This document contains 14 multiple choice questions related to palliative care case studies. The questions cover topics like electrolyte abnormalities, treatment of constipation, discussions of medically assisted nutrition and Catholic doctrine, management of nausea and vomiting, use of octreotide, treatment of pain, prognosis of advanced dementia, risks of feeding tube placement, and treatment of depression at end of life. Response options with the presumed best answer are provided for each question.
Pallimed/GeriPal Blogs to Boards - Hospice/Palliative Medicine Board Review 2...Christian Sinclair
Blogs to Boards
Created by Pallimed and GeriPal contributors in 2012 as a free study tool for the 2012 Hospice and Palliative Medicine board certification test. Creative Commons license - you must include attribution and links to Pallimed and GeriPal, and cannot reproduce for any commercial use.
We have posted the questions without the answers separately if you are looking for those.
In this webinar, Dr. Popp will discuss everything you need to know about palliative care! This is an important webinar for colorectal cancer patients and their loved ones.
Ethics at the End of Life and Introduction to Hospice and Palliative Care for Medical Students. Exploration of feeding tubes, code status, when to stop chemo. Discusses cases and the ethical principles and values that are the basis for disagreement in care and what to do when there is a conflict in ethical principles themselves. Also provides an introduction to decisions of last resort including physician aid in dying, palliative sedation and voluntary refusal of nutrition and hydration.
Pallimed/GeriPal Blogs to Boards - Hospice/Palliative Medicine Board Review 2...Christian Sinclair
Blogs to Boards
Created by Pallimed and GeriPal contributors in 2012 as a free study tool for the 2012 Hospice and Palliative Medicine board certification test. Creative Commons license - you must include attribution and links to Pallimed and GeriPal, and cannot reproduce for any commercial use.
We have posted the questions without the answers separately if you are looking for those.
In this webinar, Dr. Popp will discuss everything you need to know about palliative care! This is an important webinar for colorectal cancer patients and their loved ones.
Ethics at the End of Life and Introduction to Hospice and Palliative Care for Medical Students. Exploration of feeding tubes, code status, when to stop chemo. Discusses cases and the ethical principles and values that are the basis for disagreement in care and what to do when there is a conflict in ethical principles themselves. Also provides an introduction to decisions of last resort including physician aid in dying, palliative sedation and voluntary refusal of nutrition and hydration.
The goal of this webinar was to help hospice and healthcare professionals understand the ethics and application of artificial nutrition and hydration (ANH) for patients near the end of life.
Presented at Kansas City University of Osteopathic Medicine 10/27/15 in Lecture Series in Bioethics. See live presentation here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Dr3g3PeVKeo
gastric resection, reconstruction and post gastrectomy syndromessanyal1981
discussion regarding history of gastrectomy, types of gastrectomy, billroth I, billroth II and roux en y gastrojejunostomy........discussion of post gastrectomy syndromes
VARIOUS Temporary CLOSURE TECHNIQUES IN OPEN ABDOMEN.pptxSyedSherazAli10
VARIOUS Temporary CLOSURE TECHNIQUES IN OPEN ABDOMEN & MULTIPLE RESEARCHES ON BOGOTA BAG
OPEN ABDOMEN;THE WORLD SOCIETY OF ABDOMINAL COMPARTMENT SYNDROME (WSACS) DEFINITION
"Open Abdomen (OA) is defined as one that requires Temporary Abdominal Closure (TAC) due to skin and fascia being not closed after laparotomy“
The first person to describe the use of open abdomen technique was Andrew J. McCosh in 1897 for generalized peritonitis however this approach was unusual at that time and was not received well at that time
Management of Open abdomen;
1) General management
General management
IV Fluids
Heat loss control
Analgesia & sedation
Nutrition
2) Wound management
Temporary abdominal closure (T.A.C.)
Dressing
Definitive closure
Obstructed defecation syndrome (ODS) is a functional disorder leading to the sensing of outlet obstruction in the absence of any pathological findings. In this article, we also provide the etiology of acquired constipation. Constipation is a very common presentation by the patients of a practicing surgeon. Any constipation that defies the existing understanding merits consideration for its evaluation for ODS. Constipation can be of primary or secondary variety. After clinically excluding the usual causes of constipation and ruling out colonic motility disorders, specialised investigations like dynamic defecography help in further management of ODS.
Colorectal anastomosis leaks are most difficult to manage for a surgeon carrying morbidity and mortality. Discussion on risk factors as well as management of anastomotic leak.
https://drdhavalmangukiya.com/
http://www.youtube.com/c/DrDhavalMangukiyaGastrosurgeonSurat
https://gastrosurgerysurat.blogspot.com/
Updated slidedeck for 2014 University of Kansas Medical Center Hospice and Palliative Care Fellowship Lecture series.
Presentation skills two hour workshop. Please also see updated handout and presentation preparation worksheet
The goal of this webinar was to help hospice and healthcare professionals understand the ethics and application of artificial nutrition and hydration (ANH) for patients near the end of life.
Presented at Kansas City University of Osteopathic Medicine 10/27/15 in Lecture Series in Bioethics. See live presentation here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Dr3g3PeVKeo
gastric resection, reconstruction and post gastrectomy syndromessanyal1981
discussion regarding history of gastrectomy, types of gastrectomy, billroth I, billroth II and roux en y gastrojejunostomy........discussion of post gastrectomy syndromes
VARIOUS Temporary CLOSURE TECHNIQUES IN OPEN ABDOMEN.pptxSyedSherazAli10
VARIOUS Temporary CLOSURE TECHNIQUES IN OPEN ABDOMEN & MULTIPLE RESEARCHES ON BOGOTA BAG
OPEN ABDOMEN;THE WORLD SOCIETY OF ABDOMINAL COMPARTMENT SYNDROME (WSACS) DEFINITION
"Open Abdomen (OA) is defined as one that requires Temporary Abdominal Closure (TAC) due to skin and fascia being not closed after laparotomy“
The first person to describe the use of open abdomen technique was Andrew J. McCosh in 1897 for generalized peritonitis however this approach was unusual at that time and was not received well at that time
Management of Open abdomen;
1) General management
General management
IV Fluids
Heat loss control
Analgesia & sedation
Nutrition
2) Wound management
Temporary abdominal closure (T.A.C.)
Dressing
Definitive closure
Obstructed defecation syndrome (ODS) is a functional disorder leading to the sensing of outlet obstruction in the absence of any pathological findings. In this article, we also provide the etiology of acquired constipation. Constipation is a very common presentation by the patients of a practicing surgeon. Any constipation that defies the existing understanding merits consideration for its evaluation for ODS. Constipation can be of primary or secondary variety. After clinically excluding the usual causes of constipation and ruling out colonic motility disorders, specialised investigations like dynamic defecography help in further management of ODS.
Colorectal anastomosis leaks are most difficult to manage for a surgeon carrying morbidity and mortality. Discussion on risk factors as well as management of anastomotic leak.
https://drdhavalmangukiya.com/
http://www.youtube.com/c/DrDhavalMangukiyaGastrosurgeonSurat
https://gastrosurgerysurat.blogspot.com/
Updated slidedeck for 2014 University of Kansas Medical Center Hospice and Palliative Care Fellowship Lecture series.
Presentation skills two hour workshop. Please also see updated handout and presentation preparation worksheet
Hospice and Palliative Care Online: From clutter to curationChristian Sinclair
My slidedeck from the 13th Australian Palliative Care Conference. Features the tools I use and my workflow for finding good information online to curate, create and share.
Interior architectural images by imagemaker Tommy Ewasko. Please visit www.ewasko.com to see client list, recommendations, galleries, and to make contact.
Tweets from 3/1 to 3/8/2010 from the AAHPM & HPNA Annual Assembly in Boston, MA. This is the official hashtag but was used less than #AAHPM. Those tweets are also on my Slideshare account.
Yan 2Yichao YanKara WilliamsESL 10696 April 2019 Rough.docxadampcarr67227
Yan 2
Yichao Yan
Kara Williams
ESL 1069
6 April 2019
Rough Draft Analysis of Argument Essay
In the article “What Else Can I Do to Get the School Supplies My Student Need?” the author discusses that, textbook still plays an important role in today’s class. There are so many debates about weather using online text book or physical textbook in school nowadays. The author as a college teacher claims that physical textbook helps her students have better understanding of knowledges. Also, she thinks physical textbook reduced the financial burden on students. However, online source or online textbook should have more benefit then the physical textbook.
First of all, the author claims that physical textbook could helps student read and understand better of new knowledges. The resources that teachers need for their teaching are so differently. It depended on student’s grade and their teaching style. Even people nowadays assume textbooks are outdated, inefficient and biased, author still think using textbook is very important for students to know about some academic basic information, which could help students master the course better.
APPENDIX I r Reports
DIAGNOSES include:
1. Chronic pelvic pain secondary to pelvic metastatic clear cell carcinoma
of unknown PrimarY location.
2. Yeta cava sy.rdromi post placement of Hickman catheter'
3. Anemia due to chronic disease.
4. Hypertension.
HOSPITAL COURSE: The patient is a 78-year-old female whom we have
been following in our clinic ior hypertension and also chronic pudendal
nerve pain. Shie had been recently biagnosed with pelvic me,tastatic clear
cell caicinoma, which her primaiy location is unknown at this time' She
will be discussing this further after the pathology reports are, read. During
her hospital stalia Hickman catheter was placed in order to have IV access
for pain medication or future cancer therapy. She was also admitted for
chronic pain. she did develop swelling of her arms and neck. She was
broughtio interventional radiology and she did have venography and the
Hickman catheter was removed. Her swelling to her arms and neck have
decreased greatly. She denies any shortness of breath. No choking sensation
as previouily noted. Her pain has been managed well with fentanyl patch at
175 mcg. She has also been on IV heparin therapy for anticoagulation
followitig the vena cava syndrome. Today, the patient hasbeen having
complaiits of nausea. She did get some dexamethasone IV for her nausea,
which did improve later this morning. Her blood plessure has been under
good control. Her labs today include a wBC of 5.18, hemoglobin 7.8,
f,ematocrit 23.7, protime 74.4,INR 1'5, PTT 39'6, BUN 6, sodium 139'
potassium 4.2, CO2 27.2.
DISCHARGE, PLANS:
1. IV heparin is discontinued. She will be switched ovel to Lovenox
r mg/kg subcutaneously daily. The patient will have Home Health to
help her set uP these iniections.
2. She will continue with the fentanyl patch 175 mcg for the pain..
1.The APRN is giving a pathophysiology lecture to APRN students on .docxtrippettjettie
1. The APRN is giving a pathophysiology lecture to APRN students on renal blood flow, glomerular filtration rate, autoregulation, and related hormone factors regulating renal blood flow
Question:
What would be the most important concept of hormonal regulation that the APRN should address?
2. The APRN is giving a pathophysiology lecture to APRN students on renal blood flow, related hormones, and glomerular filtration rate.
Question:
What would be the most important concept of glomerular filtration rate that the APRN should address?
A 46-year-old Caucasian female presents to the PCP’s office with a chief complaint of severe, intermittent right upper quadrant pain for the last 3 days. The pain is described as sharp and has occurred after eating french fries and cheeseburgers and radiates to her right shoulder. She has had a few episodes of vomiting “green stuff”. States had fever and chills last night which precipitated her trip to the office. She also had some dark orange urine, but she thought she was dehydrated.
Physical exam: slightly obese female with icteric sclera as well as generalized jaundice. Temp 101˚F, pulse 108, respirations 18. Abdominal exam revealed rounded abdomen with slightly hypoactive bowel sounds. + rebound tenderness on palpation of right upper quadrant. No tenderness or rebound in epigastrium or other quadrants. Labs demonstrate elevated WBC, elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) levels. Serum bilirubin (indirect) 2.5 mg/dl. Abdominal ultrasound demonstrated enlarged gall bladder, dilated common bile duct and multiple stones in the bile duct. The APRN diagnoses the patient with acute cholecystitis and refers her to the ED for further treatment.
Question 1 of 2:
Describe how gallstones are formed and why they caused the symptoms that the patient presented with.
Question 2 of 2:
Explain how the patient became jaundiced
3. Ruth is a 49-year-old office worker who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain x 2 days. The pain has significantly increased over the past 6 hours and is now accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The pain is described as “sharp and boring” in mid epigastrum and radiates to the back. Ruth admits to a long history of alcohol use, and often drinks up to a fifth of vodka every day.
Physical Exam: Temp 102.2F, BP 90/60, respirations 22. Pulse Oximetry 92% on room air.
General: thin, pale white female in obvious pain and leaning forward. Moving around on exam table and unable to sit quietly.
CV-tachycardic. RRR without gallops, rubs, clicks or murmurs
Resp-decreased breath sounds in both bases with poor inspiratory effort
Abd- epigastric guarding with tenderness. No rebound tenderness. Negative Cullen’s and + Turner’s signs observed. Hypoactive bowel sounds x 2 upper quadrants, and no bowel sounds heard in both lower quadrants.
The APRN makes a tentative diagnosis of acute pancreatitis based on history and ph.
1. CC I have been having terrible chest and arm pain for the p.docxberthacarradice
1. CC: “I have been having terrible chest and arm pain for the past 2 hours and I think I am having a heart attack.”HPI: Mr. Hammond is a 57-year-old African American male who presents to the Emergency Department with a chief complaint of chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He states that he started having pain several hours ago and says the pain “it feels like an elephant is sitting on my chest”. He rates the pain as 8/10. Nothing has made the pain better or worse. He denies any previous episode of chest pain. Denies nausea, dyspnea, or lightheadedness. He was given 0.4 mg nitroglycerine tablet sublingual x 1 which decreased, but not stopped the pain.Lipid panel reveals Total Cholesterol 324 mg/dl, high density lipoprotein (HDL) 31 mg/dl, Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL) 122 mg/dl, Triglycerides 402 mg/dl, Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL) 54 mg/dlHis diagnosis is an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction.1 of 2 Questions:Why is HDL considered the “good” cholesterol?
QUESTION 2
. CC: “I have been having terrible chest and arm pain for the past 2 hours and I think I am having a heart attack.”HPI: Mr. Hammond is a 57-year-old African American male who presents to the Emergency Department with a chief complaint of chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He states that he started having pain several hours ago and says the pain “it feels like an elephant is sitting on my chest”. He rates the pain as 8/10. Nothing has made the pain better or worse. He denies any previous episode of chest pain. Denies nausea, dyspnea, or lightheadedness. He was given 0.4 mg nitroglycerine tablet sublingual x 1 which decreased, but not stopped the pain.Lipid panel reveals Total Cholesterol 324 mg/dl, high density lipoprotein (HDL) 31 mg/dl, Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL) 122 mg/dl, Triglycerides 402 mg/dl, Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL) 54 mg/dlHis diagnosis is an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction.2 of 2 Questions:Explain the role inflammation has in the development of atherosclerosis.
QUESTION 3
. A 45-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with complaints of sharp retrosternal chest pain that worsens with deep breathing or lying down. She reports a 3-day history of low-grade fever, listlessness and says she feels like she had the flu. Physical exam reveals tachycardia and a pleural friction rub. She was diagnosed with acute pericarditis.
Question:
What does the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) recognize as the result of the pleural friction rub?
QUESTION 4.
A 15-year-old adolescent male comes to the clinic with his parents with a chief complaint of fever, nausea, vomiting, poorly localized abdominal pain, arthralgias, and “swollen lymph nodes”. States he has felt “lousy” for a couple weeks. The fevers have been as high as 102 F. His parents thought he had the flu and took him to an Urgent Care Center. He was given Tamiflu® and sent home. He says the Tamiflu.
For this homework assignment, you will continue coding for Reports 2.docxalisoncarleen
For this homework assignment, you will continue coding for Reports 2-5, which are located on pages 182-184 of the Step-by-Step Workbook. Using Encoder Pro, create codes for information from Reports 2-5. Additionally, explain how you arrived at that code.
Report 2: Discharge Summary
Diagnoses include:
1. Chronic pelvic pain secondary to pelvic metastatic clear cell carcinoma of unknown primary location.
2. Vena Cava syndrome post placement of Hickman catheter.
3. Anemia due to chronic disease.
4. Hypertension.
HOSPITAL COURSE:
The patient is a 78 year old female whom we have been following in our clinic for hypertension and also chronic pudendal nerve pain. She had been recently diagnosed with pelvic metastatic clear cell carcinoma, which her primary location is unknown at this time. She will be discussing this further after the pathology reports are read. During her hospital stay a Hickman catheter was placed in order to have IV access for pain medication or future cancer therapy. She was also admitted for chronic pain. She did develop swelling of her arms and neck. She was brought to interventional radiology and she did have venography and the Hickman catheter was removed. Her swelling to her arms and neck have decreased greatly. She denies any shortness of breath. No choking sensation as previously noted. Her pain has been managed well with fentanyl patch at 175mcg. She has also been on IV heparin therapy for anticoagulation following the vena cava syndrome. Today, the patient has been having complaints of nausea. She did get some dexamethasone IV for her nausea, which did improve later this morning. Her blood pressure has been under good control. Her labs today include a WBC of 5.18, hemoglobin 7.8, hematocrit 23.7, protime 14.4, INR 1.5, PTT 39.6, BUN 6, sodium 139, potassium 4.2, and CO2 27.2.
DISCHARGE MEDICATIONS:
1. Will continue home medications.
2. Phenergan 12.5 1-2 tabs p.o. p.r.n. every 6 hours for nausea.
3. Lovenox 1 mg/kg subcutaneously every 24 hours.
4. Fentanyl patch 175 mcg to be changed every 3 days.
5. Epogen 40,000 units subcutaneously weekly at the Cancer Center.
REPORT 3. CLINIC CHART NOTE
HISTORY: This 16 year old female is seen today after falling off a curb and twisting her right ankle. She is normally a patient of Dr. Anderson, who is out of town this week. She states that she has pain surrounding the entire foot and ankle. Seems unable or unwilling to bear weight.(Problem focused history)
PHYSICAL EXAM: Ankle and foot examined. Foot is warm to the touch. Some swelling and bruising noted around the lateral aspect of the ankle. X-ray is negative for fracture. (problem focused examination)
IMPRESSION: Sprained right ankle. (MDM complexity straightforward)
PLAN: Elevation; ice to affected area. Weight bearing only as tolerated. Return for follow-up p.r.n.
REPORT 4: ADMIT INPATIENT
This is a 19 year old with a living-related donor kidney transplant as of last month and admitted to hospital fo ...
1. Suzanne Jones, 76-year-old patient with COPD is admitted to the.docxjeremylockett77
1. Suzanne Jones, 76-year-old patient with COPD is admitted to the ICU. Mrs. Jones is placed on mechanical ventilation to assist with her breathing. After 2 days on the ventilator, Mrs. Jones is extubated and then transferred to a medical-surgical unit. The medication regimen is adjusted during the hospitalization. Mrs. Jones is discharged home after 6 days. She and her family are pleased with the care she receive in the hospital. (Learning Objectives 3 and 6)
a. Describe the quality performance tools that may be used to demonstrate that the care and treatment rendered are both cost-efficient and of high quality.
b. Describe the quality performance tools that may be used to demonstrate that the nursing care utilized is evidence-based care and high quality, resulting in patient satisfaction and good patient outcomes.
2. The registered nurse working in the cardiac care clinic is tasked with implementing quality improvement measures. To educate the clinic staff, the nurse plans an in-service program to introduce concepts of quality improvement and evidence-based practice. Additionally, the role of the case manager will be included in the presentation. The nurse plans on using care of the patient with Congestive Heart Failure as a template, and prepares sample clinical pathways, care maps, and multidisciplinary action plans. (Learning Objective 3)
a. Describe how clinical pathways are used to coordinate care of caseloads of patients.
b. What is the role of the case manager in evaluating a patient’s progress?
c. What are examples of evidence-based practice tools used for planning patient care?
. Mr. Jones, who is 74 years of age, is being discharged home after having a right knee replacement. The discharge orders from the orthopedic surgeon include: continuous passive motion (CPM) at the current setting of 0-degrees extension worn when walking with crutches (nonweight-bearing postdischarge day 1, and may begin weight-bearing postdischarge day 2); and home nurse visits, as needed. Physical therapy should begin the day after discharge at an orthopedic center. The orders will be faxed to the center. The following medications with prescriptions attached include: Lovenox (enoxaparin) 70 mg subcutaneously once daily for 7 days, Vicodin (hydrocodone bitartrate) 10 mg every 4 hours PRN, and Colace (docusate sodium) 100 mg every day. The patient is to follow up with the orthopedic surgeon in 3 weeks. His daughter plans to stay with him for several weeks to assist him with meals and household chores, and take him to physical therapy and the orthopedic surgeon for follow-up. Mr. Jones has three other children who live in other states. He is a widower and attends a local church. (Learning Objective 4)
a. What preparations should the nurse make in advance before attaining necessary community resources and referrals before the patient is discharged?
1. What necessary community resources and referrals will the patient need?
2. Mrs. Johnson, a 67-year-old ...
1 A 45-year-old male comes to the clinic with a chief complaint.docxaulasnilda
1 A 45-year-old male comes to the clinic with a chief complaint
QUESTION 1 A 45-year-old male comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of epigastric abdominal pain that has persisted for 2 weeks. He describes the pain as burning, non-radiating and is worse after meals. Also, he denies nausea, vomiting, weight loss or obvious bleeding. Finally, he admits to bloating and frequent belching.
PMH-+ for osteoarthritis, seasonal allergies with frequent sinusitis infections.
Meds-Zyrtec 10 mg po daily and takes it year-round, ibuprofen 400-600 mg po prn pain
Family Hx-non contributary
Social history-recently divorced and expressed concern at how expensive it is to support 2 homes. Works as a manager at a local tire and auto company. He has 25 pack/year history of smoking, drinks 2-3 beers/day, and drinks 5-6 cups of coffee per day. He denies illicit drug use, vaping or unprotected sexual encounters.
Breath test in the office revealed + urease.
The healthcare provider suspects the client has peptic ulcer disease.
1 of 2 Questions:
What factors may have contributed to the development of PUD?
2 of 2 Questions:How do these factors contribute to the formation of peptic ulcers?
QUESTION 3 A 36-year-old morbidly obese female comes to the office with a chief complaint of “burning in my chest and a funny taste in my mouth”. The symptoms have been present for years but patient states she had been treating the symptoms with antacid tablets which helped until the last 4 or 5 weeks. She never saw a healthcare provider for that. She says the symptoms get worse at night when she is lying down and has had to sleep with 2 pillows. Says she has started coughing at night which has been interfering with her sleep. Also, denies palpitations, shortness of breath, or nausea.
PMH-HTN, venous stasis ulcers, irritable bowel syndrome, osteoarthritis of knees, morbid obesity (BMI 48 kg/m2)
Family history-non contributary
Medications-amlodipine 10 mg po qd, dicyclomine 20 mg po, ibuprofen 600 mg po q 6 hr prn
Social hx- 15 pack/year history of smoking, occasional alcohol use, denies vaping
The health care provider diagnoses the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
Question:
The client asks the APRN what causes GERD. What is the APRN’s best response?
QUESTION 4 A 34-year-old construction worker presents to his Primary Care Provider (PCP) with a chief complaint of passing foul smelling dark, tarry stools. He stated the first episode occurred last week, but it was only a small amount after he had eaten a dinner of beets and beef. The episode today was accompanied by nausea, sweating, and weakness. He states he has had some mid epigastric pain for several weeks and has been taking OTC antacids. The most likely diagnosis is upper GI bleed which won’t be confirmed until further endoscopic procedures are performed.
Question:
What factors can contribute to an upper GI bleed?
Question 5 A 64-year-old steel worker presents to h.
This presentation looks at the role of Pregabalin in refractory trigeminal neuralgia and chemotherapy induced peripheral neuropathy through illustrative case studies.
Communication of prognosis has multiple barriers to achieve shared understanding between patient and clinician. In this slide deck designed for Hospice and Palliative Medicine fellows, I look at some key studies and applied techniques to best address talking about 'How long do I have, doc?'
This slide deck does not cover how to formulate a prognosis.
Plenary presentation at the American Academy of Hospice and Palliative Medicine 2012.
This presentation is licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution-ShareAlike 3.0 Unported License. Please give attribution to Christian T Sinclair, MD, FAAHPM for use of this slide deck in parts or in whole.
Please see the Creative Commons License on the second slide. This slide deck is for medical education uses only and does not constitute medical advice. Please consult with your own health care provider.
MANAGEMENT OF ATRIOVENTRICULAR CONDUCTION BLOCK.pdfJim Jacob Roy
Cardiac conduction defects can occur due to various causes.
Atrioventricular conduction blocks ( AV blocks ) are classified into 3 types.
This document describes the acute management of AV block.
Flu Vaccine Alert in Bangalore Karnatakaaddon Scans
As flu season approaches, health officials in Bangalore, Karnataka, are urging residents to get their flu vaccinations. The seasonal flu, while common, can lead to severe health complications, particularly for vulnerable populations such as young children, the elderly, and those with underlying health conditions.
Dr. Vidisha Kumari, a leading epidemiologist in Bangalore, emphasizes the importance of getting vaccinated. "The flu vaccine is our best defense against the influenza virus. It not only protects individuals but also helps prevent the spread of the virus in our communities," he says.
This year, the flu season is expected to coincide with a potential increase in other respiratory illnesses. The Karnataka Health Department has launched an awareness campaign highlighting the significance of flu vaccinations. They have set up multiple vaccination centers across Bangalore, making it convenient for residents to receive their shots.
To encourage widespread vaccination, the government is also collaborating with local schools, workplaces, and community centers to facilitate vaccination drives. Special attention is being given to ensuring that the vaccine is accessible to all, including marginalized communities who may have limited access to healthcare.
Residents are reminded that the flu vaccine is safe and effective. Common side effects are mild and may include soreness at the injection site, mild fever, or muscle aches. These side effects are generally short-lived and far less severe than the flu itself.
Healthcare providers are also stressing the importance of continuing COVID-19 precautions. Wearing masks, practicing good hand hygiene, and maintaining social distancing are still crucial, especially in crowded places.
Protect yourself and your loved ones by getting vaccinated. Together, we can help keep Bangalore healthy and safe this flu season. For more information on vaccination centers and schedules, residents can visit the Karnataka Health Department’s official website or follow their social media pages.
Stay informed, stay safe, and get your flu shot today!
New Directions in Targeted Therapeutic Approaches for Older Adults With Mantl...i3 Health
i3 Health is pleased to make the speaker slides from this activity available for use as a non-accredited self-study or teaching resource.
This slide deck presented by Dr. Kami Maddocks, Professor-Clinical in the Division of Hematology and
Associate Division Director for Ambulatory Operations
The Ohio State University Comprehensive Cancer Center, will provide insight into new directions in targeted therapeutic approaches for older adults with mantle cell lymphoma.
STATEMENT OF NEED
Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is a rare, aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) accounting for 5% to 7% of all lymphomas. Its prognosis ranges from indolent disease that does not require treatment for years to very aggressive disease, which is associated with poor survival (Silkenstedt et al, 2021). Typically, MCL is diagnosed at advanced stage and in older patients who cannot tolerate intensive therapy (NCCN, 2022). Although recent advances have slightly increased remission rates, recurrence and relapse remain very common, leading to a median overall survival between 3 and 6 years (LLS, 2021). Though there are several effective options, progress is still needed towards establishing an accepted frontline approach for MCL (Castellino et al, 2022). Treatment selection and management of MCL are complicated by the heterogeneity of prognosis, advanced age and comorbidities of patients, and lack of an established standard approach for treatment, making it vital that clinicians be familiar with the latest research and advances in this area. In this activity chaired by Michael Wang, MD, Professor in the Department of Lymphoma & Myeloma at MD Anderson Cancer Center, expert faculty will discuss prognostic factors informing treatment, the promising results of recent trials in new therapeutic approaches, and the implications of treatment resistance in therapeutic selection for MCL.
Target Audience
Hematology/oncology fellows, attending faculty, and other health care professionals involved in the treatment of patients with mantle cell lymphoma (MCL).
Learning Objectives
1.) Identify clinical and biological prognostic factors that can guide treatment decision making for older adults with MCL
2.) Evaluate emerging data on targeted therapeutic approaches for treatment-naive and relapsed/refractory MCL and their applicability to older adults
3.) Assess mechanisms of resistance to targeted therapies for MCL and their implications for treatment selection
- Video recording of this lecture in English language: https://youtu.be/lK81BzxMqdo
- Video recording of this lecture in Arabic language: https://youtu.be/Ve4P0COk9OI
- Link to download the book free: https://nephrotube.blogspot.com/p/nephrotube-nephrology-books.html
- Link to NephroTube website: www.NephroTube.com
- Link to NephroTube social media accounts: https://nephrotube.blogspot.com/p/join-nephrotube-on-social-media.html
Ethanol (CH3CH2OH), or beverage alcohol, is a two-carbon alcohol
that is rapidly distributed in the body and brain. Ethanol alters many
neurochemical systems and has rewarding and addictive properties. It
is the oldest recreational drug and likely contributes to more morbidity,
mortality, and public health costs than all illicit drugs combined. The
5th edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
(DSM-5) integrates alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence into a single
disorder called alcohol use disorder (AUD), with mild, moderate,
and severe subclassifications (American Psychiatric Association, 2013).
In the DSM-5, all types of substance abuse and dependence have been
combined into a single substance use disorder (SUD) on a continuum
from mild to severe. A diagnosis of AUD requires that at least two of
the 11 DSM-5 behaviors be present within a 12-month period (mild
AUD: 2–3 criteria; moderate AUD: 4–5 criteria; severe AUD: 6–11 criteria).
The four main behavioral effects of AUD are impaired control over
drinking, negative social consequences, risky use, and altered physiological
effects (tolerance, withdrawal). This chapter presents an overview
of the prevalence and harmful consequences of AUD in the U.S.,
the systemic nature of the disease, neurocircuitry and stages of AUD,
comorbidities, fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, genetic risk factors, and
pharmacotherapies for AUD.
micro teaching on communication m.sc nursing.pdfAnurag Sharma
Microteaching is a unique model of practice teaching. It is a viable instrument for the. desired change in the teaching behavior or the behavior potential which, in specified types of real. classroom situations, tends to facilitate the achievement of specified types of objectives.
Title: Sense of Taste
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the structure and function of taste buds.
Describe the relationship between the taste threshold and taste index of common substances.
Explain the chemical basis and signal transduction of taste perception for each type of primary taste sensation.
Recognize different abnormalities of taste perception and their causes.
Key Topics:
Significance of Taste Sensation:
Differentiation between pleasant and harmful food
Influence on behavior
Selection of food based on metabolic needs
Receptors of Taste:
Taste buds on the tongue
Influence of sense of smell, texture of food, and pain stimulation (e.g., by pepper)
Primary and Secondary Taste Sensations:
Primary taste sensations: Sweet, Sour, Salty, Bitter, Umami
Chemical basis and signal transduction mechanisms for each taste
Taste Threshold and Index:
Taste threshold values for Sweet (sucrose), Salty (NaCl), Sour (HCl), and Bitter (Quinine)
Taste index relationship: Inversely proportional to taste threshold
Taste Blindness:
Inability to taste certain substances, particularly thiourea compounds
Example: Phenylthiocarbamide
Structure and Function of Taste Buds:
Composition: Epithelial cells, Sustentacular/Supporting cells, Taste cells, Basal cells
Features: Taste pores, Taste hairs/microvilli, and Taste nerve fibers
Location of Taste Buds:
Found in papillae of the tongue (Fungiform, Circumvallate, Foliate)
Also present on the palate, tonsillar pillars, epiglottis, and proximal esophagus
Mechanism of Taste Stimulation:
Interaction of taste substances with receptors on microvilli
Signal transduction pathways for Umami, Sweet, Bitter, Sour, and Salty tastes
Taste Sensitivity and Adaptation:
Decrease in sensitivity with age
Rapid adaptation of taste sensation
Role of Saliva in Taste:
Dissolution of tastants to reach receptors
Washing away the stimulus
Taste Preferences and Aversions:
Mechanisms behind taste preference and aversion
Influence of receptors and neural pathways
Impact of Sensory Nerve Damage:
Degeneration of taste buds if the sensory nerve fiber is cut
Abnormalities of Taste Detection:
Conditions: Ageusia, Hypogeusia, Dysgeusia (parageusia)
Causes: Nerve damage, neurological disorders, infections, poor oral hygiene, adverse drug effects, deficiencies, aging, tobacco use, altered neurotransmitter levels
Neurotransmitters and Taste Threshold:
Effects of serotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE) on taste sensitivity
Supertasters:
25% of the population with heightened sensitivity to taste, especially bitterness
Increased number of fungiform papillae
The prostate is an exocrine gland of the male mammalian reproductive system
It is a walnut-sized gland that forms part of the male reproductive system and is located in front of the rectum and just below the urinary bladder
Function is to store and secrete a clear, slightly alkaline fluid that constitutes 10-30% of the volume of the seminal fluid that along with the spermatozoa, constitutes semen
A healthy human prostate measures (4cm-vertical, by 3cm-horizontal, 2cm ant-post ).
It surrounds the urethra just below the urinary bladder. It has anterior, median, posterior and two lateral lobes
It’s work is regulated by androgens which are responsible for male sex characteristics
Generalised disease of the prostate due to hormonal derangement which leads to non malignant enlargement of the gland (increase in the number of epithelial cells and stromal tissue)to cause compression of the urethra leading to symptoms (LUTS
Phone Us ❤85270-49040❤ #ℂall #gIRLS In Surat By Surat @ℂall @Girls Hotel With...
Pallimed/GeriPal Blogs to Boards - Hospice/Palliative Medicine Board Review 2012 (Questions only)
1. BLOGS TO BOARDS – QUESTIONS ONLY HANDOUT
By
Suzana Makowski
Drew Rosielle
Paul Tatum
Eric Widera
Christian Sinclair
Question HPM1
Ms. V is a 68 year old with metastatic non-small cell lung
cancer, congestive heart failure, and mild renal insufficiency
residing in an inpatient palliative care unit for management of
bone pain. Her medications include morphine IR, fentanyl
transdermal patch, furosemide, senna, and Fleet enemas prn.
Ms. V did not have a bowel movement in 4 days. Basic labs
were ordered for the next morning as well as a two of her prn
enemas, although they failed to result in a bowel movement.
The labs the next day reveal a serum sodium of 124,
potassium of 3.0, creatinine of 1.4 (baseline of 1), low calcium
of 6.5, and a very elevated phosphate of 17 mg/dl.
What is the most likely cause of her electrolyte abnormalities?
a) A medication adverse event
b) Tumor lysis syndrome
c) Bowel Impaction
d) Osteolytic metastases
Question HPM2
Walking into a room at your hospice inpatient unit you see a
tired appearing female patient lying in bed with soft moaning,
holding her abdomen. She has end stage CHF and no history
of cancer. Review of your notes show decreasing oral intake
and increased time in bed. Her nurse reports she disimpacted
her yesterday after suppositories and enemas were ineffective
for worsening constipation.
Medications include:
Fentanyl 50mcg patch (on for several weeks)
Senna 2 tabs BID
Colace daily
Recent enema, and docusate suppository
Exam:
Cachectic female
Scaphoid abdomen, hypoactive bowel sounds, formed (but not
hard) stool on rectal exam.
What is the next best plan for action?
a) Write an order for methylnaltrexone 8mg subcutaneously
x1 now.
b) Switch her from a fentanyl patch to a morphine pump so
you can better manage her abdominal pain.
c) Write an order for octreotide 200mcg subcutaneously
twice daily for three days
d) Place an NG and give her polyethylene glycol daily until
she has a bowel movement or regains ability to swallow
and you can remove the NG tube
Question HPM3
During a hospice interdisciplinary team meeting, you hear
about a 53-year-old resident of the local nursing home. He
has ALS with bulbar attributes, and is starting to have
difficulty swallowing and speaking. He is bedbound most of
the day. He has had two episodes of aspiration pneumonia in
the last month.
His nurse describes the scene with the patient’s wife, Sally, at
his side, squeezing his hand with one hand and her rosary with
the other. He explained to the nurse, “I told Sally that I don’t
want a feeding tube. I’ve had a good life and have few
regrets. I saw my father-in-law die on a feeding tube and I
would not want to go through that, or put my wife through
that. But I am Catholic. Our friend at the parish said that I
have to ‘do everything’ to prolong my life – especially when it
comes to nutrition - or I will go hell. I don’t want to go to
hell.” His wife nods emphatically.
During the interdisciplinary care meeting, the chaplain (in his
role as teacher) asks you to explain to the team what your
understanding of the Catholic doctrine is as pertaining to this
patient.
What do you say?
a) My understanding is that medically assisted nutrition is
obligatory for patients who are unable to take food by
mouth.
b) My understanding is that medically assisted nutrition is
morally optional for most patients at the end of life.
Question HPM4
Mrs. Dole, a 68 year old with 20-year history of Diabetes
Mellitus Type II is referred to Palliative Care from Oncology
with Stage III Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Nausea is the key
concern. For last 3 years she has had early satiety but
maintained weight. Since initiating chemotherapy, she has
had nausea for the first 2 days of her chemotherapy cycle,
which then resolves.
1 week after the last round of chemotherapy she required
intravenous fluids for dehydration. Now 2 weeks later is
having intermittent severe nausea. It can be provoked by
sudden changes in body position. She fell once because she
lost her balance. Usually she does not vomit, but occasionally
does. She describes a feeling of the room spinning associated
with the nausea.
Of the following options, which drug is most targeted to this
patient’s specific nausea type:
a) Ondansetron
b) Prochlorperazine
c) Metoclopramide
d) Diazepam
e) Meclizine
2. Question HPM5
In hospice IDT, you discuss the case of a 68 year old female
with ovarian cancer with abdominal pain and sudden onset
nausea and vomiting. She has had no recent bowel
movements and is on minimal opioids. You suggest a trial of
octreotide for a likely malignant bowel obstruction and the
nurses say “Doctor! You say we can use octreotide for
everything! Is there anything octreotide can’t be used for in
hospice?”
Which one of the following is not a potential scenario to use
octreotide? Choose the best answer.
a) A 37 year old male with end stage alcoholic hepatitis who
starts vomiting blood
b) A 90 year old with a severe diarrhea with a history of a
rectal tumor and radiation burns to the perineal area
c) A 42 year old female with a tense distended abdomen
leaking a small amount from a previous paracentesis site.
d) A 27 year old male with a malignant wound with copious
drainage
e) A 31 year old female with abdominal pain from opioid-induced
constipation
Question HPM6
You visit a patient at home receiving hospice care for cancer.
Her pain has been well controlled with long acting morphine
60mg BID and occasional PRN doses of short acting liquid
morphine (10mg) over the past few weeks: she had been
tolerating this well. She has had recent progressive functional
decline and is currently at a PPS of 20%. In the last 24 hours
the patient has vomited and has been more lethargic and
having difficulty swallowing pills. She appears uncomfortable.
In your examination you see a very thin patient who appears to
be dying with a prognosis in the few days to a week range.
The patient’s son is a respiratory therapist at a hospital and is
insisting you change the patient’s opioid to a fentanyl patch
because “it is less sedating than morphine.”
The best response is:
Answers
a) Because the patient is cachectic, you tell the family that
fentanyl transdermal patches are not indicated because
the medication will not be absorbed.
b) Agree with the son and convert the patient to a
37.5mcg/hr fentanyl patch with oral morphine liquid
10mg q1 hour PRN
c) Because the fentanyl will not be effective for over 24
hours, continue the long acting morphine sulfate 60mg
BID but give it rectally instead of by mouth
d) Suggest starting a morphine infusion via her port at
1.7mg/hr basal with a 3mg q30min bolus PRN after
talking with the son about his concerns about sedation.
Question HPM7
JY, a 28 year old woman with advanced cystic fibrosis and
Burkholderia cenocepacia colonization is hospitalized for a
cystic fibrosis exacerbation. She has chronic chest wall pain
from coughing and pleurisy, and recently broke 2 ribs from
coughing. She is on IV glucocorticoids, IV ketorolac, IV
ketamine prior to vest treatments, and lorazepam. Prior to her
hospitalization, she took oxycodone ER 30mg q12h. Currently
she is on a hydromorphone IV PCA at 2mg/hour, with 2mg
q30 minute boluses. She used 72mg of IV dilaudid in the last
24h.
Despite this she is becoming drowsy, and reports her pain is
minimally improved and still severe for most of the day: 7-
8/10, and ‘nearly intolerable’ during vest therapy
The best next step is to:
a) Increase her PCA basal and ‘bolus’ doses by 50% and
monitor for 24 hours.
b) Add a 5% lidocaine patch to her chest wall over her rib
fractures
c) Discontinue hydromorphone and switch the patient to
another opioid
d) Advise the primary team to stop vest therapies
Question HPM8
Mr. Smith is a 72 year old patient was admitted to hospital
from his nursing home for respiratory distress due to CHF
exacerbation. Despite aggressive diuresis attempts, his
respiratory distress continued and his urine output remained
minimal (~30ml/day).
PMH: heart failure, moderate dementia, renal insufficiency
Home medications: furosemide 40mg po bid, metoprolol
25mg bid, donepezil 10mg daily, olanzapine 5mg qhs.
After a conversation with his son (health care proxy) the
patient was "made CMO" (comfort measures only) by the
hospitalist service and resident team two days ago. He was
then started on a morphine drip “titrate by 1mg as needed for
pain or shortness of breath”, his donepezil, olanzapine and
diuretics continued, other medications stopped.
His intern calls in a panic: “We promised to make him
comfortable, that he would die in 2 days, but he is still alive
and the family does not know why he is in such pain – even
with light touch – crying out & jerking.”
What is your recommendation?
a) Stop morphine drip and start fentanyl and lorazepam prn
b) Increase morphine and olanzapine
c) Increase morphine and add lorazepam prn
d) Stop morphine drip and start fentanyl, increase
olanzapine
3. Question HPM9
BJ, a 65 yo woman with known non-small cell lung cancer,
metastatic to her mediastinum, contralateral lung, and
supraclavicular lymph nodes, returns to your clinic for follow-up
for her cancer-related pain. She is getting chemotherapy,
and has always expressed a desire for ‘the most aggressive’
treatments available for her cancer.
She complains of 2 weeks of worsening, midline low back
pain. She has noticed difficulty in rising from chairs/toilet, and
needed a wheelchair to make it into the clinic area today from
the parking garage due to weakness. Examination is notable
for an unremarkable back/spine exam, and 4/5 strength
bilaterally in her lower extremities both proximally and
distally. You obtain a stat MRI which shows a T12 vertebral
metastasis and cord compression.
In addition to administering glucocorticoids, then next best
step is to:
a) Arrange an urgent radiation oncology consultation for
the next day.
b) Admit her to the hospital, and arrange a stat radiation
oncology consultation.
c) Admit her to the hospital, and arrange a stat spine
surgery consultation.
d) Adjust her pain medications appropriately, and instruct
her to contact you immediately if her pain or disability
worsens
Question HPM10
Mr. G. Da Salva is a 68 year old construction worker who has
metastatic non-small cell lung cancer involving his right femur
and pelvis.
Medications include: Morphine ER 200mg bid, Morphine IR
30-60mg PO q2 hours prn, and dexamethasone 8mg daily. At
rest his pain is well managed, 2/10.
However, he fears movement due to severe pain and spends
most of the day in his recliner, avoiding showering or
changing or helping with the meals. He uses approximately 5
doses daily of 60mg short-acting morphine 6for this pain but
once it starts to work the pain has often spontaneously
subsided and he becomes very sleepy and confused.
Which of the following is LEAST appropriate?
a) Take a short-acting morphine prior to a clustering his
activities: showering, changing, fixing a meal.
b) Add sublingual fentanyl 200mcg to take prior to his
activities.
c) Increase his long-acting morphine to 200mg tid.
d) Single-fraction radiation therapy to his pelvis and femur.
e) Intrathecal pump with morphine and low-dose
bupivacaine.
Question HPM11
Mr. Z is a 87 year old with advanced dementia living in a
nursing home. At baseline he cannot recognize family
members, is dependent on all ADLs (dressing, toileting,
bathing) but does not have urinary or fecal incontinence. He
speaks about 1-2 intelligible words per day and he has had
progressive loss of ability to ambulate. He is now admitted to
the hospital after sustaining a hip fracture from a fall.
When discussing treatment options for his hip fracture, his
wife asks you how long he likely has to live.
Given his current state of health, what would be the most
appropriate answer:
a) Given that he does not meet FAST 7C criteria his
prognosis is likely greater than 6 months
b) He meets NHPCO Guidelines for hospice eligibility which
means he likely has less than a 6 month prognosis
c) Given his advanced dementia and recent hip fracture, his
6 month mortality risk exceeds 50%
d) As with most individuals with advanced dementia, his life
expectancy is likely weeks to months
Question HPM12
Mrs. A is an 88 year old with advanced dementia who lives in
a nursing home. She has at baseline some difficulty with
eating as she pockets food in her mouth and occasionally
coughs after swallowing. She is now hospitalized for an
aspiration pneumonia. In addition to the antibiotics she is on
in the hospital, her only other medications include HCTZ for
hypertension and a baby aspirin. She has never taken a
cholinesterase inhibitor.
What is the best next step?
a) A trial of both a cholinesterase inhibitors and memantine
b) Feeding tube insertion
c) Careful hand feeding and good oral care
d) Addition of olanzapine to treat her pocketing of food
behavior
Question HPM12 – Part 2
The family is concerned that Mrs. A aspirations will continue
if she continues to b fed by hand in the nursing home. They
would like to know about more about the risks of a feeding
tube placement.
The most appropriate risk to include in the discussion is:
a) She will have a 1 in 10 chance of a major surgical
complication in the perioperative period,
b) She is unlikely to have a tube related complication after
the perioperative period
4. c) Once the tube is placed, it would be technically difficult to
electively remove the tube
d) She will have a 1 in 3 chance of requiring chemical or
physical restraints to prevent tube removal
Question HPM13
A 54 yo man with a 7 month history of metastatic bladder
cancer presents to the cancer center’s palliative care clinic. He
complains of low mood, anhedonia, feelings of guilt, shame,
and worthlessness most days for the last 2 months. He says,
“Of course I’m depressed – who wouldn’t be? I’ve got a
cancer that the doctors tell me is terminal. What good am I to
my family? They’d be better off without me.”
The best next step would be to:
a) Counsel the patient that he is depressed and recommend a
treatment plan for it.
b) Ask your team’s social worker to see the patient for grief
counseling.
c) Provide emotional support and counseling with the
patient that what he is experiencing is part of the expected
adjustment to having a terminal illness.
d) Refer the patient to psychiatry for complicated
depression.
Question HPM14
The patient agrees to pharmacologic therapy for his
depression, and declines offers of counseling/therapy. Your
best estimate is that he has 4-8 weeks to live based on
performance status and tempo of decline.
Which of the following are appropriate drug approaches for
his depression?
a) Methylphenidate
b) Ketamine
c) Dronabinol
d) Sertraline
HPM14 part 2 - Antidepressant Pop Quiz!
I say depression, insomnia, anorexia, nausea – You say:
a) Trazodone
b) Paroxetine
c) Mirtazipine
d) Escitalopram
I say depression, anxiety, insomnia, neuropathy, You say:
a) nortriptyline
b) duloxetine
c) fluoxetine
d) venlafaxine
I say activating antidepressants, You say
a) fluoxetine
b) paroxetine
c) buproprion
d) citalopram
I say depression, anxiety, neuropathic pain, advanced age,
You say:
a) duloxetine
b) nortriptyline
c) paroxetine
d) mirtazapine
Question HPM15
Mrs. Phillips is a 91-year-old hospitalized patient who is now
actively dying due to end-stage pulmonary fibrosis and
asbestosis. She has been well palliated during the last several
months at home where she lived independently, until she
developed a pneumonia and was hospitalized. Her home
medications had not been adjusted in over six weeks. This
included: albuterol and atropine nebulizers, dexamethasone
2mg every morning, 25mcg/hour fentanyl patch for dyspnea,
oxycodone concentrate (20mg/ml) 10mg q2 hours prn dyspnea
or pain, senna and Colace. She is on day 7 of oral antibiotics
for presumed pneumonia. She is on oxygen 6 liters via nasal
cannula. Her last bowel movement was yesterday, and her
urine output has been good (250ml or more daily.)
Yesterday she was still oriented, between periods of increasing
fatigue and sleep. She showed signs of mottling and new
secretions causing respiratory rattle. A scopolamine patch
1.5mg was started for her increased secretions.
You are called by the resident who explains to you that this
morning Mrs. Phillips is now agitated, moaning, and even
thrashing at times. This is causing family and floor nurses
distress. He asks you for advice.
Which of the following is appropriate?
a) Stop scopolamine
b) Start lorazepam
c) Increase the fentanyl
d) Stop the fentanyl
e) Counsel family about the inevitability of terminal delirium
f) Order soft restraints
5. Question HPM16
Mr. J is 58 year old diagnosed with ALS 6 months ago. He is
referred to your clinic by his primary care doctor to help
discuss options to treat a progressive weight loss. He
currently lives alone in an apartment, is independent of ADLs
although he has been having difficulty feeding himself due to
proximal arm weakness. He complains that he occasionally
bursts out crying or laughing, but denies feeling depressed.
His forced vital capacity (FVC) has remained at 70% for the
last 3 months.
The best treatment to help treat his progressive weight loss?
a) Riluzole
b) PEG Placement
c) Mobile arm supports and modified cutlery
d) Non Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NIPPV)
Question HPM17
Mr G is a 74 year old nursing home resident with coronary
artery disease and end-stage renal failure (eGFR of 12). He is
considering starting treatment with dialysis but would like to
know more about what life will be like after starting dialysis.
What would be the most accurate statement in regards to his
prognosis
a) His functional status is likely to improve with renal
replacement therapy
b) His functional status is likely to be maintained at his pre-dialysis
level
c) He is unlikely to have significant symptom burden if he
elects not to initiate dialysis
d) The majority of nursing home residents die within one
year of starting dialysis
Question HPM18
George Condi is a 68 y/o male is admitted to ICU for
respiratory crisis and found to have renal cell carcinoma with
a 13 cm mass in the R upper abdomen. He has severe pain,
and dyspnea with large R sided pleural effusion. With
drainage of effusion his dyspnea is improved; a tunneled
pleural catheter is placed, and he is discharged to home
hospice with a PPS of 50.
The next day his wife calls saying she can’t manage the
catheter and she is in tears because his pain is 6/10 and he is
more short of breath. “You promised me it wouldn’t be like
this!” She wants to take him to the emergency room for IV
furosemide and a pulmonologist visit.
The best approach is to:
a) Arrange for a hospice nurse to meet the patient in the
emergency room to disenroll him from hospice
b) Set up in home continuous care to manage his catheter
c) Immediately prepare a respite stay
d) Admit the patient to a qualified skilled nursing facility for
General Inpatient stay for pain control
Question HPM19
George is admitted to GIP status in a skilled nursing facility
with 24 hour RN availability. He has had a marked decline
since he was seen 2 days ago. The hospice nurse is asking
whether the plan should be to send him back home after the
symptoms are controlled. The social worker doesn’t want to
bring that up because it might upset the wife and because it
might give George false hope. The entire Interprofessional
group thinks he might die in the next week or two
You reply that:
a) Since he’ll likely die in 7-10 days, it will be fine to
continue on General Inpatient Status for imminently dying
criteria so discharge discussions don’t need to be raised
b) Due to the wife’s burden of caregiver distress, the patient
will be maintained on General Inpatient Status for
caregiver breakdown so discharge discussions don’t need
to be raised
c) Once admitted to General Inpatient Status, one of the
goals must be transition to a lower level of care
d) Since General Inpatient status should only last 7 days,
discharge discussions will start after the first 3 days to let
the family have some relief.
Question HPM20
Mrs. Tagliatelli is a 76 year old Italian immigrant and widow
who has not missed a day of mass in her adult life until this
past month. She comes to see her primary care physician in
clinic because she missed mass, asking whether she should get
hospice. She has heart failure, mild hypertension, and sleep
apnea.
She has noted that over the last month, her legs are more
swollen and she is having increased difficulty walking to
church and the grocery store. She still keeps an impeccable
home, managing her housecleaning herself, but now is sitting
down for a longer period of time after carrying the vacuum up
and downstairs. She is also able to maintain her daily rituals
of reading the NYTimes Health and Travel sections, cooking
three small meals each day.
She no longer wishes to return to hospital, and has not been
admitted since her myocardial infarction 5 years ago, which
6. preceded her diagnosis of heart failure. At that time, she had a
successful resuscitation and wishes to remain full code.
She uses CPAP at night for her sleep apnea, but otherwise
does not require oxygen. She also tells you that because she
lives alone, she keeps a gun in her home for self-protection.
Her home medications include: Furosemide 10mg BID,
Atenolol 50mg daily, lisinopril 10mg daily, simvastatin 5mg
daily, aspirin 81mg daily. She also has nitroglycerine 0.4mg
sl prn (which she has not used since her MI), and
acetaminophen 325mg which she takes “once in a while for an
ache.”
Why would this patient not be admitted to hospice?
a) She is full code.
b) She lives alone.
c) She has greater than a six-month prognosis.
d) She is not homebound.
e) She has firearms in the home.
Question HPM21
A couple of years and hospitalizations later, Mrs. Tagliatelli
was admitted to hospice. At the time of admission to hospice,
she was breathless with minimal exertion. Neighbors and
members of her church visited her often offering her food,
company, and rides to church. She required oxygen all the
time. Even with this, at the time of admission to hospice, she
experienced constant dyspnea.
Her cardiac medications were continued, morphine ER and IR
were added for her dyspnea.
After six months on hospice, she is now well palliated,
especially since she has been able to have her medications as
prescribed and no longer spaces out her medications in order
to make them last. However, she continues to require help
from her friends and neighbors, and oxygen with minimal
activity. She fell once and required a trip to the emergency
department. You go to see her for recertification visit.
What do you write in your recertification note?
a) She meets criteria for recertification because her
prognosis remains 6-months or less.
b) She does not meet criteria for recertification because she
has not shown decline in her condition.
c) She does not meet criteria for recertification because her
last hospitalization was unrelated to her hospice
diagnosis
Question HPM22 – Part 1
A young man was recently in a motor vehicle collision where
he suffered a massive head injury and multi-trama. He was
resuscitated and survived in the ICU with a ventilator,
continuous hemodialysis, and multiple pressors for the past 2
days, but now he is clearly declining rapidly. You receive a
palliative care consult to help with the ventilator withdrawal.
You head down to the unit and the nurse comes to you and
says “I am not sure you should talk with the family – the organ
procurement agency has just visited to discuss organ donation
after cardiac death, and the family want to donate his organs –
his liver and lungs may be transplantable.”
What is the best next step?
a) Thank the nurse, and back out of the consult
b) Talk with the family about the patient, their grief, and
counsel them about comfort care after cessation of life-support.
c) Ask the attending physician of record who is going to
manage the patient’s comfort care after cessation of life-support.
d) Work with the family to help them realize this will only
prolong the patient’s suffering.
Question HPM22 – Part 2
A day later, the patient’s HCV test comes back positive and he
is no longer a viable DCD candidate. The ICU attending asks
you to ‘take care of the treatment withdrawal’. The family is
very disappointed, and ndicates their only goal at this point is
for a comfortable death, without ‘prolonging this any longer.’
His only symptom-directed med is intermittent fentanyl bolus
(700mcg the last 24h). He is unresponsive on the vent,
without any spontaneous movement.
The best next step is to:
a) Recommend rapidly stopping all life support including
CRRT, ventilator, and pressors over the next hour or so,
and starting a fentanyl and lorazepam infusion to keep the
patient sedated.
b) Recommend staggering withdrawal of life support over a
couple days including stopping CRRT and pressors now
in the hopes that the patient dies on the ventilator.
c) Discuss with the family different approaches to life-support
withdrawal.
d) Switch the patient from fentanyl to morphine boluses as
you extubate him, as morphine is more effective for air-hunger.
Question HPM23
A 47 year old woman with a severe, idiopathic, dilated
cardiomyopathy is receiving hospice care at home. She is
ineligible for cardiac transplantation or a ventricular assist
7. device. She has mild resting dyspnea but becomes severely
dyspneic after just a few steps of ambulation. Her nurse
measures her resting and ambulatory oxygen saturation while
breathing ambient air: it is 96 and 92%, respectively. The
patient is taking digoxin, bumetamide, hydralazine, isosorbide
dinitrate, albuterol MDI, warfarin, senna, and clonzepam. The
patient requests home oxygen therapy to help alleviate her
breathlessness.
The best response is:
a) Order home oxygen therapy for the patient
b) Initiate lorazepam prn for dyspnea
c) Recommend use of a hand-held fan and prn morphine for
her dyspnea
d) Request that the patient see her cardiologist for further
optimization of her heart failure meds
Question HPM24
Mr. L is a 52-year-old homeless man. One week ago, he was
admitted to the ICU with respiratory distress and was
intubated. A chest CT scan revealed a large necrotic mass
filling the right hemithorax, obliterating the right and
narrowing the left mainstem bronchi. Sputum cytology
confirmed a diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer.
Oncology states that there is no role for chemotherapy or
radiation unless he could be weaned off the ventilator, which
was considered doubtful in the setting of his airway
obstruction.
Mr. L is unable to participate in medical decision-making.
The patient’s mother, who is the authorized decision maker,
meets with the palliative care team to discuss prognosis and
treatment options, including withdrawal of life-sustaining
treatments. The mother is adamant that all life-sustaining
measures be continued despite a previous discussion that Mr.
L’s disease severity will prevent him from ever leaving the
ICU, let alone the hospital. Mr. L’s mother expresses hope
that, despite the physician’s prediction, a miracle will occur
that will allow her son to leave the hospital.
The next best step is to:
a) Schedule another family meeting to reiterate the
prognosis of his current condition and the likelihood of
recovery
b) Involve an ethics committee as the mother’s belief in a
miracle is far from a societal norm
c) Tell the mother that hope for a miracle is unreasonable,
but that she could still hope that her son is comfortable
d) Ask the mother about her spiritual beliefs and how it
influences her decision
Question HPM25
Omar Johnson is a 64 year old man with cryptogenic cirrhosis
in multiorgan system failure in your hospital’s ICU. He is
ventilated, unresponsive, and on vasopressors. You and the
ICU team agree his chances for surviving this hospitalization
are minimal. He has no advance directive.
You participate in an ICU family care conference with his
wife (his legal decision maker based on state law), 2 sisters,
and 3 adult sons. They are told he is dying with minimal
chance of survival.
His sons say they do not think the patient would want to die
‘like this – on machines,’ and describe several conversations
with the patient to support that preference. His wife seems to
reluctantly agree with that, but also says, “I can’t give up on
him. I can’t have that on my shoulders – I’ll always wonder if
I did the right thing.”
The best, next response would be:
a) Request ethics consultation
b) Along with the ICU physician, suggest to the family that
you make the decision on behalf of the patient yourselves,
to transition the patient to comfort-care.
c) Ask the family to focus on what the patient himself would
prefer in these circumstances.
d) Express to the family acknowledgment of the emotional
difficulty of this, and recommend another meeting the next
day.
Question HPM26
Mrs. Hassad is a 83 year old retired professor from Iran who is
being evaluated for a hospice admission. Her 4 sons live in
adjacent homes with their families. She has metastatic breast
cancer with bone, liver, and brain. Because of her underlying
renal failure and moderate heart failure, she will not be
receiving chemotherapy and her physician had arranged home
hospice services now that she has completed palliative
radiation. She is alert, oriented.
The hospice intake nurse calls you because the family and
patient state that she does not want to know anything about his
diagnosis or severity of illness. Mrs. Hassad’s son tells the
nurse not to speak with the patient about her prognosis, her
illness, or about code status. You are at the home with the
nurse because she does not know how to get her to sign the
paperwork to enroll in hospice.
What do you do after confirming with Mrs. Hassad that she
does not want to be involved in signing papers or knowing
details of his medical condition?
a) Explain to the son that you must gain consent from Mrs.
Hassad in order to enroll her in hospice in respect of the
principle of autonomy.
b) Invoke the health care proxy and have Mrs. Hassad’s son
sign the paperwork to enroll in hospice.
8. c) Have the son sign the paperwork for hospice since Mrs.
Hassad made the autonomous decision to defer decisions
to her son.
d) Refuse hospice enrollment for the patient since she is
unwilling to accept to address her diagnosis and
prognosis.
e) Clarify to the patient that it is her responsibility to make
the decision, based on autonomy, and to avoid trauma of
surrogacy in her son.
f) Teach the nurse that she should not have questioned the
son’s request because that was disrespectful to their
culture.
Question HPM27
Dr. L is a 44 year old palliative care fellow about to complete
two months of a busy inpatient consult rotation. You notice
that over the last week she has become detached and
disengaged when talking with patients and their family
members. The fellow acknowledges feeling tired and drained
most of the time, as well as having difficulty falling asleep.
She also confides in you a personal sense of failure and self-doubt.
The most appropriate interventions at this time is
a) Recommend she see her primary doctor to discuss SSRI
therapy
b) Recommend she try bright light therapy
c) Refer for a transient mirrectomy
d) Recommend an educational program in mindful
communication
Question HPM28
Your palliative care clinic team meets Nancy Bush a 46 year-old
with newly diagnosed triple-negative metastatic breast
cancer. She has 7 and 11 year old children. The children
know Nancy has been ‘to the doctor’ a lot lately but nothing
else.
She is thinking about talking with the children and letting
them know her diagnosis, but her mother thinks that telling
them now will be too hard on them.
You advise:
a) It is best to wait until Nancy’s disease is obvious to the
children so their interactions with their mother will not
change.
b) Telling the children now will make them too anxious.
c) She should tell the older child, but the younger child is
not at an appropriate development age that he will benefit
from hearing his mother has cancer.
d) Telling the children of the disease may make them less
anxious
Question HPM29
You receive a call from the hospice nurse about a new hospice
patient, Mrs. Gardner, who had a large ischemic MCA stroke
4 months ago. She has not been able to eat, is unable to turn
herself, and has developed a large stage IV decubiti on her low
back.
The wound measures 10cm x 8cm and 1.2cm deep. It has
some limited undermining and no tunneling. At the wound
bed, the spine is visible. The bed of the wound reveals
malodorous, necrotic purplish muscle and tissue with
extensive serosanguinous drainage. The surrounding skin is
intact.
Mr Gardner covers her wound with a cream but notes ‘It just
keeps getting deeper.” The patient is turned q2 hours. The
goal of care is to keep her comfortable and at home – a
promise he made to her.
The hospice nurse asks you for orders to help manage the
wound. She will order an air-mattress.
After washing the bed of the wound with normal saline,
applying a thin layer of metronidazole gel to the base of the
wound, what do you recommend for a wound care dressing?
a) Pack wound with wet-to-dry dressing and cover with ABD
pad every 3 days.
b) Pack wound with calcium alginate wafer and rope, cover
with ABD pad every 3 days.
c) Pack wound with hydrocolloid dressing and cover with
ABD pad every 3 days
Question HPM30
A 45 year old man with HIV-AIDS comes to your clinic for
follow-up for HIV-related neuropathy pain. He has long
declined any antiretroviral therapy, and has consistently stated
he wants supportive-only care focused on maintaining his
quality of life. He has a CD4 count of 90 cells/mm3. 1 year
ago it was 100. He reports worsening pain control which he
relates to inability to swallow his morphine ER tabs (100 mg
tid) much of the time. He reports mid-throat pain, and
frequently chokes on the pills, ‘gags’ them back up.
Examination reveals a thin man. Mouth demonstrates
scattered white plaques on the palate which reveal a red base
when scraped away.
Best next step is to:
a) Prescribe Nystatin ‘swish & swallow’; change morphine
to 30mg elixir q4h scheduled.
b) Prescribe fluconazole; change MorphineER pills to to
MorphineER ‘granules’ in pudding (such as ‘Kadian’ or
‘Avinza’ morphine formulations).
c) Prescribe fluconazole, change his morphine to methadone
elixir, and recommend hospice care given his goals of
care and prognosis.
d) Prescribe Nystatin ‘swish & swallow’; change his
morphineER to a fentanyl patch.
9. Question HPM31
Ms. F is a 64 year old who you see in your palliative care
clinic 2 months after the death of her husband in an ICU. She
describes sadness over the loss of her husband, as well as
waves of yearning, helplessness, and guilt over her decision to
proceed with the terminal extubation of her husband. She
reports sleep and appetite changes, as well as fatigue.
Which of the following in the most likely diagnosis?
a) Grief
b) Complicated grief disorder
c) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
d) Major depressive disorder
Question HPM32
You are awoken at 2am the day before your interdisciplinary
hospice team meeting, by a nurse who just joined your
hospice. She is visiting Mr. Gunter Liszt, an 89 year old who
is on hospice with end-stage heart disease. He has an ejection
fraction of 21%, is oxygen dependent. He was last
hospitalized for recurrent pulmonary edema and systolic blood
pressure in the 80s. During his hospitalization, he developed
cardiorenal syndrome and has become oliguric, with a daily
urine output of 80-100mls.
He is on Amiodarone 600mg daily, furosemide 40mg bid via
PICC line, metoprolol 25mg bid, oxycodone 5mg prn dyspnea,
lorazepam 0.5mg SL prn. He had been weaned off of his
dobutamine drip a day prior.
He was discharged back to his nursing home with hospice
services 4 days ago. During that time, he became increasingly
somnolent, with peripheral mottling, and over the last 2 days
has become anuric. His family was called by the nurse, and
was notified that his prognosis was poor: likely hours to
maybe days.
He is DNR/DNI and you learn that has an implanted
pacemaker and defibrillator.
The family is at the bedside distraught, watching him, the
nurse nervously explains. “He is actively dying, but every few
minutes he jumps out of bed –the defibrillator is shocking him
again and again. His heart rate is erratic and in the 150s. He
is moaning from time to time. What can I do?”
What is the next best thing to do?
a) Comfort the family while waiting for the defibrillator
company to send a representative out to deactivate the
defibrillator.
b) Restart the dobutamine drip.
c) Start a morphine drip at 1mg/hour.
d) Tape a magnet to his chest over the defibrillator.
e) Give the patient lorazepam 1mg IV push now.
f) Review with the admissions team the importance of
identifying patients with AICDs, and having associated
goals of care about deactivation
Question HPM33, 34
A 40 year old man is at home receiving hospice care for
metastatic bladder cancer to peritoneum, lung, pleura, and
spine. His ECOG is 4. His back and chest wall pain had been
well controlled on morphineCR 100mg bid, dexamethasone
4mg bid.
In the last week he has become progressive more dyspneic,
such that he reports severe air hunger at rest, despite
medication changes including dexamethasone 8mg bid,
lorazepam 2 mg q6h, and transitioning to a morphine PCA
which is now at 8mg/hour with a 8mg/10 minute PCA dose.
He is normoxic on 4lpm of O2 by nasal cannula. He declines
inpatient admission for evaluation and symptom relief. You
think he has less than a week to live.
He tells you, “I can’t go on like this – this is not how I wanted
to die. Can’t you put me sleep so I don’t have go through
this?”
After evaluation by the hospice interdisciplinary team, phone
consultation with a colleague, and discussions with the patient
and his family, you decide to sedate the patient to
unconsciousness, with no plan of lightening the sedation
The best term to describe what the patient is asking for is:
a) Physician assisted suicide
b) Proportionate palliative sedation
c) Terminal sedation
d) Deep, continuous sedation
His medication treatment plan should include which of the
following:
a) Escalation of his morphine continuous rate until he is
unarousable
b) Anticholinergic medication to minimize retained
oropharyngeal secretions
c) Intravenous normal saline to prevent dehydration
d) Bolus and continuous intravenous midazolam or
pentobarbital to maintain a state of unresponsiveness
Question HPM35
Mr. Xiao is a 63-year-old edentulous Chinese immigrant,
long-standing smoker who is on hospice for an unresectable
fungating squamous cell carcinoma at the base of his tongue
with metastasis to lung.
10. He is getting nutrition and medications through a feeding tube.
His medications currently include: Methadone 70mg tid,
oxycodone 60mg q2 hours prn, dexamethasone 8mg daily,
scopolamine patch 1.5mg, topical viscous lidocaine mixed
with thrombin powder swish and spit prn.
He and his wife come in distraught due to his pain, bleeding,
and most of all the malodor. He also often gags on his own
blood. He hopes to have his grandchildren visit soon, and
does not want them to be put off by smell in his mouth. He
tells you of a friend of his from the infusion suite who
received a single-fraction of palliative radiation for his painful
metastasis to his femur and asks if there is a similar approach
for him. Due to the anatomy of the tumor, palliative
embolization is not an option.
Which of the following treatment options is the most
appropriate?
a) Single-fraction radiation
b) Hypo-fractionated Radiation therapy
c) Standard radiation therapy
Question HPM36
You are a medical director for a hospice agency.
MF, an 83 yo woman with metastatic breast cancer leading to
bone marrow infiltration and chronic cytopenias has been
receiving hospice care at home with your agency for 2 months.
She is ambulatory, and spends half her time in bed or a chair
due to weakness and fatigue, but rates her quality of life as
very high. She has confirmed with her RN case manager her
goals are to have as good a quality of life as possible, but is
not interested in further treatments to prolong her life.
At a follow-up visit with her oncologist who is her hospice
attending physician, MF complains of worsening and
distressing fatigue. The oncologist orders a CBC, which
showed a hemoglobin of 7.4mg/dL and a hematocrit of 23. 3
months ago they were 9.5mg/dL and 29. She orders a
transfusion of 2U PRBC; the patient indicates interest in
receiving it.
You call the oncologist to discuss the transfusion and she says
tells you it has helped the patient’s fatigue in the past and
hopes it will help her now.
The best next step would be to:
a) Decline to cover the costs of the transfusion as it is
unrelated to the patient’s ‘terminal’ diagnosis
b) Agree that the hospice will cover the costs of the
transfusion, and will monitor her for signs of
improvement
c) Recommend that the patient receive oral iron
supplementation and methylphenidate
d) Discharge the patient from your agency’s care, as she has
chosen to seek life-prolonging treatments for her cancer.
Question HPM37
JW is a 48-year-old female with metastatic renal cell
osteosarcoma of her L pelvis (mets to lung and spine),
undergoing chemotherapy. She is hospitalized for neutropenic
fever; her hospital course has been unremarkable.
Her albumin is 2.7g/dl, calcium is 10.4mg/dl, and LDH
700IU/L.
She has a poor appetite and has lost 5 kilos in the last 2
months. She has been getting steadily weaker and now needs
assistance with housework, and occasionally needs help
getting up from a chair/toilet.
She understands her cancer is incurable, and asks you how
much time you think she has to live. She tells you her
oncologist told her ‘It was in God’s hands.’
The best initial response is:
a) I am God: 63 days.
b) I can’t understand why all these oncologists never tell
their patients the truth!
c) Most likely 1-3 months
d) Most likely 4-6 months
Question HPM38
JMs. L is a 46 year old who is currently receiving treatment
for metastatic breast cancer. She has 3 children ages 8-13.
Ms. L comes to your office complaining of fatigue. She states
that she wants to participate more with her children’s lives but
symptoms of fatigue limit what she can do. She denies
difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep. At times she is
tearful but there are activities, such as watching movies with
her children, that bring her joy. She denies worthlessness or
excessive guilt.
Which of the following has the best evidence to improve her
symptoms?
a) Structured Exercise program
b) Paroxetine
c) Limit energy expenditures
d) Megestrol
11. Question HPM39
Mr A is a 67 year-old Spanish-speaking man with metastatic
pancreatic cancer diagnosed during this hospital stay. The
physician on the palliative care team, Dr. S is organizing a
family meeting to discuss prognosis and goals of care. The
meeting is to include Mr. A and his son, the oncology team,
and the social worker on the palliative care team.
Mr A speaks only Spanish. His son speaks both English and
Spanish, as does Dr. S. The son says that he has been been
acting as the interpreter during previous meetings with
physicians.
The best next step would be:
a) Use a professional interpreter, but Dr. S should avoid
short phrases in English as they often don’t give enough
context to give an accurate interpretation
b) Mr. A’s son should act as the interpreter if it is ok with
Mr A
c) Dr. S should conduct the family meeting in Spanish
d) Use a professional interpreter but ensure that the he/she
is briefed before the family meeting
Question HPM40
You are called to see a 13 year old for a palliative care
consultation. You call the pediatric oncologist who tells you
the boy has had sarcoma for 4 years, and since he has been
hospitalized for the latest round of cancer treatment the pain
has become much worse. The oncologist shares that recent
scans show the latest treatment is not working and there are no
further measures he would offer, but he is not sure if he will
discuss this with the patient himself. The parents know, and
have been asking for increased pain medication, but the
attending is concerned they are trying to “you know…move
things along.”
The best initial response to his concern is:
a) “It is a myth that opioids hasten death at the end of life”
b) “They probably are trying to protect him from finding out
what is going on”
c) “Thoughts of hastening a child’s death are not uncommon
in these circumstances, but it’s usually because of
uncontrolled pain.”
d) “If you tell the patient the truth, the parent’s grief will be
diminished.”
Question HPM41
Your hospital ethics committee asks you to weigh in on a
challenging case in the emergency room: a 3 month old baby,
Marisol, with anencephaly has been brought to your
publically-funded hospital from a private hospital. The baby
is clearly having difficulty breathing and the mother (who has
sole custody) is requesting that her baby be intubated for
ventilatory support. "They wouldn't do it at Hospital Private,
but told me you had to. After all, only God should determine
when a baby dies - not you, nor I."
The pediatrician and neurologist both reinforce that with or
without a ventilator, "it is a matter of time" before the baby
dies. "Intubation seems to us medically inappropriate,” they
state. “We will do the right thing, morally and legally. We will
take your advice.”
What is your hospital's legal obligation in this case?
a) Baby Marisol must be intubated, and should move to
establish a court-appointed guardian.
b) Baby Marisol should not be intubated, instead the focus
should be on comfort at end-of-life.
c) Baby Marisol should not be intubated, and move to
establish a court-appointed guardian.