Page 9Introduction to Project Management Principles and Practices MGMT X442.28 Name: Date: Directions: Give short answers in the space provided; circle the one best response for multiple choice or true/false. 1. A project is defined as: a. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan b. A group of ideas managed with a coordinated effort to obtain a desired outcome c. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service d. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end 2. The 46 project management processes described in the PMBOK® Guide (and organized into process groups and knowledge areas) should be executed: a. In the sequence identified by knowledge area b. Iteratively, as determined by the project team c. Only once, according to the project phase being executed d. In the order of planning, initiating, executing, controlling and closing 3. The three components of the triple constraint are: a. Scope, Performance, Cost b. Scope, Cost, Time c. Scope, Performance, Time d. Scope, Quality, Cost 4. The five project management process groups as described in the PMBOK® Guide are: a. Define, measure, analyze, improve, control b. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing c. Requirements, design, development, testing, implementation d. Kickoff, requirements, plan, schedule, control 5. You have finished planning and have begun executing the project when the customer asks if you would add some important features to the product of the project. What is the immediate impact to the triple constraints? a. Scope and quality would be affected but not cost b. Adding features will require additional cost but not time c. Cost must remain constant because resources are limited d. Time and cost may both be affected 6. Identify the ten knowledge areas described in the PMBOK( Guide and list the processes included in each. 7. The primary role of the Project Manager is to facilitate: a. Project initiation b. Distributing work packages c. Measuring performance d. Communication 8. To create a complete Project Management Plan, it is necessary on every project for the project team to review the impact of each of the knowledge areas described in the PMBOK® Guide. a. True b. False 9. List the two key benefits to the project manager of using a project charter. (Extra credit for third benefit.) 10. Which of the following statements regarding project planning is not true? a. It provides a basis for decision making b. It does not need to be included on the WBS c. It aids communications with end users d. It defines a baseline for project control 11. Describe how project scope differs from product scope. 12. The components of the project scope management plan include all of the following except: a. A process to prepare a detailed project scope statement that describes the project’s deliverables, work required to create them, and project acceptance criteria b. A process to defin.

1. Page 9Introduction to Project Management Principles and
Practices
MGMT X442.28
Name:
Date:
Directions: Give short answers in the space provided; circle the
one best response for multiple choice or true/false.
1. A project is defined as:
a. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
b. A group of ideas managed with a coordinated effort to obtain
a desired outcome
c. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product
or service
d. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end

2. 2. The 46 project management processes described in the
PMBOK® Guide (and organized into process groups and
knowledge areas) should be executed:
a. In the sequence identified by knowledge area
b. Iteratively, as determined by the project team
c. Only once, according to the project phase being executed
d. In the order of planning, initiating, executing, controlling and
closing
3. The three components of the triple constraint are:
a. Scope, Performance, Cost
b. Scope, Cost, Time
c. Scope, Performance, Time
d. Scope, Quality, Cost
4. The five project management process groups as described in
the PMBOK® Guide are:
a. Define, measure, analyze, improve, control
b. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling,
closing
c. Requirements, design, development, testing, implementation
d. Kickoff, requirements, plan, schedule, control
5. You have finished planning and have begun executing the
project when the customer asks if you would add some
important features to the product of the project. What is the
immediate impact to the triple constraints?
a. Scope and quality would be affected but not cost
b. Adding features will require additional cost but not time
c. Cost must remain constant because resources are limited
d. Time and cost may both be affected

3. 6. Identify the ten knowledge areas described in the PMBOK(
Guide and list the processes included in each.
7. The primary role of the Project Manager is to facilitate:
a. Project initiation
b. Distributing work packages
c. Measuring performance
d. Communication
8. To create a complete Project Management Plan, it is
necessary on every project for the project team to review the
impact of each of the knowledge areas described in the
PMBOK® Guide.
a. True
b. False
9. List the two key benefits to the project manager of using a
project charter. (Extra credit for third benefit.)
10. Which of the following statements regarding project
planning is not true?
a. It provides a basis for decision making
b. It does not need to be included on the WBS
c. It aids communications with end users
d. It defines a baseline for project control
11. Describe how project scope differs from product scope.
12. The components of the project scope management plan
include all of the following except:

4. a. A process to prepare a detailed project scope statement that
describes the project’s deliverables, work required to create
them, and project acceptance criteria
b. A process to define project elements to be procured outside
the organization
c. A process to create a WBS
d. A process to collect requirements
13. A key output of the Collect Requirements process is:
a. Project activities
b. A requirements traceability matrix
c. Brainstormed requirements
d. A work package
14. A work package is a(n):
a. Activity at the lowest level of the WBS
b. Required level for performance reporting
c. Deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS
d. Activity that can be assigned to one or more organizational
units
15. The WBS is used to derive all but one of the following:
a. The project schedule baseline
b. The project cost performance baseline
c. The project charter
d. Project activities
16. Control accounts differ from work packages because:
a. Control accounts are defined at the level used to track and
measure project performance; work packages are at the lowest
level of the WBS
b. Control accounts contain the sum of the budget estimates of

5. schedule activities; work packages are used to develop bottom
up budgets
c. Control accounts are typically used for project team
reporting; work packages are typically used for management
reporting
d. Control accounts are deliverables; work packages are a
grouping of related deliverables of a specific subsystem
17. A critical “resource” used in project management that can
neither be inventoried nor renewed is:
a. Money
b. People
c. Information
d. Time
18. The network diagram is the best tool for demonstrating:
a. The sequence of project activities
b. Resources required
c. Task variances
d. Performance over time
19. Which of the following is not true when estimating activity
durations?
a. The team members’ relevant experience is an important part
of the estimate
b. Estimates should generally originate with the organization
responsible the task

6. c. Durations may be influenced by available resources
d. Performing organizations do not include reserve as part of
project estimating
20. In a project schedule, the sequence of activities which
cannot be delayed without extending the project end date is
referred to as the:
a. Critical path
b. Schedule baseline
c. Slack line
d. Action path
21. A significant event in a project that may indicate completion
of a major phase is a:
a. Deliverable
b. Task
c. Work package
d. Milestone
22. Once the logic of a network is laid out, the project manager
will conduct a forward pass and a backward pass through the
network. This will provide information on the ______ (forward
pass) and identification of the________ (backward pass).
a. Float for each activity, critical path
b. Total duration, critical path
c. Total duration, float for each activity
d. (b) and (c)
23. For Questions 21 and 22, use the task list below to develop
a network diagram. Determine the overall project duration, the
float for each task, and the critical path.

7. ID
Dependency Predecessor
Duration (in days)
A
---
10
B
---
5
C
A, B
8
D
C
4
E
D
7
F
C
20
G
E, F
2
H
G
5
I
G
2
24. For the network diagram above, what is the project
duration?
a. 36 days

8. b. 37 days
c. 45 days
d. 49 days
25. For the network diagram above, what is the float on activity
D?
a. None
b. 4 days
c. 7 days
d. 9 days
26. Activities ‘F’ and ‘H’ are on the critical path.
a. True
b. False
27. List the two methods you could use to compress the project
schedule. For each; give an example and state whether or not
there is a cost increase to the project. (Extra credit for third
method.)
28. You notice your project schedule is starting to slip and you
would like to reassign some resources. What is one of the first
steps you should take?
a. Talk with the project team members
b. Review the activity duration estimates
c. Identify future activities that have float

9. d. Crash the schedule
29. You are preparing an estimate of an IT system expansion for
a new branch office location. It is a similar undertaking to the
new branch office opened six months ago. Which estimating
technique should you use to provide a quick estimate to
management?
a. Parametric
b. Analogous
c. Bottom up
d. Probabilistic
30. You are building an apartment complex with four, 10,000
square foot buildings based on the same drawings you used in
another city last year. What is the danger of estimating using a
parametric model of $50 per square foot?
a. It will take more time than a bottom-up estimate
b. The technical design is unfinished
c. Historical cost relationships may not be applicable
d. It is not very easy to scale
31. As an output of the quality management planning process,
the quality management plan will include development of all but
which of the following?
a. Work breakdown structure
b. Quality assurance activities
c. Organizational structure needed to implement quality
management
d. Quality standards that are relevant to the project deliverables

10. 32. Quality Assurance is:
a. A method to minimize the cost of quality and improve the
grade
b. A process to audit the quality requirements and the quality
control results to ensure quality during execution of the project
c. A way to use attribute and variable sampling
d. A process in determining which quality standards relevant to
the project
33. The project sponsor is responsible for stakeholder
expectations management.
e. True
f. False
34. You are beginning to staff your project. Which of the
following tools will not be used in developing roles and
responsibilities?
a. WBS
b. Pareto chart
c. Organization charts
d. Risk register
35. Compare and contrast authority and influence in a project.
36. List three common sources of conflict in a project
environment

11. 37. Your project objectives include providing housing for
families displaced by a natural disaster. Some team members
will be attracted to your project because of this objective. What
type of power does this reflect?
a. Legitimate power
b. Expert power
c. Reward power
d. Referent power
38. Lessons learned can be a benefit to all of the following
except:
a. Increased effectiveness of the project team
b. Documentation of process improvement
c. Project performance to date
d. Information to define future risk events
39. Project risk is defined as:
a. Uncertainty regarding negative outcomes only
b. Probability of a risk event happening
c. Uncertainty regarding both positive and negative outcomes
d. Impact of a risk event happening
40. Information about project risk events is maintained in:
a. The project performance database
b. The risk management plan
c. The project charter
d. The risk register

12. 41. Your company is bidding on a project that will involve
significant R&D for a completely new technology. What is the
most appropriate contract type for you to use?
a. Fixed price incentive
b. Standard purchase order
c. Fixed price with economic adjustments
d. Cost reimbursable
42. Which of the following regarding the make or buy analysis
is not true?
a. One of your company’s core competencies will be contracted
to a supplier
b. It is an analysis of the trade off between internal and external
suppliers
c. You can use the WBS to identify elements that should be
considered in the analysis
d. Some of the many factors to consider may be non-financial in
nature
43. In which contract type does the seller have the greatest
amount of risk?
a. Cost reimbursable
b. Time and materials
c. Fixed price with economic adjustments
d. Firm fixed price
44. To ensure control over the incidence and frequency of
change, the project manager establishes a:

13. a. Work breakdown structure
b. Change control process
c. Responsibility assignment matrix
d. Work procedure schedule
45. Your project team views itself as customer focused and
often agrees to incorporate many small scope changes
throughout the project execution. The changes are documented
in an issues log. Which of the following is not a potential
problem?
a. Many small changes may accumulate to create trouble for one
of the project objectives
b. Management of product specifications and configuration
becomes more difficult
c. Changes with impacts on scope, cost, or time are elevated to
the Change Control Board
d. Changes may not be integrated across the whole project
46. Describe three typical causes of scope creep on projects.
47. The purpose of reviewing lessons learned at the end of a
phase is all of the following except:
a. Increase effectiveness of the project team going forward.
b. Identify processes that worked well to produce the desired
result.
c. Verify that all deliverables have been accepted.
d. Review past issues that may provide information regarding
future risks.

14. 48. Describe two things you learned in the course that you could
use on your next project.
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