This document contains a 50 question practice test for mental health nursing. The questions cover topics like substance abuse, psychiatric medications, treatment approaches, and specific mental health conditions. Correct answers are provided with brief rationales. The goal of the test is to assess nurses' knowledge of important concepts in caring for clients with mental health issues.
1. The document provides 15 sample multiple choice questions for a nursing licensure exam in Nepal. The questions cover topics such as medication administration, patient assessment and monitoring, leadership styles, and maternal/pediatric nursing.
2. Correct answers are provided for each question to test understanding of important nursing concepts. Questions address calculating IV flow rates, identifying appropriate next steps in patient care, recognizing medication side effects, assessing post-operative complications, teaching methods for family planning, and more.
3. An organization chart is listed as the appropriate reference for determining the structural relationship between hospital departments, and an autocratic leadership style is described for a new nurse manager who develops their own plan and tasks for staff without input.
Answered national council exam mixed 1-2.docxRBGroup
This document contains a 41-page test with multiple choice questions about nursing. Some of the topics covered include placebos, autopsies, anesthesia, surgical procedures, vital signs, wound care, signs of shock, infection control, the nursing process, and community health measures. The questions require knowledge of anatomy, medical terminology, clinical skills, and nursing concepts.
1. A patient with mild incisional pain after surgery would be told that pain is normal after surgery.
2. Elderly patients have a decreased pain threshold and may not report pain normally.
3. Increased heart rate and dry mouth are normal side effects of the pre-medication AtropineSO4.
4. Suspected shock in a postoperative patient would warrant questioning an order for Demerol due to its hypotensive effects.
The document contains a 25 question practice exam on fundamentals of nursing. It covers topics like identifying different skin conditions, defining nursing terminology, appropriate nursing interventions, identifying influential nursing theorists and their conceptual models, legal and ethical issues in nursing, documentation standards, assessing patients, and more. The questions are multiple choice and include rationales for the correct answers.
The document contains a 55 question quiz on medical-surgical nursing related to cardiac care. The questions cover topics like PTCA factors, serum CK levels post-myocardial infarction, types of AV block, rhythms requiring pacing, defibrillation energy doses, etiologies of atrial tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia associated with QT prolongation, procedures for varicose veins, ulcer types, DVT management, cardiac tamponade assessments, anticoagulation for mechanical heart valves, intraaortic balloon pump use, cardiac markers, ECG findings, and more. The answer key is provided at the end.
Fundamental of nursing practice exam 4Nursing Path
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions related to fundamentals of nursing practice. It covers topics like standard precautions, vital signs, documentation, mobility assistance, mouth care, safety, the nursing process, anatomy and physiology, medical terminology, assessment techniques, positioning, medication administration, bed baths, and more. The questions test knowledge of appropriate nursing interventions, assessment methods, terminology, and skills.
This document contains a 62-item quiz on fundamentals of nursing. The questions cover topics such as nursing definitions, nursing process, patient assessment, nursing diagnoses, interventions, medications, and more. The answer key is provided at the end.
1. The document provides 15 sample multiple choice questions for a nursing licensure exam in Nepal. The questions cover topics such as medication administration, patient assessment and monitoring, leadership styles, and maternal/pediatric nursing.
2. Correct answers are provided for each question to test understanding of important nursing concepts. Questions address calculating IV flow rates, identifying appropriate next steps in patient care, recognizing medication side effects, assessing post-operative complications, teaching methods for family planning, and more.
3. An organization chart is listed as the appropriate reference for determining the structural relationship between hospital departments, and an autocratic leadership style is described for a new nurse manager who develops their own plan and tasks for staff without input.
Answered national council exam mixed 1-2.docxRBGroup
This document contains a 41-page test with multiple choice questions about nursing. Some of the topics covered include placebos, autopsies, anesthesia, surgical procedures, vital signs, wound care, signs of shock, infection control, the nursing process, and community health measures. The questions require knowledge of anatomy, medical terminology, clinical skills, and nursing concepts.
1. A patient with mild incisional pain after surgery would be told that pain is normal after surgery.
2. Elderly patients have a decreased pain threshold and may not report pain normally.
3. Increased heart rate and dry mouth are normal side effects of the pre-medication AtropineSO4.
4. Suspected shock in a postoperative patient would warrant questioning an order for Demerol due to its hypotensive effects.
The document contains a 25 question practice exam on fundamentals of nursing. It covers topics like identifying different skin conditions, defining nursing terminology, appropriate nursing interventions, identifying influential nursing theorists and their conceptual models, legal and ethical issues in nursing, documentation standards, assessing patients, and more. The questions are multiple choice and include rationales for the correct answers.
The document contains a 55 question quiz on medical-surgical nursing related to cardiac care. The questions cover topics like PTCA factors, serum CK levels post-myocardial infarction, types of AV block, rhythms requiring pacing, defibrillation energy doses, etiologies of atrial tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia associated with QT prolongation, procedures for varicose veins, ulcer types, DVT management, cardiac tamponade assessments, anticoagulation for mechanical heart valves, intraaortic balloon pump use, cardiac markers, ECG findings, and more. The answer key is provided at the end.
Fundamental of nursing practice exam 4Nursing Path
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions related to fundamentals of nursing practice. It covers topics like standard precautions, vital signs, documentation, mobility assistance, mouth care, safety, the nursing process, anatomy and physiology, medical terminology, assessment techniques, positioning, medication administration, bed baths, and more. The questions test knowledge of appropriate nursing interventions, assessment methods, terminology, and skills.
This document contains a 62-item quiz on fundamentals of nursing. The questions cover topics such as nursing definitions, nursing process, patient assessment, nursing diagnoses, interventions, medications, and more. The answer key is provided at the end.
This document contains 25 multiple choice nursing questions and their answers about various medical topics including:
- Medications that can cause urine discoloration
- Appropriate storage of medications in a refrigerator
- Immunoglobulins that provide fetal protection
- Important actions for a nursing student after a needlestick exposure
- Likely causes of inability to urinate in diabetics
- Suspected eating disorders based on reported symptoms
- Potential causes of confusion in patients with certain medical histories
- Use of Rhogam for Rh negative mothers
- Screening and effects of PKU
- Monitoring during acute aspirin overdose management
- Responsibilities when caring for blind and deaf patients
- Best breathing instructions for COP
Fundamentals of nursing practice exam 1Nursing Path
The document contains a 50 question multiple choice exam on fundamentals of nursing practice. The questions cover topics like standard precautions, vital signs, documentation, the nursing process, anatomy and physiology, theories of nursing, medical terminology, techniques for assessments, procedures, and medication administration.
The document contains a 50 question practice exam for fundamentals of nursing. The questions cover topics like patient positioning, vital signs, diagnostic tests, diet orders, medication administration, and legal/ethical issues. Correct answers are provided along with rationales. The exam assesses knowledge of important nursing concepts and responsibilities.
This document contains a competency appraisal test with multiple choice questions about pediatric nursing. The questions cover topics like infant development milestones, childhood illnesses, developmental toys for different ages, parenting advice, and adolescent development.
This document outlines the structure and content of the National Council Licensing Examinations leading to registration as a General Nurse. The exam consists of two papers covering medical aspects and nursing care. Paper 1 includes 75 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of topics like medico-pathology, pharmacology, nursing care plans, and ethics. It has a duration of 2 hours and is worth a total of 100 marks. Candidates are instructed to write clearly, respect the order of questions, and answer all questions by choosing the correct letter response.
This document contains 26 multiple choice questions about maternal and child health nursing for nurses preparing to take entrance exams. The questions cover topics like assessing a woman in labor, signs to watch for during pregnancy, fetal monitoring, caring for a postpartum patient, and complications that can occur during pregnancy and childbirth.
The document contains a 35 question practice test for mental health nursing. The questions cover topics like treatment for alcoholism, signs of different mental disorders, appropriate nursing interventions, and more. Some example questions are about the best response to a client experiencing hallucinations, appropriate goals for a client with bulimia, and signs of heroin withdrawal. The document provides multiple choice answers for each question.
The document contains questions about caring for various medical patients. It addresses topics like caring for a post-thoracotomy patient, assessing a child after heart surgery, managing a client on a ventilator, and explaining a chest tube procedure. The summaries focus on identifying priority nursing concerns and appropriate interventions for different clinical scenarios.
This document contains a quiz on nursing research and biostatistics. It includes 53 multiple choice questions testing concepts like sampling techniques, scales of measurement, measures of central tendency and variability, probability, distributions, and research methodology (both quantitative and qualitative). The questions cover topics like random sampling, nominal vs. ratio scales, measures like mean, median and mode, standard deviation, normal distributions, hypothesis testing, research design types, and qualitative research approaches.
The document contains a 30-item quiz on topics related to nursing education, including philosophers of education, Bloom's taxonomy, educational assessments, milestones in nursing education history, learning theories and models, and areas of philosophical inquiry. John Dewey supported pragmatism. Plato advocated removing children from their mothers' care and differentiating education based on caste. Formative assessment is generally carried out throughout a course. The first MSc Nursing programme in India was started in 1959 in RAK College.
Rwanda National council NCNM 2019 answer questions (1).pdfRBGroup
The document appears to be a series of multiple choice questions from a nursing exam covering various topics:
1. Question 12 asks about the differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, with the key difference being that autoimmune factors are involved in type 1 diabetes but not type 2.
2. Question 13 asks about the cause of edema, with increased capillary permeability listed as the cause.
3. Question 14 asks about the most serious complication of cirrhosis, with esophageal varices listed as the most life-threatening condition.
1. The first use of convulsive therapy for psychiatric disorders is attributed to Ladislaus von Meduna.
2. The first therapeutic use of electrically induced seizures for mental disorders was related to Luigi Bini and Ugo Cerletti.
3. Bilateral ECT is considered superior to unilateral ECT in efficacy, while unilateral ECT is associated with fewer cognitive deficits and is more commonly used today.
Nursing Competitive Exam Model Questions - 2018 Sathish Rajamani
This document contains 140 multiple choice questions related to nursing competitive exams. Each question is followed by 4 possible answer choices and then the answer. The questions cover a wide range of nursing topics including pharmacology, pathophysiology, diagnostic tests, nursing care, and more.
MCQ FOR UPSC EXAM FOR NURSING OFFICER -II.pptxanjalatchi
This document contains 30 multiple choice questions related to nursing exams. The questions cover topics like common surgical procedures for chronic otitis media, instructions for a radioactive iodine uptake test, when HCG levels peak in pregnancy, complications of retained placenta, causes of retention urine, chest compression ratios in CPR, and more. Each question is followed by an answer and brief explanation of the reasoning.
1) The document discusses nursing care in the post-operative phase, including monitoring in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and assessing airway, breathing, circulation, and consciousness.
2) It outlines the equipment used in the PACU and information that should be communicated between the perioperative team and PACU nurse about the procedure and patient's condition.
3) The document details the nursing interventions and assessments needed in the immediate post-operative phase and considerations for transferring a patient from the PACU to the postoperative ward or intensive care unit.
A client expresses feelings of being a burden and having ruined their life by leaving college. The therapeutic response by the nurse reflects the client's feelings of having lost opportunities without making judgments or giving advice. The nurse helps the client explore alternatives without prematurely analyzing the situation.
This document contains a 35 question quiz on nursing management and quality assurance topics. The questions cover subjects like theories of management proposed by McGregor and Fayol, scientific management developed by Taylor, the Hawthorne experiments conducted by Mayo, Herzberg's two-factor theory, inventory control methods, network analysis techniques, definitions of quality approaches from Deming and Donabedian, and organizations involved in healthcare accreditation like NABH. The answer key is provided at the end.
This document contains a 30 question quiz on topics related to nursing education, including philosophers of education, educational assessments, curriculum models, and the history of nursing education organizations. The questions cover subjects like John Dewey's philosophy of pragmatism, Plato's views on education, Bloom's Taxonomy, formative vs summative assessments, Problem-Based Learning, and the founding dates of the Trained Nurses Association of India and international nursing organizations. An answer key is provided at the end.
The document contains information about nursing practice tests and review materials for various nursing subjects including foundations of nursing practice, community health nursing, care of clients with physiological and psychosocial alterations, medical-surgical nursing, psychiatric nursing, and nursing research. It includes multiple practice tests and answer keys for each subject area to help students prepare for nursing board exams.
Rn%2 b mental%2bhealth%2bsaunders%2bquestions%2bbookJoy Umeh
The document provides 20 multiple choice questions and answers related to Saunders NCLEX Questions from Chapters 71-76. The questions cover topics like therapeutic communication techniques, defense mechanisms, phases of the nurse-client relationship, informed consent, group therapy approaches, and cognitive behavioral therapy.
Mnemonics and tips related to psychiatric nursingNursing Path
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is remembered with the mnemonic "COAT RACK" which stands for the symptoms of the acute (Wernicke's encephalopathy) and chronic (Korsakoff's psychosis) phases. Schizophrenia's primary symptoms are remembered as the "4A's" which are affect, ambivalence, associative looseness, and autism. Common antidepressant tricyclics are remembered as "VENT" which stands for Vivactil, Elavil, Norpramin, and Tofranil.
This document contains 25 multiple choice nursing questions and their answers about various medical topics including:
- Medications that can cause urine discoloration
- Appropriate storage of medications in a refrigerator
- Immunoglobulins that provide fetal protection
- Important actions for a nursing student after a needlestick exposure
- Likely causes of inability to urinate in diabetics
- Suspected eating disorders based on reported symptoms
- Potential causes of confusion in patients with certain medical histories
- Use of Rhogam for Rh negative mothers
- Screening and effects of PKU
- Monitoring during acute aspirin overdose management
- Responsibilities when caring for blind and deaf patients
- Best breathing instructions for COP
Fundamentals of nursing practice exam 1Nursing Path
The document contains a 50 question multiple choice exam on fundamentals of nursing practice. The questions cover topics like standard precautions, vital signs, documentation, the nursing process, anatomy and physiology, theories of nursing, medical terminology, techniques for assessments, procedures, and medication administration.
The document contains a 50 question practice exam for fundamentals of nursing. The questions cover topics like patient positioning, vital signs, diagnostic tests, diet orders, medication administration, and legal/ethical issues. Correct answers are provided along with rationales. The exam assesses knowledge of important nursing concepts and responsibilities.
This document contains a competency appraisal test with multiple choice questions about pediatric nursing. The questions cover topics like infant development milestones, childhood illnesses, developmental toys for different ages, parenting advice, and adolescent development.
This document outlines the structure and content of the National Council Licensing Examinations leading to registration as a General Nurse. The exam consists of two papers covering medical aspects and nursing care. Paper 1 includes 75 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of topics like medico-pathology, pharmacology, nursing care plans, and ethics. It has a duration of 2 hours and is worth a total of 100 marks. Candidates are instructed to write clearly, respect the order of questions, and answer all questions by choosing the correct letter response.
This document contains 26 multiple choice questions about maternal and child health nursing for nurses preparing to take entrance exams. The questions cover topics like assessing a woman in labor, signs to watch for during pregnancy, fetal monitoring, caring for a postpartum patient, and complications that can occur during pregnancy and childbirth.
The document contains a 35 question practice test for mental health nursing. The questions cover topics like treatment for alcoholism, signs of different mental disorders, appropriate nursing interventions, and more. Some example questions are about the best response to a client experiencing hallucinations, appropriate goals for a client with bulimia, and signs of heroin withdrawal. The document provides multiple choice answers for each question.
The document contains questions about caring for various medical patients. It addresses topics like caring for a post-thoracotomy patient, assessing a child after heart surgery, managing a client on a ventilator, and explaining a chest tube procedure. The summaries focus on identifying priority nursing concerns and appropriate interventions for different clinical scenarios.
This document contains a quiz on nursing research and biostatistics. It includes 53 multiple choice questions testing concepts like sampling techniques, scales of measurement, measures of central tendency and variability, probability, distributions, and research methodology (both quantitative and qualitative). The questions cover topics like random sampling, nominal vs. ratio scales, measures like mean, median and mode, standard deviation, normal distributions, hypothesis testing, research design types, and qualitative research approaches.
The document contains a 30-item quiz on topics related to nursing education, including philosophers of education, Bloom's taxonomy, educational assessments, milestones in nursing education history, learning theories and models, and areas of philosophical inquiry. John Dewey supported pragmatism. Plato advocated removing children from their mothers' care and differentiating education based on caste. Formative assessment is generally carried out throughout a course. The first MSc Nursing programme in India was started in 1959 in RAK College.
Rwanda National council NCNM 2019 answer questions (1).pdfRBGroup
The document appears to be a series of multiple choice questions from a nursing exam covering various topics:
1. Question 12 asks about the differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, with the key difference being that autoimmune factors are involved in type 1 diabetes but not type 2.
2. Question 13 asks about the cause of edema, with increased capillary permeability listed as the cause.
3. Question 14 asks about the most serious complication of cirrhosis, with esophageal varices listed as the most life-threatening condition.
1. The first use of convulsive therapy for psychiatric disorders is attributed to Ladislaus von Meduna.
2. The first therapeutic use of electrically induced seizures for mental disorders was related to Luigi Bini and Ugo Cerletti.
3. Bilateral ECT is considered superior to unilateral ECT in efficacy, while unilateral ECT is associated with fewer cognitive deficits and is more commonly used today.
Nursing Competitive Exam Model Questions - 2018 Sathish Rajamani
This document contains 140 multiple choice questions related to nursing competitive exams. Each question is followed by 4 possible answer choices and then the answer. The questions cover a wide range of nursing topics including pharmacology, pathophysiology, diagnostic tests, nursing care, and more.
MCQ FOR UPSC EXAM FOR NURSING OFFICER -II.pptxanjalatchi
This document contains 30 multiple choice questions related to nursing exams. The questions cover topics like common surgical procedures for chronic otitis media, instructions for a radioactive iodine uptake test, when HCG levels peak in pregnancy, complications of retained placenta, causes of retention urine, chest compression ratios in CPR, and more. Each question is followed by an answer and brief explanation of the reasoning.
1) The document discusses nursing care in the post-operative phase, including monitoring in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and assessing airway, breathing, circulation, and consciousness.
2) It outlines the equipment used in the PACU and information that should be communicated between the perioperative team and PACU nurse about the procedure and patient's condition.
3) The document details the nursing interventions and assessments needed in the immediate post-operative phase and considerations for transferring a patient from the PACU to the postoperative ward or intensive care unit.
A client expresses feelings of being a burden and having ruined their life by leaving college. The therapeutic response by the nurse reflects the client's feelings of having lost opportunities without making judgments or giving advice. The nurse helps the client explore alternatives without prematurely analyzing the situation.
This document contains a 35 question quiz on nursing management and quality assurance topics. The questions cover subjects like theories of management proposed by McGregor and Fayol, scientific management developed by Taylor, the Hawthorne experiments conducted by Mayo, Herzberg's two-factor theory, inventory control methods, network analysis techniques, definitions of quality approaches from Deming and Donabedian, and organizations involved in healthcare accreditation like NABH. The answer key is provided at the end.
This document contains a 30 question quiz on topics related to nursing education, including philosophers of education, educational assessments, curriculum models, and the history of nursing education organizations. The questions cover subjects like John Dewey's philosophy of pragmatism, Plato's views on education, Bloom's Taxonomy, formative vs summative assessments, Problem-Based Learning, and the founding dates of the Trained Nurses Association of India and international nursing organizations. An answer key is provided at the end.
The document contains information about nursing practice tests and review materials for various nursing subjects including foundations of nursing practice, community health nursing, care of clients with physiological and psychosocial alterations, medical-surgical nursing, psychiatric nursing, and nursing research. It includes multiple practice tests and answer keys for each subject area to help students prepare for nursing board exams.
Rn%2 b mental%2bhealth%2bsaunders%2bquestions%2bbookJoy Umeh
The document provides 20 multiple choice questions and answers related to Saunders NCLEX Questions from Chapters 71-76. The questions cover topics like therapeutic communication techniques, defense mechanisms, phases of the nurse-client relationship, informed consent, group therapy approaches, and cognitive behavioral therapy.
Mnemonics and tips related to psychiatric nursingNursing Path
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is remembered with the mnemonic "COAT RACK" which stands for the symptoms of the acute (Wernicke's encephalopathy) and chronic (Korsakoff's psychosis) phases. Schizophrenia's primary symptoms are remembered as the "4A's" which are affect, ambivalence, associative looseness, and autism. Common antidepressant tricyclics are remembered as "VENT" which stands for Vivactil, Elavil, Norpramin, and Tofranil.
Acne vulgaris nursing care plan & managementNursing Path
Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory disease of hair follicles caused by increased sebum production activated by hormones. Bacteria in hair follicles react with sebum to produce fatty acids that trigger inflammation and combine with keratin to form plugs. Symptoms include whiteheads, blackheads, papules, pustules, nodules and cysts on the face, back and shoulders. Treatment aims to reduce bacteria, sebum production, plugging and inflammation while preventing infection and scarring. Topical treatments include benzoyl peroxide and antibiotics while oral treatments include antibiotics and retinoids. Nursing care involves administering medications, educating patients, and monitoring for side effects and compliance.
Mental health nursing practice test 11Nursing Path
The document appears to be a practice test for a mental health nursing exam covering various topics related to defense mechanisms, sleep cycles, infant and toddler development, anxiety disorders, Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, and abnormal speech patterns. It consists of 20 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of key concepts like the stages of grief, defense mechanisms, sleep waveforms, infant milestones, signs of anxiety, sleep disorders, psychosocial development categories for different age groups, and abnormal speech patterns.
This document provides nursing bullets and summaries of key concepts in psychiatric nursing. It includes definitions and descriptions of various psychiatric disorders, treatments, therapeutic approaches, and important considerations for patient care. Some of the key topics covered include the stages of alcohol withdrawal, signs of lithium toxicity, Erikson's psychosocial stages of development, defense mechanisms, therapeutic relationships in nursing, and guidelines for caring for patients with conditions like depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, and more.
This document contains 35 multiple choice questions related to nursing care for clients with various cancers and psychiatric conditions. The questions cover topics like cancer treatments, side effects of chemotherapy drugs, risk factors for different cancers, nursing assessments and interventions.
Head (Skull, Scalp, Hair)
Face
Eyebrows, Eyes and Eyelashes
Eye lids and Lacrimal Apparatus
Conjunctivae
Sclerae
Cornea
Anterior Chamber and Iris
Pupils
Cranial Nerve II (optic nerve)
Cranial Nerve III, IV & VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens)
Ears
Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Cranial Nerve I (olfactory Nerve)
Neck
Thorax ( Cardiovascular System)
Breast
Abdomen
Extremities
This document provides an overview of nursing research. It defines research and nursing research, discusses different types of research methods including quantitative, qualitative and mixed methods. It also outlines the purposes of research, classifications of research, steps in the research process, and key considerations for developing a research problem, question, and title.
The document provides guidance on conducting a comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment in mental health nursing. It outlines the BATOMI framework which examines a patient's behavior, affect, thought, orientation, memory and intellect, and insight. Specific areas to assess include appearance, speech, thought process, delusions, mood, orientation, memory, motivation, intellect and insight. A glossary defines key terms used in mental status examinations.
This document discusses the relationship between the fetus and the pelvis during childbirth. It describes the lie or orientation of the fetus, the presenting part of the fetus that engages the pelvis, and the position and attitude of the fetal head. The key points are:
- The fetus most commonly lies longitudinally in the uterus with the head engaging the pelvis (cephalic presentation).
- The position describes the location of the presenting part, such as the occiput, in relation to maternal pelvic quadrants.
- The attitude refers to the flexion or extension of fetal parts. Flexion is most common with the head flexed forward onto the chest.
- Moulding, or shifting of fetal
The document discusses substance-related disorders and their classification. It notes that psychoactive substances have been used in many cultures throughout history and can affect the brain. Substance-related disorders include substance use disorders like dependence and abuse, as well as substance-induced disorders like intoxication and withdrawal. The prevalence of substance-related disorders is highest between ages 18-24 and diagnoses are more common in men generally.
Aims and objectives of nursing management, vision and mission statementNursing Path
The document discusses the aims, objectives, vision, and mission of nursing management. It provides definitions of vision as the strongly felt aim or calling that defines where the profession wants to be in the future, and mission as defining where the profession is currently going and its purpose. An effective mission statement should concentrate on the present, reflect the profession's purpose for existing, and provide ongoing guidance. Developing a clear vision and mission statement can help guide nursing practice and address current problems faced by the profession.
This document provides information about rating scales. It defines rating scales as techniques where observers categorize objects, events, or people on a continuum represented by a series of numbers. It discusses different types of rating scales including numerical, graphic, percentage, standard, scales of cumulated points, and forced choice scales. It also outlines important considerations for properly constructing rating scales such as clearly defining traits and scale intervals.
This document discusses the scientific method. It defines scientific methods as systematic investigations aimed at developing general knowledge about natural phenomena through objective and empirical means. The characteristics described include being orderly, attempting to control external factors, and basing findings on evidence that can be generalized. The purposes are listed as description, exploration, explanation, prediction, control, prescription, and identifying relationships. The steps outlined are selecting a topic, defining objectives and variables, stating hypotheses, designing the study, collecting and analyzing data, and communicating findings. Limitations discussed include ethical issues with human subjects, complexity of human behavior, measurement challenges, and difficulty controlling external variables.
1) The document discusses perioperative nursing, including types of surgical procedures, classifications of procedures, informed consent, preoperative medications and teachings, and the surgical team.
2) It also discusses postoperative complications involving various body systems like respiratory, circulatory, and wounds. Principles of surgical asepsis and PACU/RR care are outlined.
3) Oncology nursing is discussed, differentiating benign and malignant neoplasms. Recommendations for cancer screening and warning signs of cancer are provided. Internal radiation therapy and nursing management are summarized.
The document discusses various barriers to effective communication at different levels - physical, semantic, socio-psychological, organizational, and cross-cultural. It provides examples of different types of barriers such as noise, language differences, attitudes, organizational structure. Some ways to overcome barriers mentioned are using simple language, active listening, understanding different cultural perspectives, and creating an open and trusting environment.
This document contains 31 multiple choice questions about mental health nursing. The questions cover topics like identifying hallucinations, appropriate nursing interventions for suicidal clients, signs of opiate abuse, managing anxiety attacks, side effects of medications like lithium and antipsychotics, and identifying symptoms of conditions like schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, and PTSD. The correct answers are not provided.
The document contains a 50 question practice test for mental health nursing. It covers topics like treatment for alcoholism, signs of different mental disorders, appropriate nursing interventions, goals of care, and medications. For each question there is an answer and short rationale provided. The test seems aimed at assessing a nurse's knowledge of assessing, diagnosing and planning care for clients with various mental health conditions.
The document provides situations and questions related to nursing care of patients with various mental health conditions. Situation 1 involves a patient named Vilma admitted for uncontrolled blood sugar. Situations 2 and 4 address patients diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and bipolar disorder respectively. Situation 3 covers issues around diagnosing and treating psychiatric patients. Other situations discuss substance abuse, research ethics, adolescent mental health, and workplace safety in a psychiatric facility. The document tests nursing knowledge on treatment, communication, documentation and ethical care of patients with mental illness.
Mariel, a 25-year-old radio announcer, presented with hearing loss and difficulty discriminating sounds. An examination revealed sensorineural hearing loss, which is damage to the cochlea and auditory nerve in the inner ear. Ototoxic agents are a predisposing factor for sensory hearing loss. Sensorineural hearing loss cannot be corrected as the damage is irreversible. After a tympanoplasty surgery, the most appropriate intervention is applying ear drops as ordered to prevent infection. Meniere's disease is suspected in a patient presenting with ringing in the ears, feeling of spinning, and sensorineural hearing loss.
This document contains a psychiatric nursing exam for fourth year nursing students. It includes multiple choice questions, true/false questions, and fill-in-the-blank questions testing knowledge of psychiatric disorders, medications, and nursing care. The exam is divided into five parts testing different areas of knowledge through various question formats. It provides an opportunity for nursing students to demonstrate their understanding of key concepts in psychiatric and mental health nursing.
1. The document provides 24 multiple choice questions about caring for clients with various mental health and psychiatric conditions. The questions cover topics like substance abuse, eating disorders, suicide risk, domestic violence, and child abuse. Correct answers are identified which focus on safety, treatment priorities, addressing unrealistic perceptions, and monitoring for signs of issues like malnutrition or self-harm.
2. Common themes throughout include ensuring client safety, establishing treatment goals to address the underlying condition, providing support and education, and monitoring for signs of medical or psychological issues resulting from the client's condition.
3. The questions assess a nurse's knowledge of priorities, appropriate interventions, and best practices for caring for clients with complex mental health and psychiatric needs.
This document contains 47 multiple choice questions about psychiatry. The questions cover topics like symptoms and diagnostic criteria for various mental disorders, treatment options, side effects of medications, and prognostic factors. Some example disorders addressed include autism, schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, anxiety disorders, and dementia.
The document contains multiple-choice nursing questions covering various topics. The questions assess nursing knowledge in areas like: labor and delivery care, psychiatric nursing, pediatric nursing, medication administration, surgical care, and more. Correct answers are identified for each question to test understanding of important nursing concepts.
The document contains questions about triage, emergency nursing care, and medication management. It asks the reader to identify the most appropriate response or order of steps in various emergency department situations. These include assigning staff to triage, prioritizing patients, elements of a primary trauma survey, priority categories for chest pain, delegating cooling measures for fever, prioritizing heat-related illnesses, actions for an unresponsive patient, delegating tasks during a cardiac arrest, prioritizing an anxious patient, assigning an experienced nurse, information to report about a possible overdose, caring for frostbite and amputation patients, anticipated treatment for status epilepticus, verifying endotracheal tube placement, prioritizing a stab wound
1. The document contains multiple choice questions related to behavioral sciences, psychology, psychiatry, communication skills, medical ethics, and human development theories.
2. The questions cover topics like psychological disorders, counseling techniques, memory processes, creativity, emotions, motivation, intelligence assessment tools, stages of child development according to Piaget and Freud, and concepts of emotional intelligence.
3. Many questions test knowledge of principles from various theories including classical and operant conditioning, systematic desensitization for treating phobias, mini mental state examination, and components of professionalism and doctor-patient relationships.
Physiological Psychology
Exam IV
1. Lateralization refers to:
A. The division of labor between the lobes of the brain
B. The division of labor between the hemispheres of the brain
C. The fact that some people are “right-brained.”
D. The fact that some people are “left brained.”
E. All of the above
2. A commissure is:
A. A dopaminergic pathway
B. A catecholenergic pathway
C. A communication pathway
D. Faulty in people with bipolar disorder
E. None of the above
3. I’ve been in an accident and sustained a head injury. During my recovery, my wife and I begin to have difficulties communicating. I understand the words she says, but I can no longer tell if she says them with anger, sadness, fear, etc. I most likely sustained damage to what part of my brain?
A. Left hemisphere
B. Right hemisphere
C. Corpus callosum
D. Anterior commissure
E. Limbic system
4. I’m a split-brain patient. I participate in a research project where the experimenters ask me to fix my gaze on a dot in the middle of a screen. They briefly flash the word “barefoot” in the middle of my visual field. They then ask me to point with my left hand to the word I saw. To what word do I point?
A. Foot
B. Bare
C. Barefoot
D. Footbare
E. None of the above, my head just explodes when they ask the question.
5. The most factual statement regarding handedness and lateral dominance is:
A. Left-handed people are better artists
B. Right handed people have better verbal skills
C. Most-left handed people have left-hemisphere or mixed dominance for speech
D. Right-handed people are better artists
E. Left-handed people have better verbal skills
6. The intelligence theory of language evolution states that language is a by-product of superior human intelligence. Problems with this theory include:
A. There is no clear relationship between the brain size and intelligence.
B. People with full-sized brains can still have language impairment.
C. There are other mammals with large brains that do not possess language skills.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
7. Support for the theory of a “critical period” for language development includes:
A. Younger children learn second languages easier
B. Anyone can learn languages at any time with equal ease.
C. Case examples of children isolated early in life show their resistance to developing language skills.
D. All of the above
E. A & C only
8. In order for someone to be diagnosed with a psychological disorder, they must experience which of the following?
A. Disturbance
B. Dysfunction
C. Atypical behavior
D. Maladaptive behavior
E. None of the above
9. The medical model focuses on which of the following?
A. A holistic view of health and illness
B. Psychological factors that cause physiological disorders
C. Biological factors that cause physiological disorders
D. Social factors that cause physiological disorders
E. All of the above
10. The biopsychosocial model focuses on which of the follo.
1) A new mother asks how often her newborn should breastfeed. The best response is that newborns may breastfeed continuously until they stabilize their feeding schedule.
2) A client is using an inhaler with a spacer. Indicating they should hold their breath for 8-10 seconds after using the inhaler would show the teaching was ineffective.
3) For a client having glaucoma surgery, an order for Atropine sulfate 0.4 mg IM should be questioned by the nurse.
Strategies & Techniques In Taking The ExamALLEICARG DC
The document provides strategies and techniques for taking nursing exams, including focusing on what comes first, most important, or initially in test questions. It also discusses using mnemonics, rules of thumb, prioritization principles like ABCs, and critical thinking approaches like analyzing prefixes/suffixes, eliminating incorrect answers, and using common sense. Key advice includes identifying priority nursing needs based on concepts like Maslow's hierarchy and the nursing process.
A 10-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department after sustaining a head injury and being diagnosed with a mild concussion. The mother should be instructed to arrange a follow-up visit with the child's primary care provider in one week and to check for any changes in responsiveness every two hours until then, as signs of a more serious condition may not appear for over 24 hours.
A male client suffered injuries in a motor accident and is in hypovolemic shock. The nurse should frequently assess vital signs during the compensatory stage because arteriolar constriction is occurring, which increases the cardiac workload.
A paranoid schizophrenic client is losing weight and reluctant to eat due to concerns about
This document contains a 65-question multiple choice exam for CNA certification. It covers topics like person-centered care, communication with those with Alzheimer's, safety and infection control, documentation, and medical conditions/procedures. The exam tests knowledge needed to properly care for patients in various healthcare settings.
This document contains 49 multiple choice questions related to caring for clients with various neurological conditions and injuries. The questions cover topics like increased intracranial pressure, meningitis, stroke, seizures, cranial nerve impairments, and burns. Response options involve assessing clients, interpreting test results, identifying appropriate nursing interventions, recognizing risk factors, and selecting priority concerns.
This document provides an overview of psychotherapeutic medication. It discusses the prevalence of mental illness and treatments throughout history such as electroconvulsive therapy. It describes various mental disorders like anxiety, mood disorders, psychosis and their symptoms. The document outlines different classes of medications used to treat these disorders such as antidepressants, mood stabilizers, antipsychotics and their side effects. It also discusses issues with dual diagnosis and consequences of increased medication use in society.
Take Test Exam - Week 10 ContentTop of FormAssistive Techno.docxdeanmtaylor1545
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Question 1
1. Art therapy, dance/movement therapy, music therapy, and drama therapy are all considered:
A.
Eclectic approaches
B.
Expressive arts approaches
C.
Narrative approaches
D.
Symbolic approaches
1 points
Question 2
1. Regarding multicultural counseling, narrative therapy has been found to be particularly effective because:
A.
It defines mental health within a social, political, and relational context
B.
It was founded in a sociocultural context
C.
It allows clients to tell their unique stories from their perspective
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 3
1. Reality therapy can be applied to the following clients:
A.
The elderly and retired
B.
Preschool children
C.
Addicted clients
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 4
1. The founders of solution-focused brief therapy are:
A.
Aaron Beck and Albert Ellis
B.
Michael White and David Epston
C.
Frederick and Laura Perls
D.
Insoo Kim Berg and Steve de Shazer
1 points
Question 5
1. In practicing reality therapy, counselors and therapists focus on:
A.
Insight into causes of behavior
B.
Family history
C.
The interpersonal relationships of the client
D.
Personal history
1 points
Question 6
1. As a person becomes more congruent, which of the following changes is most likely to be seen?
A.
success in a failing relationship
B.
eradication of problem behaviors
C.
greater self-empowerment
D.
elimination of negative thoughts
1 points
Question 7
1. Which of the following family therapists is best known for his or her strategic approach to treatment?
A.
Minuchin
B.
Satir
C.
Haley
D.
Bowen
1 points
Question 8
1. Which of the following family therapists is best known for his or her structural approach to treatment:
A.
Minuchin
B.
Bowen
C.
Haley
D.
Satir
1 points
Question 9
1. Helping clients achieve low frustration tolerance is a major goal of rational emotive behavior therapy.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
1. The family life spiral is:
A.
A linear model
B.
An example of a life stressor
C.
An example of family decline
D.
A developmental model
1 points
Question 11
1. Rational emotive behavior therapy is based on the assumption that humans have a biological tendency to think irrationally as well as rationally.
True
False
1 points
Question 12
1. To adequately understand the culturally different client, counselors should have some specific information about that culture.
True
False
1 points
Question 13
1. The developer of dialectical behavior therapy is:
A.
Carl Rogers.
B.
Albert Ellis.
C.
Fritz Perls.
D.
Marsha Linehan.
1 points
Question 14
1. A family system’s perspective implies:
A.
That clients are auton.
The clinical instructor is conducting a ward class on breast self-examination. She welcomes the students and discusses the objective of the class. To help students understand breast anatomy, she shares pictures showing the external and internal views of the breast. The instructor proceeds with the lecture using a question and answer method. After the lecture, she allows time for an open forum for student questions. The last part of the activity is an evaluation to improve future classes.
This document contains multiple choice questions about various nursing topics including:
1. Seizure precautions, CT scans, EEGs, responding to seizures, phenytoin therapy, auras, and side effects.
2. Assessing a client with a CVA including risk factors, plantar flexion prevention, communication techniques, homonymous hemianopia, and discharge planning.
3. Signs and symptoms of Parkinson's disease, tremors, hypokinesia, levodopa therapy.
4. Unconscious client assessment including positioning, hypoxia signs, tube feeding residuals.
5. Cataract surgery preparation and post-op care, retinal detachment explanation, gl
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Mental health nursing practice test 3
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Mental Health Nursing Practice Test 3
1. Francis who is addicted to cocaine withdraws from the drug. Nurse Ron should expect to
observe:
a. Hyperactivity
b. Depression
c. Suspicion
d. Delirium
2. Nurse John is aware that a serious effect of inhaling cocaine is?
a. Deterioration of nasal septum
b. Acute fluid and electrolyte imbalances
c. Extra pyramidal tract symptoms
d. Esophageal varices
3. A tentative diagnosis of opiate addiction, Nurse Candy should assess a recently hospitalized
client for signs of opiate withdrawal. These signs would include:
a. Rhinorrhea, convulsions, subnormal temperature
b. Nausea, dilated pupils, constipation
c. Lacrimation, vomiting, drowsiness
d. Muscle aches, papillary constriction, yawning
4. A 48 year old male client is brought to the psychiatric emergency room after attempting to
jump off a bridge. The client’s wife states that he lost his job several months ago and has been
unable to find another job. The primary nursing intervention at this time would be to assess for:
a. A past history of depression
b. Current plans to commit suicide
c. The presence of marital difficulties
d. Feelings of excessive failure
5. Before helping a male client who has been sexually assaulted, nurse Maureen should
recognize that the rapist is motivated by feelings of:
a. Hostility
b. Inadequacy
c. Incompetence
d. Passion
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6. When working with children who have been sexually abused by a family member it is
important for the nurse to understand that these victims usually are overwhelmed with feelings
of:
a. Humiliation
b. Confusion
c. Self blame
d. Hatred
7. Joy who has just experienced her second spontaneous abortion expresses anger towards her
physician, the hospital and the “rotten nursing care”. When assessing the situation, the nurse
recognizes that the client may be using the coping mechanism of:
a. Projection
b. Displacement
c. Denial
d. Reaction formation
8. The most critical factor for nurse Linda to determine during crisis intervention would be the
client’s:
a. Available situational supports
b. Willingness to restructure the personality
c. Developmental theory
d. Underlying unconscious conflict
9. Nurse Trish suggests a crisis intervention group to a client experiencing a developmental
crisis. These groups are successful because the:
a. Crisis intervention worker is a psychologist and understands behavior patterns
b. Crisis group supplies a workable solution to the client’s problem
c. Client is encouraged to talk about personal problems
d. Client is assisted to investigate alternative approaches to solving the identified problem
10. Nurse Ronald could evaluate that the staff’s approach to setting limits for a demanding,
angry client was effective if the client:
a. Apologizes for disrupting the unit’s routine when something is needed
b. Understands the reason why frequent calls to the staff were made
c. Discuss concerns regarding the emotional condition that required hospitalizations
d. No longer calls the nursing staff for assistance
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11. Nurse John is aware that the therapy that has the highest success rate for people with phobias
would be:
a. Psychotherapy aimed at rearranging maladaptive thought process
b. Psychoanalytical exploration of repressed conflicts of an earlier development phase
c. Systematic desensitization using relaxation technique
d. Insight therapy to determine the origin of the anxiety and fear
12. When nurse Hazel considers a client’s placement on the continuum of anxiety, a key in
determining the degree of anxiety being experienced is the client’s:
a. Perceptual field
b. Delusional system
c. Memory state
d. Creativity level
13. In the diagnosis of a possible pervasive developmental autistic disorder. The nurse would
find it most unusual for a 3 year old child to demonstrate:
a. An interest in music
b. An attachment to odd objects
c. Ritualistic behavior
d. Responsiveness to the parents
14. Malou with schizophrenia tells Nurse Melinda, “My intestines are rotted from worms
chewing on them.” This statement indicates a:
a. Jealous delusion
b. Somatic delusion
c. Delusion of grandeur
d. Delusion of persecution
15. Andy is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder.
Nurse Hilary should expects the assessment to reveal:
a. Coldness, detachment and lack of tender feelings
b. Somatic symptoms
c. Inability to function as responsible parent
d. Unpredictable behavior and intense interpersonal relationships
16. PROPRANOLOL (Inderal) is used in the mental health setting to manage which of the
following conditions?
4. www.drjayeshpatidar.blogspot.com
a. Antipsychotic – induced akathisia and anxiety
b. Obsessive – compulsive disorder (OCD) to reduce ritualistic behavior
c. Delusions for clients suffering from schizophrenia
d. The manic phase of bipolar illness as a mood stabilizer
17. Which medication can control the extra pyramidal effects associated with antipsychotic
agents?
a. Clorazepate (Tranxene)
b. Amantadine (Symmetrel)
c. Doxepin (Sinequan)
d. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
18. Which of the following statements should be included when teaching clients about
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressants?
a. Don’t take aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
b. Have blood levels screened weekly for leucopenia
c. Avoid strenuous activity because of the cardiac effects of the drug
d. Don’t take prescribed or over the counter medications without consulting the physician
19. Kris periodically has acute panic attacks. These attacks are unpredictable and have no
apparent association with a specific object or situation. During an acute panic attack, Kris may
experience:
a. Heightened concentration
b. Decreased perceptual field
c. Decreased cardiac rate
d. Decreased respiratory rate
20. Initial interventions for Marco with acute anxiety include all except which of the following?
a. Touching the client in an attempt to comfort him
b. Approaching the client in calm, confident manner
c. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings and concerns
d. Providing the client with a safe, quiet and private place
21. Nurse Jessie is assessing a client suffering from stress and anxiety. A common physiological
response to stress and anxiety is:
a. Uticaria
b. Vertigo
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c. Sedation
d. Diarrhea
22. When performing a physical examination on a female anxious client, nurse Nelli would
expect to find which of the following effects produced by the parasympathetic system?
a. Muscle tension
b. Hyperactive bowel sounds
c. Decreased urine output
d. Constipation
23. Which of the following drugs have been known to be effective in treating obsessive-
compulsive disorder (OCD)?
a. Divalproex (depakote) and Lithium (lithobid)
b. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and diazepam (valium)
c. Fluvoxamine (Luvox) and clomipramine (anafranil)
d. Benztropine (Cogentin) and diphenhydramine (benadryl)
24. Tony with agoraphobia has been symptom-free for 4 months. Classic signs and symptoms of
phobia include:
a. Severe anxiety and fear
b. Withdrawal and failure to distinguish reality from fantasy
c. Depression and weight loss
d. Insomnia and inability to concentrate
25. Which nursing action is most appropriate when trying to diffuse a client’s impending violent
behavior?
a. Place the client in seclusion
b. Leaving the client alone until he can talk about his feelings
c. Involving the client in a quiet activity to divert attention
d. Helping the client identify and express feelings of anxiety and anger
26. Rosana is in the second stage of Alzheimer’s disease who appears to be in pain. Which
question by Nurse Jenny would best elicit information about the pain?
a. “Where is your pain located?”
b. “Do you hurt? (pause) “Do you hurt?”
c. “Can you describe your pain?”
d. “Where do you hurt?”
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27. Nursing preparation for a client undergoing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) resemble those
used for:
a. General anesthesia
b. Cardiac stress testing
c. Neurologic examination
d. Physical therapy
28. Jose who is receiving monoamine oxidase inhibitor antidepressant should avoid tyramine, a
compound found in which of the following foods?
a. Figs and cream cheese
b. Fruits and yellow vegetables
c. Aged cheese and Chianti wine
d. Green leafy vegetables
29. Erlinda, age 85, with major depression undergoes a sixth electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
treatment. When assessing the client immediately after ECT, the nurse expects to find:
a. Permanent short-term memory loss and hypertension
b. Permanent long-term memory loss and hypomania
c. Transitory short-term memory loss and permanent long-term memory loss
d. Transitory short and long term memory loss and confusion
30. Barbara with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium for the first time. Nurse Clint
should observe the client for which common adverse effect of lithium?
a. Polyuria
b. Seizures
c. Constipation
d. Sexual dysfunction
31. Nurse Fred is assessing a client who has just been admitted to the ER department. Which
signs would suggest an overdose of an antianxiety agent?
a. Suspiciousness, dilated pupils and incomplete BP
b. Agitation, hyperactivity and grandiose ideation
c. Combativeness, sweating and confusion
d. Emotional lability, euphoria and impaired memory
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32. Discharge instructions for a male client receiving tricyclic antidepressants include which of
the following information?
a. Restrict fluids and sodium intake
b. Don’t consume alcohol
c. Discontinue if dry mouth and blurred vision occur
d. Restrict fluid and sodium intake
33. Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic
medications includes which of the following?
a. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
b. Occurrence of incomplete libido due to medication adverse effects
c. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
d. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible
34. A client refuses to remain on psychotropic medications after discharge from an inpatient
psychiatric unit. Which information should the community health nurse assess first during the
initial follow-up with this client?
a. Income level and living arrangements
b. Involvement of family and support systems
c. Reason for inpatient admission
d. Reason for refusal to take medications
35. The nurse understands that the therapeutic effects of typical antipsychotic medications are
associated with which neurotransmitter change?
a. Decreased dopamine level
b. Increased acetylcholine level
c. Stabilization of serotonin
d. Stimulation of GABA
36. Which of the following best explains why tricyclic antidepressants are used with caution in
elderly patients?
a. Central Nervous System effects
b. Cardiovascular system effects
c. Gastrointestinal system effects
d. Serotonin syndrome effects
37. A client with depressive symptoms is given prescribed medications and talks with his
8. www.drjayeshpatidar.blogspot.com
therapist about his belief that he is worthless and unable to cope with life. Psychiatric care in this
treatment plan is based on which framework?
a. Behavioral framework
b. Cognitive framework
c. Interpersonal framework
d. Psychodynamic framework
38. A nurse who explains that a client’s psychotic behavior is unconsciously motivated
understands that the client’s disordered behavior arises from which of the following?
a. Abnormal thinking
b. Altered neurotransmitters
c. Internal needs
d. Response to stimuli
39. A client with depression has been hospitalized for treatment after taking a leave of absence
from work. The client’s employer expects the client to return to work following inpatient
treatment. The client tells the nurse, “I’m no good. I’m a failure”. According to cognitive theory,
these statements reflect:
a. Learned behavior
b. Punitive superego and decreased self-esteem
c. Faulty thought processes that govern behavior
d. Evidence of difficult relationships in the work environment
40. The nurse describes a client as anxious. Which of the following statement about anxiety is
true?
a. Anxiety is usually pathological
b. Anxiety is directly observable
c. Anxiety is usually harmful
d. Anxiety is a response to a threat
41. A client with a phobic disorder is treated by systematic desensitization. The nurse
understands that this approach will do which of the following?
a. Help the client execute actions that are feared
b. Help the client develop insight into irrational fears
c. Help the client substitutes one fear for another
d. Help the client decrease anxiety
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42. Which client outcome would best indicate successful treatment for a client with an antisocial
personality disorder?
a. The client exhibits charming behavior when around authority figures
b. The client has decreased episodes of impulsive behaviors
c. The client makes statements of self-satisfaction
d. The client’s statements indicate no remorse for behaviors
43. The nurse is caring for a client with an autoimmune disorder at a medical clinic, where
alternative medicine is used as an adjunct to traditional therapies. Which information should the
nurse teach the client to help foster a sense of control over his symptoms?
a. Pathophysiology of disease process
b. Principles of good nutrition
c. Side effects of medications
d. Stress management techniques
44. Which of the following is the most distinguishing feature of a client with an antisocial
personality disorder?
a. Attention to detail and order
b. Bizarre mannerisms and thoughts
c. Submissive and dependent behavior
d. Disregard for social and legal norms
45. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa who
expresses feelings of guilt about not meeting family expectations?
a. Anxiety
b. Disturbed body image
c. Defensive coping
d. Powerlessness
46. A nurse is evaluating therapy with the family of a client with anorexia nervosa. Which of the
following would indicate that the therapy was successful?
a. The parents reinforced increased decision making by the client
b. The parents clearly verbalize their expectations for the client
c. The client verbalizes that family meals are now enjoyable
d. The client tells her parents about feelings of low-self esteem
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47. A client with dysthymic disorder reports to a nurse that his life is hopeless and will never
improve in the future. How can the nurse best respond using a cognitive approach?
a. Agree with the client’s painful feelings
b. Challenge the accuracy of the client’s belief
c. Deny that the situation is hopeless
d. Present a cheerful attitude
48. A client with major depression has not verbalized problem areas to staff or peers since
admission to a psychiatric unit. Which activity should the nurse recommend to help this client
express himself?
a. Art therapy in a small group
b. Basketball game with peers on the unit
c. Reading a self-help book on depression
d. Watching movie with the peer group
49. The home health psychiatric nurse visits a client with chronic schizophrenia who was
recently discharged after a prolong stay in a state hospital. The client lives in a boarding home,
reports no family involvement, and has little social interaction. The nurse plan to refer the client
to a day treatment program in order to help him with:
a. Managing his hallucinations
b. Medication teaching
c. Social skills training
d. Vocational training
50. Which activity would be most appropriate for a severely withdrawn client?
a. Art activity with a staff member
b. Board game with a small group of clients
c. Team sport in the gym
d. Watching TV in the dayroom
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Answer and Rationale - Test 3
B. There is no set of symptoms associated with cocaine withdrawal, only the depression that follows the
high caused by the drug.
2. A. Cocaine is a chemical that when inhaled, causes destruction of the mucous membranes of the
nose.
3. D. These adaptations are associated with opiate withdrawal which occurs after cessation or reduction
of prolonged moderate or heavy use of opiates.
4. B. Whether there is a suicide plan is a criterion when assessing the client’s determination to make
another attempt.
5. A. Rapists are believed to harbor and act out hostile feelings toward all women through the act of
rape.
6. C. These children often have nonsexual needs met by individual and are powerless to
refuse.Ambivalence results in self-blame and also guilt.
7. B. The client’s anger over the abortion is shifted to the staff and the hospital because she is unable to
deal with the abortion at this time.
8. A. Personal internal strength and supportive individuals are critical factors that can be employed to
assist the individual to cope with a crisis.
9. D. Crisis intervention group helps client reestablish psychologic equilibrium by assisting them to
explore new alternatives for coping. It considers realistic
situations using rational and flexible problem solving methods.
10. C. This would document that the client feels comfortable enough to discuss the problems that have
motivated the behavior.
11. C. The most successful therapy for people with phobias involves behavior modification techniques
using desensitization.
12. A. Perceptual field is a key indicator of anxiety level because the perceptual fields narrow as anxiety
increases.
13. D. One of the symptoms of autistic child displays a lack of responsiveness to others. There is little or
no extension to the external environment.
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14. B. Somatic delusions focus on bodily functions or systems and commonly include delusion about foul
odor emissions, insect manifestations, internal
parasites and misshapen parts.
15. D. A client with borderline personality displays a pervasive pattern of unpredictable behavior, mood
and self image. Interpersonal relationships may be
intense and unstable and behavior may be inappropriate and impulsive.
16. A. Propranolol is a potent beta adrenergic blocker and producing a sedating effect, therefore it is
used to treat antipsychotic induced akathisia and anxiety.
17. B. Amantadine is an anticholinergic drug used to relive drug-induced extra pyramidal adverse effects
such as muscle weakness, involuntary muscle
movements, pseudoparkinsonism and tar dive dyskinesia.
18. D. MAOI antidepressants when combined with a number of drugs can cause life-threatening
hypertensive crisis. It’s imperative that a client checks with his physician and pharmacist before taking
any other medications.
19. B. Panic is the most severe level of anxiety. During panic attack, the client experiences a decrease in
the perceptual field, becoming more focused on self,
less aware of surroundings and unable to process information from the environment. The decreased
perceptual field contributes to impaired attention
andinability to concentrate.
20. A. The emergency nurse must establish rapport and trust with the anxious client before using
therapeutic touch. Touching an anxious client may actually
increase anxiety.
21. D. Diarrhea is a common physiological response to stress and anxiety.
22. B. The parasympathetic nervous system would produce incomplete G.I. motility resulting in
hyperactive bowel sounds, possibly leading to diarrhea.
23. C. The antidepressants fluvoxamine and clomipramine have been effective in the treatment of OCD.
24. A. Phobias cause severe anxiety (such as panic attack) that is out of proportion to the threat of the
feared object or situation. Physical signs and
symptoms of phobias include profuse sweating, poor motor control, tachycardia and elevated B.P.
25. D. In many instances, the nurse can diffuse impending violence by helping the client identify and
express feelings of anger and anxiety. Such statement as
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“What happened to get you this angry?” may help the client verbalizes feelings rather than act on them.
26. B. When speaking to a client with Alzheimer’s disease, the nurse should use close-ended
questions.Those that the client can answer with “yes” or “no”
whenever possible and avoid questions that require the client to make choices. Repeating the question
aids comprehension.
27. A. The nurse should prepare a client for ECT in a manner similar to that for general anesthesia.
28. C. Aged cheese and Chianti wine contain high concentrations of tyramine.
29. D. ECT commonly causes transitory short and long term memory loss and confusion, especially in
geriatric clients. It rarely results in permanent short and
long term memory loss.
30. A. Polyuria commonly occurs early in the treatment with lithium and could result in fluid volume
deficit.
31. D. Signs of anxiety agent overdose include emotional lability, euphoria and impaired memory.
32. B. Drinking alcohol can potentiate the sedating action of tricyclic antidepressants. Dry mouth and
blurred vision are normal adverse effects of
tricyclic antidepressants.
33. C. Women may experience amenorrhea, which is reversible, while taking antipsychotics.
Amenorrhea doesn’t indicate cessation of ovulation thus, the client
can still be pregnant.
34. D. The first are for assessment would be the client’s reason for refusing medication. The client may
not understand the purpose for the medication, may be experiencing distressing side effects, or may be
concerned about the cost of medicine. In any case, the nurse cannot provide appropriate intervention
before assessing the client’s problem with the medication. The patient’s income level, living
arrangements, and involvement of family and support systems are relevant issues following
determination of the client’s reason for refusing medication. The nurse providing follow-up care would
have access to the client’s medical record and should already know the reason for inpatient admission.
35. A. Excess dopamine is thought to be the chemical cause for psychotic thinking. The typical
antipsychotics act to block dopamine receptors and therefore
decrease the amount of neurotransmitter at the synapses. The typical antipsychotics do not increase
acetylcholine, stabilize serotonin, stimulate GABA.
36. B. The TCAs affect norepinephrine as well as other neurotransmitters, and thus have significant
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cardiovascular side effects. Therefore, they are used with
caution in elderly clients who may have increased risk factors for cardiac problems because of their age
and other medical conditions. The remaining side effects would apply to any client taking a TCA and are
not particular to an elderly person.
37. B. Cognitive thinking therapy focuses on the client’s misperceptions about self, others and the world
that impact functioning and contribute to symptoms.
Using medications to alter neurotransmitter activity is a psychobiologic approachto treatment. The
other answer choices are frameworks for care, but hey are not applicable to this situation.
38. C. The concept that behavior is motivated and has meaning comes from the psychodynamic
framework. According to this perspective, behavior arises from internal wishes or needs. Much of what
motivates behavior comes from the unconscious. The remaining responses do not address the internal
forces thought to motivate behavior.
39. C. The client is demonstrating faulty thought processes that are negative and that govern his
behavior in his work situation – issues that are typically
examined using a cognitive theory approach. Issues involving learned behavior are best explored
through behavior theory, not cognitive theory. Issues involving ego development are the focus of
psychoanalytic theory. Option 4 is incorrect because there is no evidence in this situation that the client
has conflictual relationships in the work environment.
40. D. Anxiety is a response to a threat arising from internal or external stimuli.
41. A. Systematic desensitization is a behavioral therapy technique that helps clients with irrational fears
and avoidance behavior to face the thing they fear,
without experiencing anxiety. There is no attempt to promote insight with this procedure, and the client
will not be taught to substitute one fear for another.
Although the client’s anxiety may decrease with successful confrontation of irrational fears, the purpose
of the procedure is specifically related to performing
activities that typically are avoided as part of the phobic response.
42. B. A client with antisocial personality disorder typically has frequent episodes of acting impulsively
with poor ability to delay self-gratification. Therefore,
decreased frequency of impulsive behaviors would be evidence of improvement. Charming behavior
when around authority figures and statements indicating no
remorse are examples of symptoms typical of someone with this disorder and would not indicate
successful treatment. Self-satisfaction would be viewed as a
positive change if the client expresses low self-esteem; however this is not a characteristic of a client
with antisocial personality disorder.
43. D. In autoimmune disorders, stress and the response to stress can exacerbate symptoms. Stress
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management techniques can help the client reduce
the psychological response to stress, which in turn will help reduce the physiologic stress response. This
will afford the client an increased sense of control over his symptoms. The nurse can address the
remaining answer choices in her teaching about the client’s disease and treatment; however, knowledge
alone will not help the client to manage his stress effectively enough to control symptoms.
44. D. Disregard for established rules of society is the most common characteristic of a client with
antisocial personality disorder. Attention to detail and
order is characteristic of someone with obsessive compulsive disorder. Bizarre mannerisms and
thoughts are characteristics of a client with schizoid or
schizotypal disorder. Submissive and dependent behaviors are characteristic of someone with a
dependent personality.
45. D. The client with anorexia typically feels powerless, with a sense of having little control over any
aspect of life besides eating behavior. Often, parental
expectations and standards are quite high and lead to the clients’ sense of guilt over not measuring up.
46. A. One of the core issues concerning the family of a client with anorexia is control. The family’s
acceptance of the client’s ability to make independent
decisions is key to successful family intervention. Although the remaining options may occur during the
process of therapy, they would not necessarily indicate a successful outcome; the central family issues
of dependence and independence are not addresses on these responses.
47. B. Use of cognitive techniques allows the nurse to help the client recognize that this negative beliefs
may be distortions and that, by changing his thinking, he can adopt more positive beliefs that are
realistic and hopeful. Agreeing with the client’s feelings and presenting a cheerful attitude are not
consistent with a cognitive approach and would not be helpful in this situation. Denying the client’s
feelings is belittling and may convey that the nurse does not understand the depth of the client’s
distress.
48. A. Art therapy provides a nonthreatening vehicle for the expression of feelings, and use of a small
group will help the client become comfortable with
peers in a group setting. Basketball is a competitive game that requires energy; the client with major
depression is not likely to participate in this activity.
Recommending that the client read a self-help book may increase, not decrease his isolation. Watching
movie with a peer group does not guarantee that
interaction will occur; therefore, the client may remain isolated.
49. C. Day treatment programs provide clients with chronic, persistent mental illness training in social
skills, such as meeting and greeting people, asking
questions or directions, placing an order in a restaurant, taking turns in a group setting activity. Although
management of hallucinations and medication teaching may also be part of the program offered in a
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day treatment, the nurse is referring the client in this situation because of his need for socialization
skills. Vocational training generally takes place in a rehabilitation facility; the client described in this
situation would not be a candidate for this service.
50. A. The best approach with a withdrawn client is to initiate brief, nondemanding activities on a one-
to-one basis. This approach gives the nurse an opportunity to establish a trusting relationship with the
client. A board game with a group clients or playing a team sport in the gym may overwhelm a severely
withdrawn client. Watching TV is a solitary activity that will reinforce the client’s withdrawal from
others.