This document contains multiple choice questions about organizational behavior concepts. It covers topics like attitudes, perception, motivation, conflict, and personality. There are questions that test understanding of theories like Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Herzberg's two-factor theory, and Alderfer's ERG theory. It also includes questions about cognitive dissonance, attribution theory, the Big Five personality traits, and models of motivation. The questions assess comprehension of key ideas in organizational behavior.

1. Organizational behavior in health care mcqs test bank
1: Defined by Allport (1935) as a “mental state of readiness, organized through experience,
exerting a directing or dynamic influence on the individual’s response to situations,” this is
known as a(n) A: Cognition B: Behavior C: Dissonance D: Attitude E: Perception2: The Tri-
Component model suggests that human attitudes have 3 factors, that are: A: Love, Intimacy,
Passion B: Biological, Chemical, Learned C: Physical, Mental, Spiritual D: Behavioral,
Mechanical, Mental E: Actions, Beliefs, Feelings3: Festinger (1957) suggested _________ to
refer to when we perceive an inconsistency between two or more of our internal attitudes
or between our behavior and attitudes. A: Attitude Shift B: Cognitive Dissonance C:
Disequilibrium D: Psychoneurotic E: Perceptual Illusion4: Attitudes are very individual and
subjective, and therefore we do not currently have ways to measure an employee’s attitude
about their jobs. A: TRUE B: FALSE5: The process by which we interpret and organize
sensory information to produce a meaningful experience of the world, is known as _______. A:
Attitude B: Perception C: Cognition D: Intuition E: Judgment6: When a person limits their
processing of information by only paying attention to certain select information based on
prior experience, beliefs or attitudes, this is called ___________ A: Dual Stimulation B:
Cognitive Deficit C: Selective Attention D: Reverse Filtering E: Registration7: If we claim an
outside force motivated an event this is known as ________ compared with when we assign
causal factors to ourselves or a person, known as __________. A: Extraverted; Self-serving
bias B: Internal Locus of Control; External Locus of Control C: Internal Attribution; External
Attribution D: External Attribution; Internal Attribution E: Public Perception Management,
Internal Perception Management8: Preconceived thoughts or beliefs can affect whether or
not we hear opinions or information that does not agree with our preconceived thoughts A:
TRUE B: FALSE9: Managers make attributions about employees based on “consistency” and
“distinctiveness” as well as _____________ which is “the extent to which an employee’s
performance is the same or different from other employees” A: Attributes B: Stereotype C:
Consensus D: Differentiation E: Habit10: A hich of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5”
personalityhich of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personality, but is therefore also
perceived to be a good hospital for Gastric surgeries as well. This generalized carryover
based on just one characteristic is known as __________ A: Stereotype B: Placebo Effect C:
Horn Effect D: Halo Effect E: Angel syndrome11: When a person evaluates another person
as generally low on many traits after observing poor performance on just one trait… this
negative carryover effect is known as _______ A: Stereotype B: Placebo Effect C: Horn Effect D:
Halo Effect E: Angel syndrome12: From reading about the “contrast effect” in person

2. perception, we know that if compared to a highly attractive person, a target person will be
judged as ____________ than s/he would have been if rated on his or her own. A: More
attractive B: Less attractive C: Neutral – contrasts have no effects on judgment of
attractiveness D: Less attractive if male, more attractive if female E: None of the above13: A
defensive mechanism where we attribute our own attitudes onto someone else, such as “My
friend tempted me with a desert and made me go off my diet.” A: Procrastination B:
Projection C: Prosocialization D: Halo Effect E: Stereotyping14: Overly generalized, and
typically negative, views about a group of people is known as a __________ A: Stereotype B:
Projection C: Halo Effect D: Pygmalion Effect E: Sublimation15: Price Waterhouse v.
Hopkins was a legal case where a female lawyer claimed discrimination based on gender
stereotyped statementsA: TRUE B: FALSE16: Another name for the “self fulfilling prophesy”
where individuals tend to live up to other’s stated expectations about us A: Stereotype B:
Projection C: Halo Effect D: Pygmalion Effect E: Sublimation17: Employee selection can be
aided by the use of _________ which is the general use of measurements of human ability,
personality, potential and other factors A: I.Q. testing B: Personality testing C:
Psychometrics D: Rorschach (inkblot) tests E: None of the above18: It’s a good idea for a
manager to hire workers exclusively based on the score of a personality test. A: TRUE B:
FALSE19: Extroverts do best in quiet, non-social jobs such as computer work, while
Introverts show the best job performance when they must work and present in front of
large groups of people A: TRUE B: FALSE20: Which of the following is NOT one of the “Big
5” personality traits measured with personality tests? A: Neuroticism B: Spirituality C:
Extroversion D: Agreeableness E: Openness1: Motivation is described as the conscious or
unconscious stimulus, incentive, or motives for action towards a goal resulting from
psychological or social factors, the factors giving the purpose or direction to behavior. A:
TRUE B: FALSE2: The three components of the process of motivation are: A: goals,
incentives, and behavior B: behavior, wants, and direction C: incentives, behavior and
goals D: unsatisfied need, drive, and satisfied need3: The content theories of motivation
focus on the assumption that individuals are motivated by the desire to satisfy their inner
needs. A: TRUE B: FALSE4: Process theories of motivation focus on the cognitive processes
underlying an individual’s level of motivation. A: TRUE B: FALSE5: The levels in Maslow’s
Hierarchy of Needs are: A: growth, relatedness, and existence B: satisfiers, physiological,
relatedness, self-esteem, and safety C: physiological, affiliation, safety, self-actualization, and
self-esteem D: hygiene, affiliation, safety, satisfiers, and self-actualization E: self-
actualization, self-esteem, affiliation, safety, and physiological6: Employee motivation has a
direct impact on a health services organization’s performance A: TRUE B:
FALSE7: According to Alderfer, individuals must satisfy their lower level needs, at least to
an acceptable state, before the person can be motivated to achieve higher level needs. A:
TRUE B: FALSE8: Managers need to be conscious of the fact that all employees are not
driven by the same needs, nor is any employee driven by the same need, at the same
time. A: TRUE B: FALSE9: Alder’s ERG theory like Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs requires an
individual to satisfy a lower level need for a higher-level need to become the driver of a
person’s behavior. A: TRUE B: FALSE10: The three categories of Alderfer’s ERG theory
are: A: existence, relatedness, and gain B: existence, relatedness, and growth C: extrinsic,

3. recognition, and growth D: environment, recognition, and gain11: The frustration-
regression principle of the ERG theory explains that when a barrier prevents an individual
from obtaining a higher level need, a person may “regress” to a lower-level need (or visa
versa) to achieve satisfaction. A: TRUE B: FALSE12: Although an employee may have
multiple needs to satisfy, managers must focus exclusively on one need at a time will to be
effective in motivating an employee. A: TRUE B: FALSE13: According to Herzberg’s Two-
Factor theory, motivators do not include: A: salary B: recognition C: responsibility D: work
itself E: advancement14: According to Herzberg, the opposite of job satisfaction is job
dissatisfaction. A: TRUE B: FALSE15: Hygiene factors relate to job content and
motivators/satisfiers relate to job context. A: TRUE B: FALSE16: Employees will be
motivated to do work that they perceive to be significant. A: TRUE B: FALSE17: Which of
the following is not one of the five core motivational job characteristics identified by
Hackman and Oldham? A: skill variety B: task significance C: autonomy D: feedback E:
advancement18: The three types of motivational needs identified by McClelland are: A:
advancement, power, and affiliation B: power, affiliation, and growth C: affiliation, growth,
and advancement D: achievement, power and affiliation19: Each content theory of
motivation is separate, distinct, and unrelated. A: TRUE B: FALSE20: Maslow’s Hierarchy of
Needs had a great influence on the study of organizational behavior. A: TRUE B:
FALSE1: Conflict is inevitable and unavoidableA: TRUE B: FALSE2: Conflict occurs when an
individual or group feels negatively affected by another individual or group. A: TRUE B:
FALSE3: Although there are numerous definitions of conflict, there are two common
components to most definitions: (1) perceived incompatibility of interests, and (2) some
interdependence of the parties. A: 0 B: 0 C: 0 D: 0 E: 04: Because all conflict leads to
ineffectiveness, managers must create an organizational culture of cooperation. A: TRUE B:
FALSE5: Conflict occurs when the ideas and thoughts within an individual or between
individuals are incompatible. This is an example of what type of conflict? A: goal B:
cognitive C: affective D: procedural6: Conflict occurs when two or more desired or expected
outcomes are incompatible. This is an example of what type of conflict? A: goal B:
cognitive C: affective D: procedural7: _________________ happens when several alternative
courses of action are available and when the outcome is important to the individual
whether positive or negative. A: Intrapersonal cognitive conflict B: Intrapersonal affective
conflict C: Intrapersonal goal conflict8: The following is an example of what type of
intrapersonal conflict, When an individual must choose an alternative that is expected to
have both positive and negative outcomes. A: Avoidance/avoidance B:
Approach/approach C: Approach/avoidance9: Cognitive dissonance occurs when
individuals recognize inconsistencies in their thoughts and behavior. A: TRUE B:
FALSE10: _____________ occurs when the expectations associated with a work role are
incompatible with the individual’s needs, values, or ethics. A: Person-role conflict B:
Intrarole conflict C: Interrole conflict D: Interpersonal conflict11: _______________ involves
two or more individuals who believe that their attitudes, behaviors, or preferred goals are
in opposition. A: Intrapersonal conflict B: Interpersonal conflict C: Intragroup conflict D:
Intergroup conflict E: Interorganizational conflict12: A lack of communication skills
combined with our personal and cultural differences, creates powerful deficits in our ability

4. to relate to each other. Because of this broad-based inadequacy, interpersonal conflicts
regularly emerge. A: TRUE B: FALSE13: There are three types of intragroup conflict: (1)
relationship, (2) task, and (3) process. A: TRUE B: FALSE14: Of the four categories of
intergroup conflict, which one relates authority relationships? A: Vertical conflict B:
Horizontal conflict C: Line-staff conflict D: Diversity-based conflict15: What type of
intergroup conflict may occur when supervisors attempt to control subordinates? A:
Vertical conflict B: Horizontal conflict C: Line-staff conflict D: Diversity-based
conflict16: Integration of organizations that involves extensive linking of providers at
different points in the patient care continuum causes the lowest level of interorganizational
conflict. A: TRUE B: FALSE17: Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one reflects a win-
lose approach to conflict? A: Avoidance B: Accommodation C: Competition D:
Compromise E: Collaboration18: Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one reflects a
win-win approach to conflict? A: Avoidance B: Accommodation C: Competition D:
Compromise E: Collaboration19: Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one involves
unassertive and uncooperative behaviors? A: Avoidance B: Accommodation C:
Competition D: Compromise E: Collaboration20: Individuals use the bounded rationality
model to decision-making when there is sufficient time for an orderly, thoughtful
process. A: TRUE B: FALSE21: The rational model is considered the “ideal” method of
decision-making. A: TRUE B: FALSE22: Managers are under the constraints of limited time
and resources, personal bias and other factors, which make rational decision-making
unrealistic. A: TRUE B: FALSE23: The expression “bounded rationality” is used to denote
the type of rationality that managers resort to when the environment in which they operate
is too complex relative to their cognitive limitations. A: TRUE B: FALSE24: _______________
decision-making involves using one’s professional judgment based on past experiences
rather than sequential logic or explicit reasoning A: Bounded rationality B: Intuition C:
Heuristics D: Biases25: _______________ are guidelines or “rules of thumb” that help make our
world manageable by simplifying complex tasks A: Bounded rationality B: Intuition C:
Heuristics D: Biases26: _____________ bias is an intuitive technique where the perceived
probability of an event is influenced by the ease of recollection. A: Adjustment B:
Anchoring C: Representativeness D: Availability27: High quality decision-making is
attributable to escalation of commitment by a manager. A: TRUE B: FALSE28: Framing
heuristic is a tendency to make a decision based on the form or manner in which
information is presented. A: TRUE B: FALSE29: Managers differ along two dimensions in
the way they approach decision-making: value orientation and tolerance for ambiguity.
Value orientation reflects the extent to which a person has a high need for structure or
control in his or her life. A: TRUE B: FALSE30: Of the four basic decision styles, which one is
associated with high tolerance for ambiguity and a high cognitive complexity? A:
Directive B: Analytic C: Conceptual D: Behavioral31: Of the four basic decision styles, which
one is associated with low tolerance for ambiguity and low cognitive complexity with a
focus on technical decisions? A: Directive B: Analytic C: Conceptual D: Behavioral32: With
training, managers can use all four decision styles effectively as different situations are
presented, however, individuals have a tendency to resort to a single, dominant style (i.e.,
default mode of decision making). A: TRUE B: FALSE33: Negotiation may be defined as the

5. process by which two or more parties decide what each will give and take in an exchange. A:
TRUE B: FALSE34: ____________ negotiation is often referred to as “hard-bargaining” or a win-
lose, zero-sum approach. A: Integrative B: Interactive C: Distributive 35: ___________
negotiation is a cooperative, interest-based, agreement-oriented approach to dealing with
conflict that is viewed as a “win/win” or mutual gain dispute. A: Integrative B: Interactive C:
Distributive1: Groups can be categorized into three broad groups: primary, secondary, and
reference. A: TRUE B: FALSE2: ____________ groups are those that we compare ourselves to
for developing our personal behavior and social attitudes. A: Primary B: Secondary C:
Reference D: Formal E: Informal3: __________ groups are organized based on members’
common interests or goals. A: Primary B: Secondary C: Reference D: Formal E:
Informal4: Managers need to be aware that ____________ groups can be a powerful force
within their organization. A: Primary B: Secondary C: Reference D: Formal E:
Informal5: __________ groups are created by the organization, therefore, they are part of the
organization’s formal structure. A: Primary B: Secondary C: Reference D: Formal E:
Informal6: Groups go through sequential stages of development. The following is as
example of what development stage: High levels of emotion because members are trying to
find their group identity and exert their individuality. A: Forming B: Storming C: Norming D:
Performing E: Adjourning7: Groups go through sequential stages of development. The
following is as example of what development stage: In this stage the rules for behavior are
explicitly and implicitly defined. There is a greater degree of order and a strong sense of
group membership. A: Forming B: Storming C: Norming D: Performing E: Adjourning8: The
group decision making process usually takes longer than an individual decision making
process. A: TRUE B: FALSE9: Groups produce less and lower quality solutions to problems
than do individuals working alone, because there are too many people involved in group
decision making. A: TRUE B: FALSE10: There are four factors that play an important part
regarding the quality of a group’s decision: (1) the group should be diverse, (2) members
need be feel that they are in a “safe” environment so their ideas can be expressed freely, (3)
the degree of task interdependence must be high, and (4) the group must have the potency
for success. A: TRUE B: FALSE11: The nominal group technique is a brainstorming
technique that assists to overcome the challenge faced by group members who may lack the
experience to understand that the information they hold is needed to generate and evaluate
options or alternatives. A: TRUE B: FALSE1: Organization development incorporates which
of the following characteristics: A: use of a behavioral scientist B: rapid response to
change C: systematic approach D: a and b only E: a and c only2: All change in organizations
should be considered an Organizational Development initiative. A: TRUE B:
FALSE3: Behavioral science is important in OD because: A: organizations should have an
Employee Assistance Program (EAP) to help employees through any change process B:
understanding relationships is critical to the change process C: organizations should have
an understanding of how members react to change D: all of the above E: b and c4: The role
of the OD Practitioner is to: A: facilitate the change process B: work closely with the
organization C: have ultimate accountability for the success off the change D: work with the
client to understand and move forward with the change process successfully5: Which of
the following is an important skill set of an OD Practitioner? A: technical skills B:

6. interpersonal skills C: consulting skills D: none of the above E: all of the above6: It is better
to hire an external consultant versus using an OD professional who is an employee of the
organization because the external consultant will be able to psychological distance
him/herself from the organization . A: TRUE B: FALSE7: Which of the following is an
advantage to utilizing an external consultant? A: knowledge of the organization B: better
data collection expertise C: knowledge and experience of a particular intervention D: a lack
of objectivity8: Which of the following is an advantage to utilizing an internal consultant
(i.e., employee of the organization)? A: knowledge of the organization B: better data
collection expertise C: knowledge and experience of a particular intervention D: a lack of
objectivity9: The goal of action research is to base the intervention on initial research, then
to follow up the process with feedback through further data analysis to determine the
effectiveness or impact, make adjustments as necessary, and ultimately use the results to
feed additional research. A: TRUE B: FALSE10: During the __________ phase of the action
research model, mutual expectations are identified. A: entering and contracting B:
diagnosis C: feedback D: action11: The ___________ phase involves a strategic collection and
analysis of data from the organization. A: entering and contracting B: diagnosis C:
feedback D: action12: The most frequently used method of data collection is: A:
questionnaires B: interviews C: observation D: unobtrusive methods13: Financial reports,
turnover rates, exit interviews and customer satisfaction reults are all examples of what
type of data collection? A: questionnaires B: interviews C: observation D: unobtrusive
methods14: The “Hawthorne effect” in one potential pitfall of the observation method of
data collection. A: TRUE B: FALSE15: Which data collection method might enable the
practitioner to learn more about communication patterns, leadership issues, or ineffective
conflict resolution strategies in the team? A: questionnaires B: interviews C: observation D:
unobtrusive methods16: Changing from a functional to a matrix structure is an example of
which type of intervention? A: strategic B: technostructural C: human process D: human
resource management17: Which of the following interventions deal primarily with issues
between people in an organization? A: strategic B: technostructural C: human process D:
human resource management18: A career planning system is an example of which type of
intervention? A: strategic B: technostructural C: human process D: human resource
management19: A diversification in products is an example of which type of
intervention? A: strategic B: technostructural C: human process D: human resource
management20: The true test of an organizational intervention is the outcome. A: TRUE B:
FALSE21: The goal of process improvement interventions is to increase efficiency. A:
TRUE B: FALSE22: This intervention is designed to enable groups of people to work
together on a single problem, and through a regimented process utilizing specific problem
solving tools. A: team building B: process improvement C: total quality management D:
work design23: Which of the following intervention is mistakenly often seen as the only
intervention needed, but the goal of this intervention should be to build or improve a skill
base? A: team building B: process improvement C: training D: work design