consumer multimedia and entertainment capabilities in a thin and durable design.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions and candidates have 1 1/4 hours to complete it.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is complete and not damaged or duplicated before starting the exam and to notify the invigilator if there are any issues.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : .........................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
1. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.
(Name) ____________________________
(In figures as per admission card)
2. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.____________________________
(Name) ____________________________
(In words)
J 00 1 0
PAPER-I
Test Booklet No. X
Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë êú ×»Ö‹ ×Ö¤ìü¿Ö
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆü»Öê ¯Öéšü êú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ×ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü †¯ÖÖÖ ¸üÖê»Ö Ö´²Ö¸ü ×»Ö×Ö‹ …
this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾Öú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö Æïü, וÖÖ´Öë ÃÖê ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü úÖê
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of ×úÃÖß ³Öß ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿Ö úÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êüÖÖ ÆüÖêÖÖ … ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ÃÖê
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to †×¬Öú ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë úÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êüÖê ¯Ö¸ü ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ ×¤üµÖê ÖµÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate úÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓúÖ ×úµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÖÖ …
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸ü´³Ö ÆüÖêÖê ¯Ö¸ü, ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¤êü ¤üß •ÖÖµÖêÖß … ¯ÖÆü»Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
×´ÖÖ™ü †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ÖÖê»ÖÖê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖúß ×Ö´Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö êú
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
×»Ö‹ פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÖê וÖÃÖúß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖúÖê †¾Ö¿µÖ ú¸üÖß Æîü :
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ÖÖê»ÖÖê êú ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖêú ú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ü »ÖÖß úÖÖ•Ö úß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
ÃÖᯙ úÖê ±úÖ›Íü »Öë … Öã»Öß Æãü‡Ô µÖÖ ×²ÖÖÖ Ã™üßú¸ü-ÃÖᯙ úß ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
þÖßúÖ¸ü Ö ú¸ëü …
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) ú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü ”û¯Öê ×Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖÖãÃÖÖ¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ êú ¯Öéšü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in úß ÃÖÓµÖÖ úÖê †“”ûß ŸÖ¸üÆü “Öîú ú¸ü »Öë ×ú µÖê ¯Öæ¸üê Æïü … ¤üÖÂÖ¯ÖæÖÔ ê
the booklet with the information printed on the cover ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ×•ÖÖ´Öë ¯Öéšü/¯ÖÏ¿Ö ú´Ö ÆüÖë µÖÖ ¤ãü²ÖÖ¸üÖ †Ö ÖµÖê ÆüÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß׸üµÖ»Ö
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing ´Öë Ö ÆüÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×úÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏúÖ¸ü úß ¡Öã×™ü¯ÖæÖÔ ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ Ã¾ÖßúÖ¸ü Ö
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other ú¸ëü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™üÖú¸ü ˆÃÖêú ãÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü ¤æüÃÖ¸üß ÃÖÆüß
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖêú ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´ÖÖ™ü פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÖê …
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period ˆÃÖêú ²ÖÖ¤ü Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯Öúß ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÖß †Öî¸ü Ö
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet Æüß †Ö¯ÖúÖê †×ŸÖ׸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤üµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÖÖ …
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö êú ²ÖÖ¤ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ úß Îú´Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡Öú ¯Ö¸ü
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number †Ó×úŸÖ ú¸ëü †Öî¸ü OMR ¯Ö¡Öú úß Îú´Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ¯Ö¸ü
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet †Ó×úŸÖ ú¸ü ¤ëü …
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêú ¯ÖÏ¿Ö êú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾Öú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) פüµÖê ÖµÖê
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) Æïü … †Ö¯ÖúÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü êú ¤üß‘ÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö úÖê ¯ÖêÖ ÃÖê ³Ö¸üú¸ü úÖ»ÖÖ ú¸üÖÖ Æîü •ÖîÃÖÖ
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the ×ú Öß“Öê פüÖÖµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ Æîü …
correct response against each item. ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÖ : A B C D
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
•Ö²Ö×ú (C) ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Æîü …
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer
5. ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯Ö¡Ö I †Öî¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯Ö¡Ö II êú ×»Ö‹ ‹ú Æüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¯Ö¡Öú Æîü •ÖÖê ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ êú †¤ü¸ü פüµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ Æîü … ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë êú ˆ¢Ö¸ü êú¾Ö»Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Ö¡Öú ¯Ö¸ü Æüß
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in †Ó×úŸÖ ú¸üÖê Æïü … µÖפü †Ö¯Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¯Ö¡Öú ¯Ö¸ü פüµÖê ÖµÖê ¤üß‘ÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö êú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ ×úÃÖß
the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. †µÖ ãÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü דÖÅÖÖÓ×úŸÖ ú¸ŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖúÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓúÖ ÖÆüà ÆüÖÖÖ … ê
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6. †¤ü¸ü פüµÖê ÖµÖê ×Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë úÖê ¬µÖÖÖ¯Öæ¾ÖÔú ¯ÖœÍëü …
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 7. ú““ÖÖ úÖ´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ êú †ÛŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü ú¸ëü …
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the 8. µÖפü †Ö¯Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ¯Ö¸ü †¯ÖÖÖ ÖÖ´Ö µÖÖ ‹êÃÖÖ úÖê‡Ô ³Öß ×Ö¿ÖÖÖ ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant †Ö¯Öúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖÖ ÆüÖê ÃÖêú, ×úÃÖß ³Öß ³ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü ¤ü¿ÖÖÔŸÖê µÖÖ †Ó×úŸÖ ú¸üŸÖê Æïü ŸÖÖê
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ êú ×»ÖµÖê †µÖÖêµÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ú¸ü פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÖê …
yourself liable to disqualification.
9. †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖêÖê ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ‹¾ÖÓ OMR ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Ö¡Öú
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
×Ö¸üßÖú ´ÖÆüÖê¤üµÖ úÖê »ÖÖî™üÖÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖú Æîü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖÛ¯ŸÖ êú ²ÖÖ¤ü ˆÃÖê
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the †¯ÖÖê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ³Ö¾ÖÖ ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü Ö »Öêú¸ü •ÖÖµÖë …
Examination Hall. 10. êú¾Ö»Ö Öß»Öê/úÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯ÖîÖ úÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö ú¸ëü …
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ×úÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏúÖ¸ü úÖ ÃÖÓÖÖú (îú»Öãú»Öê™ü¸ü) µÖÖ »ÖÖÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü úÖ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖϵÖÖêÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. Ö»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖë êú ×»Ö‹ úÖê‡Ô †Óú úÖ™êü ÖÆüà •ÖÖ‹ÑÖê …
X-00 P.T.O.
2. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Question
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Number
Question
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................
(Evaluation) Date .........................
X-00 2
3. Paper – I
·° Ž··‚·– I
Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case more than 50 questions are attempted, only the first 50 questions will be evaluated.
Ž··ËzÝ • i¤··° Ž··‚·•·Ì¤··{Ý
8. ·° Ž·§ÝÀv··²t·Ëv··–·Ìq·Ëg
1. In communication, a major barrier to 1. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì ¤·Ë ¤·´t··™Ý oËÛhŽ€·q·µ€·oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··
reception of messages is ¤·´…ËÝ ·q·°§Ý~·oۙݎ·Ë•·Ì·°•·Äp·hŸ·™Ý·Ë·oÛ§ÏÝ
(A) audience attitude (A) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛ·†Ý¼£zÝoÛ·Ë~·
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education (B) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛ·w··Ž·
(D) audience income (C) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛÀ¸ ·c··
(D) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛÀh·–·
2. Post-modernism is associated with
(A) newspapers 2. jƒ·™Ýh··Ä¸Ž·oÛ€··Ÿ··…ݤ·•“·¼Ž·€·§ÏÝ
(B) magazines (A) ¤·•··t··™Ý·‚·¤·Ë
(C) radio (B) ·¸‚·oÛ·h·Ì•·Ïqv·ÀŽv·
9. ¤·Ë
(D) television (C) ™Ëݸ|Ý–··Ë¤·Ë
3. Didactic communication is (D) zËÝœ·À¸Ÿ·v·Ž·¤·Ë
(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal 3. j·…ËÝ ··€•·oÛ¤·´t··™Ý§ÏÝ
(C) organisational (A) hŽ€·Ÿ·Ï–·¼n€·oÛ
(D) relational (B) hŽ€·™ÝŸ·Ï–·¼n€·oÛ
4. In communication, the language is (C) ¤·´q·{ÝŽ··€•·oÛ
(A) the non-verbal code (D) ¤·•“·Ž·¤·Çt·oÛ
(B) the verbal code 4. ¤·´t··™Ý•·Ì”··£··§ÏÝ
(C) the symbolic code
(D) the iconic code (A) h•··Ï¸p·oÛoÇÛzÝ
(B) •··Ï¸p·oÛoÇÛzÝ
5. Identify the correct sequence of the (C) ·°€·ÀoÛ·€•·oÛoÇÛzÝ
following : (D) ¸t·‚··€•·oÛoÇÛzÝ
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message 5. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·Ë¤·§ÝÀo¯Û•·oÛÀ·§Ýt··Ž·oÛÀ¸v·m
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel (A) ¥··Ë€·•··–·•·¤·´…ËÝ ·¤·´…ËÝ ·q·°·§ÝÀ
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver (B) ¥··Ë€·¤·´…ËÝ ·q·°·§ÝÀ•··–·•·¤·´…ËÝ ·
6. Assertion (A) : Mass media promote (C) ¥··Ë€·¤·´…ËÝ ·¤·´…ËÝ ·q·°·§ÝÀ•··–·•·
a culture of violence in the (D) ¥··Ë€·¤·´…ËÝ ·•··–·•·¤·´…ËÝ ·q·°·§ÝÀ
society. 6. h¸”·oÛ„·Ž· (A) : ¤·´t··™Ý•··–·•· ¤·•··v· •·Ì
Reason (R) : Because violence ¹§Ý¤··oÛÀ¤·´¤oÊÛ¸€·oÛ·Ë·°·Ë€¤··¸§Ý€·oۙ݀·Ë§ÐÝg
sells in the market as people
themselves are violent in €·oµÛ (R) : n–··Ì¸oÛ“··v··™Ý •·Ì ¹§Ý¤··oÛÀ
character. ¸“·o¯ÛÀ§ÏÝn–··Ì¸oÛœ··Ëq·¤Ÿ·–·´¹§Ý¤··Ÿ·Ê¸ƒ·oËÛ
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) §ÐÝg
is the correct explanation of (A). (A) (A) h·Ï™Ý (R) …Ý·ËŽ··Ì ¤·§ÝÀ §ÐÝ h·Ï™Ý (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but oÛ· (R) ¤·§ÝÀ¤·£zÝÀoÛ™Ý~·§ÏÝg
(R) is not the correct (B) (A) h·Ï™Ý (R) …Ý·ËŽ··Ì ¤·§ÝÀ§ÐÝ·™ÝŽ€·Ä (A)
explanation of (A). oÛ·(R) ¤·§ÝÀ¤·£zÝÀoÛ™Ý~·Ž·§ÝÁ§ÏÝg
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (C) (A) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ·™ÝŽ€·Ä (R) q·œ·€·§ÏÝg
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false. (D) (A) h·Ï™Ý (R) …Ý·ËŽ··Ìq·œ·€·§ÐÝg
X-00 3 P.T.O.
10. 7. When an error of 1% is made in the 7. moÛŸ·q·µoÛÀœ·•“··iµ•·ÌoÛÀq·œ·€·À§ÏÝ€··Ëj¤·
length of a square, the percentage Ÿ·q·µ oËÛ c·Ë‚·’Ûœ· •·Ì q·œ·€·À oÛÀ ·°¸€· ·€·€·· n–··
error in the area of a square will be §Ý·Ëq·À
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (A) 0 (B) 1/2
(C) 1 (D) 2 (C) 1 (D) 2
8. On January 12, 1980, it was a 8. 12 v·Ž·Ÿ·™ÝÀ, 1980 oÛ·Ë ·¸Ž·Ÿ··™Ý„··gv·Ž·Ÿ·™ÝÀ
Saturday. The day of the week on oÛ·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··¸…ÝŽ·„··
January 12, 1979 was
(A) q·ÄšÞŸ··™Ý (B) ·Äo¯ÛŸ··™Ý
(A) Thursday (B) Friday
(C) ·¸Ž·Ÿ··™Ý (D) ™Ý¸Ÿ·Ÿ··™Ý
(C) Saturday (D) Sunday
9. If water is called food, food is called 9. –·¸…Ý v·œ·p··‹·ŽŽ·§ÏÝp··‹·ŽŽ·Ÿ·Êc·§ÏÝŸ·Êc·oÛ·Ë
tree, tree is called earth, earth is –·¸…Ý ·™Ý€·À ·™Ý€·À oÛ·Ë ¤·´¤··™Ý€··Ë ’Ûœ·iŽ·•·Ì ¤·Ë
called world, which of the following
¸oÛ¤·•·ÌËœ·q·Ìq·Ë?
grows a fruit ?
(A) Water (B) Tree (A) v·œ· (B) Ÿ·Êc·
(C) World (D) Earth (C) ¤·´¤··™Ý (D) ·™Ý€·À
10. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, 10. E ·Ä‚·§ÏÝ A oÛ·D·Ä‚·§ÏÝ%oÛ·(¸Ÿ·Ÿ··¸§Ý€·§ÏÝ
E is married to C, C is the daughter ¤·Ë h·Ï™Ý ·Ä‚·À§ÏÝ %oÛÀg'oÛ·(¤·Ë n–··
of B. How is D related to E ? ¸™Ý €··§ÏÝ
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (A) ”·°·€·· (B) t··t··
(C) Father-in-law (D) Brother-in-law (C) ¤·¤·Ä™Ý (D) ¤··œ··
11. If INSURANCE is coded as 11. –·¸…Ý i´ –··Ë™Ìݤ· (INSURANCE) oÛ· oÇÛzÝ
ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE mnŽ··›ß¤·Ž·À (ECNARUSNI) §ÏÝ€··Ë ¹§Ý|Ý™Ìݤ·
will be coded ? (HINDRANCE) oÛ·oÇÛzÝn–··§Ý·Ëq·· ?
(A) CADNIHWCE (A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR (B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN (C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH (D) ECNARDNIH
12. Find the next number in the 12. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50 oÛÀ ¡·Ê´p·œ·· •·Ì
following series : hq·œ·À¤·´p–··n–··§Ý·Ëq·À
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ? (A) 63 (B) 65
(A) 63 (B) 65
(C) 67 (D) 69
(C) 67 (D) 69
X-00 4
11. 13. Which of the following is an 13. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€· •·Ì ¤·Ë t·¸o¯ÛoÛ –·Ä¼n€· oÛ· j…Ý·§Ý™Ý~·
example of circular argument ? oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··§ÏÝ ?
(A) God created man in his image (A) ·™Ý•··€•·· Ž·Ë •·Ž·Ä£–· oÛ·Ë h·Ž·Ë ›ß· •·Ì
and man created God in his “·Ž··–··h·Ï™Ý•·Ž·Ä£–·Ž·Ë·™Ý•··€•··oÛ·Ëh·Ž··
own image.
›ß·¸…Ý–··g
(B) God is the source of a scripture
(B) ·™Ý•··€•·· ··º•·oÛ q·°´„· oÛ· ¥··Ë€· §ÏÝ h·Ï™Ý
and the scripture is the source
of our knowledge of God. ··º•·oÛq·°´„··™Ý•··€•··¤·•“·Ž·À§Ý•··™ËÝw··Ž·
(C) Some of the Indians are great oÛ·¥··Ë€·§ÏÝg
because India is great. (C) oÄÛuÜ ”··™Ý€·À–· •·§Ý·Ž· §ÐÝ n–··Ì¸oÛ ”··™Ý€·
(D) Rama is great because he is •·§Ý·Ž·§ÏÝg
Rama. (D) ™Ý·•·•·§Ý·Ž·§ÐÝn–··Ì¸oÛŸ·§Ý™Ý·•·§ÐÝg
14. Lakshmana is a morally good person 14. œ·c•·~·Ž·Ï¸€·oۛ߷¤·ËhtuÜ·Ÿ–·¼n€·§ÏÝn–··Ì¸oÛ
because (A) Ÿ·§Ý··º•·oÛ§ÏÝg
(A) he is religious
(B) Ÿ·§Ý¸ ·¸c·€·§ÏÝg
(B) he is educated
(C) he is rich (C) Ÿ·§Ý·Ž·À§ÏÝg
(D) he is rational (D) Ÿ·§Ý¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛÀ§ÏÝg
15. Two statements I and II given below 15. Ž·Àt·Ë …Ý·Ë oÛ„·Ž· I h·Ï™Ý II ¸…Ý–·Ë v·· ™Ý§ËÝ §ÐÝ h·Ï™Ý
are followed by two conclusions (a) j¤·oËÛ· t··€·…Ý·Ë ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ (a) h·Ï™Ý (b) ¸…Ý–·Ë v··
and (b). Supposing the statements ™Ý§ËÝ §ÐÝ g iŽ· oÛ„·Ž··Ì oÛ·Ë ¤·€–· •··Ž·€·Ë §ÄÝm
are true, which of the following ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€· •·Ì ¤·Ë €·oµÛ oÛÀ †Ý¼£zÝ ¤·Ë oÛ·ÏŽ· ¤··
conclusions can logically follow ? ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ¸Ž·oÛœ·¤·oÛ€··§ÏÝ
I. Some religious people are I. oÄÛuÜ ··º•·oÛ Ÿ–·¼n€· Ž·Ï¸€·oÛ ›ß· ¤·Ë
morally good.
II. Some religious people are
¤··•··Ž–·€·htuËܧÐÝg
rational. II. oÄÛuÜ··º•·oÛŸ–·¼n€·¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛÀ§Ý·Ë€·Ë§ÐÝg
Conclusions : ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ :
(a) Rationally religious people are (a) ¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛoÛÀ†Ý¼£zݤ·Ë··º•·oÛŸ–·¼n€·Ž·Ï¸€·oÛ
good morally. ›ß·¤·ËhtuËܧݷˀ·Ë§ÐÝg
(b) Non-rational religious persons (b) q·Ï™Ý¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛÀ··º•·oÛŸ–·¼n€·Ž·Ï¸€·oۛ߷¤·Ë
are not morally good. htuËÜŽ·§ÝÁ§Ý·Ë€·Ëg
(A) Only (a) follows. (A) oËÛŸ·œ· (a) ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÏÝg
(B) Only (b) follows. (B) oËÛŸ·œ· (b) ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÏÝg
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow. (C) (a) h·Ï™Ý (b) …Ý·ËŽ··Ì¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÐÝg
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows. (D) Ž· (a) h·Ï™ÝŽ·§ÝÀ (b) ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÏÝg
16. Certainty is 16. ¸Ž·¼ t·€·€··§ÏÝ
(A) an objective fact (A) moÛŸ·¤€·Äq·€·€·„–·
(B) emotionally satisfying (B) ”··Ÿ·Ž··€•·oۛ߷¤·Ë¤·Ž€·Ä¼£zÝ…Ý·–·oÛ
(C) logical (C) €··ºoÛoÛ
(D) ontological (D) ¤··¼ƒŸ·oÛ
X-00 5 P.T.O.
12. Questions from 17 to 18 are based ·° Ž· h·Ï™Ý Ž·Àt·Ë ¸…Ým §ÄÝm ™ËÝp··´oÛŽ·
on the following diagram in which |Ý·–··q·°·•·
13. ·™Ý h···¸™Ý€·§Ðݸv·¤·•·ÌI6h·Ï™Ý3
there are three intersecting circles I,
S and P where circle I stands for
€·ÀŽ·t·o¯Û§Ðݸv·¤·•·Ì ¤·Ë t·o¯Û,”··™Ý€·À–··Ì oËÛ¸œ·m
Indians, circle S stands for scientists §ÐÝ t·o¯Û 6 Ÿ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ·Ì oËÛ ¸œ·m h·Ï™Ý t·o¯Û 3
and circle P for politicians. Different ™Ý·v·Ž·À¸€·w··Ì oËÛ¸œ·m™Ýp··q·–··§ÏÝ gi¤·¸t·‚·•·Ì
regions of the figure are lettered ¸”·ŽŽ·c·Ë‚··ÌoÛ·ËD¤·ËJ€·oÛ…Ý ··µ–··q·–··§ÏÝ
from a to g.
17. The region which represents non- 17. Ÿ·§Ý c·Ë‚· v··Ë mˤ·Ë q·Ï™Ý”··™Ý€·À–· Ÿ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ·Ì oÛ·
Indian scientists who are politicians. ·°¸€·¸Ž·¸·€Ÿ·oۙ݀··§Ýv··Ë™Ý·v·Ž·À¸€·w·§ÐÝ
(A) f (B) d (A) f (B) d
(C) a (D) c (C) a (D) c
18. The region which represents 18. Ÿ·§Ý c·Ë‚· v··Ë mˤ·Ë ™Ý·v·Ž·À¸€·w··Ì oÛ· ·°¸€·¸Ž·¸·€Ÿ·
politicians who are Indians as well as oۙ݀··§ÏÝv··Ë”··™Ý€·À–·”·À§ÐÝh·Ï™ÝŸ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ”·Àg
scientists.
(A) b (B) c (A) b (B) c
(C) a (D) d (C) a (D) d
19. The population of a city is plotted as 19. Ž·Àt·Ë ¸oÛ¤·ÀŽ·q·™Ý oÛÀv·Ž·¤·´p–··oÛ·Ë ¤·•·–·Ÿ·£·µ
14. a function of time (years) in graphic oËÛ¤··„·q·°·’ÛoËۛ߷•·Ì™ËÝp··´¸oÛ€·¸oÛ–··q·–··§ÏÝ :
form below :
Which of the following inference j·™Ý·Ën€· ™ËÝp··´oÛŽ· ¤·Ë oÛ·ÏŽ· ¤·· ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ ¸Ž·oÛ·œ··
can be drawn from above plot ? v··¤·oÛ€··§ÏÝ?
(A) The population increases
exponentially. (A) v·Ž·¤·´p–··r··€·À–·›ß·¤·Ë“·}®Ý€·À§ÏÝg
(B) The population increases in
parabolic fashion. (B) v·Ž·¤·´p–··moÌÛ¸‡Ý–·}´Ýq·¤·Ë“·}®Ý€·À§ÏÝg
(C) The population initially (C) v·Ž·¤·´p–···°·™Ý•”·•·Ì ™ËÝp·À–·}´Ýq·¤·Ë “·}®Ý€·À
increases in a linear fashion
and then stabilizes. §ÏÝh·Ï™Ý¸’ۙݼ¤„·™Ý§Ý·Ëv··€·À§ÏÝg
(D) The population initially (D) v·Ž·¤·´p–···°·™Ý•”·•·Ìr··€·À–·›ß·¤·Ë“·}®Ý€·À
increases exponentially and
then stabilizes. §ÏÝh·Ï™Ý¸’ۙݼ¤„·™Ý§Ý·Ëv··€·À§ÏÝg
X-00 6
15. In the following chart, the price of ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·t··zµÝ•·Ìœ·oÛ|®ÝÀoËÛœ·žÝ·ÌoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·oÛ·Ë
logs is shown in per cubic metre and ·°¸€· n–·Ç¸“·oÛ •·ÀzÝ™Ý oËÛ ¸§Ý¤··“· ¤·Ë ¸…Ýp··–·· q·–·· §ÏÝ
that of Plywood and Saw Timber in h·Ï™Ýœ··iŸ·Ä|ÝmŸ·´h·™Ý·œ·oÛ|®ÝÀoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·oÛ·Ë·°¸€·
per tonnes. Study the chart and zÝŽ·oËÛ¸§Ý¤··“·¤·Ë gt··zµÝ oÛ·h–·–·Ž·oÛÀ¸v·mh·Ï™Ý
answer the following questions 20, ·° Ž·h·Ï™ÝoËÛjƒ·™Ý…ÝÀ¸v·m
21 and 22.
20. Which product shows the maximum 20. ¸oÛ¤· j€··…Ý oÛÀ oÛÀ•·€· •·Ì ¸·uÜœ·Ë ¤·•·–· oËÛ
percentage increase in price over the …ݷϙݷŽ·“·}®ÝŽ·Ë oÛÀh¸·oÛ€·•··°¸€· ·€·€··…ËÝp·Ž·Ë •·Ì
period ? h·iµ§ÏÝ?
(A) Saw timber (A) h·™Ý·œ·oÛ|Ý®À
(B) Plywood (B) œ··iŸ·Ä|Ý
(C) Log (C) œ·žÝ·
(D) None of the above (D) j·™Ý·Ën€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ËiµŽ·§ÝÁ
21. What is the maximum percentage 21. œ·oÛ|®ÝÀoËÛœ·žËÝoËÛ·°¸€·n–·Ç¸“·oÛ•·ÀzÝ™ÝoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·
increase in price per cubic metre of log ? •·Ìh¸·oÛ€·•·“·}®Ý·Ëƒ·™ÝÀoÛÀ·°¸€· ·€·€··n–··§Ý·Ëq·À ?
(A) 6 (A) 6
(B) 12 (B) 12
(C) 18 (C) 18
(D) 20 (D) 20
22. In which year the prices of two 22. ¸oÛ¤·Ÿ·£·µ •·Ì ·°„·•·…Ý·Ë j€··…Ý·Ì oËÛ•·Çœ–·•·Ì Ÿ·Ê¸‰Ý
products increased and that of the §ÄÝiµ§ÏÝh·Ï™Ý€·Ê€·À–·j€··…ÝoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·•·ÌŸ·Ê¸‰ÝoÛ“·
third increased ? §ÄÝiµ?
(A) 2000 (A) 2000
(B) 2002 (B) 2002
(C) 2003 (C) 2003
(D) 2006 (D) 2006
X-00 7 P.T.O.
16. [ For Blind Students Only ]
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 17 to 22.
During the thousands of years since the earliest records of the history of ideas,
learned people have accounted for the order they perceived in the universe in different
ways. The accounts range along a continuum from arbitrary rule by humanlike deities,
through rule by a deity subject to law, through various kinds of cause and effect
relations, to abstract mathematical law. These do not represent successive stages of
increasing sophistication, for all of them can be found in the thinking of ancient Greek
philosophers as well as in the contemporary world. Rule by a deity or deities is a very
ancient concept. In Sumeria, the religious leaders saw a world ruled by living beings
like humans but endowed with superhuman powers and with immortality. Each of these
beings was responsible for the control and maintenance of some features of the world,
such as the flow of rivers, the rise and fall of the tides, the shift of the winds, the
productivity of the harvest and the abundance of game animals. The deities competed
with one another and reacted arbitrarily and often vindictively to human acts. Other
cultures explained matters in terms of a single deity whose acts were frequently subject
to the bestowal of human favour. A very different way of accounting for an ordered
universe is the recognition of cause and effect sequences that take place in accordance
with general law. In some cases the notion of a single deity is retained, but the acts of
this deity are not arbitrary. Some would say that this God is the law. The idea of law
itself is an anthropomorphism – that is, a reflection of human experience. Those who
break divine laws are subject to punishment, but those who act in harmony with the law
are rewarded. Of course, there is a great difference between human law and scientific
law : human law governs the behaviour of things, and events are subject to law, but
scientific law is a general description of events.
17. Order in the universe is perceived through various kinds of relations between
(A) men and matters (B) cause and effect
(C) law and punishment (D) sophistication and crudity
18. In Sumeria, religious leaders saw the world as ruled by human beings endowed with
(A) rational thinking (B) religious powers
(C) superhuman powers (D) intuitive powers
19. Law as a reflection of human experience is
(A) punishment or reward for breaking or following it.
(B) that which governs human behaviour.
(C) a general description of events.
(D) that governs natural events.
20. According to the author, various accounts of the world are not evolutionary because
(A) they are found in the thinking of ancient Greek philosophers
(B) ideas do not grow
(C) they have no relation to abstract mathematical law
(D) they are neither ancient nor contemporary
21. The Sumerian view of the deities is that
(A) they are governed by a law
(B) they are competing with one another
(C) they are compassionate to human beings
(D) they are governed by a single deity
22. What is the other way of understanding the world which is different from that of the
Sumerians ?
(A) World governed by cause and effect sequences.
(B) World governed by a single deity.
(C) World is governed by a deity whose will is not arbitrary.
(D) World is governed by law.
X-00 8
19. 23. Which one of the following is the 23. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€· •·Ì ¤·Ë ”··™Ý€· •·Ì ·Ä™Ý·œ·Ëp··Ì ¤·•“·Ž·À
oldest Archival source of data in h·²oÛ|®ËÝ ·°…Ý·Ž·oۙݎ·Ë Ÿ··œ···Ä™Ý·€·Ž·€·•·¥··Ë€·oÛ·ÏŽ·
India ? ¤··§ÏÝ ?
(A) National Sample Surveys (A) Ž·Ë ·Ž·œ·¤·Ï•·œ·¤·Ÿ·Í
(B) Agricultural Statistics (B) oÊÛ¸£·¤·•“·Ž·Àh·²oÛ|®ËÝ
(C) Census (C) v·Ž·q·~·Ž··
(D) Vital Statistics (D) h·Ÿ· –·oÛh·²oÛ|®ËÝ
24. In a large random data set following 24. ¤··•··Ž–·“·´zÝŽ·oÛ·hŽ·Ä¤·™Ý~·oۙݎ·ËŸ··œ·ËmoÛ“·Ê§Ý…Ý
normal distribution, the ratio (%) of –··†Ý¼tuÜoÛ h·²oÛ|®Ý·Ì oËÛ ¤·•·Ätt·–· •·Ì •··–· ±
number of data points which are in
•··Ž·oÛ¸Ÿ·t·œ·Ž·oËÛ¸Ÿ·¤€··™Ý •·Ì h·²oÛ|®Ý·¸“·Ž…ÄÝh·Ì
the range of (mean ± standard
oÛÀ¤·´p–··oÛ·¤·´·Ç~·µh·²oÛ|®Ý·¸“·Ž…ÄÝh·ÌoÛÀ¤·´p–··
deviation) to the total number of data
points, is
oËÛ¤··„·hŽ·Ä··€· (%) §Ý·Ë€··§ÏÝ
(A) ~ 50%
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%
(B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%
(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
(D) ~ 47%
25. Which number system is usually 25. moÛ ¸Ÿ·¸ ·£zÝ ¸“·zÝ oÛ•–·ÇzÝ™Ý •·Ì ·°·–· ¸oÛ¤·
followed in a typical 32-bit computer ? ¤·´p–··¸Ÿ·¸·oÛ·hŽ·Ä¤·™Ý~·¸oÛ–··v··€··§ÏÝ ?
(A) 2 (A) 2
(B) 8 (B) 8
(C) 10 (C) 10
(D) 16 (D) 16
26. Which one of the following is an 26. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€· •·Ì ¤·Ë ·¸™Ýt··œ·Ž· ¸Ÿ·¸· h·Ë·™ËݹzÝq·
example of Operating System ? ¸¤·¤zÝ•·
20. oÛ·j…Ý·§Ý™Ý~·oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··§ÏÝ?
(A) Microsoft Word (A) •··io¯Û·Ë¤··Ó‘zÝŸ·|µÝ
(B) Microsoft Excel (B) •··io¯Û·Ë¤··Ó‘zÝmn¤·œ·
(C) Microsoft Access (C) •··io¯Û·Ë¤··Ó‘zÝmn¤·Ë¤·
(D) Microsoft Windows (D) •··io¯Û·Ë¤··Ó‘zݹŸ·|Ý·Ëv·
X-00 10
21. 27. Which one of the following 27. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì ¤·Ë oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··…Ý ·•·œ·Ÿ·¤·´p–··
represent the binary equivalent of the oÛ·…ݷ˧ݙݷ¤·•··Ž··„·Â“··iŽ·™ÝÀi¼nŸ·Ÿ·Ëœ·ÌzÝ
22. §ÏÝ ?
decimal number 23 ?
(A) 01011
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(C) 10011
(D) j·™Ý·Ën€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ËiµŽ·§ÝÁ
(D) None of the above
28. Which one of the following is 28. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··hŽ–·¤·Ë¸”·ŽŽ·§ÏÝ ?
different from other members ? (A) q·Çq·œ·
(A) Google
(B) ¹Ÿ·|Ý·Ëv·
(B) Windows
(C) œ··iŽ·Ën¤·
(C) Linux
(D) •·ÏoÛ
(D) Mac
29. Where does a computer add and 29. moÛ oÛ•–·ÇzÝ™Ý h·Ž·Ë |Ý·zÝ· •·Ì oۧݷ² ·™Ý oÄÛuÜ
compare its data ? v··Ë|®Ý€··§ÏÝh·Ï™Ýj¤·oÛÀ€·Äœ·Ž··oۙ݀··§ÏÝ ?
(A) CPU (A) ¤·À·À–·Ç
(B) Memory (B) •·Ë•··Ë™ÝÀ
(C) Hard disk (C) §Ý·|µÝ¸|ݤoÛ
(D) Floppy disk (D) ‘œ··Ó·À¸|ݤoÛ
30. Computers on an internet are 30. i~zݙݎ·ËzÝŸ··œ·ËoÛ•–·ÇzݙݷÌoÛÀ·§Ýt··Ž·¸oÛ¤·¤·Ë§Ý·Ë€·À§ÏÝ
identified by (A) iµ•·Ëœ·m|³Ëݤ·
(A) e-mail address
(B) ¤z³ÝÀzÝm|³Ëݤ·
(B) street address
(C) h·iµ·Àm|³Ëݤ·
(C) IP address
(D) j·™Ý·Ën€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ËiµŽ·§ÝÁ
(D) None of the above
31. The Right to Information Act, 2005 31. ¤·Çt·Ž··oÛ·h¸·oÛ·™Ý h¸·¸Ž·–·•··°·Ÿ···Ž·
makes the provision of oۙ݀··§ÏÝ
(A) Dissemination of all types of (A) ¸oÛ¤·À”·ÀŸ–·¼n€·o۷ˤ·”·Àœ··ËoÛh¸·oÛ·¸™Ý–··Ì
information by all Public ŒÝ·™Ý·¤·”·À·°oÛ·™oÛÀ¤·Çt·Ž··h·ÌoÛ··°¤··™g
authorities to any person. (B) oËÛŽ‡ÝÀ–·™Ý·v–·À–·mŸ·´ ¸v·œ··¤€·™Ý·Ì ·™Ý ¤·Çt·Ž··
(B) Establishment of Central, State and h·–··Ëq··Ì oÛÀh·Àœ·À–·h¸·oÛ™Ý~·oËۛ߷•·Ì
District Level Information ¤„···Ž··g
Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) œ··ËoÛ h¸·oÛ·¸™Ý–··Ì •·Ì ··™Ý…ݺ ·€·· mŸ·´
(C) Transparency and accountability
in Public authorities. v·Ÿ··“·…ËÝ–·€··g
(D) All of the above (D) j·–·Äµn€·¤·”·Àg
X-00 11 P.T.O.
23. 32. Which type of natural hazards cause 32. oÛ·ÏŽ·¤···°·oÊÛ¸€·oÛ·°oÛ·Ë·¤·•·¸ƒ·h·Ï™Ýv·ÀŸ·Ž·oÛ·Ë
maximum damage to property and h¸·oÛ€·•·Ž·ÄoÛ¤··Ž··§Ä²t··€··§ÏÝ ?
lives ? (A) v·œ··°oÛ·Ë·
(A) Hydrological
(B) v·œ·•··Ï¤·•·À·°oÛ·Ë·
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) ”·ÇŸ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ·°oÛ·Ë·
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical (D) ”·Ç™Ý·¤··–·¸Ž·oÛ·°oÛ·Ë·
33. Dioxins are produced from 33. |Ý·–··Ë¼n¤·Žv·¸oÛ¤·¤·Ëj€¤·ºv·€·§Ý·Ë€··§ÏÝ
(A) Wastelands (A) “·´v·™Ý·™Ý€·À
(B) Power plants (B) ¸“·v·œ·À–·Ž‚·
(C) Sugar factories (C) t·ÀŽ·ÀoËÛoÛ·™Ýp··Ž·Ë
(D) Combustion of plastics (D) œ··¼¤zÝoۅݧݎ·
34. The slogan “A tree for each child” 34. “·°€–·ËoÛ“··œ·oÛoËÛ¸œ·mmoÛ·Ë|®Ý” oÛ·Ž··™Ý·¸oÛ¤·
was coined for h· ·–·¤·Ëq·}®Ý·q·–··
(A) Social forestry programme (A) ¤··•··¸v·oÛŸ·Ž·oÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
(B) Clean Air programme (B) ¤Ÿ·tuÜŸ··–·ÄoÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
(C) Soil conservation programme (C) ”·Ç¸•·¤·´™Ýc·~·oÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
(D) Environmental protection (D) ·–··µŸ·™Ý~·¤·Ä™Ýc··oÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
programme
35. The main constituents of biogas are 35. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€· •·Ì ¤·Ë “··–··Ëq·Ï¤· oÛ· ·°•·Äp· €·ƒŸ·
oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··§ÏÝ
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(A) •·À„·ËŽ·h·Ï™ÝoÛ·“·µŽ·|Ý·ih·Ón¤··i|Ý
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(B) •·À„·ËŽ·h·Ï™ÝŽ··i¸z³ÝoÛh·Ón¤··i|Ý
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric
(C) •·À„·ËŽ· §Ý·i|³Ý·Ëv·Ž· h·Ï™Ý Ž··i¸z³ÝoÛ
oxide
h·Ón¤··i|Ý
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide (D) •·À„·ËŽ·h·Ï™Ý¤·œ’Û™Ý|Ý·ih·Ón¤··i|Ý
X-00 12
24. 36. Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole, 36. h¸”·oÛ„·Ž· (A) : ¤·´¤··™Ý •·Ì ¤·•·q·° ›ß· ¤·Ë
the environment has degraded
¸·uÜœ·ËoÛiµ…Ý ·oÛ·Ì•·Ì·–··µŸ·™Ý~·¸“·q·|®Ý·§Ïg
during past several decades.
Reason (R) : The population of the €·oµÛ (R) : ¤·´¤··™Ý oÛÀ v·Ž·¤·´p–·· •·Ì
world has been growing significantly. •·§ÝƒŸ··Ç~·µ“·}®Ý·Ëƒ·™ÝÀ§Ý·Ë™Ý§ÝÀ§ÏÝg
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct (A) (A) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ (R) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ h·Ï™Ý (A) oÛ·
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A). (R) ¤·§ÝÀ¤·£zÝÀoÛ™Ý~·§ÏÝg
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct (B) (A) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ (R) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ h·Ï™Ý (A) oÛ·
and (R) is not the correct (R) ¤·§ÝÀ¤·£zÝÀoÛ™Ý~·Ž·§ÝÁ§ÏÝg
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ·™ÝŽ€·Ä (R) q·œ·€·§ÏÝg
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct. (D) (A) q·œ·€·§ÏÝ·™ÝŽ€·Ä (R) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝg
37. Climate change has implications for 37. •··Ï¤·•·oÛ··¸™ÝŸ·€·µŽ·¸oÛ¤··™Ý·°”··Ÿ·À§Ý·Ë€··§ÏÝ
1. soil moisture 2. forest fires 1. ”·Ç¸•·oÛÀŽ·•·À
3. biodiversity 4. ground water 2. Ÿ·Ž·h¼qŽ·
Identify the correct combination 3. “··–··Ë|Ý·iŸ·™Ý¸¤·zÝÀv·ÏŸ·¸Ÿ·¸Ÿ··€··
25. according to the code : 4. ”·Ç¸•·q·€·v·œ·
Codes : oÛ·Ë|ÝoËÛh···™Ý·™Ý¤·§ÝÀ–·Äq•·oÛÀ·§Ýt··Ž·oÛÀ¸v·m :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3
oÛ·Ë|Ý
(A) 1 h·Ï™Ý 3 (B) 1, 2 h·Ï™Ý 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 h·Ï™Ý 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 h·Ï™Ý 4
38. The accreditation process by National 38. ™Ý·£z³ÝÀ–· •·Çœ–··´oÛŽ· mŸ·´ h¸·¤Ÿ·ÀoÊÛ¸€· ·¸™Ý£·…
Assessment and Accreditation Council mŽ·mm¤·À
27. ¤·ËiŽ·“··€··Ì•·Ì¸”·ŽŽ·§ÏÝ
(A) Disciplines covered by both (A) …Ý·ËŽ··ÌŒÝ·™Ý··}®Ý·–·Ëv··Ž·ËŸ··œ·Ë¸Ÿ·£·–··Ì•·Ì¤·•··Ž·€··
being the same, there is §Ý·Ë€·Ë§ÄÝm”·À·°–··¤··Ì•·Ì…ݷ˧ݙݷ·Ž·§ÏÝg
duplication of efforts. (B) moÛoÛ·†Ý¼£zÝoÛ·Ë~·o۷˸zݸŽ···µ™Ý~·§ÏÝ€·„··
(B) One has institutional grading …Çݤ·™ËÝ oÛ· oÛ·–·µo¯Û•· oÛÀ o۷˸zÝ h···¸™Ý€·
approach and the other has †Ý¼£zÝoÛ·Ë~·g
programme grading approach.
(C) mŽ·“·Àm h„·Ÿ·· mŽ·mm¤·À ¤·Ë moÛ
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or “··™Ý h¸·¤Ÿ·ÀoÊÛ¸€··°·€·oۙݎ·ËoËÛ· t··€·
NAAC, the institution is free from
¤·´¤„··oÛ·Ëo۷˸zÝoËÛŽ·Ÿ·ÀŽ·ÀoÛ™Ý~·oۙݷŽ·Ë¤·Ë
renewal of grading, which is not a
progressive decision. ¤Ÿ·€·Ž‚· §ÏÝ –·§Ý moÛ ·°q·¸€· ·Àœ· ¸Ž·~·µ–·
Ž·§ÝÁ§ÏÝg
(D) This accreditation amounts to
approval of minimum standards in (D) –·§Ý h¸·¤Ÿ·ÀoÊÛ¸€· ¤·•“·¼Ž·€· ¤·´¤„·· •·Ì
the quality of education in the ¸ ·c·· oÛÀ q·Ä~·Ÿ·ƒ·· oËÛ Ž–·ÇŽ·€·•· •··Ž·oÛ·Ì
institution concerned. oÛÀ¤Ÿ·ÀoÊÛ¸€·oËÛ¤·•··Ž·§ÏÝg
X-00 13 P.T.O.
28. 39. Which option is not correct ? 39. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··¸Ÿ·oÛœ·¤·§ÝÀŽ·§ÝÁ§ÏÝ ?
(A) Most of the educational (A) ¸Ÿ·w··Ž· h·Ï™Ý €·oÛŽ·ÀoÛÀ c·Ë‚· oËÛ ™Ý·£z³ÝÀ–·
institutions of National repute in ·°¸€·£{Ý··°·€·h¸·oÛ·´ ·¤·´¤„··Ž·¤·´r·À–·¤·Çt·À
scientific and technical sphere fall
oÛÀŸ·Á·°¸Ÿ·¼£zÝoËÛhŽ€·q·µ€·h·€·Ë§ÐÝg
under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Ÿ·Ì ¤·´¸Ÿ···Ž· ¤·´ ··Ë·Ž· h¸·¸Ž·–·•·
(B) Education, in general, is the
subject of concurrent list since ¤·Ë ¤··•··Ž–·€· ¸ ·c·· ¤·•·Ÿ·€·Â
42nd Constitutional Amendment ¤·Çt·ÀoÛ·¸Ÿ·£·–·§ÏÝg
Act 1976.
(C) ¸ ·c·· ·™Ý oËÛŽ‡ÝÀ–· ·™Ý·•· ·µ…Ý·‚·À •·~|Ýœ·
(C) Central Advisory Board on ¤·Àm“·Àiµ
29. oÛÀ ·°„·•· “··™Ý ¤„···Ž··
Education (CABE) was first
•·ÌoÛÀq·iµ„·Àg
established in 1920.
(D) ”··™Ý€· Ž·Ë •·Ì Ÿ·Ì ¤·´¸Ÿ···Ž·
(D) India had implemented the right
¤·´ ··Ë·Ž· h¸·¸Ž·–·•· oËÛ •··–·•· ¤·Ë
to Free and Compulsory Primary
Education in 2002 through 86th h¸Ž·Ÿ··–·µ h·Ï™Ý •·Ä‘€··°·„·¸•·oÛ¸ ·c··oËÛ
Constitutional Amendment. h¸·oÛ·™ÝoÛ·Ëœ··q·Çoۙݸ…Ý–··§ÏÝg
40. Which statement is not correct about the 40. ”··™Ý€·oËÛ“™Ý·£z³ÝÀ–·¸ ·c··¸…ÝŸ·¤·”oËÛ“··™ËÝ•·ÌoÛ·ÏŽ·
“National Education Day” of India ?
¤··h¸”·•·€·¤·§ÝÀŽ·§ÝÁ§ÏÝ ?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th
September every year. (A) –·§Ý·°¸€·Ÿ·£·µ¸¤·€·•“·™ÝoÛ·Ë•·Ž··–··v··€··§ÏÝg
(B) It is celebrated on 11th (B) –·§Ý·°¸€·Ÿ·£·µŽ·Ÿ·•“·™ÝoÛ·Ë•·Ž··–··v··€··§ÏÝg
November every year.
(C) i¤·Ë ”··™Ý€·oËÛ·°„·•·¸ ·c··•·´‚·À|Ý·Óh“·Äœ·
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of
India’s first Union Minister of oÛœ··•·h·v··…ÝoÛÀ¤•·Ê¸€·•·Ì•·Ž··–··v··€··§ÏÝ g
Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) i¤·Ë¤·Ë•·Ž··–··v··™Ý§Ý·§ÏÝg
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008.
X-00 14
30. 41. Match List-I with List-II and select the 41. ¤·Çt·À–I oÛ·Ë ¤·Çt·À–II ¤·Ë ¸•·œ··€·Ë §ÄÝm ¸…Ý–·Ë q·–·Ë
correct answer from the codes given oÛ·Ë|ÝoÛ··°–··Ëq·oۙ݀·Ë§ÄÝm¤·§ÝÀjƒ·™Ý…ÝÀ¸v·m:
below :
¤·Çt·À – I ¤·Çt·À – II
List – I List – II
(Articles of the (Institutions) (¤·´¸Ÿ···Ž·oËÛ (¤·´¤„··m²)
Constitution) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative (a) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 280 (i) ·° ··¤·¸Ž·oÛ
Tribunals Ž–··–··¸·oÛ™Ý~·
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election (b) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 324 (ii) ”··™Ý€· oÛ·
Commission
of India
¸Ž·Ÿ··µt·Ž·h·–··Ëq·
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance (c) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 323 (iii) ¤·´r·À–· ¤€·™Ý ·™Ý
Commission at ¸Ÿ·ƒ·h·–··Ëq·
Union level
(d) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 315 (iv) ¤·´r· œ··ËoÛ ¤·ËŸ··
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public h·–··Ëq·
Service
Commission oÛ·Ë|Ý :
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
42. Deemed Universities declared by 42. –·Çv·À¤·À ŒÝ·™Ý· –·Çv·À¤·À h¸·¸Ž·–·•·
UGC under Section 3 of the UGC
Act 1956, are not permitted to
··™Ý·oËÛhŽ€·q·µ€·•··¸Ž·€·¸Ÿ· Ÿ·¸Ÿ·‹·œ·–··Ì oÛ·Ë
–·§Ýh·w··Ž·§ÝÁ§ÏÝ
(A) offer programmes in higher
education and issue degrees. (A) jtt· ¸ ·c·· oËÛ oÛ·–·µo¯Û•··Ì oÛ·Ë t·œ··Ž··
(B) give affiliation to any institute
h·Ï™ÝjŽ·•·Ì¸|Ýq·°À·°…Ý·Ž·oۙݎ··g
of higher education. (B) ¸oÛ¤·Àjtt·¸ ·c··oËÛ¤·´¤„··Ž·o۷ˤ·•“·‰Ý
(C) open off-campus and off-shore oۙݎ··g
campus anywhere in the country
and overseas respectively without (C) –·Çv·À¤·ÀoÛÀh·w··oËÛ¸“·Ž··oÏÛ•·¤·oËÛ
the permission of the UGC. “··§Ý™Ý¸oÛ¤·À”·Àv·q·§Ý…ËÝ ·•·Ì–··¸Ÿ·…ËÝ ··Ì•·Ì
oÏÛ•·¤·p··Ëœ·Ž··g
(D) offer distance education
programmes without the (D) …Çݙݤ„·¸ ·c···¸™Ý£·…Ý oÛÀhŽ·Ä•·¸€·oËÛ¸“·Ž··
approval of the Distance …Çݙݤ„·oÛ·–·µo¯Û•··ÌoÛ·Ët·œ··Ž··g
Education Council.
X-00 15 P.T.O.
31. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 43 to 48.
The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How
does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments
of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does
one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description
of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from
every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar,
because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract
images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess
language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes
of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a
word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the
face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things
and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental
image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in
contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now
quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop
different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these
preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so
clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of
reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the
generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught
to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a
professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time
determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of
scholarly behaviour.
43. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process (B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion
44. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things (B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language (D) To gain knowledge
45. Concept means
(A) A mental image (B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form (D) All the above
46. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
47. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet
48. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses (B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum (D) An abstract image
X-00 16
33. 49. Which one of the following is the 49. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·ËhtuÜ·h–···oۧݷˎ·ËoËÛ¸œ·m
most important quality of a good oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··q·Ä~·¤·“·¤·Ë•·§ÝƒŸ··Ç~·µ§ÏÝ ?
teacher ? (A) ¤·•·–·oÛÀ··“·Ž…ÝÀh·Ï™Ýq··´”·À–·µ
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) ¸Ÿ·£·–·•·Ì¸Ž··Ä~·€··
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive (C) ¸Ÿ·£·–·•·Ì¸Ž··Ä~·€··h·Ï™Ý·°¸€·¸o¯Û–·· ·Àœ·
(D) Content mastery and sociable (D) ¸Ÿ·£·–·•·Ì¸Ž··Ä~·€··h·Ï™Ý¤··•··¸v·oÛ€··
50. The primary responsibility for the 50. h–···oÛ oËÛ ¤·•·ŽŸ·–· oÛ· ·°·„·¸•·oÛ jƒ·™Ý…Ý·¸–·€Ÿ·
teacher’s adjustment lies with ¸oÛ¤·oÛ·§ÏÝ
(A) The children (A) “··œ·oÛ·ÌoÛ·
(B) The principal (B) ¹·°¸¤··œ·oÛ·
(C) The teacher himself (C) ¤Ÿ·–·´h–···oÛoÛ·
(D) The community (D) ¤·•·Ä…Ý·–·oÛ·
51. As per the NCTE norms, what 51. mŽ· ¤·À zÝÀ iµ oËÛ ·°¸€·•··Ž··Ì oËÛ hŽ·Ä¤··™Ý “·Àm|Ý
should be the staff strength for a unit ¤€·™ÝoËÛmoÛ–·Ç¸Ž·zݸv·Ý¤·•·Ì¸Ÿ·‹·„·Â§Ý·ÌŸ·§Ý·²
of 100 students at B.Ed. level ? ¤zÝ·’ÛoÛÀ¤·´p–··n–··§Ý·ËŽ·Àt··¸§Ým ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9 (A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5 (C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
52. Research has shown that the most 52. hŽŸ·Ë£·~··Ì Ž·Ë –·§Ý …Ý ··µ–·· §ÏÝ ¸oÛ h–···oÛ·Ì oËÛ
frequent symptom of nervous ¤Ž··–·Ä€·Ž‚·•·Ìh¼¤„·™Ý€··oËÛ·°·–··°·–·œ·c·~·§ÏÝ
instability among teachers is (A) ··t·Ž·¸o¯Û–··oÛ·¸“·q·|Ý®Ž··
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) ¸Ÿ·¤’Û·ËzÝoÛŸ–·Ÿ·§Ý·™Ý
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue (C) „·oÛ·Ÿ·zÝ
(D) Worry (D) ¸t·Ž€··
53. Which one of the following 53. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·oÛ„·Ž··Ì•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ?
statements is correct ? (A) ··{Ý—o¯Û•· ¸¤·œ·Ë“·¤·
34. ··{Ý—t·–··µ oÛ·
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the ·¸™Ý¸ ·£zݧÏÝg
curriculum.
(B) ··{Ý—t·–··µ ¤·”·À ·Ï¸c·oÛ ¤·´¤„··Ž··Ì •·Ì
(B) Curriculum is the same in all
educational institutions.
¤·•··Ž·™Ý§Ý€·À§ÏÝg
(C) Curriculum includes both (C) ··{Ý—t·–··µ •·Ì h·Ï·t··¸™ÝoÛmŸ·´ hŽ··Ï·t··¸™ÝoÛ
formal, and informal education. ¸ ·c··…Ý·ËŽ··Ì ··¸•·œ·§Ý·€·À§ÐÝg
Ë
(D) Curriculum does not include (D) ··{Ý—t·–··µ •·Ì •·Çœ–··´oÛŽ· oËÛ }´Ýq· ··¸•·œ·
methods of evaluation. Ž·§ÝÁ§Ý·Ë€·Ëg
54. A successful teacher is one who is 54. moÛ¤·’Ûœ·h–···oÛŸ·§Ý§ÏÝv··Ë
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian (A) ¤·´Ÿ·Ë…ÝŽ· ·Àœ·h·Ï™ÝhŽ·Ä ··¤·Ž·¸·°–·§Ý·Ë
(B) Quite and reactive (B) ··Ž€·h·Ï™Ý·°¸€·¸o¯Û–·· ·Àœ·§Ý·Ë
(C) Tolerant and dominating (C) ¤·§ÝŽ· ·Àœ·h·Ï™Ý·°”·Ä€Ÿ·oÛ·™ÝÀ§Ý·Ë
(D) Passive and active (D) ¸Ž·¼£o¯Û–·h·Ï™Ý¤·¸o¯Û–·§Ý·Ë
X-00 18
35. 55. Action research means 55. ¸o¯Û–··¸Ž·£{Ý ··Ë·oÛ·”··Ÿ·§ÏÝ
(A) A longitudinal research (A) …ËÝ ··Ž€·™ÝÀ–· ··Ë·g
(B) An applied research (B) Ÿ–··Ÿ·§Ý·¸™ÝoÛ ··Ë·g
(C) A research initiated to solve an (C) moÛ ··Ë·¸v·¤·Ë ¸oÛ¤·Àv·›ß™ÝÀ¤·•·¤–··oËÛ
immediate problem
(D) A research with socio-
¤·•····Ž·oËÛ¸œ·m·°·™Ý•”·¸oÛ–··q·–··§Ý·Ëg
economic objective (D) ¤··•··¸v·oÛh·º„·oÛ–·Ë–·¤·ËoÛÀq·iµ ··Ë·g
56. Research is 56. ··Ë·§ÏÝ
(A) Searching again and again (A) “··™Ý“··™Ýp··Ëv·oۙݎ··g
(B) Finding solution to any (B) ¸oÛ¤·À¤·•·¤–··oÛ·¤·•····Ž·}DzÝ}Ý®Ž··g
problem (C) ¸oÛ¤·À ¤·•·¤–·· oËÛ ¤·•“·Ž· •·Ì Ÿ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ
(C) Working in a scientific way to }´Ýq· ¤·Ë ¤·€–· oÛ·Ë }DzÝ}Ý®Ž·Ë oËÛ ¸œ·m oÛ·–·µ
search for truth of any problem oۙݎ··g
(D) None of the above (D) j·™Ý·Ën€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ËiµŽ·§ÝÁg
57. A common test in research demands 57. hŽ·Ä¤·´··Ž·hŽŸ·Ë£·~·
36. •·ÌmoÛ¤··•··Ž–··™ÝÀc·~·•·Ì
much priority on ·°·„·¸•·oÛ€··…ÝÀv··€·À§ÏÝ
(A) Reliability (A) ¸Ÿ· Ÿ·¤·Ž·À–·€··oÛ·Ë
(B) Useability (B) ·°–··Ëq·oÛ·Ë
(C) Objectivity (C) Ÿ·¤€·Ä¸Ž·£{Ý€··oÛ·Ë
(D) All of the above (D) j·–·Äµn€·¤·”·À
58. Which of the following is the first 58. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·Ë ··Ë··°¸o¯Û–···°·™Ý•”·oۙݎ·ËoÛ·
step in starting the research process ? ·°„·•·t·™Ý~·oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··§ÏÝ?
(A) Searching sources of (A) ¤·•·¤–·· oÛ· ¸Ž···µ™Ý~· oۙݎ·Ë oËÛ ¸œ·m
information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
¤·Çt·Ž··oËÛ¥··Ë€··ÌoÛÀp··Ëv·
(C) Identification of problem (B) ¤·•“·¼Ž·€·¤··¸§Ý€–·oÛ·¤·Ÿ·Íc·~·
(D) Searching for solutions to the (C) ¤·•·¤–··oÛÀ·§Ýt··Ž·
problem (D) ¤·•·¤–··oÛ·¤·•····Ž·}DzÝ}Ý®Ž··
59. If a researcher conducts a research 59. –·¸…ÝoÛ·Ëiµ ··Ë·oÛ€··µi¤·h· ·–·¤·Ë ··Ë·oۙ݀··§ÏÝ
on finding out which administrative ¸oÛoÛ·ÏŽ·¤···°“·Ž·oÛÀ–·}´Ýq·v–··…Ý·¤·´q·{ÝŽ··€•·oÛ
style contributes more to ·°”··Ÿ· ··œ·À §Ý·Ëq·· €·“· –·§Ý ¸oÛ¤· ··Ë· oÛ·
institutional effectiveness ? This will j…Ý·§Ý™Ý~·§Ý·Ëq··
be an example of
(A) h···™Ý”·Ç€· ··Ë·
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research (B) ¸o¯Û–··¸Ž·£{Ý ··Ë·
(C) Applied Research (C) Ÿ–··Ÿ·§Ý·¸™ÝoÛ ··Ë·
(D) None of the above (D) j·™Ý·Ën€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ËiµŽ·§ÝÁ
60. Normal Probability Curve should be 60. ¤··•··Ž–·Ž··Ó•·µœ·