This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
The project aims to provide video lecture classes through DVDs to poor and rural students in India to improve access to education and reduce gaps between rich and poor. It will record lectures from the best teachers in various subjects and distribute the DVDs to schools and students in underdeveloped regions for free. Initially, the project will focus on subjects like English, math, science, and computers in two districts in India and hopes to expand nationwide by 2020. The DVD lessons are intended to help students prepare for important exams by bringing high-quality teaching resources to remote areas that lack access to coaching and teachers.
This document outlines the contents of a course on ad hoc networks. The course is divided into 5 units that cover: 1) fundamentals of wireless communication and ad hoc network introduction, 2) ad hoc routing protocols, 3) multicast routing in ad hoc networks, 4) transport layer and security protocols for ad hoc networks, and 5) quality of service and energy management in ad hoc networks. Each unit discusses key issues, classifications, and examples of protocols and solutions for the various aspects of building and managing ad hoc networks.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the question paper contains 50 multiple choice questions with 4 answer options each. It provides details on how to fill the answer sheet and instructions that candidates must follow during the exam.
2. Key points mentioned include writing the roll number on the question paper, indicating answers on the OMR answer sheet within the allotted time, not writing anything else on the test booklet except in the designated space, and returning the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3. The document also specifies the number of pages in the question booklet, that blue or black ballpoint pen should be used, calculators and
This document outlines a course on vehicular ad hoc networks (VANETs). The course contains 5 units that cover topics such as traffic monitoring applications, models for vehicle movement and traffic flow, networking issues like routing protocols, delay-tolerant networking approaches, and localization techniques. Recommended textbooks and reference books on VANETs and wireless ad hoc networks are also provided.
This document outlines the topics covered in the CS958 Wireless Security course, including an introduction to wireless technologies and standards, common wireless threats such as eavesdropping and denial of service attacks, security considerations for different wireless networks and protocols, and Bluetooth security architecture and threats. Specific areas covered are WEP, wireless standards, CDPD, GPRS, GSM, SSL, WTLS, WAP security, and Bluetooth baseband security. References for further reading are also provided.
This document provides an introduction to computer networking concepts for students. It discusses the basic components of a network, including cables, switches, routers and wireless access points. It explains the differences between peer-to-peer and client-server network configurations. Advantages of networking for schools include faster sharing of files and resources, lower costs through shared software licenses, and easier collaboration between students and teachers. Some considerations for setting up a wireless network are also outlined.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number, verify that their question booklet is correct, and fill in their OMR sheet number. It describes how to mark answers in the OMR sheet and provides other exam rules like doing rough work in the designated area and not discussing exam content after leaving.
This document summarizes key aspects of cardiac electrophysiology and electrocardiography. It discusses the electrical properties and functions of different cardiac tissues, the roles of the sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and Purkinje fibers as pacemakers. It also describes the components of an electrocardiogram and how it provides information about heart rate, rhythm, and tissue health. Common conduction abnormalities and arrhythmias are outlined as well.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering techniques. Current examples of GMO crops include corn, soybeans, canola that are engineered for insect or herbicide resistance. Developing a new GMO crop involves building the transgenes, transforming plant cells, selecting transformed plant lines, and conducting multi-year breeding and seed production. There is ongoing debate around issues of food safety, environmental impacts, international trade, and corporate control related to GMO crops.
A computer network connects two or more computers so they can share resources like printers and files. It can be wired or wireless. Based on geographic area, networks are classified as local area networks (LANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), or wide area networks (WANs). LANs connect computers within a building or home. MANs connect buildings within a city. WANs connect across large distances from hundreds to thousands of miles, like the Internet. They allow sharing of expensive devices, easy file/data access from different locations, and remote work. However, they require maintenance and have security/connection issues.
An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is a test that records the electrical activity of the heart. It does this by detecting tiny voltage changes on the skin caused by the heart muscle during each heartbeat. A standard 12-lead ECG involves placing 10 electrodes on the patient's limbs and chest to record 12 different electrical signals that provide different views of the heart. The ECG can help diagnose abnormal heart rhythms and detect signs of damage to heart muscle.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides a sleek design along with enterprise-level security features and durability expected of ThinkPad products.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides business features and security as well as consumer multimedia and entertainment capabilities in a thin and durable design.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
The project aims to provide video lecture classes through DVDs to poor and rural students in India to improve access to education and reduce gaps between rich and poor. It will record lectures from the best teachers in various subjects and distribute the DVDs to schools and students in underdeveloped regions for free. Initially, the project will focus on subjects like English, math, science, and computers in two districts in India and hopes to expand nationwide by 2020. The DVD lessons are intended to help students prepare for important exams by bringing high-quality teaching resources to remote areas that lack access to coaching and teachers.
This document outlines the contents of a course on ad hoc networks. The course is divided into 5 units that cover: 1) fundamentals of wireless communication and ad hoc network introduction, 2) ad hoc routing protocols, 3) multicast routing in ad hoc networks, 4) transport layer and security protocols for ad hoc networks, and 5) quality of service and energy management in ad hoc networks. Each unit discusses key issues, classifications, and examples of protocols and solutions for the various aspects of building and managing ad hoc networks.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the question paper contains 50 multiple choice questions with 4 answer options each. It provides details on how to fill the answer sheet and instructions that candidates must follow during the exam.
2. Key points mentioned include writing the roll number on the question paper, indicating answers on the OMR answer sheet within the allotted time, not writing anything else on the test booklet except in the designated space, and returning the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3. The document also specifies the number of pages in the question booklet, that blue or black ballpoint pen should be used, calculators and
This document outlines a course on vehicular ad hoc networks (VANETs). The course contains 5 units that cover topics such as traffic monitoring applications, models for vehicle movement and traffic flow, networking issues like routing protocols, delay-tolerant networking approaches, and localization techniques. Recommended textbooks and reference books on VANETs and wireless ad hoc networks are also provided.
This document outlines the topics covered in the CS958 Wireless Security course, including an introduction to wireless technologies and standards, common wireless threats such as eavesdropping and denial of service attacks, security considerations for different wireless networks and protocols, and Bluetooth security architecture and threats. Specific areas covered are WEP, wireless standards, CDPD, GPRS, GSM, SSL, WTLS, WAP security, and Bluetooth baseband security. References for further reading are also provided.
This document provides an introduction to computer networking concepts for students. It discusses the basic components of a network, including cables, switches, routers and wireless access points. It explains the differences between peer-to-peer and client-server network configurations. Advantages of networking for schools include faster sharing of files and resources, lower costs through shared software licenses, and easier collaboration between students and teachers. Some considerations for setting up a wireless network are also outlined.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number, verify that their question booklet is correct, and fill in their OMR sheet number. It describes how to mark answers in the OMR sheet and provides other exam rules like doing rough work in the designated area and not discussing exam content after leaving.
This document summarizes key aspects of cardiac electrophysiology and electrocardiography. It discusses the electrical properties and functions of different cardiac tissues, the roles of the sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and Purkinje fibers as pacemakers. It also describes the components of an electrocardiogram and how it provides information about heart rate, rhythm, and tissue health. Common conduction abnormalities and arrhythmias are outlined as well.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering techniques. Current examples of GMO crops include corn, soybeans, canola that are engineered for insect or herbicide resistance. Developing a new GMO crop involves building the transgenes, transforming plant cells, selecting transformed plant lines, and conducting multi-year breeding and seed production. There is ongoing debate around issues of food safety, environmental impacts, international trade, and corporate control related to GMO crops.
A computer network connects two or more computers so they can share resources like printers and files. It can be wired or wireless. Based on geographic area, networks are classified as local area networks (LANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), or wide area networks (WANs). LANs connect computers within a building or home. MANs connect buildings within a city. WANs connect across large distances from hundreds to thousands of miles, like the Internet. They allow sharing of expensive devices, easy file/data access from different locations, and remote work. However, they require maintenance and have security/connection issues.
An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is a test that records the electrical activity of the heart. It does this by detecting tiny voltage changes on the skin caused by the heart muscle during each heartbeat. A standard 12-lead ECG involves placing 10 electrodes on the patient's limbs and chest to record 12 different electrical signals that provide different views of the heart. The ECG can help diagnose abnormal heart rhythms and detect signs of damage to heart muscle.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides a sleek design along with enterprise-level security features and durability expected of ThinkPad products.
The document introduces the new ThinkPad X1 laptop. It is the thinnest ThinkPad ever at just 16.5mm thin and starting at 3.7 pounds. It combines powerful performance through 2nd generation Intel Core processors with long battery life of up to 10 hours and fast charging capabilities. The ThinkPad X1 provides business features and security as well as consumer multimedia and entertainment capabilities in a thin and durable design.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid disqualification.
Genetically Modified Crops presented by David Taussig December 8, 2005. The document discusses genetically modified (GM) crops, which have been altered to express desirable traits like herbicide resistance or increased nutrients. The most common method of creating GM crops uses Agrobacterium tumefaciens bacteria to insert genes into plant cells. Potential benefits include increased economic profits, lower food prices, and reduced environmental impacts. Potential dangers include health concerns, contamination of other crops, and difficulties containing or eradicating GM crops. The document concludes future research should continue cautiously to address safety issues while finding ways to increase global food output.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their answer choice. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C or D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing question booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a social work exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates are given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions specify that candidates should verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions within the first 5 minutes. They also specify that candidates should fill in their test booklet number on their answer sheet and vice versa. The instructions state that each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D and that candidates should darken the oval on their answer sheet corresponding to the correct answer for each question. Finally, the instructions specify that rough work should be done at the end of the question booklet and that candidates must return both the question booklet and
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates must answer only 50. It describes how the exam booklet and answer sheet work and provides various rules for candidates to follow during the exam, such as filling in responses on the answer sheet, not writing anything else on the answer sheet, and raising your hand if you have any issues.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
1. PAPER-I
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.
(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
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Test Booklet Code Y
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Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆü»Öê ¯Öéšü Ûêú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸üÖê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü, וִ֮Öë ÃÖê ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of ÛúÖê ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ÛúÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü®ÖÖ ÆüÖêÝÖÖ … ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ÃÖê †×¬ÖÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë ÛúÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü®Öê ¯Ö¸ü ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë ÛúÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö ×ÛúµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸ü´³Ö ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¤êü ¤üß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆü»Öê
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛúß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, וÖÃÖÛúß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê †¾Ö¿µÖ Ûú¸ü®Öß Æîü :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖÛêú Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ü »ÖÝÖß ÛúÖÝÖ•Ö
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : Ûúß ÃÖᯙ ÛúÖê ±úÖ›Ìü »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æãü‡Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™üßÛú¸ü-ÃÖᯙ Ûúß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö Ûú¸ëü …
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet (ii) Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü ”û¯Öê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú ¯Öéšü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ûúß ÃÖÓܵÖÖ ÛúÖê †“”ûß ŸÖ¸üÆü “ÖîÛú Ûú¸ü »Öë ×Ûú µÖê ¯Öæ¸êü Æïü … ¤üÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÞÖÔ
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ×•Ö®Ö´Öë ¯Öéšü/¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûú´Ö ÆüÖë µÖÖ ¤ãü²ÖÖ¸üÖ †Ö ÝÖµÖê ÆüÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß׸üµÖ»Ö
the booklet with the information printed on the cover ´Öë ®Ö ÆüÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü Ûúß ¡Öã×™ü¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing Ûú¸ëü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™üÖÛú¸ü ˆÃÖÛêú ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ¤æüÃÖ¸üß ÃÖÆüß
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖÛêú ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü פüµÖê
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ®Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
†Öî¸ü ®Ö Æüß †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê †×ŸÖ׸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤üµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ÛúÖ ÛúÖê›ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü †Ó×ÛúŸÖ
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
Ûú¸ëü †Öî¸ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ÛÎú´Ö ÃÖÓܵÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¯Ö¸ü
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
†Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü ¤ëü …
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾ÖÛú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) פüµÖê
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
ÝÖµÖê Æïü … †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú ¤üß‘ÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö ÛúÖê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸üÛú¸ü ÛúÖ»ÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the
Æîü •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Ûú ®Öß“Öê פüÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü …
correct response against each item. ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ : A B C D
Example : A B C D
•Ö²Ö×Ûú (C) ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Æîü …
where (C) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö I †Öî¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö II Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ‹Ûú Æüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Æîü •ÖÖê ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †®¤ü¸ü פüµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü … ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for Æüß †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Æïü … µÖפü †Ö¯Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü פüµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¤üß‘ÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö Ûêú
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ ×ÛúÃÖß †®µÖ ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü דÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ŸÖêü Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ
the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6. †®¤ü¸ü פüµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú ¯ÖœÌëü …
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 7. Ûú““ÖÖ ÛúÖ´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †×®ŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü Ûú¸ëü …
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put 8. µÖפü †Ö¯Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûêú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸üÖê»Ö
any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the ®Ö´²Ö¸ü, ±úÖê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖ®Ö ÆüÖê
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose ÃÖÛêú, †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ü ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other †®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê †µÖÖêݵÖ
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ‹¾ÖÓ OMR ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Ö¡ÖÛú
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination ×®Ö¸üßõÖÛú ´ÖÆüÖê¤üµÖ ÛúÖê »ÖÖî™üÖ®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛú Æîü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü ®Ö »ÖêÛú¸ü •ÖÖµÖë …
Examination Hall. 10. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/ÛúÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯Öê®Ö ÛúÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Ûú¸ëü …
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛú (Ûîú»ÖÛãú»Öê™ü¸ü) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü ÛúÖ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ÛúÖê‡Ô †ÓÛú ÛúÖ™êü ®ÖÆüà •ÖÖ‹ÑÝÖê …
Y-00 P.T.O.
2. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Question
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Number
Question
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................
(Evaluation) Date .........................
Y-00 2
3. Paper – I
¯ÖÏ¿−Ö¯Ö¡Ö – I
Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case more than 50 questions are attempted, only the first 50 questions will be evaluated.
−ÖÖê™ü : • ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾Öú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö Æïü … ¯ÖÏŸµÖêú ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö êú ¤üÖê (2) †Óú Æïü …
• †³µÖ£Öá úÖê úÖê‡Ô ³Öß ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿−ÖÖë êú ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü−Öê Æïü …
• µÖפü ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ÃÖê †×¬Öú ¯ÖÏ¿−ÖÖë êú ˆ¢Ö¸ü פüµÖê ŸÖÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö Æüß •ÖÖÑ“Öê •ÖÖµÖëÖê …
1. DNS in internet technology stands 1. ‡−™ü¸ü−Öê™ü úß ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ´Öë DNS úÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü
for
(A) ›üÖµÖ−ÖÖ×´Öú −Öê´Ö ×ÃÖÙü´Ö
(A) Dynamic Name System
(B) Domain Name System (B) ›üÖê´Öê−Ö −Öê´Ö ×ÃÖÙü´Ö
(C) Distributed Name System (C) ×›üÙÒüß²µÖæ™êü›ü −Öê´Ö ×ÃÖÙü´Ö
(D) None of these (D) úÖê‡Ô ³Öß −ÖÆüà
2. HTML stands for
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language 2. ‹“Ö ™üß ‹´Ö ‹»Ö (HTML) ‡Ó×ÖŸÖ ú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü
(B) Hyper Text Manipulation (A) ÆüÖ‡¯Ö¸ü ™êüŒÃÖË™ü ´ÖÖÔú†¯Ö »ÖïÛ¾Ö•Ö
Language (B) ÆüÖ‡¯Ö¸ü ™êüŒÃÖË™ü ´Öî×−Ö¯Öã»Öê¿Ö−Ö »ÖïÛ¾Ö•Ö
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links (C) ÆüÖ‡¯Ö¸ü ™êüŒÃÖË™ü ´Öî−ÖêØ•ÖÖ Ø»ÖŒÃÖ
(D) Hyper Text Manipulating
Links (D) ÆüÖ‡¯Ö¸ü ™êüŒÃÖË™ü ´Öî×−Ö¯Öã»ÖêØ™üÖ Ø»ÖŒÃÖ
3. Which of the following is type of 3. ×−Ö´−Ö ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ LAN úÖ ¯ÖÏúÖ¸ü Æîü ?
LAN ?
(A) ‡£Ö¸ü−Öê™ü
(A) Ethernet
(B) Token Ring (B) ™üÖêú−Ö Ø¸üÖ
(C) FDDI (C) ‹±ú ›üß ›üß †Ö‡Ô
(D) All of the above (D) ˆ¯ÖµÖãÔŒŸÖ ÃÖ³Öß
4. Which of the following statements is
4. ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ ú£Ö−ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ ÃÖÆüß Æîü ?
true ?
(A) Smart cards do not require an (A) ôÖÖ™Ôü úÖ›üÖí úÖê ¯ÖÏ“ÖÖ»Ö−Ö-¯ÖÏÖÖ»Öß úß
operating system. †Ö¾Ö¿µÖúŸÖÖ −ÖÆüà …
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some
operating system. (B) ôÖÖ™Ôü úÖ›Ôü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯Öß.ÃÖß. ×úÃÖß ¯ÖÏúÖ¸ü úß
(C) COS is smart card operating ¯ÖÏ“ÖÖ»Ö−Ö ¯ÖÏÖÖ»Öß úÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÖ ú¸üŸÖê Æïü …
system. (C) COS ‹ú ôÖÖ™Ôü úÖ›Ôü ¯ÖÏ“ÖÖ»Ö−Ö ¯ÖÏÖÖ»Öß Æîü…
(D) The communication between
reader and card is in full (D) ¯ÖϾÖÖ“Öú ŸÖ£ÖÖ úÖ›Ôü êú ´Ö¬µÖ ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ÃÖ´¯ÖæÖÔ
duplex mode. ׫üßָüß ×¾Ö×¬Ö êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü …
5. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated 5. ÖÓÖÖ úÖµÖÔ µÖÖê•Ö−ÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸Óü³Ö úß Ö‡Ô £Öß
during the year (A) 1986 ´Öë
(A) 1986
(B) 1988 ´Öë
(B) 1988
(C) 1990 (C) 1990 ´Öë
(D) 1992 (D) 1992 ´Öë
Y-00 3 P.T.O.
4. 6. Identify the correct sequence of 6. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ êú ¿ÖÛŒŸÖ Ö›ü ´Öë ³ÖÖÖ úß ¥üÛ™ü ÃÖê ‰ú•ÖÖÔ êú
energy sources in order of their share
in the power sector in India :
ÄÖÖêŸÖÖë úÖ ÃÖÆüß Îú´Ö Æîü :
(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > (A) ŸÖÖ¯ÖßµÖ > −µÖ挻ÖßµÖ > •Ö»ÖßµÖ > ¾ÖÖµÖã
wind
(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > (B) ŸÖÖ¯ÖßµÖ > •Ö»ÖßµÖ > −µÖ挻ÖßµÖ > ¾ÖÖµÖã
wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > (C) •Ö»ÖßµÖ > −µÖ挻ÖßµÖ > ŸÖÖ¯ÖßµÖ > ¾ÖÖµÖã
wind
(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > (D) −µÖ挻ÖßµÖ > •Ö»ÖßµÖ > ¾ÖÖµÖã > ŸÖÖ¯ÖßµÖ
thermal
7. Chromium as a contaminant in 7. ¯ÖêµÖ•Ö»Ö ´Öë ˆ×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖê †×¬Öú ´ÖÖ¡ÖÖ ´Öë ÆüÖê−Öê ¯Ö¸ü ÎúÖê×´ÖµÖ´Ö
drinking water in excess of ‹ú ÃÖÓ¤æüÂÖú êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë úÖ¸üú ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü
permissible levels, causes
(A) Skeletal damage (A) ÓúúÖ»Ö-Ö×ŸÖ úÖ
(B) Gastrointestinal problem (B) ÖîÙÒüÖê‡−™êüÙüÖ‡−Ö ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Öß ÃÖ´ÖõÖÖ úÖ
(C) Dermal and nervous problems (C) “Ö´ÖÔ/Ã−ÖÖµÖã ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Öß ÃÖ´ÖõÖÖ úÖ
(D) Liver/Kidney problems
(D) µÖéúŸÖ/Öã¤üÖÔ ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Öß ÃÖ´ÖõÖÖ úÖ
8. The main precursors of winter smog 8. ¿ÖߟÖúÖ»Öß−Ö ¬Öæ´Ö-úÖêÆü¸üÖ êú ¯ÖÏ´ÖãÖ ¯Öã¸üÖêÖÖ´Öß ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü
are
(A) N2O ‹¾ÖÓ ÆüÖ‡›ÒüÖêúÖ²ÖÔ−Ö
(A) N2O and hydrocarbons
(B) NOx ‹¾ÖÓ ÆüÖ‡›ÒüÖêúÖ²ÖÔ−Ö
(B) NOx and hydrocarbons
(C) SO2 and hydrocarbons (C) SO2 ‹¾ÖÓ ÆüÖ‡›ÒüÖêúÖ²ÖÔ−Ö
(D) SO2 and ozone (D) SO2 ‹¾ÖÓ †Öê•ÖÖê−Ö
9. Flash floods are caused when 9. ŸÖÖŸÖ×Öú ²ÖÖœÌü (°»Öî¿Ö °»Ö›ü) ‘Ö×™üŸÖ ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü •Ö²Ö
¾ÖÖµÖã´Ö›ü»Ö
(A) the atmosphere is convectively
unstable and there is (A) ÃÖÓ¾ÖÆü×−Öú ¥üÛ™ü (ú−¾ÖêÛŒ™ü¾Ö»Öß) ÃÖê †Ûãָü
considerable vertical wind
shear ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖ´Öë µÖ£Öê™ü ¾ÖÖµÖã ¯ÖÏןֲֻÖ
(׿ֵָü) ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü …
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(B) Ûãָü ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü …
(C) the atmosphere is convectively
unstable with no vertical (C) ÃÖÓ¾ÖÆü×−Öú ¥üÛ™ü (ú−¾ÖêÛŒ™ü¾Ö»Öß) †Ûãָü ÆüÖêŸÖÖ
windshear Æîü ‹¾ÖÓ ¾ÖÖµÖã ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ²Ö»Ö −ÖÆüà ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü …
(D) winds are catabatic (D) ¾ÖÖµÖã †¯Ö“ÖµÖß (îú™êü²ÖÖê×»Öú) ÆüÖêŸÖß Æïü …
Y-00 4
5. 10. In mega cities of India, the dominant 10. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ êú ´ÖÆüÖ−ÖÖ¸üÖë ´Öë ¾ÖÖµÖã ¯ÖϤæüÂÖÖ úÖ ¯ÖÏ´ÖãÖ ÄÖÖêŸÖ Æîü
source of air pollution is
(A) ¯Ö׸ü¾ÖÆü−Ö Ö›ü (ÃÖꌙü¸ü)
(A) transport sector
(B) thermal power
(B) ŸÖÖ¯ÖßµÖ ¿ÖÛŒŸÖ
(C) municipal waste (C) ´µÖæ×−Ö×ÃÖ¯Ö»Ö †¯Ö׿Ö™ü
(D) commercial sector (D) ¾ÖÖ×ÖÛ•µÖú Ö›ü (ÃÖꌙü¸ü)
11. The first Open University in India 11. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ úÖ ¯ÖÆü»ÖÖ Öã»ÖÖ ×¾Ö¿¾Ö×¾ÖªÖ»ÖµÖ ×úÃÖ ¸üÖ•µÖ ´Öë
was set up in the State of ãÖÖ×¯ÖŸÖ Æãü†Ö ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (A) †Ö−¬ÖÐ ¯ÖϤêü¿Ö
(B) Delhi (B) פü»»Öß
(C) Himachal Pradesh (C) ×Æü´ÖÖ“Ö»Ö ¯ÖϤêü¿Ö
(D) Tamil Nadu (D) ŸÖ×´Ö»Ö−ÖÖ›ãü
12. Most of the Universities in India are 12. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë †×¬ÖúŸÖ¸ü ×¾Ö¿¾Ö×¾ÖªÖ»ÖµÖÖë úÖ ×¾Ö¢Ö¯ÖÖêÂÖÖ
funded by
(A) êú−¦ü ÃÖ¸üúÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü …
(A) the Central Government
(B) ¸üÖ•µÖ ÃÖ¸üúÖ¸üÖë «üÖ¸üÖ ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü …
(B) the State Governments
(C) ×¾Ö¿¾Ö×¾ÖªÖ»ÖµÖ †−Öã¤üÖ−Ö †ÖµÖÖêÖ «üÖ¸üÖ ÆüÖêŸÖÖ
(C) the University Grants
Commission Æîü …
(D) Private bodies and Individuals (D) ×−Ö•Öß ÃÖÓãÖÖ†Öë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¾µÖÛŒŸÖµÖÖë «üÖ¸üÖ ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü …
13. Which of the following 13. ×−Ö´−Ö ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ ÃÖÓÖšü−Ö ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë ŸÖú−Ößúß ŸÖ£ÖÖ
organizations looks after the quality
of Technical and Management
¯ÖϲÖ−¬Ö-׿ÖÖÖ úß ÖãÖ¾Ö¢ÖÖ úß ¤êüÖ-¸êüÖ ú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü ?
education in India ?
(A) NCTE
(A) NCTE
(B) MCI
(B) MCI
(C) AICTE (C) AICTE
(D) CSIR (D) CSIR
Y-00 5 P.T.O.
6. Not for Visually Handicapped ¥üÛ™ü ×¾Öú»ÖÖÓÖ †³µÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë êú ×»Ö‹ −ÖÆüà …
Candidates
Questions 14 to 16 are based upon ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ 14 ÃÖê 16 ŸÖú ×−Ö´−Ö ×“Ö¡Ö ¯Ö¸ü †Ö¬ÖÖ׸üŸÖ
the following diagram in which there Æïü, וÖÃÖ´Öë ŸÖß−Ö ¾Öé¢Ö A, P ŸÖ£ÖÖ S ‹ú ¤æüÃÖ¸êü úÖê
are three interlocking circles A, P
úÖ™üŸÖê Æïü … µÖê ¾Öé¢Ö A ú»ÖÖúÖ¸üÖ, ¾Öé¢Ö P ¯ÖÏÖ¬µÖÖ¯ÖúÖë
ë
and S where A stands for Artists,
circle P for Professors and circle S ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¾Öé¢Ö S ×Ö»ÖÖ×›ÌüµÖÖë úÖê ¯ÖϤüÙ¿ÖŸÖ ú¸üŸÖê Æïü …
for Sportspersons. ×“Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖ³Öß Öê¡ÖÖë úÖê a ÃÖê f ŸÖú דÖÛÅ−ÖŸÖ ×úµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ
Different regions in the figure are
lettered from a to f :
Æîü …
14. The region which represents artists 14. úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ Öê¡Ö ˆ−Ö ú»ÖÖúÖ¸üÖë úÖê ¯ÖϤüÙ¿ÖŸÖ ú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü •ÖÖê
who are neither sportsmen nor
professors. −Ö ŸÖÖê ×Ö»ÖÖ›Ìüß Æïü †Öî¸ü −Ö Æüß ¯ÖÏÖ¬µÖÖ¯Öú ?
(A) d (A) d
(B) e (B) e
(C) b (C) b
(D) g (D) g
15. The region which represents 15. úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ Öê¡Ö ˆ−Ö ¯ÖÏÖ¬µÖÖ¯ÖúÖë úÖê ¯ÖϤüÙ¿ÖŸÖ ú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü •ÖÖê
professors, who are both artists and ú»ÖÖúÖ¸ü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ×Ö»ÖÖ›Ìüß ³Öß Æïü ?
sportspersons.
(A) a (A) a
(B) c (B) c
(C) d (C) d
(D) g (D) g
16. The region which represents 16. úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ Öê¡Ö ˆ−Ö ¯ÖÏÖ¬µÖÖ¯ÖúÖë úÖê ¯ÖϤüÙ¿ÖŸÖ ú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü •ÖÖê
professors, who are also ×Ö»ÖÖ›Ìüß ŸÖÖê Æïü ×ú−ŸÖã ú»ÖÖúÖ¸ü −ÖÆüà ?
sportspersons, but not artists.
(A) e
(A) e
(B) f (B) f
(C) c (C) c
(D) g (D) g
Y-00 6
7. Questions 17 to 19 are based on the ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ 17 ÃÖê 19 ŸÖú ×−Ö´−Ö †ÖÑú›ÌüÖë ¯Ö¸ü
following data : †Ö¬ÖÖ׸üŸÖ Æïü …
Measurements of some variable X ×úÃÖß “Ö¸ü X úÖ ´ÖÖ¯Ö−Ö 10 ²Ö•Öê ÃÖê 10:20 ²Ö•Öê ŸÖú
were made at an interval of 1 minute
from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The
¯ÖÏŸµÖêú ×´Ö−Ö™ü êú †−ŸÖ¸üÖ»Ö êú ²ÖÖ¤ü ×úµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ ŸÖ£ÖÖ µÖê
data, thus, obtained is as follows : †ÖÑú›êü ¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖ ÆãüµÖê :
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68
63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64
17. The value of X, which is exceeded 17. X úÖ ¾ÖÆü ´ÖÖ−Ö –ÖÖŸÖ ú׸üµÖê וÖÃÖêú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ´ÖÖ¯Ö−Ö úß
10% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is †¾Ö×¬Ö ´Öë 10% ÃÖ´ÖµÖ êú ×»ÖµÖê X êú ´ÖÖ−Ö Æïü …
(A) 69 (A) 69
(B) 68 (B) 68
(C) 67 (C) 67
(D) 66 (D) 66
18. The value of X, which is exceeded 18. X úÖ ¾ÖÆü ´ÖÖ−Ö –ÖÖŸÖ ú׸üµÖê וÖÃÖêú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ´ÖÖ¯Ö−Ö úß
90% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is †¾Ö×¬Ö ´Öë 90% ÃÖ´ÖµÖ êú ×»ÖµÖê X êú ´ÖÖ−Ö Æïü …
(A) 63 (A) 63
(B) 62 (B) 62
(C) 61 (C) 61
(D) 60 (D) 60
19. The value of X, which is exceeded 19. X úÖ ¾ÖÆü ´ÖÖ−Ö –ÖÖŸÖ ú׸üµÖê וÖÃÖêú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ´ÖÖ¯Ö−Ö úß
50% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is †¾Ö×¬Ö ´Öë 50% ÃÖ´ÖµÖ êú ×»ÖµÖê X êú ´ÖÖ−Ö Æïü …
(A) 66 (A) 66
(B) 65 (B) 65
(C) 64 (C) 64
(D) 63
(D) 63
Y-00 7 P.T.O.
8. For Visually Handicapped Candidates only
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 14 to 19 :
All the perceptions of the human mind resolve themselves into two distinct kinds, which I
shall call impressions and ideas. The difference betwixt these consists in the degrees of force
and liveliness, with which they strike upon the mind, make their way into our thought or
consciousness. Those perceptions which enter with most force and violence, we may name
impressions; and under this name I comprehend all our sensations, passions and emotions, as
they make their first appearance in the soul. By ideas I mean the faint images of these in
thinking and reasoning; such as, for instance, are all the perceptions excited by the present
discourse, excepting only those which arise from the sight and touch and excepting the
immediate pleasure or uneasiness it may occasion. I believe it will not be very necessary to
employ many words in explaining this distinction. Every one of himself will readily believe,
perceive the difference betwixt feeling and thinking. The common degrees of these are easily
distinguished; though it is not impossible but in particular instances they may very nearly
approach to each other. Thus, in sleep, in a fever, in madness, or in any very violent emotions
of soul, our ideas may approach to our impressions : as on the other hand it sometimes
happens, that our impressions are so faint and low, that we cannot distinguish them from our
ideas. But not withstanding this near resemblance in a few instances, they are in general so
very different, that no one can make a scruple to rank them under distinct heads, and assign to
each a peculiar name to mark the difference.
There is another division of our perceptions, which it will be convenient to observe, and
which extends itself both to our impressions and ideas. This division is into simple and
complex. Simple perceptions, or impressions and ideas, are such as admit of no distinction
nor separation. The complex are the contrary to these, and may be distinguished into parts.
Though a particular colour, taste and smell, are qualities all united together in this apple, it is
easy to perceive they are not the same, but are at least distinguishable from each other.
14. The passage mainly discusses the origin of
(A) impressions (B) ideas
(C) sensations (D) passions
15. Perceptions that have force may be called
(A) impression (B) emotions
(C) difference (D) thinking
16. Which of the following is excepted from perceptions ?
(A) Faint images of reasoning
(B) Force of liveliness
(C) Those which arise from the sight and touch
(D) The common degree of distinction
17. Ideas may approach impressions in
(A) resemblance (B) madness
(C) readiness (D) consciousness
18. Simple perceptions and impressions have no
(A) ideas (B) scruples
(C) separation (D) quality
19. Impressions and ideas, in general, are so different, each can be given a particular name
to identity
(A) the force (B) the similarity
(C) the difference (D) the feeling
Y-00 8
10. 20. Consider the following statements : 20. −Öß“Öê פüµÖê ÖµÖê ú£Ö−ÖÖë úÖê ¯ÖלÌüµÖê … ˆÃÖ ú£Ö−Ö úÖê
Identify the statement which implies ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖ×−ÖµÖê וÖÃÖ´Öë ¯ÖÏÖéúןÖú −µÖÖµÖ ×−Ö×ÆüŸÖ Æîü …
natural justice.
(A) −µÖÖµÖÖ»ÖµÖ ¯ÖÏÖéúןÖú −µÖÖµÖ êú ×ÃÖ¨üÖ−ŸÖ úÖ
(A) The principle of natural justice
is followed by the Courts. †−ÖãÃÖ¸üÖ ú¸üŸÖê Æïü …
(B) Justice delayed is justice (B) −µÖÖµÖ ´Öë ¤êü¸üß −µÖÖµÖ ÃÖê ¾ÖÓ×“ÖŸÖ ¸üÖ−Öê êú
denied. ÃÖ´ÖÖ−Ö Æîü …
(C) Natural justice is an (C) ¯ÖÏÖéúןÖú −µÖÖµÖ ‹ú −ÖÖÖ׸üú úÖ †×³Ö−−Ö
inalienable right of a citizen
†×¬ÖúÖ¸ü Æîü …
(D) A reasonable opportunity of
(D) ÃÖã−Öê •ÖÖ−Öê úÖ ˆ×“ÖŸÖ †¾ÖÃÖ¸ü פüµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖê …
being heard must be given.
21. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ úÖ ¸üÖ™Òü¯ÖןÖ
21. The President of India is
(A) the Head of State (A) ¸üÖ•µÖ úÖ ´Öã×ÖµÖÖ Æîü …
(B) the Head of Government (B) ÃÖ¸üúÖ¸ü úÖ ´Öã×ÖµÖÖ Æîü …
(C) both Head of the State and the
(C) ¸üÖ•µÖ ŸÖ£ÖÖ ÃÖ¸üúÖ¸ü ¤üÖê−ÖÖë úÖ ´Öã×ÖµÖÖ Æîü …
Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
(D) ‡−Ö´Öë ÃÖê úÖê‡Ô −ÖÆüà …
22. Who among the following holds 22. ×−Ö´−Ö ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ êú ¸üÖ™Òü¯Ö×ŸÖ úß ‡“”ûÖ¯ÖµÖÔ−ŸÖ ¯Ö¤ü
office during the pleasure of the ¯Ö¸ü ¸üÆüŸÖÖ Æîü ?
President of India ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner (A) ´ÖãµÖ ×−Ö¾ÖÖÔ“Ö−Ö †×¬ÖúÖ¸üß
(B) Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (B) ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ úÖ ×−ÖµÖÓ¡Öú ´ÖÆüÖ»ÖêÖÖ ¯Ö¸üßÖú
(C) Chairman of the Union Public
(C) ÃÖÓ‘Ö »ÖÖêú ÃÖê¾ÖÖ †ÖµÖÖêÖ úÖ †¬µÖÖ
Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State (D) ¸üÖ•µÖ úÖ ¸üÖ•µÖ¯ÖÖ»Ö
Y-00 10
11. 23. For maintaining an effective discipline 23. úÖÖ ´Öë ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Öß †−Öã¿ÖÖÃÖ−Ö êú ×»Ö‹ †¬µÖÖ¯Öú úÖê
in the class, the teacher should “ÖÖ×Æü‹ ×ú
(A) Allow students to do what they
like. (A) ”ûÖ¡ÖÖë úÖê •ÖÖê “ÖÖÆêü ú¸ü−Öê ¤êü …
(B) Deal with the students strictly.
(B) ”ûÖ¡ÖÖë êú ÃÖÖ£Ö úšüÖê¸ü ¾µÖ¾ÖÆüÖ¸ü ú¸êü …
(C) Give the students some
problem to solve. (C) ”ûÖ¡ÖÖë úÖê ãú”û ÃÖ´ÖõÖÖµÖë Æü»Ö ú¸ü−Öê úÖê ¤êü …
(D) Deal with them politely and
(D) ˆ−ÖÃÖê −Ö¸ü´Öß êú ÃÖÖ£Ö ¥üœÌüŸÖÖ ²Ö¸üŸÖê …
firmly.
24. An effective teaching aid is one which 24. ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Öß ×¿ÖÖÖ-ÃÖÆüÖµÖú ÃÖÖ´ÖÖÏß ¾ÖÆü Æîü, •ÖÖê
(A) is colourful and good looking (A) ¸ÓüÖ-ײָÓüÖß ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¤êüÖ−Öê ´Öë †“”ûß ÆüÖê …
(B) activates all faculties (B) ÃÖ³Öß –ÖÖ−ÖêÛ−¦üµÖÖë úÖê ÃÖ×ÎúµÖ ú¸üŸÖß ÆüÖê …
(C) is visible to all students (C) ÃÖ³Öß ”ûÖ¡ÖÖë úÖê פüÖÖ‡Ô ¤êüŸÖß ÆüÖê …
(D) easy to prepare and use (D) ²Ö−ÖÖ−Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÖ ú¸ü−Öê ´Öë †ÖÃÖÖ−Ö ÆüÖê …
25. Those teachers are popular among 25. ”ûÖ¡ÖÖë ´Öë ¾Öê †¬µÖÖ¯Öú »ÖÖêúׯÖ쵅 ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü, •ÖÖê
students who (A) ˆ−Öêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ×−Öú™üŸÖÖ ²Ö−ÖÖ »ÖêŸÖê Æïü …
(A) develop intimacy with them (B) ˆ−Öúß ÃÖ´ÖõÖÖ†Öë êú ÃÖ´ÖÖ¬ÖÖ−Ö ´Öë ÃÖÆüÖµÖú
(B) help them solve their problems ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü …
(C) award good grades (C) †“”êû †Óú ¯ÖϤüÖ−Ö ú¸üŸÖê Æïü …
(D) take classes on extra tuition fee (D) ˆ−Æëü †×ŸÖ׸üŒŸÖ ¿Öã»ú ¯Ö¸ü ™ËüµÖæ¿Ö−Ö ¯ÖœÌüÖŸÖê Æïü …
26. The essence of an effective 26. ‹ú ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Öß úÖÖ-úÖ êú ¾ÖÖŸÖÖ¾Ö¸üÖ úÖ ´Öæ»Ö ŸÖ¢¾Ö Æîü
classroom environment is
(A) ׿ÖÖÖ ÃÖÖ´ÖÖÏß úß ×¾Ö×¾Ö¬ÖŸÖÖ …
(A) a variety of teaching aids
(B) ׿ÖÖú-”ûÖ¡ÖÖë úß ÃÖ•Öß¾Ö †−ŸÖ:×ÎúµÖÖ …
(B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) ÃÖ´¯ÖæÖÔ ¿ÖÖÛ−ŸÖ
(C) pin-drop silence
(D) strict discipline
(D) ÃÖŸÖ (úšüÖê¸ü) †−Öã¿ÖÖÃÖ−Ö
Y-00 11 P.T.O.
12. 27. On the first day of his class, if a 27. µÖפü úÖÖ êú ¯ÖÆü»Öê פü−Ö ”ûÖ¡Ö ×úÃÖß †¬µÖÖ¯Öú úÖê
teacher is asked by the students to þֵÖÓ úÖ ¯Ö׸ü“ÖµÖ ¤êü−Öê êú ×»Ö‹ úÆêü ŸÖÖê †¬µÖÖ¯Öú úÖê
introduce himself, he should “ÖÖ×ÆüµÖê ×ú ¾ÖÆü
(A) ask them to meet after the class (A) ˆ−Æëü úÖÖ êú ²ÖÖ¤ü ×´Ö»Ö−Öê êú ×»Ö‹ úÆêü …
(B) tell them about himself in brief (B) ÃÖÓÖê¯Ö ´Öë †¯Ö−Öê ²ÖÖ¸êü ´Öë ²ÖŸÖÖµÖê …
(C) ignore the demand and start (C) ‡ÃÖ ´ÖÖÑÖ úß ˆ¯ÖêÖÖ ú¸êü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖœÌüÖ−ÖÖ ¿Öãºþ
teaching ú¸êü …
(D) scold the student for this (D) ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏúÖ¸ü úß †×−Ö™ü ´ÖÖÑÖ êú ×»Ö‹ ˆ−Æëü
unwanted demand ›üÖÑ™êü …
28. Moral values can be effectively 28. −ÖîןÖú ´Ö滵ÖÖë úÖ ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Öß ºþ¯Ö ÃÖê ×¾ÖúÖÃÖ ×úµÖÖ •ÖÖ
inculcated among the students when ÃÖúŸÖÖ Æîü, µÖפü †¬µÖÖ¯Öú
the teacher
(A) ²ÖÖ¸ü-²ÖÖ¸ü ´Ö滵ÖÖë úß ²ÖÖŸÖ ú¸ëü …
(A) frequently talks about values
(B) þֵÖÓ ˆ−Ö ¯Ö¸ü †Ö“Ö¸üÖ ú¸ëü …
(B) himself practices them
(C) ´ÖÆüÖ−Ö ¾µÖÛŒŸÖµÖÖë úß úÆüÖ−Öß ÃÖã−ÖÖµÖë …
(C) tells stories of great persons
(D) ¤êü¾Öß-¤êü¾ÖŸÖÖ†Öë úß ²ÖÖŸÖ ú¸ëü …
(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
29. The essential qualities of a 29. ‹ú ¿ÖÖê¬ÖÖ£Öá êú †Ö¾Ö¿µÖú ÖãÖ ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü
researcher are
(A) þ֟ÖÓ¡Ö ¯Ö׸ü¯ÖÏ¿−Ö úß ¯ÖϾÖé×¢Ö
(A) spirit of free enquiry
(B) †¾Ö»ÖÖêú−Ö ‹¾ÖÓ ¯ÖÏ´ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü ×−Ö³ÖÔ¸üŸÖÖ
(B) reliance on observation and
evidence (C) –ÖÖ−Ö úÖ ¾µÖ¾ÖÛã֟Ößú¸üÖ †£Ö¾ÖÖ
(C) systematization or theorizing ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖßú¸üÖ
of knowledge
(D) ˆ¯ÖµÖãÔŒŸÖ ÃÖ³Öß
(D) all the above
30. Research is conducted to 30. ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ×úµÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü :
I. Generate new knowledge I. −ÖµÖê –ÖÖ−Ö êú ÃÖé•Ö−Ö êú ×»Ö‹
II. Not to develop a theory II. ×ÃÖ¨üÖ−ŸÖ ×¾Öú×ÃÖŸÖ −Ö ú¸ü−Öê êú ×»Ö‹
III. Obtain research degree III. ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ˆ¯ÖÖ×¬Ö ¯ÖÏÖÛ¯ŸÖ êú ×»Ö‹
IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge IV. ×¾Öª´ÖÖ−Ö –ÖÖ−Ö úß ¯Öã−Ö¾µÖÖÔµÖÖ êú ×»Ö‹
Which of the above are correct ? ˆ¯ÖµÖãÔŒŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÆüß Æïü ?
(A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV (A) I, III ‹¾ÖÓ II (B) III, II ‹¾ÖÓ IV
(C) II, I & III (D) I, III & IV (C) II, I ‹¾ÖÓ III (D) I, III ‹¾ÖÓ IV
Y-00 12
13. 31. A research paper is a brief report of 31. ‹ú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö¯Ö¡Ö ¿ÖÖê¬ÖúÖµÖÔ úß ×¸ü¯ÖÖê™Ôü ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü, וÖÃÖúÖ
research work based on †Ö¬ÖÖ¸ü ÆüÖêŸÖÖ Æîü
(A) Primary Data only (A) êú¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏÖ£Ö×´Öú †ÖÑú›ÌüÖ
(B) Secondary Data only (B) êú¾Ö»Ö ׫üŸÖßµÖú †ÖÑú›ÌüÖ
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data (C) ¯ÖÏÖ£Ö×´Öú †Öî¸ü ׫üŸÖßµÖú †ÖÑú›ÌüÖ ¤üÖê−ÖÖë
(D) None of the above (D) ˆ¯ÖµÖãÔŒŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê úÖê‡Ô −ÖÆüà …
32. Newton gave three basic laws of 32. −µÖæ™ü−Ö −Öê Ö×ŸÖ êú ×−ÖµÖ´Ö êú ŸÖß−Ö ´Öæ»Ö ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖ ¯ÖÏßÖãŸÖ
motion. This research is categorized as ×úµÖê … ˆ−Öêú ‡ÃÖ ¿ÖÖê¬Ö úÖê ¾ÖÖáéúŸÖ ×úµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ Æîü
(A) Descriptive Research (A) ¾ÖÖÔ−ÖÖŸ´Öú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë
(B) Sample Survey (B) ¯ÖÏן֤ü¿ÖÔ (−Ö´Öæ−ÖÖ) ÃÖ¾ÖìÖÖ êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë
(C) Fundamental Research (C) ´Öæ»Ö³ÖæŸÖ ¿ÖÖê¬Ö êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë
(D) Applied Research (D) ¾µÖÖ¾ÖÆüÖ׸üú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë
33. A group of experts in a specific area 33. ×¾Ö¿ÖêÂÖ–ÖÖë úÖ –ÖÖ−Ö êú ‹ú ×¾Ö׿Ö™ü Öê¡Ö ÃÖê ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ×¬ÖŸÖ ¾ÖÖÔ
of knowledge assembled at a place ‹ú ãÖÖ−Ö ¯Ö¸ü ‹ú −Ö‹ ¯ÖÖšËüµÖÎú´Ö êú ¯ÖÖšËüµÖ ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÖ
and prepared a syllabus for a new
course. The process may be termed
ŸÖîµÖÖ¸ü ú¸ü−Öê êú ×»Ö‹ ‹ú×¡ÖŸÖ Æãü†Ö … ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ×ÎúµÖÖ úÖê
as úÆüÖ •ÖÖ ÃÖúŸÖÖ Æîü
(A) Seminar (A) ÃÖÓÖÖêšüß (ÃÖê×´Ö−ÖÖ¸ü)
(B) Workshop (B) úÖµÖÔ¿ÖÖ»ÖÖ
(C) Conference (C) ÃÖ´´Öê»Ö−Ö (úÖò−±ú¸ëüÃÖ)
(D) Symposium (D) ÖÖêšüß (×ÃÖ´¯ÖÖêוִֵÖ)
34. In the process of conducting research 34. ¿ÖÖê¬ÖúÖµÖÔ ú¸ü−Öê úß ¯ÖÏ×ÎúµÖÖ ´Öë ¯Ö׸üú»¯Ö−ÖÖ úÖê ÃÖæ¡Ö²Ö¨ü
‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is ú¸ü−Öê êú ¯Ö¿“ÖÖŸÖË †ÖŸÖÖ Æîü
followed by
(A) ˆ§êü¿µÖÖë úÖ ú£Ö−Ö
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) †ÖÑú›ÌüÖë úß ¾µÖÖµÖÖ
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(C) ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ˆ¯Öú¸üÖ úÖ “ÖµÖ−Ö
(D) Collection of Data (D) †ÖÑú›ÌüÖë úÖ ‹ú¡Ößú¸üÖ
Y-00 13 P.T.O.
14. Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 35 to 40 :
All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish
birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to
understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a
historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts
is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to
draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of
their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions.
Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct : the
history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because
they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider
intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of
knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of
‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in
having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That
being said, it does seem that the label ‘intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of
misunderstanding.
It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered.
The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of
philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The
prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of
principles or ideas that were ‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible
in the tendency to require ideas to have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be
deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art
or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the
history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism
has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression or
sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.
Answer the following questions :
35. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand
(A) the chosen texts of his own (B) political actions
(C) historical trends (D) his enquiries
36. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of
(A) conclusions (B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness (D) habitual interpretation
37. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from
(A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs
38. What is philistinism ?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter
39. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of
(A) literary criticism (B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history
40. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they
were held by a minority, is
(A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action
(C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism
Y-00 14
16. 41. Public communication tends to occur 41. »ÖÖêú ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ÃÖÆü•Ö ÆüÖê •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü
within a more
(A) •µÖÖ¤üÖ •Ö×™ü»Ö ÃÖÓ¸ü“Ö−ÖÖ êú †−¤ü¸ü
(A) complex structure
(B) political structure
(B) •µÖÖ¤üÖ ¸üÖ•Ö−ÖßןÖú ÃÖÓ¸ü“Ö−ÖÖ êú †−¤ü¸ü
(C) convenient structure (C) •µÖÖ¤üÖ ÃÖã×¾Ö¬ÖÖ•Ö−Öú ÃÖÓ¸ü“Ö−ÖÖ êú †−¤ü¸ü
(D) formal structure (D) •µÖÖ¤üÖ †Öî¯Ö“ÖÖ׸üú ÃÖÓ¸ü“Ö−ÖÖ êú †−¤ü¸ü
42. Transforming thoughts, ideas and 42. ÃÖÖê“Ö, ×¾Ö“ÖÖ¸üÖë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ÃÖÓ¤êü¿ÖÖë úÖê ¾ÖÖדÖú ŸÖ£ÖÖ †¾ÖÖדÖú
messages into verbal and non-verbal דÖÅ−ÖÖë (¯ÖÏŸÖßúÖë) ´Öë ºþ¯ÖÖ−ŸÖ׸üŸÖ ú¸ü−ÖÖ ŒµÖÖ úÆü»ÖÖŸÖÖ
signs is referred to as
Æîü ?
(A) channelisation
(A) “Öî−Ö»Ößú¸üÖ (¯ÖÏÖÖ»Öú¸üÖ)
(B) mediation
(B) ´Ö¬µÖã֟ÖÖ
(C) encoding
(C) æú™ü»ÖêÖ−Ö
(D) decoding
(D) æú™ü¾Ö“Ö−Ö
43. Effective communication needs a 43. ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Ö¯ÖæÖÔ ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü úÖê îúÃÖÖ ÃÖÆüÖµÖú ¾ÖÖŸÖÖ¾Ö¸üÖ
supportive “ÖÖ×ÆüµÖê ?
(A) economic environment (A) †ÖÙ£Öú ¾ÖÖŸÖÖ¾Ö¸üÖ
(B) political environment (B) ¸üÖ•Ö−ÖßןÖú ¾ÖÖŸÖÖ¾Ö¸üÖ
(C) social environment (C) ÃÖÖ´ÖÖוÖú ¾ÖÖŸÖÖ¾Ö¸üÖ
(D) multi-cultural environment (D) ²ÖÆãü-ÃÖÖÓÃéúןÖú ¾ÖÖŸÖÖ¾Ö¸üÖ
44. A major barrier in the transmission 44. ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü úß ¯ÖÏ×ÎúµÖÖ ´Öë ÃÖÓ–ÖÖ−ÖÖŸ´Öú †ÖÑú›Ìêü êú ¯ÖÏêÂÖÖ ´Öë
of cognitive data in the process of ´ÖãµÖ ¹ýúÖ¾Ö™ü ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü
communication is an individual’s
(A) ¾µÖÛŒŸÖŸ¾Ö
(A) personality
(B) expectation (B) †¯ÖêÖÖ
(C) social status (C) ÃÖÖ´ÖÖוÖú ¤ü•ÖÖÔ
(D) coding ability (D) æú™ü²Ö¨ü ú¸ü−Öê úß µÖÖêµÖŸÖÖ
45. When communicated, institutionalised 45. ¯ÖÏê×ÂÖŸÖ ÆüÖê−Öê ¯Ö¸ü, ÃÖÖÓãÖÖ×−Öú ºþלÌü²Ö¨ü ¬ÖÖ¸üÖÖ‹Ñ ²Ö−Ö
stereotypes become •ÖÖŸÖß Æïü
(A) myths (A) ×´Ö£Öú
(B) reasons (B) úÖ¸üÖ
(C) experiences (C) †−Öã³Ö¾Ö
(D) convictions (D) ×¾Ö¿¾ÖÖÃÖ µÖÖ ¥üœÌü ¬ÖÖ¸üÖÖ
Y-00 16
17. 46. In mass communication, selective 46. •Ö−Ö ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ´Öë, “ÖµÖ−ÖÖŸ´Öú †¾Ö²ÖÖê¬Ö−Ö ¯ÖÏÖ¯Öú úß
perception is dependent on the ______ ¯Ö¸ü ×−Ö³ÖÔ¸ü ú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü …
receiver’s
(A) ×−Ö¯ÖãÖŸÖÖ
(A) competence
(B) ¯ÖϾÖÖŸÖÖ
(B) pre-disposition
(C) receptivity (C) ÖÏÆüÖ¿Ö߻֟ÖÖ
(D) ethnicity (D) −Öé•ÖÖŸÖßµÖŸÖÖ
47. Determine the relationship between 47. ¿Ö²¤üÖë êú µÖã´Ö, †Ó¿Ö : Æü¸ü êú ²Öß“Ö ÃÖ´²Ö−¬Ö ×−Ö¬ÖÖÔ׸üŸÖ
the pair of words NUMERATOR : ú¸ëü †Öî¸ü ×±ú¸ü ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ¿Ö²¤üÖë êú µÖã´Ö úÖ
DENOMINATOR and then select “ÖµÖ−Ö ú¸ëü וÖÃÖúÖ ˆ¯ÖµÖãÔŒŸÖ •ÖîÃÖÖ ÃÖ´²Ö−¬Ö Æîü …
the pair of words from the following
which have a similar relationship :
(A) ³ÖÖÖ (µÖÖ †Ó¿Ö) : ¤ü¿Ö´Ö»Ö¾Ö
(A) fraction : decimal (B) ³ÖÖ•Öú : ³ÖÖÖ±ú»Ö
(B) divisor : quotient (C) ׿ÖÖ¸ü : ŸÖ»Ö (†£Ö¾ÖÖ ×−Ö“Ö»ÖÖ ³ÖÖÖ)
(C) top : bottom
(D) ³ÖÖ•µÖ : ³ÖÖ•Öú
(D) dividend : divisor
48. Find the wrong number in the 48. ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ †−ÖãÎú´Ö ´Öë Ö»ÖŸÖ ÃÖÓµÖÖ –ÖÖŸÖ ú¸ëü :
sequence
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130 (B) 142
(A) 130 (B) 142
(C) 153 (D) 165 (C) 153 (D) 165
49. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and 49. µÖפ ÆüÖò²Ößü (HOBBY) úÖê †Ö‡†Öê²Öß (IOBY)
LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë æú™ü²Ö¨ü ×úµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ Æîü †Öî¸ü »ÖÖò²Öß
BOBBY is coded as (LOBBY) úÖê ´ÖÖò²Öß (MOBY) êú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë; ŸÖÖê
(A) BOBY (B) COBY ²ÖÖò²Öß (BOBBY) úÖê æú™ü²Ö¨ü ×úµÖÖ Æîü
(C) DOBY (D) OOBY (A) BOBY (B) COBY
(C) DOBY (D) OOBY
50. The letters in the first set have 50. ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ÃÖ´Öã““ÖµÖ ´Öë †Ö¸üÖë úÖ ‹ú ×−ÖÛ¿“ÖŸÖ ÃÖ´²Ö−¬Ö
certain relationship. On the basis of Æîü … ‡ÃÖ ÃÖ´²Ö−¬Ö êú †Ö¬ÖÖ¸ü ¯Ö¸ü ¤æüÃÖ¸êü ÃÖ´Öã““ÖµÖ êú ×»ÖµÖê
this relationship, make the right
choice for the second set :
ÃÖÆüß “ÖµÖ−Ö ú¸ëü :
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ? K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?
(A) 10/8 (B) 10/18 (A) 10/8 (B) 10/18
(C) 11/19 (D) 10/19 (C) 11/19 (D) 10/19
Y-00 17 P.T.O.
18. 51. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so 51. µÖפü A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 ‡ŸµÖÖפü Æîü,
on, what do the following numbers ŸÖÖê ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ †Óú ×úÃÖêú ×»ÖµÖê Æïü ?
stand for ?
17, 19, 20, 9, 8 17, 19, 20, 9, 8
(A) Plane (A) ÃÖ´ÖŸÖ»Ö
(B) Moped (B) ´ÖÖî¯Öê›ü (‹´Ö †Öê ¯Öß ‡Ô ›üß)
(C) Motor (C) ´ÖÖê™ü¸ü
(D) Tonga (D) ™üÖÑÖÖ
52. The price of oil is increased by 25%. 52. ŸÖê»Ö úß úß´ÖŸÖ ´Öë 25% úß ¾Öéרü Æãü‡Ô Æîü … µÖפü Ö“ÖÖÔ
If the expenditure is not allowed to
increase, the ratio between the
−ÖÆüà ²ÖœÌüÖµÖÖ •ÖÖ ÃÖúŸÖÖ Æîü, ŸÖÖê ˆ¯Ö³ÖÖêÖ ´Öë ú´Öß †Öî¸ü
reduction in consumption and the ´Öæ»Ö ˆ¯Ö³ÖÖêÖ êú ²Öß“Ö †−Öã¯ÖÖŸÖ Æîü
original consumption is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1:4
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6 (C) 1:5 (D) 1 : 6
53. How many 8’s are there in the 53. ×−Ö´−Ö †−ÖãÎú´Ö ´Öë ‹êÃÖê ×úŸÖ−Öê 8 êú †Óú Æïü וÖ−Öêú
following sequence which are ¯ÖÆü»Öê 5 úÖ †Óú ÆüÖê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ²ÖÖ¤ü ´Öë 3 úÖ †Óú −Ö ÆüÖê ?
preceded by 5 but not immediately
followed by 3 ? 5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6
5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5
5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 3 (C) 7 (D) 3
54. If a rectangle were called a circle, a 54. µÖפü †ÖµÖŸÖ úÖê ¾Öé¢Ö úÆüÖ •ÖÖµÖê, ¾Öé¢Ö úÖê ײÖ−¤ãü, ײÖ−¤ãü
circle a point, a point a triangle and a úÖê סֳÖã•Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ ×¡Ö³Öã•Ö úÖê ¾ÖÖÔ úÆüÖ •ÖÖµÖê ŸÖÖê “ÖÎú úÖ
triangle a square, the shape of a
wheel is
†ÖúÖ¸ü
(A) Rectangle (A) †ÖµÖŸÖ ÆüÖêÖÖ …
(B) Circle (B) ¾Öé¢Ö ÆüÖêÖÖ …
(C) Point (C) ײÖ−¤ãü ÆüÖêÖÖ …
(D) Triangle
(D) סֳÖã•Ö ÆüÖêÖÖ …
55. Which one of the following methods 55. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë ±úÃÖ»ÖÖë êú ´ÖÖ−ÖúßéúŸÖ ¾ÖÖáú¸üÖ ´Öë ×¾Ö׳Ö−−Ö
is best suited for mapping the ±úÃÖ»ÖÖë êú ×¾ÖŸÖ¸üÖ êú ´ÖÖ−Öד֡ÖÖ êú ×»Ö‹ ×−Ö´−Ö ´Öë ÃÖê
distribution of different crops as úÖî−Ö ÃÖß ×¾Ö×¬Ö ÃÖ¾ÖÖì×“ÖŸÖ Æîü ?
provided in the standard
classification of crops in India ? (A) ¯ÖÖ‡Ô ×“Ö¡Ö
(A) Pie diagram (B) •Öß¾Ö ×¾ÖŸÖ¸üÖ-¾ÖÖáµÖ ŸÖú−Ößú
(B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) †Ö‡ÃÖÖ꯻Öî£Ö ŸÖú−Ößú
(C) Isopleth technique
(D) Dot method (D) ›üÖò™ü ×¾Ö׬Ö
Y-00 18
19. 56. Which one of the following does not 56. ×−Ö´−Ö ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ †ÖÑú›ÌüÖë êú ¾ÖÖáú¸üÖ úß ×¾Ö×¬Ö ´Öë
come under the methods of data ÃÖÛ´´Ö×»ÖŸÖ −ÖÆüà Æîü ?
classification ? (A) ÖãÖÖŸ´Öú
(A) Qualitative (B) ´ÖÖ−ÖúßµÖ
(B) Normative
(C) ãÖÖ×−Öú
(C) Spatial
(D) ÃÖÓµÖÖŸ´Öú
(D) Quantitative
57. Which one of the following is not a 57. ×−Ö´−Ö ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ †ÖÑú›ÌüÖë úÖ ÄÖÖêŸÖ −ÖÆüà Æîü ?
source of data ? (A) ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖÃÖ×−Öú ¤üßÖÖ¾Öê•Ö
(A) Administrative records
(B) •Ö−ÖÖÖ−ÖÖ
(B) Population census
(C) •Öß. †Ö‡Ô. ‹ÃÖ.
(C) GIS
(D) Sample survey (D) −µÖÖ¤ü¿ÖÔ ÃÖ¾ÖìÖÖ
58. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ 58. µÖפü ú£Ö−Ö ‘ãú”û ¾µÖÛŒŸÖ ×−Ö¤ÔüµÖß ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü …’ ÃÖÆüß −ÖÆüà Æîü
is false, which of the following ŸÖÖê ×−Ö´−Ö ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ/ÃÖê ú£Ö−Ö ÃÖÆüß Æîü ?
statements/statement are/is true ? (i) ÃÖ³Öß ¾µÖÛŒŸÖ ×−Ö¤ÔüµÖß Æïü …
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) úÖê‡Ô ¾µÖÛŒŸÖ ×−Ö¤ÔüµÖß −ÖÆüà Æîü …
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) ãú”û ¾µÖÛŒŸÖ ×−Ö¤ÔüµÖß −ÖÆüà Æïü …
(iii) Some men are not cruel.
(A) (i) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (iii)
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (ii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) êú¾Ö»Ö (iii)
(D) (iii) only
59. The octal number system consists of 59. ‹ú †Â™üúÖÓú ×−ÖúÖµÖ ´Öë ×−Ö´−Ö ×“ÖÅ−Ö ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü :
the following symbols : (A) 0 – 7
(A) 0 – 7 (B) 0 – 9
(B) 0 – 9 (C) 0 – 9, A – F
(C) 0 – 9, A – F (D) ˆ¯Ö¸üÖêŒŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê úÖê‡Ô −ÖÆüà
(D) None of the above
60. The binary equivalent of (–19)10 in 60. דÖÛÅ−ÖŸÖ ¯Ö׸ü´ÖÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖÖ»Öß ´Öë (–19)10 úÖ
signed magnitude system is ׫ü-†Ö¬ÖÖ¸üß ÃÖ´ÖŸÖã»µÖ Æîü
(A) 11101100 (A) 11101100
(B) 11101101 (B) 11101101
(C) 10010011 (C) 10010011
(D) None of these (D) ˆ¯Ö¸üÖêŒŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê úÖê‡Ô −ÖÆüà
Y-00 19 P.T.O.