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Histopathology
Laz
Overview
Very Important
• Fundamentals of
Histopathology
• Liver
• Diseases of the
Gallbladder and
Pancreas
• Upper GI Disease
• Lower GI Disease
• Connective Tissue
Disease
Quite Important
• Breast Pathology
• Endocrine Disease
• Gynaecological
Pathology
• Renal Disease
• Skin Pathology
• Urological
Pathology
• Respiratory
Pathology
Worth Learning
• Bone Disease
• Vascular and
Cardiovascular
Pathology
• Cytopathology
• Neuro-oncology
• Cerebrovascular
Disease
• Neurodegeneration
Overview
Very Important
• Fundamentals of
Histopathology
• Liver
• Diseases of the
Gallbladder and
Pancreas
• Upper GI Disease
• Lower GI Disease
• Connective Tissue
Disease
Quite Important
• Breast Pathology
• Endocrine Disease
• Gynaecological
Pathology
• Renal Disease
• Skin Pathology
• Urological
Pathology
• Respiratory
Pathology
Worth Learning
• Bone Disease
• Vascular and
Cardiovascular
Pathology
• Cytopathology
• Neuro-oncology
• Cerebrovascular
Disease
• Neurodegeneration
Fundamentals of Histopathology
Basics
Cell Appearance Significance
Neutrophil
Multilobed nuclei with
granules
Acute inflammation
Lymphocyte
Little cytoplasm with big
nucleus
Chronic inflammation,
lymphoma
Eosinophil
Bi-lobed nucleus with red
granules
Allergic, parasites,
Hodgkin lymphoma
Mast Cell
Large and heavily
granular
Allergy (e.g. urticaria)
Macrophage
Large with lots of
cytoplasm
Late acute inflammation,
chronic inflammation (inc
granuloma)
Basics
Type of Cancer Histological Features Sites
Squamous Cell
Carcinoma
Keratin production
Intercellular bridges
Lung, skin, oesophagus
Adenocarcinoma
Mucin production
Glands
Lung, breast, colon,
pancreas, cervix,
stomach
Transitional Cell
Carcinoma
- Bladder, ureter, urethra
Sarcoma
Arises from
mesenchymal cells
Bone, cartilage, fat,
vascular
Basics
Stains
Chemical reaction between
stain and tissue
Antibodies bind to specific
antigen
Examples
H&E: everyday stain
Prussian Blue: iron
Congo Red: amyloid
Examples
Cytokeratin antibody: epithelial cells
CD45: lymphoid marker
Immunohistochemical
Histochemical
Upper & Lower GI Pathology
Question 1
A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of
worsening dysphagia. He is now unable to comfortably swallow
solid foods. He has never suffered from heartburn and takes no
regular medications. He has a 20 pack year smoking history
and drinks in moderation. A barium swallow identifies an apple
core lesion in the middle third of the oesophagus. This is
followed by an OGD and biopsy which reveals abnormal
keratinised cells with intercellular bridges that have invaded the
basement membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Barrett’s oesophagus
B Transitional cell carcinoma
C Oesophageal lymphoma
D Adenocarcinoma
E Squamous cell carcinoma
Question 2
A 16-year-old girl has suffered from diarrhoea for the past 6
months. She describes the diarrhoea as foul-smelling and has
lost 5 kg over this time period. An endoscopy and biopsy
reveals increased intraepithelial lymphocytes with a 2:1 villous
to crypt ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Lymphocytic duodenitis
B Coeliac disease
C Crohn’s disease
D Duodenal MALToma
E Linitis plastica
Oesophagus and Stomach Histology
Oesophagus
• Contains submucosal
glands
• Transitions from
squamous to columnar
epithelium at the z-line
Body and Fundus
• Columnar lining
• Produce acid and
intrinsic factor
Pylorus and Antrum
• Columnar lining
• Produce gastrin
Duodenum
• Columnar epithelium
with goblet cells
• 2:1 villous: crypt ratio
Oesophageal Cancer
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Associated with Barrett’s oesophagus
Associated with GORD
Lower 1/3 of oesophagus
Associated with smoking and alcohol
Lower 2/3 of oesophagus
Histology: keratinised cells with
intercellular bridges
Histology: glandular epithelium
Chronic Gastritis Histology
Abundance of lymphocytes
Gastritis, Ulcers and Cancer
Causes of Gastritis
• Autoimmune
• H. pylori
• Chemical (alcohol, NSAIDs)
Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
• Chronic gastritis induces lymphoid
tissue in the stomach
• Strongly associated with H. pylori
• Increased risk of lymphoma
Gastric Ulcers and Cancer
Gastric Ulcer
Definition: the depth of loss of tissue goes beyond the mucosa
(i.e. into the submucosa)
Chronic ulcers are characterised by scarring and fibrosis
IMPORTANT: ALL ulcers should be biopsied to exclude
malignancy
Gastric Adenocarcinoma
Intestinal: well-differentiated, mucin-containing glands
Diffuse: poorly differentiated, composed of single cells,
no gland formation
Linitis plastica
Signet ring cell carcinoma
Types
Niche Gastric Cancer (5%)
Squamous cell carcinoma
Lymphoma
Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
Neuroendocrine tumour
Malabsorption due to Partial Villous Atrophy
Villous atrophy
Crypt hyperplasia
Increased intraepithelial
lymphocytes
Malabsorption due to Partial Villous Atrophy
Lymphocytic Duodenitis: inflammatory changes without architectural changes
i.e. increased intraepithelial lymphocytes but no villous atrophy/crypt
hyperplasia
Coeliac Disease: inflammatory and architectural changes
Many will go on to develop coeliac disease
Investigations
Antibodies: tissue transglutaminase and endomysial
Duodenal Biopsy: showing villous atrophy whilst ingesting gluten
Tropical Sprue: form of malabsorption with similar histology to coeliac disease
Lower GI Pathology
Colitis
Congenital
• Hirschsprung Disease
absence of myenteric
plexus ganglion cells
Px: constipation, abdo distension, vomiting
Ix: full thickness rectal biopsy
Rx: resection of affected section (anorectal pull-
through)
Diverticular Disease
• Outpouchings
• Low-fibre diet
• Complications: pain, diverticulitis,
bleeding
Acute
Pseudomembranous
Chronic
Infection, drugs, chemo/radio
Crohn’s, UC and TB
Pseudomembranous Colitis
Px: explosive watery diarrhoea, usually after a course of antibiotics
Ix: C. difficile stool toxin assay
Rx: Metronidazole  Vancomycin  Fidaxomicin  Faecal Transplant
Ischaemic Colitis
Definition: inflammation and injury of the large
intestine caused by an inadequate blood supply
Watershed: area between the supply of
the SMA and IMA
Causes
Arterial (e.g. thrombus)
Venous (e.g. hypercoagulable)
Small vessel disease (e.g. DM)
Low flow (e.g. shock)
Obstruction (e.g. hernia)
Polyps and Adenomas
Polyp
Neoplastic
Non-Neoplastic
Tubular adenoma
Tubulovillous adenoma
Villous adenoma
Hyperplastic
Inflammatory (pseudopolyp)
Hamartomatous
FAP
Autosomal dominant
APC tumour suppressor
gene
Large numbers of polyps,
pretty much everyone gets
cancer
Gardner Syndrome
Same features as FAP
Extra-intestinal manifestations:
Osteomas
Desmoid tumours
Dental caries
Supernumerary teeth
HNPCC
Autosomal dominant
DNA mismatch repair
genes
High risk of cancer,
no polyps
Answer 1
A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of
worsening dysphagia. He is now unable to comfortably swallow
solid foods. He has never suffered from heartburn and takes no
regular medications. He has a 20 pack year smoking history
and drinks in moderation. A barium swallow identifies an apple
core lesion in the middle third of the oesophagus. This is
followed by an OGD and biopsy which reveals abnormal
keratinised cells with intercellular bridges that have invaded the
basement membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Barrett’s oesophagus
B Transitional cell carcinoma
C Oesophageal lymphoma
D Adenocarcinoma
E Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer 2
A 16-year-old girl has suffered from diarrhoea for the past 6
months. She describes the diarrhoea as foul-smelling and has
lost 5 kg over this time period. An endoscopy and biopsy
reveals increased intraepithelial lymphocytes with a 2:1 villous
to crypt ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Lymphocytic duodenitis
B Coeliac disease
C Crohn’s disease
D Duodenal MALToma
E Linitis plastica
Gynaecological Pathology
Question 5
A 36-year-old woman who was identified as having
an abnormal cervical smear, underwent a cervical
excision biopsy which reveals cervical glandular
intraepithelial neoplasia. Which type of cancer
would this have progressed to if left untreated?
A Adenocarcinoma
B Krukenberg tumour
C Squamous cell carcinoma
D Transitional cell carcinoma
E Serous carcinoma
Cervical Cancer
Risk Factors
• HPV 16 and 18
• Multiple sexual partners
• Smoking
• Immunosuppression
Tumorigenesis
HPV 16 and 18 encode two
proteins that inactivate tumour
suppressor genes
E6 – p53
E7 – retinoblastoma
Squamous
Columnar
Transformation
Cervical Cancer
Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)
Dysplastic changes within the epithelium with an intact basement membrane.
Squamous cell carcinoma
Progresses to
Histological classification
CGIN: cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia progresses to adenocarcinoma (20%)
Endometrial Cancer
Risk Factors
• OESTROGEN
• Nulliparity
• Obesity
• Diabetes mellitus
• COCP
• Tamoxifen
• HRT
• Early menarche
• Late menopause
Type 1 (85%) Type 2 (15%)
Endometrioid
Mucinous
Secretory
Types Serous
Clear cell
Types
Younger patients
Oestrogen-dependent
Associated with atypical
endometrial hyperplasia
Usually low grade
Features
Older patients
Less oestrogen-dependent
Arises from atrophic
endometrium
Higher grade, deeper
invasion
Features
Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (Molar Pregnancy)
Gestational Trophoblastic Disease: a spectrum of tumours and tumour-like conditions
characterised by proliferation of pregnancy-associated trophoblastic tissue.
Complete
Empty
23X 23X
OR
23X
46XX
Partial
23X 23X
OR
46XY
23X 69XXY
Ovarian Tumours
Ovary
Germ Cells
Stroma
Epithelium
Type 1 Type 2
Low-grade serous
Endometrioid
Mucinous
Clear cell
Mostly serous
Granulosa cell tumour
Fibroma
Thecoma
Sertoli-Leydig cell
Dysgerminoma
Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
Endodermal sinus tumour
Epithelial Ovarian Tumours
Type Features
Serous
MOST COMMON
Arise from bland epithelium
May be benign, borderline or malignant
Mucinous Mucin-secreting epithelium
Endometrioid
10-20% associated with endometriosis
Co-existence of endometrial carcinoma is
common
Better prognosis than mucinous/serous
Clear cell STRONG association with endometriosis
Sex Cord Stromal Tumours
Type Features
Fibroma
Benign
No endocrine production
Granulosa cell tumour
Variable behaviour
May produce oestrogen
Thecoma
Benign
May produce oestrogen
Rarely produces androgens
Sertoli-Leydig cell
tumour
Variable behaviour
May be androgenic
Germ Cell Tumours and Secondary Tumours
Secondary Tumours
Krukenberg Tumour
• Bilateral metastases
• Mucin-producing signet-
ring cells
• Usually from gastric or
breast cancer
Metastatic Colorectal Cancer
Question 5
A 36-year-old woman who was identified as having
an abnormal cervical smear, underwent a cervical
excision biopsy which reveals cervical glandular
intraepithelial neoplasia. Which type of cancer
would this have progressed to if left untreated?
A Adenocarcinoma
B Krukenberg tumour
C Squamous cell carcinoma
D Transitional cell carcinoma
E Serous carcinoma
Skin Pathology
Question 6
A 55-year-old woman has been referred to the dermatology
outpatient clinic by her GP after developing multiple blisters
on her face. On examination, the blisters are flaccid and
extend across her face and shoulders. A biopsy is taken,
and immunofluorescence analysis reveals of IgG deposition
across the middle of the epidermis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Pemphigus Vulgaris
B Pemphigus Foliaceus
C Bullous Pemphigoid
D Erythroderma
E Epidermolysis Bullosa
What they show you.
What it really is.
Epidermis
Dermis
Subcutaneous Fat
Bullous Pemphigoid
Elderly
Flexor Surfaces
Tense Bullae
IgG and C3 attack of basement membrane
Eosinophil recruitment
Damage anchoring proteins
Clinical
Pathology
Pemphigus Vulgaris
Flaccid Blisters
IgG damage within keratinocyte layer
(acantholysis)
Clinical
Pathology
Pemphigus Foliaceus
Very fragile blisters IgG damage to stratum corneum
Clinical Pathology
Skin Cancer
Nodular
Acral
Lentiginous
Superficial
Spreading
Lentigo
Maligna
BCC
SCC
Answer 6
A 55-year-old woman has been referred to the dermatology
outpatient clinic by her GP after developing multiple blisters
on her face. On examination, the blisters are flaccid and
extend across her face and shoulders. A biopsy is taken,
and immunofluorescence analysis reveals of IgG deposition
across the middle of the epidermis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Pemphigus Vulgaris
B Pemphigus Foliaceus
C Bullous Pemphigoid
D Erythroderma
E Epidermolysis Bullosa
Thank You!
Questions?
Email: lpr114@ic.ac.uk
Feedback:
Question 1
A 35-year-old female patient has developed right upper
quadrant pain with a fever over the past week. On
examination, she is visibly jaundiced with excoriation marks
across her arms and torso and hepatomegaly is noted. She
has a past medical history of ulcerative colitis and asthma. A
biopsy of her liver is taken.
What histological features would you expect to see?
A Regenerating hepatocytes limited by a fibrous cuff
B Bile duct obliterations with surrounding granulomas
C Bile duct fibrosis
D Ballooning with Mallory Denck bodies
E Accumulation of iron-rich macrophages
Answer 1
A 35-year-old female patient has developed right upper
quadrant pain with a fever over the past week. On
examination, she is visibly jaundiced with excoriation marks
across her arms and torso and hepatomegaly is noted. She
has a past medical history of ulcerative colitis and asthma. A
biopsy of her liver is taken.
What histological features would you expect to see?
A Regenerating hepatocytes limited by a fibrous cuff
B Bile duct obliterations with surrounding granulomas
C Bile duct fibrosis
D Ballooning with Mallory Denck bodies
E Accumulation of iron-rich macrophages
Question 2
A 53-year-old woman has recently undergone a
cholecystectomy after a long-history of biliary cholic and
chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following features would
you expect to see on histological analysis of the gallbladder?
A Predominance of lymphocytes and macrophages with
Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
B Predominance of neutrophils with fibrosis
C Glandular to squamous metaplasia
D Cyst formation
E Presence of signet ring cells
Answer 2
A 53-year-old woman has recently undergone a
cholecystectomy after a long-history of biliary cholic and
chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following features would
you expect to see on histological analysis of the gallbladder?
A Predominance of lymphocytes and macrophages with
Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
B Predominance of neutrophils with fibrosis
C Glandular to squamous metaplasia
D Cyst formation
E Presence of signet ring cells
Question 6
A 57-year-old woman was identified as having a
suspicious lesion on mammography. A biopsy is
taken which identifies a central zone of scarring
surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A Fibroadenoma
B Intraductal papilloma
C Phyllodes tumour
D Invasive ductal carcinoma
E Radial scar
Question 6
A 57-year-old woman was identified as having a
suspicious lesion on mammography. A biopsy is
taken which identifies a central zone of scarring
surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A Fibroadenoma
B Intraductal papilloma
C Phyllodes tumour
D Invasive ductal carcinoma
E Radial scar

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Histopathology-1.pptx

  • 2. Overview Very Important • Fundamentals of Histopathology • Liver • Diseases of the Gallbladder and Pancreas • Upper GI Disease • Lower GI Disease • Connective Tissue Disease Quite Important • Breast Pathology • Endocrine Disease • Gynaecological Pathology • Renal Disease • Skin Pathology • Urological Pathology • Respiratory Pathology Worth Learning • Bone Disease • Vascular and Cardiovascular Pathology • Cytopathology • Neuro-oncology • Cerebrovascular Disease • Neurodegeneration
  • 3. Overview Very Important • Fundamentals of Histopathology • Liver • Diseases of the Gallbladder and Pancreas • Upper GI Disease • Lower GI Disease • Connective Tissue Disease Quite Important • Breast Pathology • Endocrine Disease • Gynaecological Pathology • Renal Disease • Skin Pathology • Urological Pathology • Respiratory Pathology Worth Learning • Bone Disease • Vascular and Cardiovascular Pathology • Cytopathology • Neuro-oncology • Cerebrovascular Disease • Neurodegeneration
  • 5. Basics Cell Appearance Significance Neutrophil Multilobed nuclei with granules Acute inflammation Lymphocyte Little cytoplasm with big nucleus Chronic inflammation, lymphoma Eosinophil Bi-lobed nucleus with red granules Allergic, parasites, Hodgkin lymphoma Mast Cell Large and heavily granular Allergy (e.g. urticaria) Macrophage Large with lots of cytoplasm Late acute inflammation, chronic inflammation (inc granuloma)
  • 6. Basics Type of Cancer Histological Features Sites Squamous Cell Carcinoma Keratin production Intercellular bridges Lung, skin, oesophagus Adenocarcinoma Mucin production Glands Lung, breast, colon, pancreas, cervix, stomach Transitional Cell Carcinoma - Bladder, ureter, urethra Sarcoma Arises from mesenchymal cells Bone, cartilage, fat, vascular
  • 7. Basics Stains Chemical reaction between stain and tissue Antibodies bind to specific antigen Examples H&E: everyday stain Prussian Blue: iron Congo Red: amyloid Examples Cytokeratin antibody: epithelial cells CD45: lymphoid marker Immunohistochemical Histochemical
  • 8. Upper & Lower GI Pathology
  • 9. Question 1 A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of worsening dysphagia. He is now unable to comfortably swallow solid foods. He has never suffered from heartburn and takes no regular medications. He has a 20 pack year smoking history and drinks in moderation. A barium swallow identifies an apple core lesion in the middle third of the oesophagus. This is followed by an OGD and biopsy which reveals abnormal keratinised cells with intercellular bridges that have invaded the basement membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Barrett’s oesophagus B Transitional cell carcinoma C Oesophageal lymphoma D Adenocarcinoma E Squamous cell carcinoma
  • 10. Question 2 A 16-year-old girl has suffered from diarrhoea for the past 6 months. She describes the diarrhoea as foul-smelling and has lost 5 kg over this time period. An endoscopy and biopsy reveals increased intraepithelial lymphocytes with a 2:1 villous to crypt ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Lymphocytic duodenitis B Coeliac disease C Crohn’s disease D Duodenal MALToma E Linitis plastica
  • 11. Oesophagus and Stomach Histology Oesophagus • Contains submucosal glands • Transitions from squamous to columnar epithelium at the z-line Body and Fundus • Columnar lining • Produce acid and intrinsic factor Pylorus and Antrum • Columnar lining • Produce gastrin Duodenum • Columnar epithelium with goblet cells • 2:1 villous: crypt ratio
  • 12. Oesophageal Cancer Adenocarcinoma Squamous Cell Carcinoma Associated with Barrett’s oesophagus Associated with GORD Lower 1/3 of oesophagus Associated with smoking and alcohol Lower 2/3 of oesophagus Histology: keratinised cells with intercellular bridges Histology: glandular epithelium
  • 13. Chronic Gastritis Histology Abundance of lymphocytes Gastritis, Ulcers and Cancer Causes of Gastritis • Autoimmune • H. pylori • Chemical (alcohol, NSAIDs) Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue • Chronic gastritis induces lymphoid tissue in the stomach • Strongly associated with H. pylori • Increased risk of lymphoma
  • 14. Gastric Ulcers and Cancer Gastric Ulcer Definition: the depth of loss of tissue goes beyond the mucosa (i.e. into the submucosa) Chronic ulcers are characterised by scarring and fibrosis IMPORTANT: ALL ulcers should be biopsied to exclude malignancy Gastric Adenocarcinoma Intestinal: well-differentiated, mucin-containing glands Diffuse: poorly differentiated, composed of single cells, no gland formation Linitis plastica Signet ring cell carcinoma Types Niche Gastric Cancer (5%) Squamous cell carcinoma Lymphoma Gastrointestinal stromal tumour Neuroendocrine tumour
  • 15. Malabsorption due to Partial Villous Atrophy Villous atrophy Crypt hyperplasia Increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
  • 16. Malabsorption due to Partial Villous Atrophy Lymphocytic Duodenitis: inflammatory changes without architectural changes i.e. increased intraepithelial lymphocytes but no villous atrophy/crypt hyperplasia Coeliac Disease: inflammatory and architectural changes Many will go on to develop coeliac disease Investigations Antibodies: tissue transglutaminase and endomysial Duodenal Biopsy: showing villous atrophy whilst ingesting gluten Tropical Sprue: form of malabsorption with similar histology to coeliac disease
  • 17. Lower GI Pathology Colitis Congenital • Hirschsprung Disease absence of myenteric plexus ganglion cells Px: constipation, abdo distension, vomiting Ix: full thickness rectal biopsy Rx: resection of affected section (anorectal pull- through) Diverticular Disease • Outpouchings • Low-fibre diet • Complications: pain, diverticulitis, bleeding Acute Pseudomembranous Chronic Infection, drugs, chemo/radio Crohn’s, UC and TB
  • 18. Pseudomembranous Colitis Px: explosive watery diarrhoea, usually after a course of antibiotics Ix: C. difficile stool toxin assay Rx: Metronidazole  Vancomycin  Fidaxomicin  Faecal Transplant
  • 19. Ischaemic Colitis Definition: inflammation and injury of the large intestine caused by an inadequate blood supply Watershed: area between the supply of the SMA and IMA Causes Arterial (e.g. thrombus) Venous (e.g. hypercoagulable) Small vessel disease (e.g. DM) Low flow (e.g. shock) Obstruction (e.g. hernia)
  • 20. Polyps and Adenomas Polyp Neoplastic Non-Neoplastic Tubular adenoma Tubulovillous adenoma Villous adenoma Hyperplastic Inflammatory (pseudopolyp) Hamartomatous FAP Autosomal dominant APC tumour suppressor gene Large numbers of polyps, pretty much everyone gets cancer Gardner Syndrome Same features as FAP Extra-intestinal manifestations: Osteomas Desmoid tumours Dental caries Supernumerary teeth HNPCC Autosomal dominant DNA mismatch repair genes High risk of cancer, no polyps
  • 21. Answer 1 A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of worsening dysphagia. He is now unable to comfortably swallow solid foods. He has never suffered from heartburn and takes no regular medications. He has a 20 pack year smoking history and drinks in moderation. A barium swallow identifies an apple core lesion in the middle third of the oesophagus. This is followed by an OGD and biopsy which reveals abnormal keratinised cells with intercellular bridges that have invaded the basement membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Barrett’s oesophagus B Transitional cell carcinoma C Oesophageal lymphoma D Adenocarcinoma E Squamous cell carcinoma
  • 22. Answer 2 A 16-year-old girl has suffered from diarrhoea for the past 6 months. She describes the diarrhoea as foul-smelling and has lost 5 kg over this time period. An endoscopy and biopsy reveals increased intraepithelial lymphocytes with a 2:1 villous to crypt ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Lymphocytic duodenitis B Coeliac disease C Crohn’s disease D Duodenal MALToma E Linitis plastica
  • 24. Question 5 A 36-year-old woman who was identified as having an abnormal cervical smear, underwent a cervical excision biopsy which reveals cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia. Which type of cancer would this have progressed to if left untreated? A Adenocarcinoma B Krukenberg tumour C Squamous cell carcinoma D Transitional cell carcinoma E Serous carcinoma
  • 25. Cervical Cancer Risk Factors • HPV 16 and 18 • Multiple sexual partners • Smoking • Immunosuppression Tumorigenesis HPV 16 and 18 encode two proteins that inactivate tumour suppressor genes E6 – p53 E7 – retinoblastoma Squamous Columnar Transformation
  • 26. Cervical Cancer Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) Dysplastic changes within the epithelium with an intact basement membrane. Squamous cell carcinoma Progresses to Histological classification CGIN: cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia progresses to adenocarcinoma (20%)
  • 27. Endometrial Cancer Risk Factors • OESTROGEN • Nulliparity • Obesity • Diabetes mellitus • COCP • Tamoxifen • HRT • Early menarche • Late menopause Type 1 (85%) Type 2 (15%) Endometrioid Mucinous Secretory Types Serous Clear cell Types Younger patients Oestrogen-dependent Associated with atypical endometrial hyperplasia Usually low grade Features Older patients Less oestrogen-dependent Arises from atrophic endometrium Higher grade, deeper invasion Features
  • 28. Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (Molar Pregnancy) Gestational Trophoblastic Disease: a spectrum of tumours and tumour-like conditions characterised by proliferation of pregnancy-associated trophoblastic tissue. Complete Empty 23X 23X OR 23X 46XX Partial 23X 23X OR 46XY 23X 69XXY
  • 29. Ovarian Tumours Ovary Germ Cells Stroma Epithelium Type 1 Type 2 Low-grade serous Endometrioid Mucinous Clear cell Mostly serous Granulosa cell tumour Fibroma Thecoma Sertoli-Leydig cell Dysgerminoma Choriocarcinoma Teratoma Endodermal sinus tumour
  • 30. Epithelial Ovarian Tumours Type Features Serous MOST COMMON Arise from bland epithelium May be benign, borderline or malignant Mucinous Mucin-secreting epithelium Endometrioid 10-20% associated with endometriosis Co-existence of endometrial carcinoma is common Better prognosis than mucinous/serous Clear cell STRONG association with endometriosis
  • 31. Sex Cord Stromal Tumours Type Features Fibroma Benign No endocrine production Granulosa cell tumour Variable behaviour May produce oestrogen Thecoma Benign May produce oestrogen Rarely produces androgens Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour Variable behaviour May be androgenic
  • 32. Germ Cell Tumours and Secondary Tumours Secondary Tumours Krukenberg Tumour • Bilateral metastases • Mucin-producing signet- ring cells • Usually from gastric or breast cancer Metastatic Colorectal Cancer
  • 33. Question 5 A 36-year-old woman who was identified as having an abnormal cervical smear, underwent a cervical excision biopsy which reveals cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia. Which type of cancer would this have progressed to if left untreated? A Adenocarcinoma B Krukenberg tumour C Squamous cell carcinoma D Transitional cell carcinoma E Serous carcinoma
  • 35. Question 6 A 55-year-old woman has been referred to the dermatology outpatient clinic by her GP after developing multiple blisters on her face. On examination, the blisters are flaccid and extend across her face and shoulders. A biopsy is taken, and immunofluorescence analysis reveals of IgG deposition across the middle of the epidermis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Pemphigus Vulgaris B Pemphigus Foliaceus C Bullous Pemphigoid D Erythroderma E Epidermolysis Bullosa
  • 37. What it really is. Epidermis Dermis Subcutaneous Fat
  • 38. Bullous Pemphigoid Elderly Flexor Surfaces Tense Bullae IgG and C3 attack of basement membrane Eosinophil recruitment Damage anchoring proteins Clinical Pathology
  • 39. Pemphigus Vulgaris Flaccid Blisters IgG damage within keratinocyte layer (acantholysis) Clinical Pathology
  • 40. Pemphigus Foliaceus Very fragile blisters IgG damage to stratum corneum Clinical Pathology
  • 42. Answer 6 A 55-year-old woman has been referred to the dermatology outpatient clinic by her GP after developing multiple blisters on her face. On examination, the blisters are flaccid and extend across her face and shoulders. A biopsy is taken, and immunofluorescence analysis reveals of IgG deposition across the middle of the epidermis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Pemphigus Vulgaris B Pemphigus Foliaceus C Bullous Pemphigoid D Erythroderma E Epidermolysis Bullosa
  • 44. Question 1 A 35-year-old female patient has developed right upper quadrant pain with a fever over the past week. On examination, she is visibly jaundiced with excoriation marks across her arms and torso and hepatomegaly is noted. She has a past medical history of ulcerative colitis and asthma. A biopsy of her liver is taken. What histological features would you expect to see? A Regenerating hepatocytes limited by a fibrous cuff B Bile duct obliterations with surrounding granulomas C Bile duct fibrosis D Ballooning with Mallory Denck bodies E Accumulation of iron-rich macrophages
  • 45. Answer 1 A 35-year-old female patient has developed right upper quadrant pain with a fever over the past week. On examination, she is visibly jaundiced with excoriation marks across her arms and torso and hepatomegaly is noted. She has a past medical history of ulcerative colitis and asthma. A biopsy of her liver is taken. What histological features would you expect to see? A Regenerating hepatocytes limited by a fibrous cuff B Bile duct obliterations with surrounding granulomas C Bile duct fibrosis D Ballooning with Mallory Denck bodies E Accumulation of iron-rich macrophages
  • 46. Question 2 A 53-year-old woman has recently undergone a cholecystectomy after a long-history of biliary cholic and chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following features would you expect to see on histological analysis of the gallbladder? A Predominance of lymphocytes and macrophages with Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses B Predominance of neutrophils with fibrosis C Glandular to squamous metaplasia D Cyst formation E Presence of signet ring cells
  • 47. Answer 2 A 53-year-old woman has recently undergone a cholecystectomy after a long-history of biliary cholic and chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following features would you expect to see on histological analysis of the gallbladder? A Predominance of lymphocytes and macrophages with Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses B Predominance of neutrophils with fibrosis C Glandular to squamous metaplasia D Cyst formation E Presence of signet ring cells
  • 48. Question 6 A 57-year-old woman was identified as having a suspicious lesion on mammography. A biopsy is taken which identifies a central zone of scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Fibroadenoma B Intraductal papilloma C Phyllodes tumour D Invasive ductal carcinoma E Radial scar
  • 49. Question 6 A 57-year-old woman was identified as having a suspicious lesion on mammography. A biopsy is taken which identifies a central zone of scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Fibroadenoma B Intraductal papilloma C Phyllodes tumour D Invasive ductal carcinoma E Radial scar