This document is a biology final exam for Mrs. Glemaud's class in 2010-2011. It contains 60 multiple choice questions testing students' knowledge of key biology concepts across several units, including cell structure and function, cellular respiration, photosynthesis, genetics, and mitosis. The questions cover topics such as the parts of the cell, organelle functions, energy production in cells, the cell cycle, Mendelian genetics, and inheritance of traits.
Unicellular aquatic Eukaryota organism that do photosynthesize. Plant-like protist. This presentation provides a generalize idea of protist focusing specifically on some characteristics of protist as well as their division.
Unicellular aquatic Eukaryota organism that do photosynthesize. Plant-like protist. This presentation provides a generalize idea of protist focusing specifically on some characteristics of protist as well as their division.
A Level Biology - Classification and Biodiversitymrexham
This is a PowerPoint presentation for Topic 3 in the Edexcel Biology B A Level course that starts in 2015.
This is a free sample, the full PowerPoint presentation is available to purchase here: https://sellfy.com/MrExham
This slideshow covers the basics of plant identification, common plant families in Illinois, and concludes with a spring wildflower quiz. Botanical focus is on northeastern Illinois (Chicago area).
IGCSE Biology - Chemical Coordination in Plantsmrexham
This PowerPoint answers the following questions:
Do you understand that plants respond to stimuli?
Can you give an example of positive phototropism?
How do plant roots and stems respond to gravity?
It covers section 3.3 of the IGCSE Edexcel Biology Course.
A Level Biology - Classification and Biodiversitymrexham
This is a PowerPoint presentation for Topic 3 in the Edexcel Biology B A Level course that starts in 2015.
This is a free sample, the full PowerPoint presentation is available to purchase here: https://sellfy.com/MrExham
This slideshow covers the basics of plant identification, common plant families in Illinois, and concludes with a spring wildflower quiz. Botanical focus is on northeastern Illinois (Chicago area).
IGCSE Biology - Chemical Coordination in Plantsmrexham
This PowerPoint answers the following questions:
Do you understand that plants respond to stimuli?
Can you give an example of positive phototropism?
How do plant roots and stems respond to gravity?
It covers section 3.3 of the IGCSE Edexcel Biology Course.
BRCC BIOL 121 FINAL SPRING 2015
1. E coli is a shortened name for a bacterium that lives in our gut. According to the rules of binomial nomenclature it is properly written as _______________.
a. Escherichia COLI
b. Escherichia Coli
c. Escherichia coli
d. escherichia coli
e. escherichia coli
2. What does the term “biodiversity” refer to in the field of biology?
a. Total number of species on earth
b. Genetic variation that exists within populations all of the earth’s species
c. Total number of Earth’s ecosystems
d. All of the above are correct
3. Prokaryotic cells are classified in Domain(s) _______
a. Archaea
b. Bacteria
c. Eukarya
d. Archaea and Bacteria
e. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya
4.
4. The shape of this bacterium is __________ and the attachment filaments radiating out are called_________
a. bacillus…………. flagella
b. coccus……………cilia
c. spirilla…………..pili
d. bacillus………… pili
e. vibrio…………….cilia
5. A certain bacterium can withstand heating, drying and toxic chemicals that would kill most other bacteria. This indicates that it is probably able to form a __________
a. Pseudopodia
b. Conjugation tube
c. Endospore
d. Flagellum
e. Endotoxins
6.What ecological role is played by cyanobacteria ?
a. photosynthetic producers that make sugar and pump oxygen into the atmosphere
b. decomposers of dead leaves and dead animals
c. chemosynthetic producers
d pathogens of plants and animals
e. predators of other bacteria
6.
7. The term phytoplankton applies to photosynthetic, microscopic floating organisms such as________
a. Protozoan ciliates and flagellates
b. Aquatic plants
c. Dinoflagellates, diatoms and some unicellular or colonial green algae
d. Macroalgae and seaweeds
e. Fungus like protists such as slime molds
8. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Most protists are aquatic.
b. Protists are eukaryotes.
c. Most protists are unicellular.
d. Protists have more complex cells than prokaryotes.
e. Photosynthetic protists are called protozoa.
9.
9. Which of the following structures is used by amoebas to move and to eat?
a. microvilli
b. cilia
c. flagella
d. pseudopodia
e. tendrils
10. Into what kingdom do we place multicellular heterotrophic eukaryotes that acquire food by absorption from the environment and have cell walls made of chitin?
a. Plantae
b. Animalia
c. Protista
d. Fungi
e. Proteobacteria
11.
11. (See image to the left) A fungus surrounding a root absorbs food from the plant and in turn this fungus provides water and minerals to the plant. This is a _________ relationship?
a. parasitic
b. commensalistic
c. predatorial
d. mutualistic
e. competitive
12. (See image above). A fungus growing together with a plant root in a way that benefits both is
a(n)_______
a. Lichen
b. Epiphyte
c. Mycorrhizae
d. Hemiparasite
e. Halophyte
13. Which group shares the most recent common ancestor with land plants?
a. Fungi
b. Cy ...
Final Exam Ecology 100Name____________________Dr. Isobel A.docxmydrynan
Final Exam Ecology 100
Name____________________
Dr. Isobel A. Pearsall
Multiple choice questions. (1 mark each)
1. Changes in community structure over time are called _____________.
a. succession
b. stratification
c. zonation
d. characterization
2. Food webs can be arranged into ________ levels based on whether organisms obtain their nutrition from photosynthesis, from eating plants, or from eating animals
a. niche
b. guild
c. trophic
d. predation
3. A dominant species in a community may
a. Be the most numerous
b. Possess the highest biomass
c. Preempt the most space
d. Make the largest contribution to energy flow or nutrient cycling
e. All of the above
4. Which of the following does NOT function as a habitat corridor?__________
a. a large lake
b. a hedgerow
c. the vegetation along a river
d. a drainage ditch
5. Which of the following is produced by humans as pesticides, soluble in fats and lipids, and accumulates in animals through the food chain?________
a. lead
b. chlorinated hydrocarbons
c. sulfur dioxide
d. carbon dioxide
6. In the small-population approach to studying endangered populations, the key factor driving the species towards extinction is___________
a. loss of genetic variation
b. too many animals migrating away from small populations
c. loss of food
d. increased risk of predation
e. too many animals migrating between populations
7. Which of the following is NOT true?_________
a. the world’s oceans act as a sink for carbon dioxide
b. the world’s terrestrial ecosystems act as a sink for carbon dioxide
c. the world’s ecosystems act as sinks for carbon dioxide, completely offsetting the increase in carbon dioxide emissions from burning of fossil fuels.
d. Reforestation is part of the solution to balancing the global carbon cycle.
8. Which of the following allocates more biomass to photosynthetic tissue and less to supportive tissue?
a. Trees
b. Shrubs
c. Lianas
d. Grasses
9. Conservationists refer to the number of individuals necessary to ensure the long-term survival of a species as the _____________
a. Minimum viable population
b. Genetically effective population
c. metapopulation
d. carrying capacity
10. Which terrestrial biome has the highest diversity of plant and animal life?
a. Tropical savanna
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Temperate deciduous forest
d. Boreal forest
11. An endemic species is best defined as a species that___________________
a. is a habitat specialist with a large geographic distribution
b. has so few individuals remaining that is ceases to perform its role within an ecosystem
c. no longer exists in a given area yet still survives elsewhere
d. occurs in a single geographic area and nowhere else
12. The primary cause of current extinction is____________________
a. overhunting
b. introduction of non-native species
c. pollution
d. habitat degradation
13. Harvesting at a level that will ensure a similar yield repeatedly without forcing the population into decline is called____ ...
SELF-TEST Amswi each af the follimins suesions by reiecting the ene an.pdf12angeldesignworld1
SELF-TEST Amswi each af the follimins suesions by reiecting the ene andwer numbered
questien can be found it Appetaix C. 1. deicribes the ability of erganians to maintain a stable
internat state- A. Metabolise (4.) Hemesatasis C. Biospher D. Ecotype E. Kooe of the above ( A
D ) is qunict. 2. Which ene of the following shrases weuld rot apply to prokagyotes? A.
Progranmed aed death B. Multicellular communtitios C. Cell-orlt communication D. Cell
cooperation D. Nucleated cells 3. Froteins are made ty the A. mitochsodris. B. byosomes. C.
Golgi apparatus. D. ribosomes, E. cytotheleton. 4. Cell wads are necessary for A. nutrient
transport regulatioet B. DNA compartmentation. C. protein tracsport. D. enetgy metabolism. 6.
water balance. 5. Which one of the following is not foond in prokaryotic celis? A. Ceil menbeane
B. Ribosomes C. DNA 6. Mitochondria E. Cydoplasm 6. The two functions of the endoplasinic
reticulum are 6. protein and tigid transport. B. cell respiration and photesgetheric. C. osmotic
requlation and penetic control. D. cell respiration and protein pyothesis. - E. sorting and
packaging of proterins. 7. Mitochondria ciffer from chlocoplarts in that only mitochondria A.
carry aut photosynthesis: B. are meebrane-bouns, C. are found in the Eokarga. (b.) convert
chemical energy to cellular entrgy. E. transform sundiglt into chenical energy. 8. Who is
considered to be the father of modern taxonomy? A. Woese B. Whittaker C. Aristotle D.
Hacckef (9) Linnaeus 9. Waich one of the following is the correct genus name for the bac. terial
organisn that causes sypitilis? A. treponema B. pallidum (.) Treponeme D. pollidum E. T.
palliblum 10. Several classes of organisms would be classified into one A. family. B. genus, C.
species. D. order, (4) phylum (division)..
BRCC BIOL 121 FINAL SPRING 20151. E coli is a shortened name for.docxAASTHA76
BRCC BIOL 121 FINAL SPRING 2015
1. E coli is a shortened name for a bacterium that lives in our gut. According to the rules of binomial nomenclature it is properly written as _______________.
a. Escherichia COLI
b. Escherichia Coli
c. Escherichia coli
d. escherichia coli
e. escherichia coli
2. What does the term “biodiversity” refer to in the field of biology?
a. Total number of species on earth
b. Genetic variation that exists within populations all of the earth’s species
c. Total number of Earth’s ecosystems
d. All of the above are correct
3. Prokaryotic cells are classified in Domain(s) _______
a. Archaea
b. Bacteria
c. Eukarya
d. Archaea and Bacteria
e. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya
4. (
4. The shape of this bacterium is __________ and the attachment filaments radiating out are called_________
a
. bacillus…………. flagella
b
. coccus……………cilia
c.
spirilla
…………..
pili
d
. bacillus………… pili
e
. vibrio…………….cilia
)
5. A certain bacterium can withstand heating, drying and toxic chemicals that would kill most other bacteria. This indicates that it is probably able to form a __________
a. Pseudopodia
b. Conjugation tube
c. Endospore
d. Flagellum
e. Endotoxins
(
6.What
ecological role is played by cyanobacteria ?
a. photosynthetic
producers that make sugar and pump oxygen into the atmosphere
b
. decomposers of dead leaves and dead animals
c. chemosynthetic
producers
d
pathogens of plants and animals
e. predators
of other bacteria
)
6.
7. The term phytoplankton applies to photosynthetic, microscopic floating organisms such as________
a. Protozoan ciliates and flagellates
b. Aquatic plants
c. Dinoflagellates, diatoms and some unicellular or colonial green algae
d. Macroalgae and seaweeds
e. Fungus like protists such as slime molds
8. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Most protists are aquatic.
b. Protists are eukaryotes.
c. Most protists are unicellular.
d. Protists have more complex cells than prokaryotes.
e. Photosynthetic protists are called protozoa.
9. (
9. Which of the following structures is used by amoebas to move and to eat?
a. microvilli
b. cilia
c. flagella
d. pseudopodia
e. tendrils
)
10. Into what kingdom do we place multicellular heterotrophic eukaryotes that acquire food by absorption from the environment and have cell walls made of chitin?
a. Plantae
b. Animalia
c. Protista
d. Fungi
e. Proteobacteria
11. (
11.
(See image to the left)
A
fungus surrounding a root
absorbs food from the plant
and in turn this fungus
provides water and minerals to the plant. This is a _________ relationship?
a
. parasitic
b
.
commensalistic
c
.
predatorial
d
. mutualistic
e
. competitive
)
12. (See image above). A fungus growing together with a plant root in a way that benefits both is
a(n)_______
a. Lichen
b. Epiphyte
c. Mycorrhizae
d. Hemiparasite
e. Halophyte
13. Which group shares the most recent common ancestor with land plants?
a. Fungi
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Brown algae
d. Green a ...
Synthetic Fiber Construction in lab .pptxPavel ( NSTU)
Synthetic fiber production is a fascinating and complex field that blends chemistry, engineering, and environmental science. By understanding these aspects, students can gain a comprehensive view of synthetic fiber production, its impact on society and the environment, and the potential for future innovations. Synthetic fibers play a crucial role in modern society, impacting various aspects of daily life, industry, and the environment. ynthetic fibers are integral to modern life, offering a range of benefits from cost-effectiveness and versatility to innovative applications and performance characteristics. While they pose environmental challenges, ongoing research and development aim to create more sustainable and eco-friendly alternatives. Understanding the importance of synthetic fibers helps in appreciating their role in the economy, industry, and daily life, while also emphasizing the need for sustainable practices and innovation.
The Art Pastor's Guide to Sabbath | Steve ThomasonSteve Thomason
What is the purpose of the Sabbath Law in the Torah. It is interesting to compare how the context of the law shifts from Exodus to Deuteronomy. Who gets to rest, and why?
2024.06.01 Introducing a competency framework for languag learning materials ...Sandy Millin
http://sandymillin.wordpress.com/iateflwebinar2024
Published classroom materials form the basis of syllabuses, drive teacher professional development, and have a potentially huge influence on learners, teachers and education systems. All teachers also create their own materials, whether a few sentences on a blackboard, a highly-structured fully-realised online course, or anything in between. Despite this, the knowledge and skills needed to create effective language learning materials are rarely part of teacher training, and are mostly learnt by trial and error.
Knowledge and skills frameworks, generally called competency frameworks, for ELT teachers, trainers and managers have existed for a few years now. However, until I created one for my MA dissertation, there wasn’t one drawing together what we need to know and do to be able to effectively produce language learning materials.
This webinar will introduce you to my framework, highlighting the key competencies I identified from my research. It will also show how anybody involved in language teaching (any language, not just English!), teacher training, managing schools or developing language learning materials can benefit from using the framework.
The Indian economy is classified into different sectors to simplify the analysis and understanding of economic activities. For Class 10, it's essential to grasp the sectors of the Indian economy, understand their characteristics, and recognize their importance. This guide will provide detailed notes on the Sectors of the Indian Economy Class 10, using specific long-tail keywords to enhance comprehension.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
Students, digital devices and success - Andreas Schleicher - 27 May 2024..pptxEduSkills OECD
Andreas Schleicher presents at the OECD webinar ‘Digital devices in schools: detrimental distraction or secret to success?’ on 27 May 2024. The presentation was based on findings from PISA 2022 results and the webinar helped launch the PISA in Focus ‘Managing screen time: How to protect and equip students against distraction’ https://www.oecd-ilibrary.org/education/managing-screen-time_7c225af4-en and the OECD Education Policy Perspective ‘Students, digital devices and success’ can be found here - https://oe.cd/il/5yV
This is a presentation by Dada Robert in a Your Skill Boost masterclass organised by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan (EFSS) on Saturday, the 25th and Sunday, the 26th of May 2024.
He discussed the concept of quality improvement, emphasizing its applicability to various aspects of life, including personal, project, and program improvements. He defined quality as doing the right thing at the right time in the right way to achieve the best possible results and discussed the concept of the "gap" between what we know and what we do, and how this gap represents the areas we need to improve. He explained the scientific approach to quality improvement, which involves systematic performance analysis, testing and learning, and implementing change ideas. He also highlighted the importance of client focus and a team approach to quality improvement.
Instructions for Submissions thorugh G- Classroom.pptxJheel Barad
This presentation provides a briefing on how to upload submissions and documents in Google Classroom. It was prepared as part of an orientation for new Sainik School in-service teacher trainees. As a training officer, my goal is to ensure that you are comfortable and proficient with this essential tool for managing assignments and fostering student engagement.
The Roman Empire A Historical Colossus.pdfkaushalkr1407
The Roman Empire, a vast and enduring power, stands as one of history's most remarkable civilizations, leaving an indelible imprint on the world. It emerged from the Roman Republic, transitioning into an imperial powerhouse under the leadership of Augustus Caesar in 27 BCE. This transformation marked the beginning of an era defined by unprecedented territorial expansion, architectural marvels, and profound cultural influence.
The empire's roots lie in the city of Rome, founded, according to legend, by Romulus in 753 BCE. Over centuries, Rome evolved from a small settlement to a formidable republic, characterized by a complex political system with elected officials and checks on power. However, internal strife, class conflicts, and military ambitions paved the way for the end of the Republic. Julius Caesar’s dictatorship and subsequent assassination in 44 BCE created a power vacuum, leading to a civil war. Octavian, later Augustus, emerged victorious, heralding the Roman Empire’s birth.
Under Augustus, the empire experienced the Pax Romana, a 200-year period of relative peace and stability. Augustus reformed the military, established efficient administrative systems, and initiated grand construction projects. The empire's borders expanded, encompassing territories from Britain to Egypt and from Spain to the Euphrates. Roman legions, renowned for their discipline and engineering prowess, secured and maintained these vast territories, building roads, fortifications, and cities that facilitated control and integration.
The Roman Empire’s society was hierarchical, with a rigid class system. At the top were the patricians, wealthy elites who held significant political power. Below them were the plebeians, free citizens with limited political influence, and the vast numbers of slaves who formed the backbone of the economy. The family unit was central, governed by the paterfamilias, the male head who held absolute authority.
Culturally, the Romans were eclectic, absorbing and adapting elements from the civilizations they encountered, particularly the Greeks. Roman art, literature, and philosophy reflected this synthesis, creating a rich cultural tapestry. Latin, the Roman language, became the lingua franca of the Western world, influencing numerous modern languages.
Roman architecture and engineering achievements were monumental. They perfected the arch, vault, and dome, constructing enduring structures like the Colosseum, Pantheon, and aqueducts. These engineering marvels not only showcased Roman ingenuity but also served practical purposes, from public entertainment to water supply.
1. Biology: Final Exam Mrs. Glemaud 2010-2011
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
___ 1. Which cell structure contains the cell’s genetic material and controls many of the cell’s activities?
a. organelle c. cell envelope
b. nucleus d. cytoplasm
____ 2. Cells fall into two broad categories, depending on whether they
a. have a cell wall. c. have a nucleus.
b. contain genetic material. d. contain chloroplasts.
____ 3. Eukaryotes usually contain
a. a nucleus. c. genetic material.
b. specialized organelles. d. all of the above
____ 4. Which organelle breaks down compounds into small particles that the cell can use?
a. Golgi apparatus c. endoplasmic reticulum
b. lysosome d. mitochondrion
____ 5. Prokaryotes lack
a. cytoplasm. c. a nucleus.
b. a cell membrane. d. genetic material.
____ 6. Which of the following contains a nucleus?
a. prokaryotes c. eukaryotes
b. bacteria d. organelles
____ 7. Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?
a. stores DNA
b. controls most of the cell’s processes
c. contains the information needed to make proteins
d. all of the above
____ 8. Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?
a. helps a cell keep its shape
b. contains DNA
c. surrounds the cell
d. helps make proteins
____ 9. Which of the following is an organelle found in the cytoplasm?
a. nucleolus c. chromatin
b. ribosome d. cell wall
____ 10. Which of the following structures serves as the cell’s boundary from its environment?
a. mitochondrion c. chloroplast
b. cell membrane d. channel proteins
____ 11. The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called
a. osmotic pressure. c. facilitated diffusion.
b. osmosis. d. active transport.
____ 12. Which of the following is an example of an organ?
a. heart c. digestive system
b. epithelial tissue d. nerve cell
2. Figure 3-1
____ 13. The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3-1 are
a. consumers. c. producers.
b. decomposers. d. heterotrophs.
____ 14. What animals eat both producers and consumers?
a. herbivores c. chemotrophs
b. omnivores d. autotrophs
____ 13. Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the
remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a. used in reproduction. c. stored as fat.
b. stored as body tissue. d. eliminated as heat.
____ 14. What is the process by which bacteria convert nitrogen gas in the air to ammonia?
a. nitrogen fixation c. decomposition
b. excretion d. denitrification
____ 15. Carbon cycles through the biosphere in all of the following processes EXCEPT
a. photosynthesis. c. respiration.
b. transpiration. d. decomposition.
____ 16. The movements of energy and nutrients through living systems are different because
a. energy flows in one direction and nutrients recycle.
b. energy is limited in the biosphere and nutrients are always available.
c. nutrients flow in one direction and energy recycles.
d. energy forms chemical compounds and nutrients are lost as heat.
____ 17. The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between organisms and their
environment is called
a. economy. c. recycling.
b. modeling. d. ecology.
____ 18. What is the combined portions of Earth called in which all living things exist?
a. biome c. ecosystem
b. community d. biosphere
____ 19. All of the members of a particular species that live in the same area are called a(an)
a. biome. c. community.
b. population. d. ecosystem.
1.The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions fairly constant is called
a. homeostasis. c. metabolism
b. evolution. d. photosynthesis.
____ 2. What is the term for a group of organisms of one type living in the same place?
a. biosphere c. population
b. ecosystem d. environment
____ 3. In the metric system, the basic unit of length is the
3. a. centimeter. c. millimeter.
b. kilometer. d. meter.
____ 4. When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water would be
a. a product. c. both a product and a reactant.
b. a reactant. d. neither a product nor a reactant.
____ 5. The three particles that make up an atom are
a. protons, neutrons, and isotopes. c. positives, negatives, and electrons.
b. neutrons, isotopes, and electrons. d. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
____ 6. The nucleus is made of
a. protons and electrons. c. protons and neutrons.
b. electrons and neutrons. d. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
____ 7. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a. a different number of electrons. c. a different number of neutrons.
b. a different number of molecules. d. the same number of neutrons.
____ 8. Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in
definite proportions?
a. compound c. nucleus
b. isotope d. enzyme
____ 9. A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a. transferring electrons. c. transferring protons.
b. sharing electrons. d. sharing protons.
____ 10. A solution is a(an)
a. breaking of a chemical bond.
b. chemical reaction.
c. evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d. combination of two or more liquids.
____ 20. Green plants are
a. producers. c. herbivores.
b. consumers. d. omnivores.
____ 21. What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems?
a. carbohydrates c. water
b. sunlight d. carbon
____ 22. An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)
a. heterotroph. c. autotroph.
b. chemotroph. d. producer.
____ 23. Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants and animals are called
a. decomposers. c. autotrophs.
b. omnivores. d. producers.
____ 24. What is an organism that feeds only on plants called?
a. carnivore c. omnivore
b. herbivore d. detritivore
____ 25. All the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food
a. interaction. c. network.
b. chain. d. web.
____ 26. The repeated movement of water between Earth’s surface and the atmosphere is called
a. the water cycle. c. precipitation.
b. the condensation cycle. d. evaporation.
4. ____ 27. Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT
a. plant life. c. rainfall.
b. soil type. d. temperature.
____
____ 40. Which of the following is NOT an example of a heterotroph?
a. mushroom c. grass
b. leopard d. human
Figure 8–1
____ 41. Look at Figure 8-1. All of the following are parts of an ADP molecule EXCEPT
a. structure A. c. structure C.
b. structure B. d. structure D.
____ 42. In Figure 8-1, between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a. A and B c. C and D
b. B and C d. all of the above
____ 43. The Calvin cycle takes place in the
a. stroma. c. thylakoid membranes.
b. photosystems. d. chlorophyll molecules.
____ 44. Organisms that cannot make their own food and must obtain energy from the foods they eat are called
a. autotrophs. c. thylakoids.
b. heterotrophs. d. plants.
____ 45. Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into
a. oxygen. c. ATP and oxygen.
b. high-energy sugars. d. oxygen and high-energy sugars.
____ 46. The Calvin cycle is another name for
a. light-independent reactions.
b. light-dependent reactions.
c. photosynthesis.
d. all of the above
____ 47. What is a product of the Calvin cycle?
a. oxygen gas c. high-energy sugars
b. ATP d. carbon dioxide
____ 48. Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration?
a. fermentation c. glycolysis
b. electron transport d. Krebs cycle
____ 49. What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
5. a. oxygen and lactic acid c. glucose and oxygen
b. carbon dioxide and water d. water and glucose
____ 50. The starting molecule for glycolysis is
a. ADP. c. citric acid.
b. pyruvic acid. d. glucose.
____ 51. One cause of muscle soreness is
a. alcoholic fermentation. c. lactic acid fermentation.
b. glycolysis. d. the Krebs cycle.
____ 52. Breathing heavily after running a race is your body’s way of
a. making more citric acid.
b. repaying an oxygen debt.
c. restarting glycolysis.
d. recharging the electron transport chain.
____ 53. All of the following are sources of energy during exercise EXCEPT
a. stored ATP. c. lactic acid fermentation.
b. alcoholic fermentation. d. cellular respiration.
____ 54. Which process does NOT release energy from glucose?
a. glycolysis c. fermentation
b. photosynthesis d. cellular respiration
____ 55. Plants cannot release energy from glucose using
a. glycolysis. c. the Krebs cycle.
b. photosynthesis. d. cellular respiration.
____ 56. Which of the following is released during cellular respiration?
a. oxygen c. energy
b. air d. lactic acid
____ 57. Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down
a. food molecules. c. carbon dioxide.
b. ATP. d. water.
____ 58. Which of these is a product of cellular respiration?
a. oxygen c. glucose
b. water d. all of the above
____ 59. Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of
a. 2 ATP molecules. c. 18 ATP molecules.
b. 4 ATP molecules. d. 36 ATP molecules.
____ 60. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in
a. bread dough.
b. any environment containing oxygen.
c. muscle cells.
d. mitochondria.
____ 61. The two main types of fermentation are called
a. alcoholic and aerobic. c. alcoholic and lactic acid.
b. aerobic and anaerobic. d. lactic acid and anaerobic.
____ 62. Unlike photosynthesis, cellular respiration occurs in
a. animal cells only. c. all but plant cells.
b. plant cells only. d. all eukaryotic cells.
____ 63. The products of photosynthesis are the
a. products of cellular respiration. c. products of glycolysis.
b. reactants of cellular respiration. d. reactants of fermentation.
6. ____ 64. All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT
a. DNA overload. c. obtaining enough food.
b. excess oxygen. d. expelling wastes.
____ 65. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?
a. G1 phase c. S phase
b. G2 phase d. M phase
____ 66. Which event occurs during interphase?
a. The cell grows.
b. Centrioles appear.
c. Spindle fibers begin to form.
d. Centromeres divide.
____ 67. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
a. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
____ 68. The two main stages of cell division are called
a. mitosis and interphase. c. the M phase and the S phase.
b. synthesis and cytokinesis. d. mitosis and cytokinesis.
____ 69. Cyclins are a family of closely related proteins that
a. regulate the cell cycle. c. cause cancer.
b. produce p53. d. work to heal wounds.
____ 70. Which of the following is a phase in the cell cycle?
a. G1 phase c. M phase
b. G2 phase d. all of the above
Figure 10–2
____ 71. Cell division is represented in Figure 10-2 by the letter?
a. A. c. C.
b. B. d. D
____ 72. The cell cycle is the
a. series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
b. period of time between the birth and the death of a cell.
c. time from prophase until cytokinesis.
7. d. time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.
Figure 10–3
____ 73. The structures labeled B in Figure 10-3 are called
a. centromeres. c. sister chromatids.
b. centrioles. d. spindles.
____ 74. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?
a. cytokinesis c. anaphase
b. interphase d. S phase
____ 75. The first phase of mitosis is called
a. prophase. c. metaphase.
b. anaphase. d. interphase.
____ 76. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is regulated by
a. the centrioles. c. the spindle.
b. cyclins. d. all of the above
____ 77. Offspring that result from crosses between true-breeding parents with different traits
a. are true-breeding. c. make up the parental generation.
b. make up the F2 generation. d. are called hybrids.
____ 78. When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were tall
because
a. the allele for tall plants is recessive.
b. the allele for short plants is dominant.
c. the allele for tall plants is dominant.
d. they were true-breeding like their parents.
____ 79. The principles of probability can be used to
a. predict the traits of the offspring produced by genetic crosses.
b. determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.
c. predict the traits of the parents used in genetic crosses.
d. decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.
____ 80. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study
a. flowering. c. the inheritance of traits.
b. gamete formation. d. cross-pollination.
____ 81. What are Mendel’s factors called today?
a. alleles c. genes
b. traits d. characters
____ 82. The principle of dominance states that
a. all alleles are dominant.
b. all alleles are recessive.
c. some alleles are dominant and others are recessive.
d. alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.
8. ____ 83. When Mendel allowed the tall F1 pea plants (Tt) to self-pollinate,
a. the offspring were of medium height.
b. all of the offspring were tall.
c. all of the offspring were short.
d. some of the offspring were short.
____ 84. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a. hybrid. c. heterozygous.
b. homozygous. d. dominant.
____ 85. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each
other’s inheritance?
a. principle of dominance
b. principle of independent assortment
c. principle of probabilities
d. principle of segregation
____ 86. Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to
a. plants only. c. pea plants only.
b. animals only. d. all organisms.
____ 87. Gametes are produced by the process of
a. mitosis. c. crossing-over.
b. meiosis. d. replication.
____ 88. Traits that are produced by the interaction of several genes are said to be
a. polygenic. c. haploid.
b. codominant. d. diploid.
____ 89. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a. ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b. ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
____ 90. DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a. each with two new strands.
b. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c. each with one new strand and one original strand.
d. each with two original strands.
____ 91. Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a. adenine. c. phosphate groups.
b. uracil. d. thymine.
____ 92. Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a. transfer RNA only
b. messenger RNA only
c. ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
____ 93. How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a. 3 c. 9
b. 6 d. 12
____ 94. Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a. rRNA c. mRNA
b. tRNA d. RNA polymerase
____ 95. Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)
9. Figure 12–5
a. DNA molecule. c. RNA molecule.
b. amino acid. d. protein.
____ 96. DNA is copied during a process called
a. replication. c. transcription.
b. translation. d. transformation.
____ 97. RNA contains the sugar
a. ribose. c. glucose.
b. deoxyribose. d. lactose.
____ 98. What is produced during transcription?
a. RNA molecules c. RNA polymerase
b. DNA molecules d. proteins
____ 99. What happens during the process of translation?
a. Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b. The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c. Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
____ 100. Genes contain instructions for assembling
a. purines. c. proteins.
b. nucleosomes. d. pyrimidines.
10. Biology: Final Exam Mrs. Glemaud 2010-2011
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 19
2. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 21
3. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 24
4. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 49
5. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 35
6. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 35
7. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 36
8. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 37
9. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 38
10. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 42
11. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 67
12. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 69
13. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 72
14. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 78
15. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 76 | p. 77
16. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 74
17. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 63
18. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 63
19. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 64
20. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 67
21. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 67
22. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 68
23. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 69
24. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 69
25. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 70
26. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 75
27. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 90
28. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 176
29. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 173
30. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 173
31. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 179
32. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 172
33. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 173
34. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 176
35. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 181
36. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 174 | p. 175
37. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 182
38. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 185
39. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 193
40. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 201
41. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 202
11. 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 202
43. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 212
44. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 201
45. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 206
46. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 212
47. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 212
48. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 222
49. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 222
50. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 223
51. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 225
52. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 231
53. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 230
54. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 232
55. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 232
56. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 222
57. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 222
58. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 222
59. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 223
60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 225
61. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 224
62. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 232
63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 232
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 241 | p. 243
65. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 246
66. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 246
67. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 246
68. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 245
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 251
70. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 245
71. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 245
72. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 245
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 244
74. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 246
75. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 246
76. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 251
77. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 264
78. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 265
79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 267
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 263
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 265
82. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 265
83. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 265
84. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 268
85. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 271
86. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 274
87. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 276
12. 88. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 273
89. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 291
90. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 299
91. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 300
92. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 300
93. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 302
94. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 301
95. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 294
96. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 297
97. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 300
98. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 301
99. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 304
100. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 306