This document contains a sample final test with multiple choice questions covering key project management concepts and processes. The test covers topics like project planning, risk management, scheduling, cost estimating, quality management, and more. It contains 37 multiple choice questions to assess understanding of important PM principles and best practices.

1. Sample Final Test with-KEY
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Outputs of organizational planning are:
a. Project organization chart
b. Staffing management plan
c. Project template
d. All of the above
____ 2. A(n) ____ event is a specific, uncertain event that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.
a. chance c. unplanned
b. risk d. hidden
____ 3. The final output of the seller selection process is a ____.
a. bid c. charter
b. contract d. proposal
____ 4. Key outputs in project human resource management include ____ updates and team performance assessment.
a. project c. program
b. staffing d. portfolio
____ 5. Scope verification:
a. Is the formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders
b. Refers to the final project report describing the project at completion
c. Is not necessary if the project competes on time and on budget
d. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the project
____ 6. Slack or ____ is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the
project finish date.
a. leeway c. redundancy
b. float d. space
____ 7. The goal of ____ control is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule
changes, determine whether the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur.
a. time c. cost
b. schedule d. scope
____ 8. Which of the following portfolio management tasks should occur first?
a. prioritize projects on a list c. divide projects into investment categories
b. put all projects into one list d. put all projects in one list
____ 9. Two tools to assist in contract closure are ____ audits and a records management system.
a. dispatch c. procurement
b. supply d. acquisition
____ 10. Which of the following is not a true statement about control charts?
a. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process control
b. Control charts are used to determine acceptance limits when no limits are stipulated by the
product specification; otherwise, one should use the limits dictated by the specification
c. All data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained by assignable
causes
d. b and c
____ 11. Under which risk register heading would you list cost overruns on early activities, which might be
symptomatic of a poor cost estimate?
a. The impact to the project if the risk event occurs

2. b. Triggers for each risk event
c. The probability of the risk event occurring
d. The status of the risk event
____ 12. Cost of quality is:
a. The expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications
b. The direct responsibility of the project team members
c. The expense of conformance to requirements and specifications
d. a and c
____ 13. The term ―____‖ is used to describe each level of work in the WBS.
a. activity c. task
b. module d. node
____ 14. A stakeholder ____ provides information on key stakeholders to help manage relationships with them.
a. study c. analysis
b. charter d. guide
____ 15. A parametric cost estimate:
a. Is a bottom up estimating technique
b. Is a top down estimating technique
c. Is a statistical estimating technique
d. b and c
____ 16. Some projects have a senior manager called a(n) ____ who acts as a key proponent for a project.
a. champion c. sponsor
b. coach d. advocate
____ 17. ____ contracts reduce the risk of incurring higher costs than expected.
a. Variable-price c. Oral
b. Bid d. Fixed-price
____ 18. Cost ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual tasks over time to establish a baseline for
measuring performance.
a. estimating c. allowance
b. account d. budgeting
____ 19. An organization should consider only projects with a ____ NPV if financial value is a key criterion for project
selection.
a. positive c. zero
b. negative d. well-defined
____ 20. Because many projects fail due to unclear requirements and expectations, starting with a project ____ makes
sense.
a. charter c. vision statement
b. contract d. compact
____ 21. What is the PERT weighted average based on an optimistic estimate of 6 days, a most likely estimate of 8
days, and a pessimistic time of 12 days?
a. 6 c. 11
b. 8 d. 12
____ 22. Project ____ management includes acquiring or procuring goods and services for a project from outside the
organization.
a. logistics c. acquisition
b. procurement d. supply
____ 23. The main monitoring and controlling task performed as part of project cost management is ____ control.
a. time c. scope
b. schedule d. cost

3. ____ 24. Projects should first and foremost address business ____.
a. portfolios c. needs
b. ventures d. practices
____ 25. ____ are the results of applying capabilities.
a. Outcomes c. Effects
b. Events d. Impressions
____ 26. Poor scope definition may cause all but:
a. Higher project costs
b. Rework
c. Increased productivity
d. Low morale
____ 27. Contract updates are often made by having both parties—the buyer and the seller—sign a(n) ____ to the
contract.
a. addendum c. alteration
b. revision d. appendix
____ 28. The main outputs of the quality control process are:
a. Pareto diagram, acceptance decisions, and process adjustments
b. Bar charts, network diagrams, and rework
c. Acceptance decisions, rework, and process adjustments
d. Acceptance decisions, performance indicators, and rework
____ 29. Quality management deals with the following except:
a. Conformance to requirements and specifications
b. Satisfying the needs of the customer
c. Making the product more desirable and luxurious
d. a and c
____ 30. Which type of contract provides the highest rank to the owner (buyer)?
a. Cost plus percentage of cost
b. Cost plus fixed fee
c. Firm fixed price
d. Fixed price incentive
____ 31. Project management ____ facilitate communication among stakeholders and provide a baseline for progress
measurement and project control.
a. charters c. contracts
b. plans d. compacts
____ 32. A(n) ____ cause is the real or underlying reason a problem occurs.
a. secondary c. envisioned
b. indirect d. root
____ 33. ____ estimates involve estimating individual activities and summing them to get a project total.
a. Bottom-up c. Ad hoc
b. Provisional d. Temporary
____ 34. After a project is approved, senior managers should meet to determine the ____, time, and cost constraints for
the project.
a. range c. vision
b. scope d. boundary
____ 35. Which of the following is a category under portfolio best practices?
a. Project initiation process standardization
b. Project plan development process measurement
c. Portfolio risk management planning process improvement.
d. Project scope definition process improvement

4. ____ 36. Project management software uses the ____ format to represent the WBS.
a. tabular c. flexible
b. binary d. chart
____ 37. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by:
a. Using mandatory dependencies as constraints
b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints
c. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work
d. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) of scheduling
____ 38. In an AOA network diagram, a(n) ____ occurs when two or more nodes precede a single node.
a. merge c. union
b. join d. intersection
____ 39. The main output of scope planning is a ____ management plan, which is a document that includes
descriptions of how the team will prepare the scope statement, create the WBS, verify completion of the
project deliverables, and control requests for changes to the project scope.
a. scope c. program
b. project d. portfolio
____ 40. If you want to praise a project team member for doing a good job, a(n) ____ would most likely want everyone
to hear about her good work.
a. introvert c. recluse
b. extrovert d. loner
____ 41. According to Douglas McGregor, people who believe in Theory ____ assume that workers dislike and avoid
work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make
adequate efforts to meet objectives.
a. W c. Y
b. X d. Z
____ 42. In a(n) ____, each bar represents an attribute or a characteristic of a problem or situation, and the height of the
bar represents its frequency.
a. run chart c. histogram
b. control chart d. scatter diagram
____ 43. The main monitoring and controlling task performed as part of project time management is ____ control.
a. document c. schedule
b. employee d. scope
____ 44. Which of the following are considered to be milestones?
a. Project completion date
b. Contract date
c. Key event completion date
d. All of the above
____ 45. Project ____ management involves coordinating all the project management knowledge areas throughout a
project’s life span.
a. union c. unification
b. synthesis d. integration
____ 46. The main procurement management task performed to monitor and control projects is administering the ____.
a. vision plan c. charter
b. contract d. project platform
____ 47. A(n) ____ histogram is a column chart that shows the number of resources required for or assigned to a
project over time.
a. resource c. allocation
b. requirements d. assignment

5. ____ 48. Quality assurance:
a. Refers to the prevention of product defects
b. Is an auditing function that provides feedback to the project team and client about the
quality of the output being produced
c. Is the technical process that includes the construction of control charts, which specify the
acceptability limits for conforming output
d. a and b
____ 49. Blake and Mouton (1964) delineated ____ basic modes for handling conflicts.
a. four c. six
b. five d. seven
____ 50. Project time management involves the following main processes:
a. Activity definition, duration estimating, and schedule development
b. Activity definition, sequencing, duration estimating, schedule development, and control
c. Activity identification, sequencing, duration estimating, schedule development, and
control
d. Activity definition, sequencing, and schedule control
____ 51. ____ includes the actual amount of time spent working on an activity plus elapsed time.
a. Extension c. Period
b. Duration d. Length
____ 52. What method is used to communicate staffing requirements to the organization?
a. Gantt chart
b. Staffing plan
c. Responsibility matrix
d. Project objective statement
____ 53. The main purpose of project planning is to guide project ____.
a. initiation c. review
b. execution d. evaluation
____ 54. Two key outputs of performance reporting are performance reports and ____.
a. forecasts c. retrospectives
b. cost-benefit analyses d. performance reviews
____ 55. Weights may be established by assigning percentages or ____.
a. results c. scores
b. values d. points
____ 56. Many maturity models have five levels, with level one describing characteristics of the least organized or least
mature organizations, and level ____ describing the characteristics of the most organized and most mature
organizations.
a. two c. four
b. three d. five
____ 57. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ―work package‖?
a. It is a task at the lowest level of any branch of the WBS
b. It is a summary task at the top level of the WBS
c. It consists of manageable units of work that can be planned, budgeted, scheduled, and
controlled
d. It usually contains no more than 80 work hours (effort) to complete
____ 58. Contract ____ includes the contract itself along with requested unapproved contract changes and approved
change requests.
a. authorization c. documentation
b. review d. negotiation
____ 59. Network diagrams are good for depicting:

6. a. Slack time
b. Schedule start and finish dates
c. Plan versus actual schedule
d. Task dependencies
____ 60. Project teams sometimes use ____—unplanned responses to risk events—when they do not have contingency
plans in place.
a. work charts c. work processes
b. work flows d. workarounds
____ 61. Suppose that the purchase price for a piece of equipment is $10,000, and incurs operational costs of $300 per
day. If the same equipment can be leased for $500 per day and you need the equipment for ____ days, it
would be more economical to lease the equipment.
a. 30 c. 80
b. 60 d. 100
____ 62. The project manager should work with his or her team and ____ to determine the level of detail needed in the
WBS dictionary.
a. client c. auditor
b. customer d. sponsor
____ 63. Under which risk register heading would you list a defective product, poor survey results, reduced consulting
costs, or good publicity?
a. An identification number for each risk event
b. A rank for each risk event
c. The name of the risk event
d. A description of the risk event
____ 64. In the context of earned value management, ____ are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned
value from EV, and indexes are calculated by dividing EV by the actual cost or planned value.
a. fluctuations c. variances
b. valuations d. deviations
____ 65. A(n) ____ scoring model is a tool that provides a systematic process for selecting projects based on many
criteria.
a. weighted c. variable
b. biased d. opportunity
____ 66. Earned value management involves calculating ____ values for each activity or summary activity from a
project’s WBS.
a. three c. five
b. four d. six
____ 67. The main planning tasks performed as part of project scope management include scope planning, scope
definition, and ____.
a. scope evaluation c. creating the WBS
b. scope reduction d. scope expansion
____ 68. ―Earned value‖ can best be defined as:
a. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the data date
b. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project to date
c. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date
d. The actual cost of work performed (ACWP) minus the budgeted cost of work performed
(BCWP)
____ 69. If a project’s stakeholders are not satisfied with the quality of the project management or the resulting
products, the project team will need to adjust ____, time, and cost to satisfy stakeholder needs and
expectations.
a. range c. vision

7. b. breadth d. scope
____ 70. Which technique shows external dependencies best?
a. Activity on arrow diagramming
b. Activity on node diagramming
c. PERT diagramming
d. None of the above
____ 71. After deciding which projects to pursue, organizations need to decide if it is advantageous to manage several
projects together as part of a(n) ____.
a. aggregate c. cluster
b. program d. group
____ 72. Which of the following actions will most likely improve team productivity?
a. Ensure that social events are mandatory and include a business-related goal.
b. Expand the size of work teams to over seven members.
c. Reduce the amount of attention paid to virtual team members.
d. Acknowledge individual and group accomplishments.
____ 73. There are ____ important dimensions of risk events.
a. two c. four
b. three d. five
____ 74. Project Communication management is divided into:
a. Communication requirements, information distribution, performance reporting, and
administrative procedure
b. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, and
administrative closure
c. Communications planning, response planning, progress reporting, and information
distribution
d. Communications planning, information distribution, schedule reporting, and stakeholder
analysis
____ 75. By adding all of the ____ for all project activities, you can determine how the project as a whole is
performing and forecast both when it will be completed and how much it will cost at completion.
a. earned values c. planned values`
b. actual costs d. cost variances
____ 76. Tools included in overall change control are:
a. Configuration management
b. Performance measurement
c. Project management information system
d. All of the above
____ 77. The PMBOK® Guide lists at least ____ documents that project teams can produce as part of project planning.
a. 50 c. 100
b. 75 d. 125
____ 78. A project portfolio ____ map compares relative value to project risk.
a. venture c. risk
b. viability d. value
____ 79. A change control board is:
a. An informal or formal group of team members responsible for changes to a project
b. A formal group of people responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project
baselines
c. The project manager and several key team members working to ensure cost and schedule
control during the life of the project
d. An informal group that has oversight of project implementations

8. ____ 80. A three-point estimate is an estimate that includes a(n) ____, most likely, and pessimistic estimate, such as
three weeks, four weeks, and five weeks, respectively.
a. optimistic c. remote
b. unusual d. conditional
____ 81. In a software project, the planned value (PV) was 80,000, the earned value (EV) was 75,000 and the actual
cost (AC) was 71,000, what is the cost performance index?
a. –0.947
b. 0.947
c. 0.937
d. 1.056
____ 82. Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis, technical performance measurements, reserve
analysis, and status meetings or periodic risk reviews are all tools and techniques for performing ____
monitoring and control.
a. scope c. cost
b. risk d. quality
____ 83. Performance in meeting project scope goals is based on the scope ____.
a. definition c. baseline
b. revision d. statement
____ 84. The major processes of project risk management are:
a. Plan response, identify, document, and assess
b. Identify, mitigate, and plan response
c. Respond, evaluate, and document
d. Identify, quantify, develop response, and control
____ 85. Project integration management includes ____ processes.
a. two c. seven
b. four d. nine
____ 86. A risk management plan should cover:
a. Who is responsible for managing various areas of risk
b. How contingency plans will be implemented
c. How reserves will be allocated
d. All of the above
____ 87. To ____ a project, you must finalize all activities and transfer the completed or canceled work to the
appropriate people.
a. close c. audit
b. initiate d. assess
____ 88. After assigning weights for the criteria and scores for each project, you calculate a weighted score for each
project by multiplying the weight for each criterion by its score and ____ the resulting values.
a. multiplying c. dividing
b. adding d. subtracting
____ 89. According to David McClelland, people with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other
people and need to feel accepted by others.
a. isolation c. affiliation
b. assurance d. solitude
____ 90. ____ estimates, also called top-down estimates, use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis
for estimating the cost of the current project.
a. Homologous c. Sequential
b. Analogous d. Parallel
____ 91. A project manager must be sure to check with his organization to find out its guidelines for when discounting
starts, what discount rate to use, and what ____ the organization prefers.

9. a. charts c. format
b. technique d. results
____ 92. Scope statements should include, at a minimum, a description of the project, including its overall objectives
and justification; detailed descriptions of all project ____; characteristics and requirements of products and
services produced as part of the project; and project success criteria.
a. stakeholders c. meetings
b. volunteers d. deliverables
____ 93. A common way to summarize work performance information is by using a(n) ____ report.
a. performance c. projection
b. milestone d. evaluation
____ 94. ____ risk events might include the performance failure of a product produced as part of a project, delays in
completing work as scheduled, increases in estimated costs, supply shortages, litigation against the company,
and strikes.
a. Negative c. Calculated
b. Hidden d. Countervailing
____ 95. How many communication channels do 12 people require?
a. 12 c. 36
b. 24 d. 66
____ 96. ____ dependencies involve relationships between project and nonproject activities.
a. Internal c. Ancillary
b. External d. Miscellaneous
____ 97. Project integration management includes the following processes:
a. Scope planning
b. Scope definition
c. Scope verification
d. Integrated change control
____ 98. The cost of providing a work space for project workers, office furniture, electricity, and a cafeteria are ____
costs.
a. direct c. indirect
b. explicit d. incidental
____ 99. A process for handling changes should be defined during project ____ as part of the project management plan.
a. deployment c. execution
b. initiation d. planning
____ 100. The main executing tasks performed as part of project ____ include requesting seller responses and selecting
sellers.
a. procurement c. initiation
b. planning d. monitoring
____ 101. The PMBOK Guide® is a ____ that describes best practices for what should be done to manage a project.
a. rule book c. protocol
b. standard d. secondary authority
____ 102. A cost baseline is a(n) ____ budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
a. incidental c. time-phased
b. basic d. incremental
____ 103. Suppose that after one week of work, the earned value is $4000 and the planned value is $5000. What is the
value of the schedule performance index (SPI)?
a. 75% c. 120%
b. 80% d. 125%
____ 104. A request for quote (RFQ) differs from a request for proposal (RFP) in that:

10. a. RFQs generally ask for innovative processes
b. RFPs generally ask for guaranteed maximum prices
c. RFQs generally ask for a lump sum price
d. RFPs generally ask for technical skills and implementation approach
____ 105. Projects that address competitive ____ are much more likely to be successful because they will be important
to the organization’s competitive position.
a. value c. tactics
b. products d. strategy
____ 106. Which of the following is a common problem encountered during project execution?
a. Communications are good.
b. The project sponsor and/or other senior managers are very supportive of the project.
c. The project objectives/scope are clear.
d. People working on the project are incompetent or unmotivated.
____ 107. Which of the following methods best helps a project manager identify and learn about key project
stakeholders?
a. questioning acquaintances c. consulting biographies
b. reviewing organizational charts d. performing Internet searches
____ 108. After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is activity ____.
a. organization c. segmenting
b. sequencing d. ordering
____ 109. A quality ____ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that helps identify lessons
learned, which could improve performance on current or future projects.
a. survey c. audit
b. overview d. assessment
____ 110. The scope statement should not include:
a. Project justification
b. Project deliverables
c. Project objectives
d. Project budget
____ 111. Three primary methods for determining the projected financial value of projects include net present value
analysis, return on investment, and ____ analysis.
a. growth c. environmental impact
b. payback d. efficiency
____ 112. The main human resource management task performed as part of monitoring and controlling a project is
managing the project ____, which, of course, is no small task.
a. sponsors c. team
b. clients d. supplies
____ 113. Under which risk register heading would you list identification of a defective hard drive as the source of a
computer defect?
a. The category under which the risk event falls
b. The risk owner, or person who will own or take responsibility for the risk event
c. Potential responses to each risk event
d. The root cause of the risk event
____ 114. Duration estimates are provided as a ____ number, such as four weeks; as a range, such as three to five
weeks; or as a three-point estimate.
a. continuous c. fractional
b. random d. discrete
____ 115. Examples of common ____ used by organizations include failure rates of products produced, availability of
goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.

11. a. metrics c. requirements
b. analytics d. guidelines
____ 116. According to the research of Fast Company, which of the following is one of the three top reasons that people
voluntarily leave their job?
a. They are learning too many new things. c. They do not feel they make a difference.
b. They are growing into their position. d. They get proper recognition.
____ 117. A best practice is ―a(n) ____ way recognized by industry to achieve a stated goal or objective.‖
a. optimal c. targeted
b. suboptimal d. inefficient
____ 118. Which of the following topics could you expect to find in a procurement management plan?
a. methodology for risk management
b. guidelines on types of contracts to be used in different situations
c. budget and schedule estimates for risk-related activities
d. risk categories
____ 119. A(n) ____ log is a tool used to document and monitor the resolution of project issues.
a. event c. problem
b. issue d. running
____ 120. Based on the implementation of quality-control measurements, ____ adjustments often result in updates to the
quality baseline, organizational process assets, and the project management plan.
a. contract c. process
b. quality d. project
____ 121. The main disadvantage of ____ is that it can end up lengthening the project schedule, because starting some
tasks too soon often increases project risk and results in rework.
a. reviewing c. extending
b. crashing d. fast tracking
____ 122. A ____ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer.
a. firm -fixed price c. soft-fixed-price
b. fixed-price incentive d. contingent-fixed
____ 123. A(n) ____ is a document in which sellers describe what they will do to meet the requirements of a buyer.
a. proposal c. schedule
b. charter d. draft
____ 124. PMI defines a project ____ as an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project
objectives.
a. hazard c. risk
b. danger d. challenge
____ 125. In the context of monitoring and controlling tasks for project quality management, ____ decisions determine
if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected.
a. acceptance c. rework
b. rejection d. redesign
____ 126. In general, the majority of a project’s time and budget is spent on project ____.
a. planning c. review
b. execution d. duplication
____ 127. Activity ____ provide schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors,
logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions
related to the activity.
a. features c. properties
b. characteristics d. attributes
____ 128. In an AOA network diagram, ____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node.

12. a. drives c. bursts
b. flares d. runs
____ 129. What method(s) is(are) available to the project manager for short listing contractor proposals?
a. Comparing proposals against independent estimates
b. Weighing systems
c. Subjective screening systems
d. All of the above
____ 130. In a software project, the planned value (PV) was 80,000, the earned value (EV) was 75,000 and the actual
cost (AC) was 71,000, what is the cost variance (CV)?
a. –4,000
b. +4,000
c. +9,000
d. –9,000
____ 131. According to Frederick Herzberg, a(n) ____ factor is a basic necessity, such as air-conditioning during hot
weather.
a. motivational c. environmental
b. hygiene d. incidental
____ 132. ____ should be formed and continuously updated to help the organization as a whole make better strategic
decisions.
a. Monitors c. Projects
b. Portfolios d. Programs
____ 133. In the context of earned value management, the ____ cost is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in
accomplishing work on an activity during a given period.
a. real c. actual
b. estimated d. projected
____ 134. ____ motivation causes people to do something for a reward or to avoid a penalty.
a. Derived c. Extrinsic
b. Intrinsic d. Primary
____ 135. When using the ____ mode to resolve conflicts, the project manager de-emphasizes or avoids areas of
differences and emphasizes areas of agreement.
a. adversarial c. antagonistic
b. dialectic d. smoothing
____ 136. Which of the following is not a selection criteria for choosing a new project?
a. Risk
b. Rate of return
c. In-house personnel available
d. Competition’s out-sourcing method
____ 137. The cost performance index (CPI) is:
a. Earned value divided by actual cost
b. Actual cost divided by earned value
c. Earned value divided by planned value
d. Planned value to date times percent complete
____ 138. The project is considered on schedule if:
a. Schedule variance (SV) is negative
b. Cost variance (CV) is positive
c. Schedule performance index (SPI) is one or 100 percent
d. Earned value (EV) is positive
____ 139. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was
undertaken.

13. a. integration c. portfolio
b. quality d. performance
____ 140. ____ development uses the results of all the preceding project time management processes to determine the
start and end dates of project activities and of the entire project.
a. Task c. Work Package
b. Schedule d. Activity
____ 141. A ____ is a product or service produced or provided as part of a project.
a. process c. deliverable
b. result d. requirement
____ 142. The approved time estimate for a project can be divided by the ____ performance index to calculate when the
project will be completed.
a. cost c. price
b. schedule d. itinerary
____ 143. The ____ mode can be viewed as the win-lose approach to conflict resolution.
a. forcing c. negotiating
b. compromising d. bargaining
____ 144. Which of the following is a key output of project procurement management?
a. quality metrics c. contract statements of work
b. quality checklists d. project Web site
____ 145. ____ risk events include completing work sooner than planned or at an unexpectedly reduced cost,
collaborating with suppliers to produce better products, and obtaining good publicity from the project.
a. Collaborative c. Anticipated
b. Positive d. Probable
____ 146. You calculate cash ____ by subtracting costs from benefits, or expenses from income.
a. flow c. budgets
b. statements d. structure
____ 147. The main monitoring and controlling tasks performed as part of project ____ management are scope
verification and scope control.
a. integration c. cost
b. scope d. time
____ 148. It is helpful to create a ____, or initial, scope statement during project initiation so that the entire project team
can start important discussions and work related to the project scope.
a. tentative c. preliminary
b. provisional d. categorical
____ 149. ____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can
be construed to have the same effect as a written change order.
a. Virtual c. Apparent
b. Non-binding d. Constructive
____ 150. The project team develops a preliminary scope statement during project ____.
a. review c. orientation
b. initiation d. development
____

14. Sample Final Test Key
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: D
2. ANS: B
3. ANS: B
4. ANS: B
5. ANS: A
6. ANS: B
7. ANS: B
8. ANS: D
9. ANS: C
10. ANS: D
11. ANS: B
12. ANS: D
13. ANS: C
14. ANS: C
15. ANS: D
16. ANS: A
17. ANS: D
18. ANS: D
19. ANS: A
20. ANS: A
21. ANS: B
22. ANS: B
23. ANS: D
24. ANS: C
25. ANS: A
26. ANS: C
27. ANS: A
28. ANS: C
29. ANS: C
30. ANS: A
31. ANS: B
32. ANS: D
33. ANS: A
34. ANS: B
35. ANS: C
36. ANS: A
37. ANS: D
38. ANS: A
39. ANS: A
40. ANS: B

15. 41. ANS: B
42. ANS: C
43. ANS: C
44. ANS: D
45. ANS: D
46. ANS: B
47. ANS: A
48. ANS: B
49. ANS: B
50. ANS: B
51. ANS: B
52. ANS: B
53. ANS: B
54. ANS: A
55. ANS: D
56. ANS: D
57. ANS: B
58. ANS: C
59. ANS: D
60. ANS: D
61. ANS: A
62. ANS: D
63. ANS: C
64. ANS: C
65. ANS: A
66. ANS: A
67. ANS: C
68. ANS: D
69. ANS: D
70. ANS: D
71. ANS: B
72. ANS: D
73. ANS: A
74. ANS: B
75. ANS: A
76. ANS: D
77. ANS: A
78. ANS: C
79. ANS: B
80. ANS: A
81. ANS: D
82. ANS: B
83. ANS: C
84. ANS: D
85. ANS: C
86. ANS: D

16. 87. ANS: A
88. ANS: B
89. ANS: C
90. ANS: B
91. ANS: C
92. ANS: D
93. ANS: B
94. ANS: A
95. ANS: D
96. ANS: B
97. ANS: D
98. ANS: C
99. ANS: D
100. ANS: A
101. ANS: B
102. ANS: C
103. ANS: B
104. ANS: D
105. ANS: D
106. ANS: D
107. ANS: A
108. ANS: B
109. ANS: C
110. ANS: D
111. ANS: B
112. ANS: C
113. ANS: D
114. ANS: D
115. ANS: A
116. ANS: C
117. ANS: A
118. ANS: B
119. ANS: B
120. ANS: C
121. ANS: D
122. ANS: A
123. ANS: A
124. ANS: C
125. ANS: A
126. ANS: B
127. ANS: D
128. ANS: C
129. ANS: D
130. ANS: B
131. ANS: B
132. ANS: B

17. 133. ANS: C
134. ANS: C
135. ANS: D
136. ANS: D
137. ANS: A
138. ANS: C
139. ANS: B
140. ANS: B
141. ANS: C
142. ANS: B
143. ANS: A
144. ANS: C
145. ANS: B
146. ANS: A
147. ANS: B
148. ANS: C
149. ANS: D
150. ANS: B