1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam containing 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, with the first 50 attempted being evaluated.
2. At the start of the exam, candidates have 5 minutes to verify the question booklet matches the cover details. They must fill in identification details on the answer sheet and question booklet.
3. The exam consists of multiple choice questions with options A, B, C or D. Candidates must darken the correct answer oval on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It details that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates only need to answer 50.
2. The instructions emphasize verifying the exam booklet upon receiving it to check for issues like missing pages or questions. Candidates are told to raise any issues within 5 minutes to receive a replacement.
3. Candidates are to mark their answers on the provided answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question instead of writing anywhere else, and are warned that writing anywhere identifying like their name will disqualify them.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates must answer only 50. It describes how the exam booklet and answer sheet work and provides various rules for candidates to follow during the exam, such as filling in responses on the answer sheet, not writing anything else on the answer sheet, and raising your hand if you have any issues.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions within the allotted time.
2. Candidates are to darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to their chosen alternative (A, B, C or D) for each question. They are also instructed to fill details on the answer sheet like roll number and test booklet code for evaluation.
3. The instructions provide guidance on receiving and verifying the question paper booklet, handling multiple answers, doing rough work, and completing the exam within the specified time and as per guidelines.
1. What organizational and supervisory steps can you take to encourage original thinking on the part of your library staff?
Decentralize decision making and delegate more authority to encourage original thinking. Also loosen departmental lines and jurisdiction to increase interdepartmental contact and communication.
2. How can decentralization of decision making encourage original thinking?
By increasing feedback from all levels and peer recognition, which will enhance the sense of purpose for staff and may lead to innovative ideas even if original thinking does not directly increase.
3. What effect can interdepartmental communication have?
It can produce innovative ideas. Greater communication provides a slightly stressful situation which stimulates creative thinking. It creates situations to generate new ideas for tasks or problems
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It details that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates only need to answer 50.
2. The instructions emphasize verifying the exam booklet upon receiving it to check for issues like missing pages or questions. Candidates are told to raise any issues within 5 minutes to receive a replacement.
3. Candidates are to mark their answers on the provided answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question instead of writing anywhere else, and are warned that writing anywhere identifying like their name will disqualify them.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions but candidates must answer only 50. It describes how the exam booklet and answer sheet work and provides various rules for candidates to follow during the exam, such as filling in responses on the answer sheet, not writing anything else on the answer sheet, and raising your hand if you have any issues.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions within the allotted time.
2. Candidates are to darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to their chosen alternative (A, B, C or D) for each question. They are also instructed to fill details on the answer sheet like roll number and test booklet code for evaluation.
3. The instructions provide guidance on receiving and verifying the question paper booklet, handling multiple answers, doing rough work, and completing the exam within the specified time and as per guidelines.
1. What organizational and supervisory steps can you take to encourage original thinking on the part of your library staff?
Decentralize decision making and delegate more authority to encourage original thinking. Also loosen departmental lines and jurisdiction to increase interdepartmental contact and communication.
2. How can decentralization of decision making encourage original thinking?
By increasing feedback from all levels and peer recognition, which will enhance the sense of purpose for staff and may lead to innovative ideas even if original thinking does not directly increase.
3. What effect can interdepartmental communication have?
It can produce innovative ideas. Greater communication provides a slightly stressful situation which stimulates creative thinking. It creates situations to generate new ideas for tasks or problems
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
1. Write your roll number on the cover page of the question booklet.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions worth 2 marks each. Attempt all questions.
3. At the start of the exam, you will be given 5 minutes to open and verify your question booklet before the exam starts.
4. Choose the correct answer among options A, B, C or D and darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to the question.
That is the summary of the key information provided in the 3 sentences or less as requested.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details about receiving the question booklet, verifying the number of pages and questions, marking responses in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and returning materials after the examination. Candidates are asked to not write their name or mark the test materials except in designated areas to avoid being disqualified.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
- Write your roll number on the cover page
- The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions
- Check that your question booklet is not defective
- Mark your answers on the OMR sheet provided
- No negative marking for incorrect answers
- Use only blue or black pen
- Calculators are not permitted
- Return the question booklet after the exam
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It explains that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on verifying the question booklet before the exam starts, marking answers in the answer sheet, and procedures to follow if there are any issues with the booklet. It reminds candidates not to write their name or any identifying marks on the test materials.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It specifies that the examination consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides details on verifying the question paper booklet, marking answers in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and procedures to return materials after the examination.
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions. At the start of the exam, candidates will be given a question booklet to examine for 5 minutes. They should check that it is not missing pages or questions and that the numbering is correct. Candidates must fill in details from their booklet on the answer sheet. They should choose from among 4 answer options (A), (B), (C) or (D) for each question. No negative marking. Use of calculators is prohibited. Booklets must be returned after the exam.
This document provides instructions for a 50 question, multiple choice exam on Library and Information Science. The questions are divided into four types: 1) Simple multiple choice for questions 1-20, 2) Multiple selection for questions 21-35, 3) Linked items/item groups for questions 36-40, and 4) Matching items requiring matching statements from two lists for questions 41-50. Candidates are instructed to darken the correct oval response on the answer sheet and that there is no negative marking.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It begins with spaces to fill in the invigilators' signatures and details of the candidate's roll number and test booklet number.
The instructions state that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be completed in 1.25 hours. Candidates are asked to verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. They should not accept faulty booklets and must enter the test booklet number on their OMR answer sheet.
Each question has four answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should darken the oval for the correct response on their common OMR answer sheet. They are advised to follow the instructions carefully and do any
1. Briefly state the main concern of publishers regarding electronic publishing.
2. Mention two benefits that electronic publications offer library users according to the passage.
3. State one reason why collection managers have encouraged the development of electronic resources.
4. Summarize the approach adopted by publishers towards collection managers as mentioned in the passage.
5. State one important issue that collection managers need to be cautious about according to the passage.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a multiple choice exam consisting of 50 questions. It specifies that candidates should fill in personal details on the cover page and instructions for examining the question booklet upon receiving it. Candidates are asked to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page and report any issues within 5 minutes for a replacement. Each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. No negative marks will be given for incorrect answers.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam, including writing your roll number, filling in responses on an answer sheet, and guidelines for the exam format and timing.
2. Students will be given a question booklet and must verify the number of pages and questions within 5 minutes. If issues are found, they can request a new booklet within this time.
3. Various multiple choice questions will be asked, and students must fill in their responses on the answer sheet using a blue or black pen. No other writing utensils or aids are permitted.
The document provides instructions for a test exam. It states that the exam will be 11⁄4 hours long and contain 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on filling out identifying information, instructions for examining the exam booklet, how to fill in responses on the answer sheet, rules on rough work, and prohibitions on writing anywhere else in the booklet.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It consists of 12 numbered points covering various instructions regarding the question paper booklet, answering the questions, and procedures during the examination. Key details include:
1. Candidates must write their roll number on the cover page.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions.
3. Candidates will be given 5 minutes to open the booklet and verify the number of pages and questions. Faulty booklets should be replaced immediately.
4. Each question has 4 answer options marked A, B, C, or D. Candidates must darken the correct oval on the answer sheet.
According to the passage:
1. Swami Vivekananda believed a teacher's success depends on his renunciation of personal gain and service to others.
2. The passage provides information about instructions for an examination.
3. Students are instructed to carefully read the instructions provided and follow them properly.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1.25 hours.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or having duplicate questions and to fill in their test booklet number on the answer sheet.
El documento resume las actividades de tres consorcios de exportación en el estado de Nayarit, México: Con Sabor Nayarit, HIKURI y NATBELL. Establece relaciones comerciales, trabaja en innovación de productos, y extiende su gama de productos. También describe la visita de expertos internacionales para evaluar el desempeño de los consorcios y sensibilizar sobre la formación de nuevos consorcios.
Use of magnets in orthodontics /certified fixed orthodontic courses by Indi...Indian dental academy
The Indian Dental Academy is the Leader in continuing dental education , training dentists in all aspects of dentistry and offering a wide range of dental certified courses in different formats.
Indian dental academy provides dental crown & Bridge,rotary endodontics,fixed orthodontics,
Dental implants courses.for details pls visit www.indiandentalacademy.com ,or call
00919248678078
Este documento describe diferentes métodos anticonceptivos, en particular los anticonceptivos hormonales. Explica que los anticonceptivos hormonales incluyen anticonceptivos orales combinados que contienen estrógenos y progestágenos, así como anticonceptivos de progestágenos solos. Describe los mecanismos de acción, efectos adversos y contraindicaciones de los diferentes tipos de anticonceptivos hormonales.
Las biomoléculas más importantes para la vida son los carbohidratos, lípidos, proteínas y ácidos nucleicos. Los carbohidratos incluyen monosacáridos como la glucosa y polisacáridos como el almidón. Los lípidos incluyen triglicéridos, fosfolípidos y colesterol. Las proteínas son polímeros de aminoácidos con estructuras primaria, secundaria, terciaria y cuaternaria. Los ácidos nucleicos ADN y ARN almacenan y transmiten la información gené
Este documento describe la implantación de OpenGeo Suite en el Ayuntamiento de Castellbisbal para permitir la gestión integral de información geográfica de forma autónoma y libre de costes. OpenGeo Suite, que incluye PostGIS, GeoServer, GeoWebCache, OpenLayers y GeoExt, proporciona una potente base de datos espacial, servidores de mapas y clientes web. Se realizaron adaptaciones como la traducción a varios idiomas, la incorporación de buscadores específicos y el soporte de múltiples proyecciones. Esta solución bas
John Hyman has joined Cheyne Capital Management (UK) LLP as a partner. He has over 23 years of experience in the equities industry including senior roles at Morgan Stanley. His appointment comes as Cheyne Capital has seen strong returns and capital inflows into its flagship funds such as the Real Estate Debt Fund and Total Return Credit Fund. John Hyman will help Cheyne Capital further develop its equities business and launch new products by leveraging his expertise in global markets.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
1. Write your roll number on the cover page of the question booklet.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions worth 2 marks each. Attempt all questions.
3. At the start of the exam, you will be given 5 minutes to open and verify your question booklet before the exam starts.
4. Choose the correct answer among options A, B, C or D and darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to the question.
That is the summary of the key information provided in the 3 sentences or less as requested.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details about receiving the question booklet, verifying the number of pages and questions, marking responses in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and returning materials after the examination. Candidates are asked to not write their name or mark the test materials except in designated areas to avoid being disqualified.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
- Write your roll number on the cover page
- The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions
- Check that your question booklet is not defective
- Mark your answers on the OMR sheet provided
- No negative marking for incorrect answers
- Use only blue or black pen
- Calculators are not permitted
- Return the question booklet after the exam
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It explains that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on verifying the question booklet before the exam starts, marking answers in the answer sheet, and procedures to follow if there are any issues with the booklet. It reminds candidates not to write their name or any identifying marks on the test materials.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It specifies that the examination consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides details on verifying the question paper booklet, marking answers in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and procedures to return materials after the examination.
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions. At the start of the exam, candidates will be given a question booklet to examine for 5 minutes. They should check that it is not missing pages or questions and that the numbering is correct. Candidates must fill in details from their booklet on the answer sheet. They should choose from among 4 answer options (A), (B), (C) or (D) for each question. No negative marking. Use of calculators is prohibited. Booklets must be returned after the exam.
This document provides instructions for a 50 question, multiple choice exam on Library and Information Science. The questions are divided into four types: 1) Simple multiple choice for questions 1-20, 2) Multiple selection for questions 21-35, 3) Linked items/item groups for questions 36-40, and 4) Matching items requiring matching statements from two lists for questions 41-50. Candidates are instructed to darken the correct oval response on the answer sheet and that there is no negative marking.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It begins with spaces to fill in the invigilators' signatures and details of the candidate's roll number and test booklet number.
The instructions state that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be completed in 1.25 hours. Candidates are asked to verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. They should not accept faulty booklets and must enter the test booklet number on their OMR answer sheet.
Each question has four answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should darken the oval for the correct response on their common OMR answer sheet. They are advised to follow the instructions carefully and do any
1. Briefly state the main concern of publishers regarding electronic publishing.
2. Mention two benefits that electronic publications offer library users according to the passage.
3. State one reason why collection managers have encouraged the development of electronic resources.
4. Summarize the approach adopted by publishers towards collection managers as mentioned in the passage.
5. State one important issue that collection managers need to be cautious about according to the passage.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a multiple choice exam consisting of 50 questions. It specifies that candidates should fill in personal details on the cover page and instructions for examining the question booklet upon receiving it. Candidates are asked to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page and report any issues within 5 minutes for a replacement. Each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. No negative marks will be given for incorrect answers.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam, including writing your roll number, filling in responses on an answer sheet, and guidelines for the exam format and timing.
2. Students will be given a question booklet and must verify the number of pages and questions within 5 minutes. If issues are found, they can request a new booklet within this time.
3. Various multiple choice questions will be asked, and students must fill in their responses on the answer sheet using a blue or black pen. No other writing utensils or aids are permitted.
The document provides instructions for a test exam. It states that the exam will be 11⁄4 hours long and contain 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on filling out identifying information, instructions for examining the exam booklet, how to fill in responses on the answer sheet, rules on rough work, and prohibitions on writing anywhere else in the booklet.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It consists of 12 numbered points covering various instructions regarding the question paper booklet, answering the questions, and procedures during the examination. Key details include:
1. Candidates must write their roll number on the cover page.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions.
3. Candidates will be given 5 minutes to open the booklet and verify the number of pages and questions. Faulty booklets should be replaced immediately.
4. Each question has 4 answer options marked A, B, C, or D. Candidates must darken the correct oval on the answer sheet.
According to the passage:
1. Swami Vivekananda believed a teacher's success depends on his renunciation of personal gain and service to others.
2. The passage provides information about instructions for an examination.
3. Students are instructed to carefully read the instructions provided and follow them properly.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1.25 hours.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or having duplicate questions and to fill in their test booklet number on the answer sheet.
El documento resume las actividades de tres consorcios de exportación en el estado de Nayarit, México: Con Sabor Nayarit, HIKURI y NATBELL. Establece relaciones comerciales, trabaja en innovación de productos, y extiende su gama de productos. También describe la visita de expertos internacionales para evaluar el desempeño de los consorcios y sensibilizar sobre la formación de nuevos consorcios.
Use of magnets in orthodontics /certified fixed orthodontic courses by Indi...Indian dental academy
The Indian Dental Academy is the Leader in continuing dental education , training dentists in all aspects of dentistry and offering a wide range of dental certified courses in different formats.
Indian dental academy provides dental crown & Bridge,rotary endodontics,fixed orthodontics,
Dental implants courses.for details pls visit www.indiandentalacademy.com ,or call
00919248678078
Este documento describe diferentes métodos anticonceptivos, en particular los anticonceptivos hormonales. Explica que los anticonceptivos hormonales incluyen anticonceptivos orales combinados que contienen estrógenos y progestágenos, así como anticonceptivos de progestágenos solos. Describe los mecanismos de acción, efectos adversos y contraindicaciones de los diferentes tipos de anticonceptivos hormonales.
Las biomoléculas más importantes para la vida son los carbohidratos, lípidos, proteínas y ácidos nucleicos. Los carbohidratos incluyen monosacáridos como la glucosa y polisacáridos como el almidón. Los lípidos incluyen triglicéridos, fosfolípidos y colesterol. Las proteínas son polímeros de aminoácidos con estructuras primaria, secundaria, terciaria y cuaternaria. Los ácidos nucleicos ADN y ARN almacenan y transmiten la información gené
Este documento describe la implantación de OpenGeo Suite en el Ayuntamiento de Castellbisbal para permitir la gestión integral de información geográfica de forma autónoma y libre de costes. OpenGeo Suite, que incluye PostGIS, GeoServer, GeoWebCache, OpenLayers y GeoExt, proporciona una potente base de datos espacial, servidores de mapas y clientes web. Se realizaron adaptaciones como la traducción a varios idiomas, la incorporación de buscadores específicos y el soporte de múltiples proyecciones. Esta solución bas
John Hyman has joined Cheyne Capital Management (UK) LLP as a partner. He has over 23 years of experience in the equities industry including senior roles at Morgan Stanley. His appointment comes as Cheyne Capital has seen strong returns and capital inflows into its flagship funds such as the Real Estate Debt Fund and Total Return Credit Fund. John Hyman will help Cheyne Capital further develop its equities business and launch new products by leveraging his expertise in global markets.
Emmanuel Levinas was a 20th century French philosopher whose works have received increasing attention from English-speaking intellectuals. Levinas believed that his task was not to construct ethics but to understand its meaning. For Levinas, the relationship with the Other is defined by responsibility for the Other, who cannot be fully known or made into an object. Levinas saw the purpose of education as converting the ignorant into the knowledgeable. His philosophy challenges traditional divisions between pedagogy and philosophy and reconceptualizes the learner as an autonomous Other that we have responsibility for.
El Colegio de Cirujanos Dentistas de Celaya invita a celebrar el Día del Dentista el 9 de Febrero con una conferencia sobre restauraciones con resinas de nanorrelleno y una cena patrocinada. El evento será en Casa Loretto y habrá estacionamiento disponible, con cupo limitado a 50 personas.
Este documento presenta información sobre la empresa 3M y sus operaciones en la región Andina de América Latina. Detalla los productos y servicios que ofrece 3M en diferentes industrias como arquitectura, automotriz, cuidado de la salud, entre otras. También describe algunos nuevos productos como vinilos autoadhesivos y laminas de retroproyección. Finalmente, resalta las ventajas competitivas de 3M como su prestigio en el mercado, sus marcas reconocidas a nivel mundial y su liderazgo en el desarrollo de nuevas
El documento describe los pasos para implementar nuevas evaluaciones en la educación médica. Explica que es importante definir claramente qué y cómo se evaluará, considerando los diferentes tipos de competencias. Además, recomienda utilizar diversos métodos de evaluación como exámenes escritos, prácticas clínicas, observaciones y portafolios para medir de manera justa el aprendizaje.
Cristian Ronaldo presentó una presentación realizada por Ruth Alvarez, una estudiante de tercer año de trabajo social. La presentación cubrió información clave sobre Cristian Ronaldo.
Este documento presenta un plan estratégico conjunto para el desarrollo económico a través de la revalorización del patrimonio histórico y cultural de la comarca del Bajo Andarax en Almería, España y la región Oriental de Marruecos. Los objetivos principales del plan son: 1) Mejorar el atractivo cultural y turístico de estas áreas para atraer más visitantes, 2) Identificar los recursos culturales y patrimoniales existentes y ponerlos en valor, y 3) Diseñar productos turísticos y culturales bas
Benefits of the OSGi Solution for Manufacturers and Service Providers - S Sch...mfrancis
Dr. Susan Schwarze discusses the benefits of OSGi solutions for different markets. She outlines several projects using OSGi, including TOP-IQ for telematics in luxury vehicles, the Hogar.es smart home platform in Spain, medical device integration via LifeSensor Connector, and smart home applications from BSH and inHaus Duisburg. OSGi allows for innovative services, remote management, integration of different devices and business models, and enhanced life cycle management for manufacturers.
Este documento contiene 10 historias cortas sobre Alan García y su presidencia. Las historias incluyen a una anciana que intenta darle comida a García en su ataúd para que los gusanos no coman "mierda solamente", un perro que cuestiona por qué debe correr si solo ordenaron matar a los perros negros, y un borracho que intenta postular a la presidencia pero no cumple los "requisitos".
Anuncio BOPBUR Subasta Licitacion Coto Caza Espinosa de los MonterosCEDER Merindades
El Ayuntamiento de Espinosa de los Monteros convoca una nueva subasta para la adjudicación del aprovechamiento cinegético del coto de caza BU-10.630, que incluye 11 montes públicos. La subasta se realizará mediante procedimiento abierto con el precio como único criterio de adjudicación. El tipo de licitación es de 45.429,97 euros y los interesados tienen hasta 8 días para presentar ofertas en el Ayuntamiento. La apertura de ofertas tendrá lugar el 1 de abril a las 10:00 horas en el prop
Unic pag internas repositorio del programa apartado investigaciónmmolina2010
Este documento presenta un resumen del artículo "Biblia y moral. Relaciones fundamentales en contextos de renovación. A propósito del documento de la PCB: Biblia y Moral. Raíces bíblicas del actuar cristiano" de Diego Agudelo. El autor analiza el debate sobre la especificidad de la moral cristiana y su relación con la moral humana. También examina el documento de la Pontificia Comisión Bíblica "Biblia y moral" a la luz de este debate y del Concilio Vaticano II.
Core Data is an object graph and persistence framework that allows storing and managing objects and relationships between objects. The Core Data stack includes the managed object model, persistent store coordinator, managed object context and persistent stores. Entities are represented by NSManagedObject subclasses and stored in a persistent store like SQLite. The managed object context acts as an in-memory scratch pad and saves changes to the persistent store. Queries use NSPredicate to fetch managed objects. Core Data handles object lifecycles and relationships and automatically saves changes between the context and store.
This lesson plan summarizes a 45-minute English class for 5-year-old students in Argentina. The lesson introduces family customs between Argentina and the United States. Students will learn family members, recognize similarities and differences between Argentine and American culture, and name some customs from each country. The teacher will use pictures, flashcards, and student drawings to review family vocabulary and compare traditions like eating asado and barbecue, drinking mate and going camping.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions over 24 pages. It instructs students to write their roll number on the paper and check that their question booklet is intact and in order. Students must fill in their assigned identification number and use a provided answer sheet to select only one answer for each question by darkening the corresponding circle. They are advised to follow the given instructions carefully and not write any identifying marks besides the spaces provided.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam:
1. Students must write their roll number on the question paper and check that their question booklet is complete within 5 minutes of receiving it.
2. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be answered on the OMR sheet provided.
3. Only a blue or black ballpoint pen should be used to fill in answers, and no extra materials like calculators are permitted. Any marks outside the answer circles will not be evaluated.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, and only the first 50 attempted will be graded.
2. Examinees have 5 minutes to verify the test booklet is not damaged or missing pages before starting. They must fill in test booklet and OMR sheet codes for matching.
3. Instructions provide details on selecting answers, handling the OMR sheet, writing in the test booklet, and general exam policies like starting and ending on time.
CBSE UGC NET December 2015 paper I solved PaperBonala Kondal
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions. The instructions state that candidates should verify that their test booklet and answer sheet match in number of pages and questions. They are informed to darken answers in the provided answer sheet only, and that use of calculators is prohibited. Finally, candidates are warned that writing anything to identify themselves on the answer sheet could lead to disqualification.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination consisting of 75 questions across 24 pages. It instructs candidates to write their roll number, check that their question booklet is complete and in order, and select their answers by darkening circles on the OMR answer sheet provided. Candidates are warned that marking anywhere other than the circles or revealing their identity could lead to disqualification. They must return the question booklet and OMR sheet after the examination and may keep a duplicate of the OMR sheet.
UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
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Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
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UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
Gyan Sagar Institute
SCF: 118-119-120,3rd Floor, Above State Bank of India
Sector 34/A, Chandigarh, 160022
Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
Website: http://www.gyansagarinstitute.com/ugc-net-economics-coaching-in-chandigarh/
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
This document provides instructions for a social work exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates are given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions specify that candidates should verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions within the first 5 minutes. They also specify that candidates should fill in their test booklet number on their answer sheet and vice versa. The instructions state that each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D and that candidates should darken the oval on their answer sheet corresponding to the correct answer for each question. Finally, the instructions specify that rough work should be done at the end of the question booklet and that candidates must return both the question booklet and
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
Similar to UGC NET - JUNE-2010- PAPER-I-SET-W (20)
The La Franci Hotel focuses on providing luxurious, elegant, and formal service with precise standards and specifications for treating customers. Employees receive thorough training and are committed to serving guests like royalty, as reflected in their motto "We are Ladies and Gentlemen serving Ladies and Gentlemen." The hotel's culture emphasizes innovation, attention to detail, outstanding customer service, training employees as individuals and in groups, and creating a stable environment for guests.
This document outlines the topics covered in the CS958 Wireless Security course, including an introduction to wireless technologies and standards, common wireless threats such as eavesdropping and denial of service attacks, security considerations for different wireless networks and protocols, and Bluetooth security architecture and threats. Specific areas covered are WEP, wireless standards, CDPD, GPRS, GSM, SSL, WTLS, WAP security, and Bluetooth baseband security. References for further reading are also provided.
This document outlines a course on vehicular ad hoc networks (VANETs). The course contains 5 units that cover topics such as traffic monitoring applications, models for vehicle movement and traffic flow, networking issues like routing protocols, delay-tolerant networking approaches, and localization techniques. Recommended textbooks and reference books on VANETs and wireless ad hoc networks are also provided.
This document outlines the contents of a course on ad hoc networks. The course is divided into 5 units that cover: 1) fundamentals of wireless communication and ad hoc network introduction, 2) ad hoc routing protocols, 3) multicast routing in ad hoc networks, 4) transport layer and security protocols for ad hoc networks, and 5) quality of service and energy management in ad hoc networks. Each unit discusses key issues, classifications, and examples of protocols and solutions for the various aspects of building and managing ad hoc networks.
The project aims to provide video lecture classes through DVDs to poor and rural students in India to improve access to education and reduce gaps between rich and poor. It will record lectures from the best teachers in various subjects and distribute the DVDs to schools and students in underdeveloped regions for free. Initially, the project will focus on subjects like English, math, science, and computers in two districts in India and hopes to expand nationwide by 2020. The DVD lessons are intended to help students prepare for important exams by bringing high-quality teaching resources to remote areas that lack access to coaching and teachers.
This document provides an introduction to computer networking concepts for students. It discusses the basic components of a network, including cables, switches, routers and wireless access points. It explains the differences between peer-to-peer and client-server network configurations. Advantages of networking for schools include faster sharing of files and resources, lower costs through shared software licenses, and easier collaboration between students and teachers. Some considerations for setting up a wireless network are also outlined.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the question paper contains 50 multiple choice questions with 4 answer options each. It provides details on how to fill the answer sheet and instructions that candidates must follow during the exam.
2. Key points mentioned include writing the roll number on the question paper, indicating answers on the OMR answer sheet within the allotted time, not writing anything else on the test booklet except in the designated space, and returning the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3. The document also specifies the number of pages in the question booklet, that blue or black ballpoint pen should be used, calculators and
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there will be 75 questions and candidates have 2.5 hours to complete the exam.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number on the exam booklet. They should verify the number of pages and questions before starting.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet using a blue or black pen. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that candidates should write their roll number on the exam paper. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates will be given the question booklet at the start of the exam and instructed to verify the number of pages and questions. They must fill in their OMR sheet number on the booklet. Each question has 4 answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. Answers should only be marked on the OMR sheet. The exam is out of 100 marks and lasts 1 hour and 15 minutes.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states that the exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions over 12 pages.
2. Students must fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. They are instructed to carefully examine the question booklet for issues like missing pages or questions and to notify invigilators if problems are found.
3. Students must mark their answers on the OMR sheet provided. Using other areas could result in the answers not being evaluated. They are warned that writing identifying information could result in disqualification.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number, verify that their question booklet is correct, and fill in their OMR sheet number. It describes how to mark answers in the OMR sheet and provides other exam rules like doing rough work in the designated area and not discussing exam content after leaving.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions. It details that students should fill in their roll number and OMR sheet number. It explains that each question will have 4 answer options (A, B, C, D) and students should fill the oval of the correct response on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions on rough work, use of calculators, and that there are no negative marks for incorrect answers. The document concludes by stating the number of pages and questions in the question booklet.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a computer science and applications exam. It details procedures for receiving and verifying the exam booklet, how to indicate answers in the answer sheet, exam rules, and provides other important details to guide candidates through the exam process. It is an exam instruction sheet that outlines expectations and protocols for a standardized test.
1. The document discusses guidelines for a multiple choice exam with 50 questions.
2. Examinees will be given a question booklet to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page within 5 minutes or get a replacement.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR answer sheet provided in the booklet. The test booklet number should also be entered on the answer sheet.
4. Questions have 4 options labelled A, B, C or D. Only the correct response should be darkened on the OMR sheet.
5. Rough work should be done on the inside pages and exam materials must be returned after the exam. Calculators are not permitted.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam for Computer Science and Applications. It states that the exam will have 50 multiple choice questions to be completed within 1 1/4 hours. It provides instructions on filling out identification details, how to check that the exam paper is correct, how to fill in answers on the answer sheet, and other rules around conduct including no calculators allowed.
How to Build a Module in Odoo 17 Using the Scaffold MethodCeline George
Odoo provides an option for creating a module by using a single line command. By using this command the user can make a whole structure of a module. It is very easy for a beginner to make a module. There is no need to make each file manually. This slide will show how to create a module using the scaffold method.
How to Fix the Import Error in the Odoo 17Celine George
An import error occurs when a program fails to import a module or library, disrupting its execution. In languages like Python, this issue arises when the specified module cannot be found or accessed, hindering the program's functionality. Resolving import errors is crucial for maintaining smooth software operation and uninterrupted development processes.
This presentation was provided by Steph Pollock of The American Psychological Association’s Journals Program, and Damita Snow, of The American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE), for the initial session of NISO's 2024 Training Series "DEIA in the Scholarly Landscape." Session One: 'Setting Expectations: a DEIA Primer,' was held June 6, 2024.
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Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
it describes the bony anatomy including the femoral head , acetabulum, labrum . also discusses the capsule , ligaments . muscle that act on the hip joint and the range of motion are outlined. factors affecting hip joint stability and weight transmission through the joint are summarized.
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Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty,
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By Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render
yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
W-00 P.T.O.
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : .........................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In words)
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.____________________________
PAPER-I
Test Booklet No.
[Maximum Marks : 100Time : 1 1
/4
hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖëêú×»Ö‹×Ö¤ìü¿Ö
(In figures as per admission card)
A B C D
A B C D
WJ 0 0 1 0
UGC-NET -JUNE 2010
3. W-00 3 P.T.O.
Paper – I
·° Ž··‚·– I
Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case more than 50 questions are attempted, only the first 50 questions will be evaluated.
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1. Which one of the following is the
most important quality of a good
teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable
2. The primary responsibility for the
teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community
3. As per the NCTE norms, what
should be the staff strength for a unit
of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
4. Research has shown that the most
frequent symptom of nervous
instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry
5. Which one of the following
statements is correct ?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the
curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all
educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both
formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include
methods of evaluation.
6. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active
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(D) ¤·•·Ä…Ý·–·oÛ·
3. mŽ·¤·ÀzÝÀiµoËÛ·°¸€·•··Ž··ÌoËÛhŽ·Ä¤··™Ý“·Àm|Ý
¤€·™ÝoËÛmoÛ–·Ç¸Ž·zݸv·Ý¤·•·Ì¸Ÿ·‹·„·Â§Ý·ÌŸ·§Ý·²
¤zÝ·’ÛoÛÀ¤·´p–··n–··§Ý·ËŽ·Àt··¸§Ým ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
4. hŽŸ·Ë£·~··Ì Ž·Ë –·§Ý …Ý ··µ–·· §ÏÝ ¸oÛ h–···oÛ·Ì oËÛ
¤Ž··–·Ä€·Ž‚·•·Ìh¼¤„·™Ý€··oËÛ·°·–··°·–·œ·c·~·§ÏÝ
(A) ··t·Ž·¸o¯Û–··oÛ·¸“·q·|Ý®Ž··
(B) ¸Ÿ·¤’Û·ËzÝoÛŸ–·Ÿ·§Ý·™Ý
(C) „·oÛ·Ÿ·zÝ
(D) ¸t·Ž€··
5. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·oÛ„·Ž··Ì•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ?
(A) ··{Ý—o¯Û•· ¸¤·œ·Ë“·¤·
9. ··{Ý—t·–··µ oÛ·
·¸™Ý¸ ·£zݧÏÝg
(B) ··{Ý—t·–··µ ¤·”·À ·Ï¸c·oÛ ¤·´¤„··Ž··Ì •·Ì
¤·•··Ž·™Ý§Ý€·À§ÏÝg
(C) ··{Ý—t·–··µ•·Ìh·Ï·t··¸™ÝoÛmŸ·´hŽ··Ï·t··¸™ÝoÛ
¸ ·c··…Ý·ËŽ··Ì ··¸•·œ·§Ý·Ë€·À§ÐÝg
(D) ··{Ý—t·–··µ•·Ì•·Çœ–··´oÛŽ·oËÛ}´Ýq· ··¸•·œ·
Ž·§ÝÁ§Ý·Ë€·Ëg
6. moÛ¤·’Ûœ·h–···oÛŸ·§Ý§ÏÝv··Ë
(A) ¤·´Ÿ·Ë…ÝŽ· ·Àœ·h·Ï™ÝhŽ·Ä ··¤·Ž·¸·°–·§Ý·Ë
(B) ··Ž€·h·Ï™Ý·°¸€·¸o¯Û–·· ·Àœ·§Ý·Ë
(C) ¤·§ÝŽ· ·Àœ·h·Ï™Ý·°”·Ä€Ÿ·oÛ·™ÝÀ§Ý·Ë
(D) ¸Ž·¼£o¯Û–·h·Ï™Ý¤·¸o¯Û–·§Ý·Ë
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
10. W-00 4
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How
does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments
of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does
one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description
of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from
every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar,
because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract
images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess
language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes
of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a
word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the
face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things
and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental
image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in
contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now
quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop
different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these
preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so
clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of
reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the
generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught
to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a
professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time
determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of
scholarly behaviour.
7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process (B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion
8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things (B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language (D) To gain knowledge
9. Concept means
(A) A mental image (B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form (D) All the above
10. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
11. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet
12. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses (B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum (D) An abstract image
ANS
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12. W-00 6
13. Action research means
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an
immediate problem
(D) A research with socio-
economic objective
14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any
problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to
search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above
15. A common test in research demands
much priority on
(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above
16. Which of the following is the first
step in starting the research process ?
(A) Searching sources of
information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the
problem
17. If a researcher conducts a research
on finding out which administrative
style contributes more to
institutional effectiveness ? This will
be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above
18. Normal Probability Curve should be
(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed
13. ¸o¯Û–··¸Ž·£{Ý ··Ë·oÛ·”··Ÿ·§ÏÝ
(A) …ËÝ ··Ž€·™ÝÀ–· ··Ë·g
(B) Ÿ–··Ÿ·§Ý·¸™ÝoÛ ··Ë·g
(C) moÛ ··Ë·¸v·¤·Ë¸oÛ¤·Àv·›ß™ÝÀ¤·•·¤–··oËÛ
¤·•····Ž·oËÛ¸œ·m·°·™Ý•”·¸oÛ–··q·–··§Ý·Ëg
(D) ¤··•··¸v·oÛh·º„·oÛ–·Ë–·¤·ËoÛÀq·iµ ··Ë·g
14. ··Ë·§ÏÝ
(A) “··™Ý“··™Ýp··Ëv·oۙݎ··g
(B) ¸oÛ¤·À¤·•·¤–··oÛ·¤·•····Ž·}DzÝ}Ý®Ž··g
(C) ¸oÛ¤·À ¤·•·¤–·· oËÛ ¤·•“·Ž· •·Ì Ÿ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ
}´Ýq· ¤·Ë ¤·€–· oÛ·Ë }DzÝ}Ý®Ž·Ë oËÛ ¸œ·m oÛ·–·µ
oۙݎ··g
(D) j·™Ý·Ën€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ËiµŽ·§ÝÁg
15. hŽ·Ä¤·´··Ž·hŽŸ·Ë£·~·
15. W-00 7 P.T.O.
19. In communication, a major barrier to
reception of messages is
(A) audience attitude
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education
(D) audience income
20. Post-modernism is associated with
(A) newspapers
(B) magazines
(C) radio
(D) television
21. Didactic communication is
(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal
(C) organisational
(D) relational
22. In communication, the language is
(A) the non-verbal code
(B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code
(D) the iconic code
23. Identify the correct sequence of the
following :
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
24. Assertion (A) : Mass media promote
a culture of violence in the
society.
Reason (R) : Because violence
sells in the market as people
themselves are violent in
character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
19. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·Ë¤·´t··™ÝoËÛhŽ€·q·µ€·oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··
¤·´…ËÝ ·q·°§Ý~·oۙݎ·Ë•·Ì·°•·Äp·hŸ·™Ý·Ë·oÛ§ÏÝ
(A) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛ·†Ý¼£zÝoÛ·Ë~·
(B) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛ·w··Ž·
(C) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛÀ¸ ·c··
(D) ¢··Ë€··h·ÌoÛÀh·–·
20. jƒ·™Ýh··Ä¸Ž·oÛ€··Ÿ··…ݤ·•“·¼Ž·€·§ÏÝ
(A) ¤·•··t··™Ý·‚·¤·Ë
(B) ·¸‚·oÛ·h·Ì•·Ïqv·ÀŽv·
17. W-00 8
25. When an error of 1% is made in the
length of a square, the percentage
error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0 (B) 1/2
(C) 1 (D) 2
26. On January 12, 1980, it was a
Saturday. The day of the week on
January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday (B) Friday
(C) Saturday (D) Sunday
27. If water is called food, food is called
tree, tree is called earth, earth is
called world, which of the following
grows a fruit ?
(A) Water (B) Tree
(C) World (D) Earth
28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B,
E is married to C, C is the daughter
of B. How is D related to E ?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law (D) Brother-in-law
29. If INSURANCE is coded as
ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE
will be coded ?
(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH
30. Find the next number in the
following series :
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63 (B) 65
(C) 67 (D) 69
25. moÛŸ·q·µoÛÀœ·•“··iµ•·ÌoÛÀq·œ·€·À§ÏÝ€··Ëj¤·
Ÿ·q·µ oËÛ c·Ë‚·’Ûœ·•·Ìq·œ·€·ÀoÛÀ·°¸€· ·€·€··n–··
§Ý·Ëq·À
(A) 0 (B) 1/2
(C) 1 (D) 2
26. 12 v·Ž·Ÿ·™ÝÀ, 1980 oÛ·Ë ·¸Ž·Ÿ··™Ý„··gv·Ž·Ÿ·™ÝÀ
oÛ·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··¸…ÝŽ·„··
(A) q·ÄšÞŸ··™Ý (B) ·Äo¯ÛŸ··™Ý
(C) ·¸Ž·Ÿ··™Ý (D) ™Ý¸Ÿ·Ÿ··™Ý
27. –·¸…Ýv·œ·p··‹·ŽŽ·§ÏÝp··‹·ŽŽ·Ÿ·Êc·§ÏÝŸ·Êc·oÛ·Ë
–·¸…Ý·™Ý€·À·™Ý€·Ào۷ˤ·´¤··™Ý€··Ë’Ûœ·iŽ·•·Ì¤·Ë
¸oÛ¤·•·ÌËœ·q·Ìq·Ë?
(A) v·œ· (B) Ÿ·Êc·
(C) ¤·´¤··™Ý (D) ·™Ý€·À
28. E ·Ä‚·§ÏÝ A oÛ·D·Ä‚·§ÏÝ%oÛ·(¸Ÿ·Ÿ··¸§Ý€·§ÏÝ
¤·Ëh·Ï™Ý·Ä‚·À§ÏÝ%oÛÀg'oÛ·(¤·Ën–··
¸™Ý €··§ÏÝ
(A) ”·°·€·· (B) t··t··
(C) ¤·¤·Ä™Ý (D) ¤··œ··
29. –·¸…Ý i´ –··Ë™Ìݤ· (INSURANCE) oÛ· oÇÛzÝ
mnŽ··›ß¤·Ž·À (ECNARUSNI) §ÏÝ€··Ë¹§Ý|Ý™Ìݤ·
(HINDRANCE) oÛ·oÇÛzÝn–··§Ý·Ëq·· ?
(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH
30. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50 oÛÀ¡·Ê´p·œ··•·Ì
hq·œ·À¤·´p–··n–··§Ý·Ëq·À
(A) 63 (B) 65
(C) 67 (D) 69
ANS
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18. W-00 9 P.T.O.
31. Which of the following is an
example of circular argument ?
(A) God created man in his image
and man created God in his
own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture
and the scripture is the source
of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great
because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is
Rama.
32. Lakshmana is a morally good person
because
(A) he is religious
(B) he is educated
(C) he is rich
(D) he is rational
33. Two statements I and II given below
are followed by two conclusions (a)
and (b). Supposing the statements
are true, which of the following
conclusions can logically follow ?
I. Some religious people are
morally good.
II. Some religious people are
rational.
Conclusions :
(a) Rationally religious people are
good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons
are not morally good.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
34. Certainty is
(A) an objective fact
(B) emotionally satisfying
(C) logical
(D) ontological
31. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·Ët·¸o¯ÛoÛ–·Ä¼n€·oÛ·j…Ý·§Ý™Ý~·
oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··§ÏÝ ?
(A) ·™Ý•··€•·· Ž·Ë •·Ž·Ä£–· oÛ·Ë h·Ž·Ë ›ß· •·Ì
“·Ž··–··h·Ï™Ý•·Ž·Ä£–·Ž·Ë·™Ý•··€•··oÛ·Ëh·Ž··
›ß·¸…Ý–··g
(B) ·™Ý•··€•····º•·oÛq·°´„·oÛ·¥··Ë€·§ÏÝh·Ï™Ý
··º•·oÛq·°´„··™Ý•··€•··¤·•“·Ž·À§Ý•··™ËÝw··Ž·
oÛ·¥··Ë€·§ÏÝg
(C) oÄÛuÜ ”··™Ý€·À–· •·§Ý·Ž· §ÐÝ n–··Ì¸oÛ ”··™Ý€·
•·§Ý·Ž·§ÏÝg
(D) ™Ý·•·•·§Ý·Ž·§ÐÝn–··Ì¸oÛŸ·§Ý™Ý·•·§ÐÝg
32. œ·c•·~·Ž·Ï¸€·oۛ߷¤·ËhtuÜ·Ÿ–·¼n€·§ÏÝn–··Ì¸oÛ
(A) Ÿ·§Ý··º•·oÛ§ÏÝg
(B) Ÿ·§Ý¸ ·¸c·€·§ÏÝg
(C) Ÿ·§Ý·Ž·À§ÏÝg
(D) Ÿ·§Ý¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛÀ§ÏÝg
33. Ž·Àt·Ë…Ý·ËoÛ„·Ž· I h·Ï™Ý II ¸…Ý–·Ëv··™Ý§ËݧÐÝh·Ï™Ý
j¤·oËÛ· t··€·…ݷ˸Ž·£oÛ£·µ (a) h·Ï™Ý (b) ¸…Ý–·Ëv··
™Ý§ËÝ §ÐÝ g iŽ· oÛ„·Ž··Ì oÛ·Ë ¤·€–· •··Ž·€·Ë §ÄÝm
¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€· •·Ì ¤·Ë €·oµÛoÛÀ†Ý¼£zݤ·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··
¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ¸Ž·oÛœ·¤·oÛ€··§ÏÝ
I. oÄÛuÜ ··º•·oÛ Ÿ–·¼n€· Ž·Ï¸€·oÛ ›ß· ¤·Ë
¤··•··Ž–·€·htuËܧÐÝg
II. oÄÛuÜ··º•·oÛŸ–·¼n€·¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛÀ§Ý·Ë€·Ë§ÐÝg
¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ :
(a) ¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛoÛÀ†Ý¼£zݤ·Ë··º•·oÛŸ–·¼n€·Ž·Ï¸€·oÛ
›ß·¤·ËhtuËܧݷˀ·Ë§ÐÝg
(b) q·Ï™Ý¸Ÿ·Ÿ·ËoÛÀ··º•·oÛŸ–·¼n€·Ž·Ï¸€·oۛ߷¤·Ë
htuËÜŽ·§ÝÁ§Ý·Ë€·Ëg
(A) oËÛŸ·œ· (a) ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÏÝg
(B) oËÛŸ·œ· (b) ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÏÝg
(C) (a) h·Ï™Ý (b) …Ý·ËŽ··Ì¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÐÝg
(D) Ž· (a) h·Ï™ÝŽ·§ÝÀ (b) ¸Ž·£oÛ£·µ§ÏÝg
34. ¸Ž·¼ t·€·€··§ÏÝ
(A) moÛŸ·¤€·Äq·€·€·„–·
(B) ”··Ÿ·Ž··€•·oۛ߷¤·Ë¤·Ž€·Ä¼£zÝ…Ý·–·oÛ
(C) €··ºoÛoÛ
(D) ¤··¼ƒŸ·oÛ
ANS
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19. W-00 10
Questions from 35 to 36 are based
on the following diagram in which
there are three intersecting circles I,
S and P where circle I stands for
Indians, circle S stands for scientists
and circle P for politicians. Different
regions of the figure are lettered
from a to g.
35. The region which represents non-
Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f (B) d
(C) a (D) c
36. The region which represents
politicians who are Indians as well as
scientists.
(A) b (B) c
(C) a (D) d
37. The population of a city is plotted as
a function of time (years) in graphic
form below :
Which of the following inference
can be drawn from above plot ?
(A) The population increases
exponentially.
(B) The population increases in
parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially
increases in a linear fashion
and then stabilizes.
(D) The population initially
increases exponentially and
then stabilizes.
·° Ž· h·Ï™Ý Ž·Àt·Ë ¸…Ým §ÄÝm ™ËÝp··´oÛŽ·
|Ý·–··q·°·•·
20. ·™Ýh···¸™Ý€·§Ðݸv·¤·•·ÌI6h·Ï™Ý3
€·ÀŽ·t·o¯Û§Ðݸv·¤·•·Ì¤·Ët·o¯Û,”··™Ý€·À–··ÌoËÛ¸œ·m
§ÐÝÝ t·o¯Û 6 Ÿ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ·Ì oËÛ ¸œ·m h·Ï™Ý t·o¯Û 3
™Ý·v·Ž·À¸€·w··ÌoËÛ¸œ·m™Ýp··q·–··§ÏÝgi¤·¸t·‚·•·Ì
¸”·ŽŽ·c·Ë‚··ÌoÛ·ËD¤·ËJ€·oÛ…Ý ··µ–··q·–··§ÏÝ
35. Ÿ·§Ý c·Ë‚· v··Ë mˤ·Ë q·Ï™Ý”··™Ý€·À–· Ÿ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ·Ì oÛ·
·°¸€·¸Ž·¸·€Ÿ·oۙ݀··§Ýv··Ë™Ý·v·Ž·À¸€·w·§ÐÝ
(A) f (B) d
(C) a (D) c
36. Ÿ·§Ý c·Ë‚· v··Ë mˤ·Ë ™Ý·v·Ž·À¸€·w··Ì oÛ· ·°¸€·¸Ž·¸·€Ÿ·
oۙ݀··§ÏÝv··Ë”··™Ý€·À–·”·À§ÐÝh·Ï™ÝŸ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ”·Àg
(A) b (B) c
(C) a (D) d
37. Ž·Àt·Ë¸oÛ¤·ÀŽ·q·™ÝoÛÀv·Ž·¤·´p–··o۷ˤ·•·–·Ÿ·£·µ
22. W-00 11 P.T.O.
In the following chart, the price of
logs is shown in per cubic metre and
that of Plywood and Saw Timber in
per tonnes. Study the chart and
answer the following questions 38,
39 and 40.
38. Which product shows the maximum
percentage increase in price over the
period ?
(A) Saw timber
(B) Plywood
(C) Log
(D) None of the above
39. What is the maximum percentage
increase in price per cubic metre of log ?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
40. In which year the prices of two
products increased and that of the
third increased ?
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·t··zµÝ•·Ìœ·oÛ|®ÝÀoËÛœ·žÝ·ÌoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·oÛ·Ë
·°¸€·n–·Ç¸“·oÛ•·ÀzÝ™ÝoËÛ¸§Ý¤··“·¤·Ë¸…Ýp··–··q·–··§ÏÝ
h·Ï™Ýœ··iŸ·Ä|ÝmŸ·´h·™Ý·œ·oÛ|®ÝÀoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·oÛ·Ë·°¸€·
zÝŽ·oËÛ¸§Ý¤··“·¤·Ëgt··zµÝoÛ·h–·–·Ž·oÛÀ¸v·mh·Ï™Ý
·° Ž·h·Ï™ÝoËÛjƒ·™Ý…ÝÀ¸v·m
38. ¸oÛ¤· j€··…Ý oÛÀ oÛÀ•·€· •·Ì ¸·uÜœ·Ë ¤·•·–· oËÛ
…ݷϙݷŽ·“·}®ÝŽ·ËoÛÀh¸·oÛ€·•··°¸€· ·€·€··…ËÝp·Ž·Ë•·Ì
h·iµ§ÏÝ?
(A) h·™Ý·œ·oÛ|Ý®À
(B) œ··iŸ·Ä|Ý
(C) œ·žÝ·
(D) j·™Ý·Ën€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ËiµŽ·§ÝÁ
39. œ·oÛ|®ÝÀoËÛœ·žËÝoËÛ·°¸€·n–·Ç¸“·oÛ•·ÀzÝ™ÝoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·
•·Ìh¸·oÛ€·•·“·}®Ý·Ëƒ·™ÝÀoÛÀ·°¸€· ·€·€··n–··§Ý·Ëq·À ?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
40. ¸oÛ¤·Ÿ·£·µ•·Ì·°„·•·…Ý·Ëj€··…Ý·ÌoËÛ•·Çœ–·•·ÌŸ·Ê¸‰Ý
§ÄÝiµ§ÏÝh·Ï™Ý€·Ê€·À–·j€··…ÝoÛÀoÛÀ•·€·•·ÌŸ·Ê¸‰ÝoÛ“·
§ÄÝiµ?
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
ANS
ANS
ANS
23. W-00 12
[ For Blind Students Only ]
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 35 to 40.
During the thousands of years since the earliest records of the history of ideas,
learned people have accounted for the order they perceived in the universe in different
ways. The accounts range along a continuum from arbitrary rule by humanlike deities,
through rule by a deity subject to law, through various kinds of cause and effect
relations, to abstract mathematical law. These do not represent successive stages of
increasing sophistication, for all of them can be found in the thinking of ancient Greek
philosophers as well as in the contemporary world. Rule by a deity or deities is a very
ancient concept. In Sumeria, the religious leaders saw a world ruled by living beings
like humans but endowed with superhuman powers and with immortality. Each of these
beings was responsible for the control and maintenance of some features of the world,
such as the flow of rivers, the rise and fall of the tides, the shift of the winds, the
productivity of the harvest and the abundance of game animals. The deities competed
with one another and reacted arbitrarily and often vindictively to human acts. Other
cultures explained matters in terms of a single deity whose acts were frequently subject
to the bestowal of human favour. A very different way of accounting for an ordered
universe is the recognition of cause and effect sequences that take place in accordance
with general law. In some cases the notion of a single deity is retained, but the acts of
this deity are not arbitrary. Some would say that this God is the law. The idea of law
itself is an anthropomorphism – that is, a reflection of human experience. Those who
break divine laws are subject to punishment, but those who act in harmony with the law
are rewarded. Of course, there is a great difference between human law and scientific
law : human law governs the behaviour of things, and events are subject to law, but
scientific law is a general description of events.
35. Order in the universe is perceived through various kinds of relations between
(A) men and matters (B) cause and effect
(C) law and punishment (D) sophistication and crudity
36. In Sumeria, religious leaders saw the world as ruled by human beings endowed with
(A) rational thinking (B) religious powers
(C) superhuman powers (D) intuitive powers
37. Law as a reflection of human experience is
(A) punishment or reward for breaking or following it.
(B) that which governs human behaviour.
(C) a general description of events.
(D) that governs natural events.
38. According to the author, various accounts of the world are not evolutionary because
(A) they are found in the thinking of ancient Greek philosophers
(B) ideas do not grow
(C) they have no relation to abstract mathematical law
(D) they are neither ancient nor contemporary
39. The Sumerian view of the deities is that
(A) they are governed by a law
(B) they are competing with one another
(C) they are compassionate to human beings
(D) they are governed by a single deity
40. What is the other way of understanding the world which is different from that of the
Sumerians ?
(A) World governed by cause and effect sequences.
(B) World governed by a single deity.
(C) World is governed by a deity whose will is not arbitrary.
(D) World is governed by law.
26. W-00 14
41. Which one of the following is the
oldest Archival source of data in
India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics
42. In a large random data set following
normal distribution, the ratio (%) of
number of data points which are in
the range of (mean ± standard
deviation) to the total number of data
points, is
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
43. Which number system is usually
followed in a typical 32-bit computer ?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16
44. Which one of the following is an
example of Operating System ?
(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) Microsoft Windows
41. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·Ë”··™Ý€·•·Ì·Ä™Ý·œ·Ëp··Ì¤·•“·Ž·À
h·²oÛ|®ËÝ·°…Ý·Ž·oۙݎ·ËŸ··œ···Ä™Ý·€·Ž·€·•·¥··Ë€·oÛ·ÏŽ·
¤··§ÏÝ ?
(A) Ž·Ë ·Ž·œ·¤·Ï•·œ·¤·Ÿ·Í
(B) oÊÛ¸£·¤·•“·Ž·Àh·²oÛ|®ËÝ
(C) v·Ž·q·~·Ž··
(D) h·Ÿ· –·oÛh·²oÛ|®ËÝ
42. ¤··•··Ž–·“·´zÝŽ·oÛ·hŽ·Ä¤·™Ý~·oۙݎ·ËŸ··œ·ËmoÛ“·Ê§Ý…Ý
–··†Ý¼tuÜoÛ h·²oÛ|®Ý·Ì oËÛ ¤·•·Ätt·–· •·Ì •··–· ±
•··Ž·oÛ¸Ÿ·t·œ·Ž·oËÛ¸Ÿ·¤€··™Ý•·Ìh·²oÛ|®Ý·¸“·Ž…ÄÝh·Ì
oÛÀ¤·´p–··oÛ·¤·´·Ç~·µh·²oÛ|®Ý·¸“·Ž…ÄÝh·ÌoÛÀ¤·´p–··
oËÛ¤··„·hŽ·Ä··€· (%) §Ý·Ë€··§ÏÝ
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
43. moÛ ¸Ÿ·¸ ·£zÝ ¸“·zÝ oÛ•–·ÇzÝ™Ý •·Ì ·°·–· ¸oÛ¤·
¤·´p–··¸Ÿ·¸·oÛ·hŽ·Ä¤·™Ý~·¸oÛ–··v··€··§ÏÝ ?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16
44. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·Ë·¸™Ýt··œ·Ž·¸Ÿ·¸·h·Ë·™ËݹzÝq·
¸¤·¤zÝ•·
28. W-00 15 P.T.O.
45. Which one of the following
represent the binary equivalent of the
decimal number 23 ?
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(D) None of the above
46. Which one of the following is
different from other members ?
(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac
47. Where does a computer add and
compare its data ?
(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard disk
(D) Floppy disk
48. Computers on an internet are
identified by
(A) e-mail address
(B) street address
(C) IP address
(D) None of the above
49. The Right to Information Act, 2005
makes the provision of
(A) Dissemination of all types of
information by all Public
authorities to any person.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and
District Level Information
Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability
in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above
45. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··…Ý ·•·œ·Ÿ·¤·´p–··
oÛ·…ݷ˧ݙݷ¤·•··Ž··„·Â“··iŽ·™ÝÀi¼nŸ·Ÿ·Ëœ·ÌzÝ
30. W-00 16
50. Which type of natural hazards cause
maximum damage to property and
lives ?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical
51. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics
52. The slogan “A tree for each child”
was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection
programme
53. The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric
oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
50. oÛ·ÏŽ·¤···°·oÊÛ¸€·oÛ·°oÛ·Ë·¤·•·¸ƒ·h·Ï™Ýv·ÀŸ·Ž·oÛ·Ë
h¸·oÛ€·•·Ž·ÄoÛ¤··Ž··§Ä²t··€··§ÏÝ ?
(A) v·œ··°oÛ·Ë·
(B) v·œ·•··Ï¤·•·À·°oÛ·Ë·
(C) ”·ÇŸ·Ïw··¸Ž·oÛ·°oÛ·Ë·
(D) ”·Ç™Ý·¤··–·¸Ž·oÛ·°oÛ·Ë·
51. |Ý·–··Ë¼n¤·Žv·¸oÛ¤·¤·Ëj€¤·ºv·€·§Ý·Ë€··§ÏÝ
(A) “·´v·™Ý·™Ý€·À
(B) ¸“·v·œ·À–·Ž‚·
(C) t·ÀŽ·ÀoËÛoÛ·™Ýp··Ž·Ë
(D) œ··¼¤zÝoۅݧݎ·
52. “·°€–·ËoÛ“··œ·oÛoËÛ¸œ·mmoÛ·Ë|®Ý” oÛ·Ž··™Ý·¸oÛ¤·
h· ·–·¤·Ëq·}®Ý·q·–··
(A) ¤··•··¸v·oÛŸ·Ž·oÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
(B) ¤Ÿ·tuÜŸ··–·ÄoÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
(C) ”·Ç¸•·¤·´™Ýc·~·oÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
(D) ·–··µŸ·™Ý~·¤·Ä™Ýc··oÛ·–·µo¯Û•·
53. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€· •·Ì ¤·Ë “··–··Ëq·Ï¤· oÛ· ·°•·Äp· €·ƒŸ·
oÛ·ÏŽ·¤··§ÏÝ
(A) •·À„·ËŽ·h·Ï™ÝoÛ·“·µŽ·|Ý·ih·Ón¤··i|Ý
(B) •·À„·ËŽ·h·Ï™ÝŽ··i¸z³ÝoÛh·Ón¤··i|Ý
(C) •·À„·ËŽ· §Ý·i|³Ý·Ëv·Ž· h·Ï™Ý Ž··i¸z³ÝoÛ
h·Ón¤··i|Ý
(D) •·À„·ËŽ·h·Ï™Ý¤·œ’Û™Ý|Ý·ih·Ón¤··i|Ý
ANS
ANS
ANS
ANS
31. W-00 17 P.T.O.
54. Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole,
the environment has degraded
during past several decades.
Reason (R) : The population of the
world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct
and (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
55. Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture 2. forest fires
3. biodiversity 4. ground water
Identify the correct combination
according to the code :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. The accreditation process by National
Assessment and Accreditation Council
(NAAC) differs from that of National
Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both
being the same, there is
duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading
approach and the other has
programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or
NAAC, the institution is free from
renewal of grading, which is not a
progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to
approval of minimum standards in
the quality of education in the
institution concerned.
54. h¸”·oÛ„·Ž· (A) : ¤·´¤··™Ý •·Ì ¤·•·q·° ›ß· ¤·Ë
¸·uÜœ·ËoÛiµ…Ý ·oÛ·Ì•·Ì·–··µŸ·™Ý~·¸“·q·|®Ý·§Ïg
€·oµÛ (R) : ¤·´¤··™Ý oÛÀ v·Ž·¤·´p–·· •·Ì
•·§ÝƒŸ··Ç~·µ“·}®Ý·Ëƒ·™ÝÀ§Ý·Ë™Ý§ÝÀ§ÏÝg
(A) (A) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ (R) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝh·Ï™Ý (A) oÛ·
(R) ¤·§ÝÀ¤·£zÝÀoÛ™Ý~·§ÏÝg
(B) (A) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ (R) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝh·Ï™Ý (A) oÛ·
(R) ¤·§ÝÀ¤·£zÝÀoÛ™Ý~·Ž·§ÝÁ§ÏÝg
(C) (A) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝ·™ÝŽ€·Ä (R) q·œ·€·§ÏÝg
(D) (A) q·œ·€·§ÏÝ·™ÝŽ€·Ä (R) ¤·§ÝÀ§ÏÝg
55. •··Ï¤·•·oÛ··¸™ÝŸ·€·µŽ·¸oÛ¤··™Ý·°”··Ÿ·À§Ý·Ë€··§ÏÝ
1. ”·Ç¸•·oÛÀŽ·•·À
2. Ÿ·Ž·h¼qŽ·
3. “··–··Ë|Ý·iŸ·™Ý¸¤·zÝÀv·ÏŸ·¸Ÿ·¸Ÿ··€··
35. W-00 18
57. Which option is not correct ?
(A) Most of the educational
institutions of National repute in
scientific and technical sphere fall
under 64th
entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the
subject of concurrent list since
42nd
Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on
Education (CABE) was first
established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right
to Free and Compulsory Primary
Education in 2002 through 86th
Constitutional Amendment.
58. Which statement is not correct about the
“National Education Day” of India ?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th
September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th
November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of
India’s first Union Minister of
Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008.
57. ¸Ž·•Ž·¸œ·¸p·€·•·Ì¤·ËoÛ·ÏŽ·¤··¸Ÿ·oÛœ·¤·§ÝÀŽ·§ÝÁ§ÏÝ ?
(A) ¸Ÿ·w··Ž· h·Ï™Ý €·oÛŽ·ÀoÛÀ c·Ë‚· oËÛ ™Ý·£z³ÝÀ–·
·°¸€·£{Ý··°·€·h¸·oÛ·´ ·¤·´¤„··Ž·¤·´r·À–·¤·Çt·À
oÛÀŸ·Á·°¸Ÿ·¼£zÝoËÛhŽ€·q·µ€·h·€·Ë§ÐÝg
(B) Ÿ·Ì ¤·´¸Ÿ···Ž· ¤·´ ··Ë·Ž· h¸·¸Ž·–·•·
¤·Ë ¤··•··Ž–·€· ¸ ·c·· ¤·•·Ÿ·€·Â
¤·Çt·ÀoÛ·¸Ÿ·£·–·§ÏÝg
(C) ¸ ·c·· ·™Ý oËÛŽ‡ÝÀ–· ·™Ý·•· ·µ…Ý·‚·À •·~|Ýœ·
¤·Àm“·Àiµ
37. W-00 19 P.T.O.
59. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer from the codes given
below :
List – I List – II
(Articles of the
Constitution)
(Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative
Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election
Commission
of India
(c) Article 323 (iii)Finance
Commission at
Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv)Union Public
Service
Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
60. Deemed Universities declared by
UGC under Section 3 of the UGC
Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) offer programmes in higher
education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute
of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore
campus anywhere in the country
and overseas respectively without
the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education
programmes without the
approval of the Distance
Education Council.
59. ¤·Çt·À–I o۷ˤ·Çt·À–II ¤·Ë¸•·œ··€·Ë§ÄÝm¸…Ý–·Ëq·–·Ë
oÛ·Ë|ÝoÛ··°–··Ëq·oۙ݀·Ë§ÄÝm¤·§ÝÀjƒ·™Ý…ÝÀ¸v·m:
¤·Çt·À – I ¤·Çt·À – II
(¤·´¸Ÿ···Ž·oËÛ
hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý)
(¤·´¤„··m²)
(a) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 280 (i) ·° ··¤·¸Ž·oÛ
Ž–··–··¸·oÛ™Ý~·
(b) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 324 (ii) ”··™Ý€· oÛ·
¸Ž·Ÿ··µt·Ž·h·–··Ëq·
(c) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 323 (iii) ¤·´r·À–· ¤€·™Ý ·™Ý
¸Ÿ·ƒ·h·–··Ëq·
(d) hŽ·ÄtuËÜ…Ý 315 (iv) ¤·´r· œ··ËoÛ ¤·ËŸ··
h·–··Ëq·
oÛ·Ë|Ý :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
60. –·Çv·À¤·À ŒÝ·™Ý· –·Çv·À¤·À h¸·¸Ž·–·•·
··™Ý·oËÛhŽ€·q·µ€·•··¸Ž·€·¸Ÿ· Ÿ·¸Ÿ·‹·œ·–··ÌoÛ·Ë
–·§Ýh·w··Ž·§ÝÁ§ÏÝ
(A) jtt· ¸ ·c·· oËÛ oÛ·–·µo¯Û•··Ì oÛ·Ë t·œ··Ž··
h·Ï™ÝjŽ·•·Ì¸|Ýq·°À·°…Ý·Ž·oۙݎ··g
(B) ¸oÛ¤·Àjtt·¸ ·c··oËÛ¤·´¤„··Ž·o۷ˤ·•“·‰Ý
oۙݎ··g
(C) –·Çv·À¤·ÀoÛÀh·w··oËÛ¸“·Ž··oÏÛ•·¤·oËÛ
“··§Ý™Ý¸oÛ¤·À”·Àv·q·§Ý…ËÝ ·•·Ì–··¸Ÿ·…ËÝ ··Ì•·Ì
oÏÛ•·¤·p··Ëœ·Ž··g
(D) …Çݙݤ„·¸ ·c···¸™Ý£·…ÝoÛÀhŽ·Ä•·¸€·oËÛ¸“·Ž··
…Çݙݤ„·oÛ·–·µo¯Û•··ÌoÛ·Ët·œ··Ž··g
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ANS