1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions over 12 pages.
2. Students must fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. They are instructed to carefully examine the question booklet for issues like missing pages or questions and to notify invigilators if problems are found.
3. Students must mark their answers on the OMR sheet provided. Using other areas could result in the answers not being evaluated. They are warned that writing identifying information could result in disqualification.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions. It details that students should fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. It explains that each question will have 4 answer options (A, B, C, D) and students should fill the oval of the correct response on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions on rough work, use of calculators, and that there are no negative marks for incorrect answers. The document concludes by stating the number of pages and questions in the question booklet.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number, verify that their question booklet is correct, and fill in their OMR sheet number. It describes how to mark answers in the OMR sheet and provides other exam rules like doing rough work in the designated area and not discussing exam content after leaving.
Special june-87-13-iii (comp. sci. & app.)singlark
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions contained in a booklet. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details, verify that their booklet is complete, and notify invigilators of any issues within 5 minutes. They should mark their answers on an optical mark recognition (OMR) sheet provided and are not allowed to write anywhere else. Calculators and outside materials are prohibited.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that candidates should write their roll number on the exam paper. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates will be given the question booklet at the start of the exam and instructed to verify the number of pages and questions. They must fill in their OMR sheet number on the booklet. Each question has 4 answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. Answers should only be marked on the OMR sheet. The exam is out of 100 marks and lasts 1 hour and 15 minutes.
UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
Gyan Sagar Institute
SCF: 118-119-120,3rd Floor, Above State Bank of India
Sector 34/A, Chandigarh, 160022
Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
Website: http://www.gyansagarinstitute.com/ugc-net-economics-coaching-in-chandigarh/
Cbse ugc-net-computer-science-paper-2-december-2014Ashish Rai
This document provides instructions for a 50 question multiple choice exam. It instructs students to write their roll number, check that their test booklet is complete and in order, and notify invigilators of any issues within 5 minutes. It describes that each question has 4 answer options labeled A-D and to fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions to only mark answers on the OMR sheet, not to write anywhere identifying, to return materials after the exam, and allows keeping the original booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the question paper contains 50 multiple choice questions with 4 answer options each. It provides details on how to fill the answer sheet and instructions that candidates must follow during the exam.
2. Key points mentioned include writing the roll number on the question paper, indicating answers on the OMR answer sheet within the allotted time, not writing anything else on the test booklet except in the designated space, and returning the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3. The document also specifies the number of pages in the question booklet, that blue or black ballpoint pen should be used, calculators and
Cbse ugc-net-computer-science-paper-2-december-2013jinto johnson
This document provides instructions for a test consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates must write their roll number on the cover page. They will be given a question booklet and must verify the number of pages and questions match the cover information within 5 minutes or request a replacement. Candidates must fill in their responses on an OMR answer sheet provided, using a blue or black pen. Calculators and outside materials are not permitted.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions. It details that students should fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. It explains that each question will have 4 answer options (A, B, C, D) and students should fill the oval of the correct response on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions on rough work, use of calculators, and that there are no negative marks for incorrect answers. The document concludes by stating the number of pages and questions in the question booklet.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number, verify that their question booklet is correct, and fill in their OMR sheet number. It describes how to mark answers in the OMR sheet and provides other exam rules like doing rough work in the designated area and not discussing exam content after leaving.
Special june-87-13-iii (comp. sci. & app.)singlark
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions contained in a booklet. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details, verify that their booklet is complete, and notify invigilators of any issues within 5 minutes. They should mark their answers on an optical mark recognition (OMR) sheet provided and are not allowed to write anywhere else. Calculators and outside materials are prohibited.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that candidates should write their roll number on the exam paper. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates will be given the question booklet at the start of the exam and instructed to verify the number of pages and questions. They must fill in their OMR sheet number on the booklet. Each question has 4 answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. Answers should only be marked on the OMR sheet. The exam is out of 100 marks and lasts 1 hour and 15 minutes.
UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
Gyan Sagar Institute
SCF: 118-119-120,3rd Floor, Above State Bank of India
Sector 34/A, Chandigarh, 160022
Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
Website: http://www.gyansagarinstitute.com/ugc-net-economics-coaching-in-chandigarh/
Cbse ugc-net-computer-science-paper-2-december-2014Ashish Rai
This document provides instructions for a 50 question multiple choice exam. It instructs students to write their roll number, check that their test booklet is complete and in order, and notify invigilators of any issues within 5 minutes. It describes that each question has 4 answer options labeled A-D and to fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions to only mark answers on the OMR sheet, not to write anywhere identifying, to return materials after the exam, and allows keeping the original booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the question paper contains 50 multiple choice questions with 4 answer options each. It provides details on how to fill the answer sheet and instructions that candidates must follow during the exam.
2. Key points mentioned include writing the roll number on the question paper, indicating answers on the OMR answer sheet within the allotted time, not writing anything else on the test booklet except in the designated space, and returning the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3. The document also specifies the number of pages in the question booklet, that blue or black ballpoint pen should be used, calculators and
Cbse ugc-net-computer-science-paper-2-december-2013jinto johnson
This document provides instructions for a test consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates must write their roll number on the cover page. They will be given a question booklet and must verify the number of pages and questions match the cover information within 5 minutes or request a replacement. Candidates must fill in their responses on an OMR answer sheet provided, using a blue or black pen. Calculators and outside materials are not permitted.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam, including writing your roll number, filling in responses on an answer sheet, and guidelines for the exam format and timing.
2. Students will be given a question booklet and must verify the number of pages and questions within 5 minutes. If issues are found, they can request a new booklet within this time.
3. Various multiple choice questions will be asked, and students must fill in their responses on the answer sheet using a blue or black pen. No other writing utensils or aids are permitted.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination consisting of 75 questions across 24 pages. It instructs candidates to write their roll number, check that their question booklet is complete and in order, and select their answers by darkening circles on the OMR answer sheet provided. Candidates are warned that marking anywhere other than the circles or revealing their identity could lead to disqualification. They must return the question booklet and OMR sheet after the examination and may keep a duplicate of the OMR sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there will be 75 questions and candidates have 2.5 hours to complete the exam.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number on the exam booklet. They should verify the number of pages and questions before starting.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet using a blue or black pen. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
The document provides instructions for a test exam. It states that the exam will be 11⁄4 hours long and contain 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on filling out identifying information, instructions for examining the exam booklet, how to fill in responses on the answer sheet, rules on rough work, and prohibitions on writing anywhere else in the booklet.
04 apr 2015 c jee main exam JEE MAIN EXAM 2015 CODE -C QUESTION PAPER DT.04....udhayam99
This document contains instructions for a test booklet and answer sheet. It states that the test booklet has 40 printed pages and should not be opened until instructed to do so. It provides details about filling in personal information on the answer sheet such as name, roll number, and signatures. It outlines the structure of the test, including its duration of 3 hours and content consisting of 90 questions across mathematics, physics and chemistry sections. It provides guidance on marking responses correctly and procedures to follow before, during and after the test.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions over 24 pages. It instructs students to write their roll number on the paper and check that their question booklet is intact and in order. Students must fill in their assigned identification number and use a provided answer sheet to select only one answer for each question by darkening the corresponding circle. They are advised to follow the given instructions carefully and not write any identifying marks besides the spaces provided.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam:
1. Students must write their roll number on the question paper and check that their question booklet is complete within 5 minutes of receiving it.
2. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be answered on the OMR sheet provided.
3. Only a blue or black ballpoint pen should be used to fill in answers, and no extra materials like calculators are permitted. Any marks outside the answer circles will not be evaluated.
This document contains instructions for a test booklet containing 90 questions divided into three parts - Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics. The test is 3 hours long and the maximum marks are 360. Each question is worth 4 marks and there will be deductions for incorrect answers. Candidates are not allowed to carry any unauthorized materials into the examination hall. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided in the test booklet.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam with 50 questions.
2. Examinees will be given a question booklet to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page within 5 minutes or get a replacement.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR answer sheet provided in the booklet. The test booklet number should also be entered on the answer sheet.
4. Questions have 4 options labelled A, B, C or D. Only the correct response should be darkened on the OMR sheet.
5. Rough work should be done on the inside pages and exam materials must be returned after the exam. Calculators are not permitted.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a multiple choice exam consisting of 50 questions. It specifies that candidates should fill in personal details on the cover page and instructions for examining the question booklet upon receiving it. Candidates are asked to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page and report any issues within 5 minutes for a replacement. Each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. No negative marks will be given for incorrect answers.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there are 75 questions in the exam booklet.
2. Examinees must fill in personal details on the booklet cover and check that the number of pages and questions match the details on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within 5 minutes.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet provided, following instructions inside carefully. Rough work should be done at the end of the booklet.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, and only the first 50 attempted will be graded.
2. Examinees have 5 minutes to verify the test booklet is not damaged or missing pages before starting. They must fill in test booklet and OMR sheet codes for matching.
3. Instructions provide details on selecting answers, handling the OMR sheet, writing in the test booklet, and general exam policies like starting and ending on time.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam containing 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, with the first 50 attempted being evaluated.
2. At the start of the exam, candidates have 5 minutes to verify the question booklet matches the cover details. They must fill in identification details on the answer sheet and question booklet.
3. The exam consists of multiple choice questions with options A, B, C or D. Candidates must darken the correct answer oval on the answer sheet.
UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
Gyan Sagar Institute
SCF: 118-119-120,3rd Floor, Above State Bank of India
Sector 34/A, Chandigarh, 160022
Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
Website: http://www.gyansagarinstitute.com/ugc-net-economics-coaching-in-chandigarh/
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam, including writing your roll number, filling in responses on an answer sheet, and guidelines for the exam format and timing.
2. Students will be given a question booklet and must verify the number of pages and questions within 5 minutes. If issues are found, they can request a new booklet within this time.
3. Various multiple choice questions will be asked, and students must fill in their responses on the answer sheet using a blue or black pen. No other writing utensils or aids are permitted.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination consisting of 75 questions across 24 pages. It instructs candidates to write their roll number, check that their question booklet is complete and in order, and select their answers by darkening circles on the OMR answer sheet provided. Candidates are warned that marking anywhere other than the circles or revealing their identity could lead to disqualification. They must return the question booklet and OMR sheet after the examination and may keep a duplicate of the OMR sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there will be 75 questions and candidates have 2.5 hours to complete the exam.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number on the exam booklet. They should verify the number of pages and questions before starting.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet using a blue or black pen. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
The document provides instructions for a test exam. It states that the exam will be 11⁄4 hours long and contain 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on filling out identifying information, instructions for examining the exam booklet, how to fill in responses on the answer sheet, rules on rough work, and prohibitions on writing anywhere else in the booklet.
04 apr 2015 c jee main exam JEE MAIN EXAM 2015 CODE -C QUESTION PAPER DT.04....udhayam99
This document contains instructions for a test booklet and answer sheet. It states that the test booklet has 40 printed pages and should not be opened until instructed to do so. It provides details about filling in personal information on the answer sheet such as name, roll number, and signatures. It outlines the structure of the test, including its duration of 3 hours and content consisting of 90 questions across mathematics, physics and chemistry sections. It provides guidance on marking responses correctly and procedures to follow before, during and after the test.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions over 24 pages. It instructs students to write their roll number on the paper and check that their question booklet is intact and in order. Students must fill in their assigned identification number and use a provided answer sheet to select only one answer for each question by darkening the corresponding circle. They are advised to follow the given instructions carefully and not write any identifying marks besides the spaces provided.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam:
1. Students must write their roll number on the question paper and check that their question booklet is complete within 5 minutes of receiving it.
2. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be answered on the OMR sheet provided.
3. Only a blue or black ballpoint pen should be used to fill in answers, and no extra materials like calculators are permitted. Any marks outside the answer circles will not be evaluated.
This document contains instructions for a test booklet containing 90 questions divided into three parts - Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics. The test is 3 hours long and the maximum marks are 360. Each question is worth 4 marks and there will be deductions for incorrect answers. Candidates are not allowed to carry any unauthorized materials into the examination hall. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided in the test booklet.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam with 50 questions.
2. Examinees will be given a question booklet to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page within 5 minutes or get a replacement.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR answer sheet provided in the booklet. The test booklet number should also be entered on the answer sheet.
4. Questions have 4 options labelled A, B, C or D. Only the correct response should be darkened on the OMR sheet.
5. Rough work should be done on the inside pages and exam materials must be returned after the exam. Calculators are not permitted.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a multiple choice exam consisting of 50 questions. It specifies that candidates should fill in personal details on the cover page and instructions for examining the question booklet upon receiving it. Candidates are asked to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page and report any issues within 5 minutes for a replacement. Each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. No negative marks will be given for incorrect answers.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there are 75 questions in the exam booklet.
2. Examinees must fill in personal details on the booklet cover and check that the number of pages and questions match the details on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within 5 minutes.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet provided, following instructions inside carefully. Rough work should be done at the end of the booklet.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, and only the first 50 attempted will be graded.
2. Examinees have 5 minutes to verify the test booklet is not damaged or missing pages before starting. They must fill in test booklet and OMR sheet codes for matching.
3. Instructions provide details on selecting answers, handling the OMR sheet, writing in the test booklet, and general exam policies like starting and ending on time.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam containing 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, with the first 50 attempted being evaluated.
2. At the start of the exam, candidates have 5 minutes to verify the question booklet matches the cover details. They must fill in identification details on the answer sheet and question booklet.
3. The exam consists of multiple choice questions with options A, B, C or D. Candidates must darken the correct answer oval on the answer sheet.
UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
Gyan Sagar Institute
SCF: 118-119-120,3rd Floor, Above State Bank of India
Sector 34/A, Chandigarh, 160022
Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
Website: http://www.gyansagarinstitute.com/ugc-net-economics-coaching-in-chandigarh/
This document provides instructions for a 50 question multiple choice exam on Computer Science and Applications. It states that the exam will be 1 hour and 15 minutes long. It provides detailed instructions on filling out the scantron answer sheet correctly, including bubbling in the test booklet number and other identifying information. It also warns candidates that any attempts to cheat, such as changing answers after or using prohibited materials, will result in disqualification.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It consists of 13 points that describe procedures for filling out the answer sheet, handling rough work, and other testing policies. Specifically, it notes that the paper contains 60 multiple choice questions, though only 50 need to be answered. It provides guidance on marking answers on the scantron sheet and dealing with issues like changing answers.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It details that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates only need to answer 50.
2. The instructions emphasize verifying the exam booklet upon receiving it to check for issues like missing pages or questions. Candidates are told to raise any issues within 5 minutes to receive a replacement.
3. Candidates are to mark their answers on the provided answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question instead of writing anywhere else, and are warned that writing anywhere identifying like their name will disqualify them.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam for Computer Science and Applications. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions to be completed within 1 1/4 hours. It provides instructions on filling out identification details, how to check that the exam paper is correct, how to fill in answers on the answer sheet, and other rules around conduct including no calculators allowed.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions within the allotted time.
2. Candidates are to darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to their chosen alternative (A, B, C or D) for each question. They are also instructed to fill details on the answer sheet like roll number and test booklet code for evaluation.
3. The instructions provide guidance on receiving and verifying the question paper booklet, handling multiple answers, doing rough work, and completing the exam within the specified time and as per guidelines.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a computer science and applications exam. It details procedures for receiving and verifying the exam booklet, how to indicate answers in the answer sheet, exam rules, and provides other important details to guide candidates through the exam process. It is an exam instruction sheet that outlines expectations and protocols for a standardized test.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 75 questions. It details that students must write their roll number on the exam paper and answer sheet. They are to choose one answer for each question by filling in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Calculators and log tables are prohibited. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
CBSE UGC NET December 2015 paper I solved PaperBonala Kondal
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions. The instructions state that candidates should verify that their test booklet and answer sheet match in number of pages and questions. They are informed to darken answers in the provided answer sheet only, and that use of calculators is prohibited. Finally, candidates are warned that writing anything to identify themselves on the answer sheet could lead to disqualification.
Previous year question paper of ugc net jrf exam june 2013 paper ii (politica...Kishor Vp
This document provides instructions for a political science exam. It outlines the structure of the exam, which consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number and check that their question booklet is complete. Candidates are advised to only mark their answers in the designated sections of the OMR answer sheet and are not allowed to use outside materials during the exam.
The La Franci Hotel focuses on providing luxurious, elegant, and formal service with precise standards and specifications for treating customers. Employees receive thorough training and are committed to serving guests like royalty, as reflected in their motto "We are Ladies and Gentlemen serving Ladies and Gentlemen." The hotel's culture emphasizes innovation, attention to detail, outstanding customer service, training employees as individuals and in groups, and creating a stable environment for guests.
This document outlines the topics covered in the CS958 Wireless Security course, including an introduction to wireless technologies and standards, common wireless threats such as eavesdropping and denial of service attacks, security considerations for different wireless networks and protocols, and Bluetooth security architecture and threats. Specific areas covered are WEP, wireless standards, CDPD, GPRS, GSM, SSL, WTLS, WAP security, and Bluetooth baseband security. References for further reading are also provided.
This document outlines a course on vehicular ad hoc networks (VANETs). The course contains 5 units that cover topics such as traffic monitoring applications, models for vehicle movement and traffic flow, networking issues like routing protocols, delay-tolerant networking approaches, and localization techniques. Recommended textbooks and reference books on VANETs and wireless ad hoc networks are also provided.
This document outlines the contents of a course on ad hoc networks. The course is divided into 5 units that cover: 1) fundamentals of wireless communication and ad hoc network introduction, 2) ad hoc routing protocols, 3) multicast routing in ad hoc networks, 4) transport layer and security protocols for ad hoc networks, and 5) quality of service and energy management in ad hoc networks. Each unit discusses key issues, classifications, and examples of protocols and solutions for the various aspects of building and managing ad hoc networks.
The project aims to provide video lecture classes through DVDs to poor and rural students in India to improve access to education and reduce gaps between rich and poor. It will record lectures from the best teachers in various subjects and distribute the DVDs to schools and students in underdeveloped regions for free. Initially, the project will focus on subjects like English, math, science, and computers in two districts in India and hopes to expand nationwide by 2020. The DVD lessons are intended to help students prepare for important exams by bringing high-quality teaching resources to remote areas that lack access to coaching and teachers.
This document provides an introduction to computer networking concepts for students. It discusses the basic components of a network, including cables, switches, routers and wireless access points. It explains the differences between peer-to-peer and client-server network configurations. Advantages of networking for schools include faster sharing of files and resources, lower costs through shared software licenses, and easier collaboration between students and teachers. Some considerations for setting up a wireless network are also outlined.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It begins with spaces to fill in the invigilators' signatures and details of the candidate's roll number and test booklet number.
The instructions state that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be completed in 1.25 hours. Candidates are asked to verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. They should not accept faulty booklets and must enter the test booklet number on their OMR answer sheet.
Each question has four answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should darken the oval for the correct response on their common OMR answer sheet. They are advised to follow the instructions carefully and do any
Why You Should Replace Windows 11 with Nitrux Linux 3.5.0 for enhanced perfor...SOFTTECHHUB
The choice of an operating system plays a pivotal role in shaping our computing experience. For decades, Microsoft's Windows has dominated the market, offering a familiar and widely adopted platform for personal and professional use. However, as technological advancements continue to push the boundaries of innovation, alternative operating systems have emerged, challenging the status quo and offering users a fresh perspective on computing.
One such alternative that has garnered significant attention and acclaim is Nitrux Linux 3.5.0, a sleek, powerful, and user-friendly Linux distribution that promises to redefine the way we interact with our devices. With its focus on performance, security, and customization, Nitrux Linux presents a compelling case for those seeking to break free from the constraints of proprietary software and embrace the freedom and flexibility of open-source computing.
GraphSummit Singapore | The Art of the Possible with Graph - Q2 2024Neo4j
Neha Bajwa, Vice President of Product Marketing, Neo4j
Join us as we explore breakthrough innovations enabled by interconnected data and AI. Discover firsthand how organizations use relationships in data to uncover contextual insights and solve our most pressing challenges – from optimizing supply chains, detecting fraud, and improving customer experiences to accelerating drug discoveries.
Goodbye Windows 11: Make Way for Nitrux Linux 3.5.0!SOFTTECHHUB
As the digital landscape continually evolves, operating systems play a critical role in shaping user experiences and productivity. The launch of Nitrux Linux 3.5.0 marks a significant milestone, offering a robust alternative to traditional systems such as Windows 11. This article delves into the essence of Nitrux Linux 3.5.0, exploring its unique features, advantages, and how it stands as a compelling choice for both casual users and tech enthusiasts.
Essentials of Automations: The Art of Triggers and Actions in FMESafe Software
In this second installment of our Essentials of Automations webinar series, we’ll explore the landscape of triggers and actions, guiding you through the nuances of authoring and adapting workspaces for seamless automations. Gain an understanding of the full spectrum of triggers and actions available in FME, empowering you to enhance your workspaces for efficient automation.
We’ll kick things off by showcasing the most commonly used event-based triggers, introducing you to various automation workflows like manual triggers, schedules, directory watchers, and more. Plus, see how these elements play out in real scenarios.
Whether you’re tweaking your current setup or building from the ground up, this session will arm you with the tools and insights needed to transform your FME usage into a powerhouse of productivity. Join us to discover effective strategies that simplify complex processes, enhancing your productivity and transforming your data management practices with FME. Let’s turn complexity into clarity and make your workspaces work wonders!
HCL Notes und Domino Lizenzkostenreduzierung in der Welt von DLAUpanagenda
Webinar Recording: https://www.panagenda.com/webinars/hcl-notes-und-domino-lizenzkostenreduzierung-in-der-welt-von-dlau/
DLAU und die Lizenzen nach dem CCB- und CCX-Modell sind für viele in der HCL-Community seit letztem Jahr ein heißes Thema. Als Notes- oder Domino-Kunde haben Sie vielleicht mit unerwartet hohen Benutzerzahlen und Lizenzgebühren zu kämpfen. Sie fragen sich vielleicht, wie diese neue Art der Lizenzierung funktioniert und welchen Nutzen sie Ihnen bringt. Vor allem wollen Sie sicherlich Ihr Budget einhalten und Kosten sparen, wo immer möglich. Das verstehen wir und wir möchten Ihnen dabei helfen!
Wir erklären Ihnen, wie Sie häufige Konfigurationsprobleme lösen können, die dazu führen können, dass mehr Benutzer gezählt werden als nötig, und wie Sie überflüssige oder ungenutzte Konten identifizieren und entfernen können, um Geld zu sparen. Es gibt auch einige Ansätze, die zu unnötigen Ausgaben führen können, z. B. wenn ein Personendokument anstelle eines Mail-Ins für geteilte Mailboxen verwendet wird. Wir zeigen Ihnen solche Fälle und deren Lösungen. Und natürlich erklären wir Ihnen das neue Lizenzmodell.
Nehmen Sie an diesem Webinar teil, bei dem HCL-Ambassador Marc Thomas und Gastredner Franz Walder Ihnen diese neue Welt näherbringen. Es vermittelt Ihnen die Tools und das Know-how, um den Überblick zu bewahren. Sie werden in der Lage sein, Ihre Kosten durch eine optimierte Domino-Konfiguration zu reduzieren und auch in Zukunft gering zu halten.
Diese Themen werden behandelt
- Reduzierung der Lizenzkosten durch Auffinden und Beheben von Fehlkonfigurationen und überflüssigen Konten
- Wie funktionieren CCB- und CCX-Lizenzen wirklich?
- Verstehen des DLAU-Tools und wie man es am besten nutzt
- Tipps für häufige Problembereiche, wie z. B. Team-Postfächer, Funktions-/Testbenutzer usw.
- Praxisbeispiele und Best Practices zum sofortigen Umsetzen
“An Outlook of the Ongoing and Future Relationship between Blockchain Technologies and Process-aware Information Systems.” Invited talk at the joint workshop on Blockchain for Information Systems (BC4IS) and Blockchain for Trusted Data Sharing (B4TDS), co-located with with the 36th International Conference on Advanced Information Systems Engineering (CAiSE), 3 June 2024, Limassol, Cyprus.
Threats to mobile devices are more prevalent and increasing in scope and complexity. Users of mobile devices desire to take full advantage of the features
available on those devices, but many of the features provide convenience and capability but sacrifice security. This best practices guide outlines steps the users can take to better protect personal devices and information.
UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series, part 5DianaGray10
Welcome to UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series part 5. In this session, we will cover CI/CD with devops.
Topics covered:
CI/CD with in UiPath
End-to-end overview of CI/CD pipeline with Azure devops
Speaker:
Lyndsey Byblow, Test Suite Sales Engineer @ UiPath, Inc.
In the rapidly evolving landscape of technologies, XML continues to play a vital role in structuring, storing, and transporting data across diverse systems. The recent advancements in artificial intelligence (AI) present new methodologies for enhancing XML development workflows, introducing efficiency, automation, and intelligent capabilities. This presentation will outline the scope and perspective of utilizing AI in XML development. The potential benefits and the possible pitfalls will be highlighted, providing a balanced view of the subject.
We will explore the capabilities of AI in understanding XML markup languages and autonomously creating structured XML content. Additionally, we will examine the capacity of AI to enrich plain text with appropriate XML markup. Practical examples and methodological guidelines will be provided to elucidate how AI can be effectively prompted to interpret and generate accurate XML markup.
Further emphasis will be placed on the role of AI in developing XSLT, or schemas such as XSD and Schematron. We will address the techniques and strategies adopted to create prompts for generating code, explaining code, or refactoring the code, and the results achieved.
The discussion will extend to how AI can be used to transform XML content. In particular, the focus will be on the use of AI XPath extension functions in XSLT, Schematron, Schematron Quick Fixes, or for XML content refactoring.
The presentation aims to deliver a comprehensive overview of AI usage in XML development, providing attendees with the necessary knowledge to make informed decisions. Whether you’re at the early stages of adopting AI or considering integrating it in advanced XML development, this presentation will cover all levels of expertise.
By highlighting the potential advantages and challenges of integrating AI with XML development tools and languages, the presentation seeks to inspire thoughtful conversation around the future of XML development. We’ll not only delve into the technical aspects of AI-powered XML development but also discuss practical implications and possible future directions.
Driving Business Innovation: Latest Generative AI Advancements & Success StorySafe Software
Are you ready to revolutionize how you handle data? Join us for a webinar where we’ll bring you up to speed with the latest advancements in Generative AI technology and discover how leveraging FME with tools from giants like Google Gemini, Amazon, and Microsoft OpenAI can supercharge your workflow efficiency.
During the hour, we’ll take you through:
Guest Speaker Segment with Hannah Barrington: Dive into the world of dynamic real estate marketing with Hannah, the Marketing Manager at Workspace Group. Hear firsthand how their team generates engaging descriptions for thousands of office units by integrating diverse data sources—from PDF floorplans to web pages—using FME transformers, like OpenAIVisionConnector and AnthropicVisionConnector. This use case will show you how GenAI can streamline content creation for marketing across the board.
Ollama Use Case: Learn how Scenario Specialist Dmitri Bagh has utilized Ollama within FME to input data, create custom models, and enhance security protocols. This segment will include demos to illustrate the full capabilities of FME in AI-driven processes.
Custom AI Models: Discover how to leverage FME to build personalized AI models using your data. Whether it’s populating a model with local data for added security or integrating public AI tools, find out how FME facilitates a versatile and secure approach to AI.
We’ll wrap up with a live Q&A session where you can engage with our experts on your specific use cases, and learn more about optimizing your data workflows with AI.
This webinar is ideal for professionals seeking to harness the power of AI within their data management systems while ensuring high levels of customization and security. Whether you're a novice or an expert, gain actionable insights and strategies to elevate your data processes. Join us to see how FME and AI can revolutionize how you work with data!
How to Get CNIC Information System with Paksim Ga.pptxdanishmna97
Pakdata Cf is a groundbreaking system designed to streamline and facilitate access to CNIC information. This innovative platform leverages advanced technology to provide users with efficient and secure access to their CNIC details.
Climate Impact of Software Testing at Nordic Testing DaysKari Kakkonen
My slides at Nordic Testing Days 6.6.2024
Climate impact / sustainability of software testing discussed on the talk. ICT and testing must carry their part of global responsibility to help with the climat warming. We can minimize the carbon footprint but we can also have a carbon handprint, a positive impact on the climate. Quality characteristics can be added with sustainability, and then measured continuously. Test environments can be used less, and in smaller scale and on demand. Test techniques can be used in optimizing or minimizing number of tests. Test automation can be used to speed up testing.
Communications Mining Series - Zero to Hero - Session 1DianaGray10
This session provides introduction to UiPath Communication Mining, importance and platform overview. You will acquire a good understand of the phases in Communication Mining as we go over the platform with you. Topics covered:
• Communication Mining Overview
• Why is it important?
• How can it help today’s business and the benefits
• Phases in Communication Mining
• Demo on Platform overview
• Q/A
UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series, part 6DianaGray10
Welcome to UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series part 6. In this session, we will cover Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI.
UiPath Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI webinar offers an in-depth exploration of leveraging cutting-edge technologies for test automation within the UiPath platform. Attendees will delve into the integration of generative AI, a test automation solution, with Open AI advanced natural language processing capabilities.
Throughout the session, participants will discover how this synergy empowers testers to automate repetitive tasks, enhance testing accuracy, and expedite the software testing life cycle. Topics covered include the seamless integration process, practical use cases, and the benefits of harnessing AI-driven automation for UiPath testing initiatives. By attending this webinar, testers, and automation professionals can gain valuable insights into harnessing the power of AI to optimize their test automation workflows within the UiPath ecosystem, ultimately driving efficiency and quality in software development processes.
What will you get from this session?
1. Insights into integrating generative AI.
2. Understanding how this integration enhances test automation within the UiPath platform
3. Practical demonstrations
4. Exploration of real-world use cases illustrating the benefits of AI-driven test automation for UiPath
Topics covered:
What is generative AI
Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI.
UiPath integration with generative AI
Speaker:
Deepak Rai, Automation Practice Lead, Boundaryless Group and UiPath MVP
UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series, part 6
NET-CS-JUNE-2012-PAPER-III
1. 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an
open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
otherdiscrepancyshouldbegotreplacedimmediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the
Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra
time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D).You have to darken the circle as indicated below
on the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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[Maximum Marks : 150Time : 2 1
/2
hours]
PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Signature and Name of Invigilator
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
Roll No.
(In words)
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.________________________________
8 7
(In figures as per admission card)
J 1 2
J-87-12 1 P.T.O.
UGC-NET-JUNE-2012-CS-PAPER-III
2. Paper-III 2 J-87-12
1. Consider the following pseudocode
segment :
K:=0
for i1:= l to n
for i2:= 1 to i1
:
:
:
for im:= 1 to im–1
K:= K+1
The value of K after the execution of
this code shall be
(A) C(n + m – 1, m)
(B) C(n – m + 1, m)
(C) C(n + m – 1, n)
(D) C(n – m + 1, n)
2. In Delta Rule for error minimization
(A) weights are adjusted w.r.to
change in the output
(B) weights are adjusted w.r.to
difference between desired
output and actual output
(C) weights are adjusted w.r.to
difference between input and
output
(D) none of the above
3. The concept of pipelining is most
effective in improving performance if
the tasks being performed in different
stages :
(A) require different amount of time
(B) require about the same amount of
time
(C) require different amount of time
with time difference between any
two tasks being same
(D) require different amount with
time difference between any two
tasks being different
4. What is Granularity ?
(A) The size of database
(B) The size of data item
(C) The size of record
(D) The size of file
5. Suppose that a given application is run
on a 64-processor machine and that
70 percent of the application can be
parallelized. Then the expected
performance improvement using
Amdahl’s law is
(A) 4.22 (B) 3.22
(C) 3.32 (D) 3.52
6. If two fuzzy sets A and B are given
with membership functions
µA(x) = {0.2, 0.4, 0.8, 0.5, 0.1}
µB(x) = {0.1, 0.3, 0.6, 0.3, 0.2}
Then the value of µ –––
A∩B
will be
(A) {0.9, 0.7, 0.4, 0.8, 0.9}
(B) {0.2, 0.4, 0.8, 0.5, 0.2}
(C) {0.1, 0.3, 0.6, 0.3, 0.1}
(D) {0.7, 0.3, 0.4, 0.2, 0.7}
7. Match the following :
(i) OLAP (a) Regression
(ii) OLTP (b) Data Warehouse
(iii) Decision
Tree
(c) RDBMS
(iv) Neural
Network
(d) Classification
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(C) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(D) (c) (b) (d) (a)
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
3. J-87-12 3 Paper-III
8. Which level of Abstraction describes
what data are stored in the Database ?
(A) Physical level
(B) View level
(C) Abstraction level
(D) Logical level
9. The problem that occurs when one
transaction updates a database item and
then the transaction fails for some
reason is ________.
(A) Temporary Select Problem
(B) Temporary Modify Problem
(C) Dirty Read Problem
(D) None
10. In an image compression system 16384
bits are used to represent 256 × 256
image with 256 gray levels. What is
the compression ratio for this system ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 8
11. X.25 is ________ Network.
(A) Connection Oriented Network
(B) Connection Less Network
(C) Either Connection Oriented or
Connection Less
(D) Neither Connection Oriented nor
Connection Less
12. Which of the following can be used for
clustering of data ?
(A) Single layer perception
(B) Multilayer perception
(C) Self organizing map
(D) Radial basis function
13. Which of the following is scheme to
deal with deadlock ?
(A) Time out
(B) Time in
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
14. If the pixels of an image are shuffled
then the parameter that may change is
(A) Histogram (B) Mean
(C) Entropy (D) Covariance
15. The common property of functional
language and logical programming
language :
(A) Both are declarative
(B) Both are based on λ-calculus
(C) Both are procedural
(D) Both are functional
16. Given the following statements :
(i) The power of deterministic finite
state machine and non-
deterministic finite state machine
are same.
(ii) The power of deterministic
pushdown automaton and non-
deterministic pushdown automaton
are same.
Which of the above is the correct
statement(s) ?
(A) Both (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (i)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
17. Let Q(x, y) denote “x + y = 0” and let
there be two quantifications given as
(i) ∃y∀x Q(x, y)
(ii) ∀x∃y Q(x, y)
where x & y are real numbers. Then
which of the following is valid ?
(A) (i) is true & (ii) is false.
(B) (i) is false & (ii) is true.
(C) (i) is false & (ii) is also false.
(D) both (i) & (ii) are true.
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
4. Paper-III 4 J-87-12
18. Consider a schema R(A, B, C, D) and
functional dependencies A → B and
C → D. Then the decomposition
R1(A, B) and R2(C, D) is
(A) Dependency preserving but not
lossless join
(B) Dependency preserving and
lossless join
(C) Lossless Join but not dependency
preserving
(D) Lossless Join
19. The quantiser in an image-compression
system is a
(A) lossy element which exploits the
psychovisual redundancy
(B) lossless element which exploits
the psychovisual redundancy
(C) lossy element which exploits the
statistical redundancy
(D) lossless element which exploits
the statistical redundancy
20. Data Warehouse provides
(A) Transaction Responsiveness
(B) Storage, Functionality Respon-
siveness to queries
(C) Demand and Supply
Responsiveness
(D) None of the above
21. A* algorithm uses f' = g + h' to estimate
the cost of getting from the initial state
to the goal state, where g is a measure
of the cost of getting from initial state
to the current node and the function h'
is an estimate of the cost of getting
from the current node to the goal state.
To find a path involving the fewest
number of steps, we should set
(A) g = 1 (B) g = 0
(C) h' = 0 (D) h' = 1
22. The transform which possesses the
highest ‘energy compaction’ property
is
(A) Slant transform
(B) Cosine transform
(C) Fourier transform
(D) Karhunen-Loeve transform
23. Which one of the following prolog
programs correctly implement “if G
succeeds then execute goal P else
execute goal θ ?”
(A) if-else (G, P, θ) :- !, call(G), call(P).
if-else (G, P, θ) :- call(θ).
(B) if-else (G, P, θ) :- call(G), !, call(P).
if-else (G, P, θ) :- call(θ).
(C) if-else (G, P, θ) :- call(G), call(P), !.
if-else (G, P, θ) :- call(θ).
(D) All of the above
24. The _______ memory allocation
function modifies the previous
allocated space.
(A) calloc( ) (B) free( )
(C) malloc( ) (D) realloc( )
25. Which is not the correct statement(s) ?
(i) Every context sensitive language
is recursive.
(ii) There is a recursive language that
is not context sensitive.
(A) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(B) (i) is true and (ii) is true.
(C) (i) is false, (ii) is false.
(D) (i) is false and (ii) is true.
26. The mechanism that binds code and
data together and keeps them secure
from outside world is known as
(A) Abstraction
(B) Inheritance
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Polymorphism
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
5. J-87-12 5 Paper-III
27. Identify the addressing modes of below
instructions and match them :
(a) ADI (1) Immediate addressing
(b) STA (2) Direct addressing
(c) CMA (3) Implied addressing
(d) SUB (4) Register addressing
(A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
(B) a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3 (a)
(C) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1, d – 4 (d)
(D) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1
28. Which one of the following is not a
Greibach Normal form grammar ?
(i) S → a | bA | aA | bB
A → a
B → b
(ii) S → a | aA | AB
A → a
B → b
(iii) S → a | A | aA
A → a
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
29. Which of the following IP address
class is a multicast address ?
(A) Class A (B) Class B
(C) Class C (D) Class D
30. While unit testing a module, it is found
that for a set of test data, maximum
90% of the code alone were tested with
a probability of success 0.9. The
reliability of the module is
(A) atleast greater than 0.9
(B) equal to 0.9
(C) atmost 0.81
(D) atleast 1/0.81
31. The upper bound of computing time of
m coloring decision problem is
(A) O(nm) (B) O(nm
)
(C) O(nmn
) (D) O(nm
mn
)
32. The equivalent grammar corresponding
to the grammar G : S → aA, A → BB,
B → aBb | ∈ is
(A) S → aA, A → BB, B → aBb
(B) S → a|aA, A → BB, B → aBb | ab
(C) S → a | aA, A → BB | B, B → aBb
(D) S → a |aA,A→ BB |B, B→ aBb |ab
33. Which one of the following statements
is incorrect ?
(A) The number of regions
corresponds to the cyclomatic
complexity.
(B) Cyclometric complexity for a
flow graph G is V(G) = N – E + 2,
where E is the number of edges
and N is the number of nodes in
the flow graph.
(C) Cyclometric complexity for a
flow graph G is V(G) = E – N + 2,
where E is the number of edges
& N is the number of nodes in
the flow graph.
(D) Cyclometric complexity for a
flow graph G is V(G) = P + 1,
where P is the number of
predicate nodes contained in the
flow graph G.
34. Consider a weighted undirected graph
with positive edge weights and let
(u, v) be an edge in the graph. It is
known that the shortest path from
source vertex s to u has weight 53 and
shortest path from s to v has weight
65. Which statement is always true ?
(A) Weight (u, v) < 12
(B) Weight (u, v) = 12
(C) Weight (u, v) > 12
(D) Weight (u, v) > 12
35. Consider the regular expression (a + b)
(a + b) … (a + b) (n-times). The
minimum number of states in finite
automaton that recognizes the language
represented by this regular expression
contains
(A) n states (B) n + 1 states
(C) n + 2 states (D) 2n
states
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
6. Paper-III 6 J-87-12
36. Number of binary trees formed with 5
nodes are
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 120 (D) 42
37. Are we building the right product ?
This statement refers to
(A) Verification
(B) Validation
(C) Testing
(D) Software quality assurance
38. The following postfix expression is
evaluated using a stack
823^/23* + 51* –
The top two elements of the stack after
first * is evaluated
(A) 6, 1 (B) 5, 7
(C) 3, 2 (D) 1, 5
39. The following CFG
S → aB | bA, A → a | as | bAA,
B → b | bs | aBB
generates strings of terminals that have
(A) odd number of a’s and odd
number of b’s
(B) even number of a’s and even
number of b’s
(C) equal number of a’s and b’s
(D) not equal number of a’s and b’s
40. Consider the following pseudo-code :
If (A > B) and (C > D) then
A = A + 1
B = B + 1
Endif
The cyclomatic complexity of the
pseudo-code is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
41. Which layer of OSI reference model
uses the ICMP (Internet Control
Message Protocol) ?
(A) Transport layer
(B) Data link layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Application layer
42. Which one of the following binary
search tree is optimal, if probabilities
of successful search and unsuccessful
search are same ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43. The regular expression for the
following DFA
is
(A) ab*(b + aa*b)*
(B) a*b(b + aa*b)*
(C) a*b(b* + aa*b)
(D) a*b(b * + aa*b)*
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
7. J-87-12 7 Paper-III
44. Which diagram provides a formal
graphic notation for modelling objects,
classes and their relationships to one
another ?
(A) Object diagram
(B) Class diagram
(C) Instance diagram
(D) Analysis diagram
45. A computer system supports 32 bit
virtual address as well as 32 bit
physical addresses. Since the virtual
address space is of same size as that of
physical address space, if we want to
get rid of virtual memory, which one of
the following is true ?
(A) Efficient implementation of
multiuser support is no longer
possible.
(B) The processor cache can be made
more efficient.
(C) Hardware support for memory
management is not needed.
(D) CPU scheduling can be made
more efficient.
46. The feasible region represented by the
constraints x1 – x2 < 1, x1 + x2 > 3,
x1 > 0, x2 > 0 of the objective function
Max Z = 3x1 + 2x2 is
(A) A polygon
(B) Unbounded feasible region
(C) A point
(D) None of these
47. The colour of an object is largely
determined by its diffuse reflection
coefficient. If Kd = (0.8, 0.4, 0), then
what shall be the colour of the object,
if the light used is blue and magenta ?
(A) White and Red
(B) Red and Blue
(C) Black and White
(D) Black and Red
48. If an instruction takes ‘i’ microseconds
and a page fault takes an additional ‘j’
microseconds. The effective instruction
time, if on the average a page fault
occurs every k instructions, is
(A) i + j/k (B) i + j * k
(C) (i + j)/k (D) (i + j) * k
49. In any simplex table, if corresponding
to any negative ∆j, all elements of the
column are negative or zero, the
solution under the test is
(A) degenerate solution
(B) unbounded solution
(C) alternative solution
(D) non-existing solution
50. How many relations are there on a set
with n elements that are symmetric and
a set with n elements that are reflexive
and symmetric ?
(A) 2n(n+1)/2
and 2n
.3n(n–1)/2
(B) 3n(n–1)/2
and 2n(n–1)
(C) 2n(n+1)/2
and 3n(n–1)/2
(D) 2n(n+1)/2
and 2n(n–1)/2
51. The strategy used to reduce the number
of tree branches and the number of
static evaluations applied in case of a
game tree is
(A) Minmax strategy
(B) Alpha-beta pruning strategy
(C) Constraint satisfaction strategy
(D) Static max strategy
52. Match the following :
(i) Regular
Grammar
(a) Pushdown
automaton
(ii) Context free
Grammar
(b) Linear
bounded
automaton
(iii) Unrestricted
Grammar
(c) Deterministic
finite
automaton
(iv) Context
Sensitive
Grammar
(d) Turing
machine
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(B) (c) (a) (d) (b)
(C) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(D) (c) (b) (d) (a)
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
8. Paper-III 8 J-87-12
53. Consider the below circuit and find the
output function f(x, y, z).
(A) x
–
z + xy +
–
yz
(B) x–z + xy + –y –z
(C) xz + xy +
–
y
–
z
(D) xz + x–y + –yz
54. What is the size (in terms of bits) of
Header length field in IPV4 header ?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16
55. Match the following with respect to
java.util.* class methods :
(a) Bit Set (i) Time zone
getTimezone( )
(b) Calendar (ii) int hashcode( )
(c) Time zone (iii) int nextInt( )
(d) Random (iv) Void setID(String
tzName)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
56. ______ is sometimes said to be object
oriented, because the only way to
manipulate kernel objects is by
invoking methods on their handles.
(A) Windows NT
(B) Windows XP
(C) Windows VISTA
(D) Windows 95/98
57. A user level process in Unix traps the
signal sent on a Ctrl + C input and has
a signal handling routine that saves
appropriate files before terminating the
process. When a Ctrl + C input is given
to this process, what is the mode in
which the signal handling routine
executes ?
(A) User mode
(B) Kernel mode
(C) Superuser mode
(D) Privileged mode
58. A CPU generally handles an interrupt
by executing an interrupt service
routine
(A) as soon as an interrupt is raised
(B) by checking the interrupt register
at the end of fetch cycle
(C) by checking the interrupt register
after finishing the executing the
current instruction
(D) by checking the interrupt register
at fixed time intervals
59. The perspective projection matrix, on
the view plane z = d where the centre
of projection is the origin (0, 0, 0) shall
be
(A)
0 0 0 d
0 0 d 0
0 d 0 0
d 0 0 1
(B)
d 0 0 0
0 d 0 0
0 0 d 0
0 0 1 0
(C)
0 0 0 d
0 0 d 0
0 d 0 0
1 0 0 0
(D)
d 0 0 0
0 d 0 0
0 0 d 0
0 0 0 1
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
9. J-87-12 9 Paper-III
60. Radio signals generally propagate
according to the following
mechanisms:
(A) Modulation, Amplification,
Scattering
(B) Reflection, Diffraction, Scattering
(C) Amplification, Diffraction,
Modulation
(D) Reflection, Amplification,
Diffraction
61. Identify the devices given below with
their IC numbers :
(i) USART (a) 8251
(ii) Micro controller (b) 8051
(iii) Interrupt controller (c) 8259
(iv) DMA controller (d) 8257
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (a) (b) (c)
62. The optimal solution of the following
assignment problem using Hungarian
method is
I II III IV
A 8 26 17 11
B 13 28 4 26
C 38 19 18 15
D 19 26 24 10
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(B) (I) (III) (II) (IV)
(C) (I) (III) (IV) (II)
(D) (I) (IV) (II) (III)
63. If a and b are the end points of a line,
then which one of the following is true ?
(A) If both end points are left, right,
above or below the window, the
line is invisible.
(B) If both end points are left, right,
above or below the window, the
line is completely visible.
(C) If both end points are left, right,
above or below the window, the
line is trivially visible.
(D) If both end points are left, right,
above or below the window, the
line is trivially invisible.
64. Match the following with link quality
measurement and handoff initiation :
(a) Networked-
Controlled
Handoff
(NCHO)
(i) MS connect to
BS
(b) Mobile-
Assisted
Handoff
(MAHO)
(ii) Process via
channel the
target BS
(c) Forward
Handoff
(iii) First Generation
Analog Cellular
System
(d) Hard
Handoff
(iv) Second Genera-
tion Digital
Cellular System
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
10. Paper-III 10 J-87-12
65. Consider the methods used by
processes P1 and P2 for accessing their
critical sections. The initial values of
shared Boolean variables S1 and S2 are
randomly assigned,
P1 P2
while (S1 = = S2); while (S1 = = S2);
critical section critical section
S1 = S2; S1 = S2;
Which one of the following statements
describes the properties achieved ?
(A) Mutual exclusion but not
progress
(B) Progress but not mutual
exclusion
(C) Neither mutual exclusion nor
progress
(D) Both mutual exclusion and
progress
66. If the period of a signal is 1000 ms,
then what is its frequency in kilohertz ?
(A) 10–3
KHz (B) 10–2
KHz
(C) 10–1
KHz (D) 1 KHz
67. Let a * H and b * H be two cosets of H.
(i) Either a * H and b * H are disjoint
(ii) a * H and b * H are identical
Then,
(A) only (i) is true
(B) only (ii) is true
(C) (i) or (ii) is true
(D) (i) and (ii) is false
68. HTML is defined using SGML – an
_______ standard, information
processing-text and office systems
(SGML) for text information
processing.
(A) ISO – 8878
(B) ISO – 8879
(C) ISO – 8880
(D) ISO – 8881
69. What is the meaning of ‘Hibernate’ in
Windows XP/Windows 7 ?
(A) Restart the computers in safe
mode.
(B) Restart the computers in normal
mode.
(C) Shutdown the computer
terminating all the running
applications.
(D) Shutdown the computer without
closing the running applications.
70. Assume that we have constructor
functions for both base class and
derived class. Now consider the
declaration in main( ). Base * P = New
Derived; in what sequence will the
constructor be called ?
(A) Derived class constructor
followed by Base class
constructor.
(B) Base class constructor followed
by derived class constructor.
(C) Base class constructor will not be
called.
(D) Derived class constructor will
not be called.
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
11. J-87-12 11 Paper-III
71. Which one of the following options is
not a shell in UNIX system ?
(A) Bourne Shell
(B) C Shell
(C) Net Shell
(D) Korn Shell
72.
G1 and G2 are two graphs as shown :
(A) Both G1 and G2 are planar
graphs.
(B) Both G1 and G2 are not planar
graphs.
(C) G1 is planar and G2 is not planar
graph.
(D) G1 is not planar and G2 is planar
graph.
73. In which file the compiler manage the
various objects, which are used in
windows programming ?
(A) Control File
(B) Binary File
(C) Text File
(D) Obj File
74. On a disk with 1000 cylinders
(0 to 999) find the number of tracks,
the disk arm must move to satisfy all
the requests in the disk queue. Assume
the last request service was at track
345 and the head is moving toward
track 0. The queue in FIFO order
contains requests for the following
tracks :
123, 874, 692, 475, 105, 376
(Assume SCAN algorithm)
(A) 2013
(B) 1219
(C) 1967
(D) 1507
75. Halftoning is defined as
(A) a technique to obtain increased
visual resolution using multiple
intensity levels.
(B) a technique for using minimum
number of intensity levels to
obtain increased visual resolution.
(C) a technique to obtain increased
visual resolution using maximum
number of intensity levels.
(D) a technique for using appropriate
number intensity levels to obtain
increased visual resolution.
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS