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Integration involving inverse
Trigonometric functions
Mathematics
Inverse
⦿ Inverse exists for a one-to-
one function.
One-to-one function
A one-to-one function
does not have two
different input values that
produce the same answer
eg, f(x) = x - 3.
⦿ Each of the trigonometric
functions ie, Sine, cosine,
tangent, secant, cosecant
and cotangent has
an inverse (with a restricted
domain).
⦿ Let’s see them one by one
Integration
⦿ Area under the
curve.
Trigonometric Functions and
their inverse -
•Sine Function
A sine function is
shown
f(x) = sin(x)
Since, it fails to clear Horizontal Line Test ,
it’s inverse is restricted to its range.
Inverse Sine Function
Inverse of Sine Function exists in –
⦿ Domain - [–1, 1]
⦿ range is [–pi/2 , pi/2].
Integration of inverse sine-
Integration by parts –
⦿ Requires two functions to use Integration by
parts.
Let first function be 1 and second be inverse
sine ie, sin−1(x)
Then our integral becomes –
I = ∫sin−1(x)⋅1dx
Contd…
⦿ Using the formula for integration by parts,
we have
∫ {f(x) g(x) }dx = f(x) ∫g(x)dx −∫{f’(x)∫g(x)dx}dx
∫ sin−1(x) ⋅ 1 dx =
sin−1(x) ∫1dx−∫ { {d/dx sin−1(x)} ∫1dx }dx
Substituting the values -
Multiplying and dividing by -2, we have -
⦿ Using formula
Hence -
⦿ Cosine Function –
⦿ Similar to sine, inverse of a cosine
function exists in the region colored
blue.
Inverse cosine Function
Inverse of cosine
Function exists in –
⦿ Domain - [–1, 1]
⦿ range is [0, pi].
Integration of inverse cosine-
⦿ Integration by parts –
Let first function be 1 and second be
inverse cosine ie, cos−1(x)
Then our integral becomes –
I = ∫cos−1(x)⋅1dx
⦿ Using the formula for integration by parts,
we have
∫ {f(x) g(x) }dx = f(x) ∫g(x)dx −∫{f’(x)∫g(x)dx}dx
∫ cos−1(x) ⋅ 1 dx =
cos−1(x) ∫1dx−∫ { {d/dx cos−1(x)} ∫1dx }dx
⦿ Using the formula for integration by parts,
we have –
⦿ Multiplying and dividing by -2, we have-
Again using the formula -
⦿ Hence
⦿ Tan Function –
Inverse Tan Function
Inverse of Tan
Function exists in –
⦿ Domain - [Set of all
Real numbers]
⦿ range is [-pi/2, pi/2].
Integration of inverse Tan-
⦿ Integration by parts –
Let first function be 1 and second be
inverse cosine ie, tan−1(x)
Then our integral becomes –
⦿ Using the formula for integration by parts,
we have
∫ {f(x) g(x) }dx = f(x) ∫g(x)dx −∫{f’(x)∫g(x)dx}dx
∫ tan−1(x) ⋅ 1 dx
= tan−1(x) ∫1dx−∫{d/dx{tan−1(x)}∫1dx}dx
⦿ Using the formula for integration by parts,
we have –
⦿ Multiplying and dividing by -2, we have-
Using the formula -
⦿ We will get
⦿ Hence,
⦿ Similarly, the integration of different
inverse trigonometric functions are
shown below
Summary
⦿ Inverse exists for a
one-to-one
function.
⦿ Inverse of a
function exists in its
domain and
End

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Integration involving inverse trigonometric functions