1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
This document provides instructions for a social work exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates are given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions specify that candidates should verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions within the first 5 minutes. They also specify that candidates should fill in their test booklet number on their answer sheet and vice versa. The instructions state that each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D and that candidates should darken the oval on their answer sheet corresponding to the correct answer for each question. Finally, the instructions specify that rough work should be done at the end of the question booklet and that candidates must return both the question booklet and
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
El "Pasaporte Verde" es el Programa de Educación y Concienciación Ambiental Urbana que ofrece a los centros escolares de nuestra ciudad el Área de Sostenibilidad Medioambiental del Ayuntamiento de Málaga. En este curso hemos incorporado dos nuevos Programas: “La tecnología deja huella” y “Citydog. Educación Canina”.
Brio is a full-service retail design agency with a storied history of creative excellence. They provide strategic and creative services including retail design, branding, merchandising, and architecture. Brio believes design must fulfill the needs of retailers and consumers. They offer creative solutions to develop brands, increase sales, and improve the customer experience. Brio works as a consultancy, creative agency, and merchandising agency with clients across many industries.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C or D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing question booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
BRIO ARCHITECTURE COMMERCIALE ET MERCHANDISINGBRIO
Brio is a full-service retail design agency with a storied history of creative excellence. They provide strategic and creative services including retail design, branding, merchandising, and architecture. Brio believes design must fulfill the needs of retailers and consumers. They offer creative solutions to develop brands, increase sales, and improve the customer experience. Brio works as a consultancy, creative agency, and merchandising agency with clients across many industries.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions and candidates have 1 1/4 hours to complete it.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is complete and not damaged or duplicated before starting the exam and to notify the invigilator if there are any issues.
RETAIL DESIGN . ARCHITECTURE COMMERCIALE . MERCHANDISING
BRIO est né en 2005 de l’association de compétences tant issues des annonceurs et de la distribution que des meilleures agences de design et d’architecture. Brio crée le lien entre stratégie retail, la marque, et la création design 3D.
Eléonore GOLOVANOFF , créatrice et co-dirigeante de l’agence
Eléonore Golovanoff est spécialiste des marques et de la création de concepts retail innovants. Après avoir dirigé une agence d’architecture parisienne elle a assuré dès 2005 la création des différents concepts de points de vente de l’opérateur leader (700 boutiques). Ses connaissances tant du design et de l’architecture que de la distribution lui permettent de coordonner la création et le développement des projets de l’agence. Eléonore Golovanoff est Architecte DPLG, intervenante à l'IFM (institut français du merchandising) et à la fédération française du prêt à porter.
Brio eurl - siège social au 9 place du busca 31400 Toulouse - RCS toulouse 495 377 905 - (00)33 1 45 83 00 61 – contact@brioretail.com
Awards : enseigne d’or / popai europe / prix stratégie concept point de vente
WWW.BRIORETAIL.COM
This document provides instructions for a social work exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. Candidates are given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions specify that candidates should verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions within the first 5 minutes. They also specify that candidates should fill in their test booklet number on their answer sheet and vice versa. The instructions state that each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D and that candidates should darken the oval on their answer sheet corresponding to the correct answer for each question. Finally, the instructions specify that rough work should be done at the end of the question booklet and that candidates must return both the question booklet and
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for each question.
4) Return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators after completing the examination.
This document contains instructions for a multiple choice examination. It instructs candidates to:
1) Write their roll number on the cover page.
2) Answer any 50 of the 60 multiple choice questions in the paper.
3) Darken the correct oval response (A, B, C, or D) on the OMR answer sheet provided for Paper I and Paper II.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid revealing identity.
El "Pasaporte Verde" es el Programa de Educación y Concienciación Ambiental Urbana que ofrece a los centros escolares de nuestra ciudad el Área de Sostenibilidad Medioambiental del Ayuntamiento de Málaga. En este curso hemos incorporado dos nuevos Programas: “La tecnología deja huella” y “Citydog. Educación Canina”.
Brio is a full-service retail design agency with a storied history of creative excellence. They provide strategic and creative services including retail design, branding, merchandising, and architecture. Brio believes design must fulfill the needs of retailers and consumers. They offer creative solutions to develop brands, increase sales, and improve the customer experience. Brio works as a consultancy, creative agency, and merchandising agency with clients across many industries.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their chosen answer. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C or D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing question booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
BRIO ARCHITECTURE COMMERCIALE ET MERCHANDISINGBRIO
Brio is a full-service retail design agency with a storied history of creative excellence. They provide strategic and creative services including retail design, branding, merchandising, and architecture. Brio believes design must fulfill the needs of retailers and consumers. They offer creative solutions to develop brands, increase sales, and improve the customer experience. Brio works as a consultancy, creative agency, and merchandising agency with clients across many industries.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions and candidates have 1 1/4 hours to complete it.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is complete and not damaged or duplicated before starting the exam and to notify the invigilator if there are any issues.
RETAIL DESIGN . ARCHITECTURE COMMERCIALE . MERCHANDISING
BRIO est né en 2005 de l’association de compétences tant issues des annonceurs et de la distribution que des meilleures agences de design et d’architecture. Brio crée le lien entre stratégie retail, la marque, et la création design 3D.
Eléonore GOLOVANOFF , créatrice et co-dirigeante de l’agence
Eléonore Golovanoff est spécialiste des marques et de la création de concepts retail innovants. Après avoir dirigé une agence d’architecture parisienne elle a assuré dès 2005 la création des différents concepts de points de vente de l’opérateur leader (700 boutiques). Ses connaissances tant du design et de l’architecture que de la distribution lui permettent de coordonner la création et le développement des projets de l’agence. Eléonore Golovanoff est Architecte DPLG, intervenante à l'IFM (institut français du merchandising) et à la fédération française du prêt à porter.
Brio eurl - siège social au 9 place du busca 31400 Toulouse - RCS toulouse 495 377 905 - (00)33 1 45 83 00 61 – contact@brioretail.com
Awards : enseigne d’or / popai europe / prix stratégie concept point de vente
WWW.BRIORETAIL.COM
This document provides an overview of electrocardiogram (EKG) rhythm interpretation. It defines what an EKG is and basic terminology used to describe heart rhythms. It explains the electrical system of the heart and components of normal sinus rhythm. It outlines steps to recognize rhythms by examining P waves, QRS complexes, and their relationship. Examples are provided to demonstrate applying the steps to determine if a rhythm is normal or abnormal. Intervals for common heart rates in humans, dogs, and cats are also outlined.
Liferay 7: Come realizzare un client SOAP con Apache CXF in OSGi StyleAntonio Musarra
Non sapete come realizzare un client SOAP in OSGi Style su Liferay 7?La risposta è il framework Apache CXF installato a bundle e poi OSGi Service Pattern.
Allo User Group Italiano su Liferay di Bologna: Overview del futuro prossimo su Liferay.
OSGi (Open Service Gateway Initiative) è una specifica che permette di costruire applicazioni modulari a componenti (i Bundle) e che introduce una programmazione Service Oriented, permettendo una separazione tra interfaccia ed implementazione molto più rigorosa di quella nativa Java. Esistono diverse implementazioni (container) di OSGi, conformi alle specifiche.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice exam. Candidates will be given 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. They must answer any 50 of the 60 questions. The questions are numbered 1-60. Candidates should fill in responses on the provided OMR answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circles for each question. Various instructions are provided regarding receiving and verifying the exam booklet as well as properly filling out personal information only in designated areas to avoid disqualification.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam. The instructions provide details on verifying the question booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, and policies on rough work and writing other marks in the answer sheet. Candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the exam.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates are asked to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or questions. They must fill in details on their Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheet including the test booklet code and OMR sheet number. Choices for each question are labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must darken the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet for their answer choice. Rough work can be done in the spaces provided at the end of the booklet. Writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required entries could reveal a candidate's identity and is not
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the details on the cover page. Use of the question booklet or OMR sheet for any purpose other than answering questions may result in disqualification.
This document contains instructions for a 60 question, multiple choice examination. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the cover page and informed that they must select answers for 50 out of the 60 questions. The questions are in multiple choice format with options A, B, C and D. Candidates should fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. They are advised to verify the number of pages and questions against the cover page before starting. No extra time will be given for replacing booklets. Candidates are warned that writing personal details on the OMR sheet besides the required fields could reveal their identity.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam contains 60 multiple choice questions across 16 pages, with 50 questions to be answered in the allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes. Candidates must mark their chosen answers on the OMR answer sheet provided, which will be scanned to evaluate their responses. The instructions provide details on the exam format and policies around marking answers correctly on the answer sheet.
1. The document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions.
2. Candidates must fill in their roll number and answer 50 out of 60 total questions on the exam within the allotted time.
3. The instructions describe how to verify the question booklet and fill out the answer sheet properly.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a multiple choice exam consisting of 50 questions. It specifies that candidates should fill in personal details on the cover page and instructions for examining the question booklet upon receiving it. Candidates are asked to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page and report any issues within 5 minutes for a replacement. Each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. No negative marks will be given for incorrect answers.
1. Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : .........................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
1. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.
(Name) ____________________________
(In figures as per admission card)
2. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.____________________________
(Name) ____________________________
(In words)
D-0009 Test Booklet No. X
Time : 1 1/4 hours] PAPER-I [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë êú ×»Ö‹ ×Ö¤ìü¿Ö
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆü»Öê ¯Öéšü êú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ×ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü †¯ÖÖÖ ¸üÖê»Ö Ö´²Ö¸ü ×»Ö×Ö‹ …
this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾Öú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö Æïü, וÖÖ´Öë ÃÖê ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü úÖê
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of ×úÃÖß ³Öß ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿Ö úÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êüÖÖ ÆüÖêÖÖ … ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ÃÖê
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to †×¬Öú ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë úÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êüÖê ¯Ö¸ü ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü «üÖ¸üÖ ×¤üµÖê ÖµÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
úÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓúÖ ×úµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÖÖ …
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. 3. ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸ü´³Ö ÆüÖêÖê ¯Ö¸ü, ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¤êü ¤üß •ÖÖµÖêÖß … ¯ÖÆü»Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet ×´ÖÖ™ü †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ÖÖê»ÖÖê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖúß ×Ö´Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö êú
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested ×»Ö‹ פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÖê וÖÃÖúß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖúÖê †¾Ö¿µÖ ú¸üÖß Æîü :
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ÖÖê»ÖÖê êú ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖêú ú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ü »ÖÖß úÖÖ•Ö úß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper ÃÖᯙ úÖê ±úÖ›Íü »Öë … Öã»Öß Æãü‡Ô µÖÖ ×²ÖÖÖ Ã™üßú¸ü-ÃÖᯙ úß ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet þÖßúÖ¸ü Ö ú¸ëü …
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) ú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü ”û¯Öê ×Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖÖãÃÖÖ¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ êú ¯Öéšü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions úß ÃÖÓµÖÖ úÖê †“”ûß ŸÖ¸üÆü “Öîú ú¸ü »Öë ×ú µÖê ¯Öæ¸üê Æïü … ¤üÖÂÖ¯ÖæÖÔ ê
in the booklet with the information printed on the ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ×•ÖÖ´Öë ¯Öéšü/¯ÖÏ¿Ö ú´Ö ÆüÖë µÖÖ ¤ãü²ÖÖ¸üÖ †Ö ÖµÖê ÆüÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß׸üµÖ»Ö
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions ´Öë Ö ÆüÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×úÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏúÖ¸ü úß ¡Öã×™ü¯ÖæÖÔ ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ Ã¾ÖßúÖ¸ü Ö
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any ú¸ëü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™üÖú¸ü ˆÃÖêú ãÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü ¤æüÃÖ¸üß ÃÖÆüß
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖêú ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´ÖÖ™ü פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÖê …
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the ˆÃÖêú ²ÖÖ¤ü Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯Öúß ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÖß †Öî¸ü Ö
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Æüß †Ö¯ÖúÖê †×ŸÖ׸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤üµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÖÖ …
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö êú ²ÖÖ¤ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ úß Îú´Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡Öú ¯Ö¸ü
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
†Ó×úŸÖ ú¸ëü †Öî¸ü OMR ¯Ö¡Öú úß Îú´Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ¯Ö¸ü
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
†Ó×úŸÖ ú¸ü ¤ëü …
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêú ¯ÖÏ¿Ö êú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾Öú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) פüµÖê ÖµÖê
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
Æïü … †Ö¯ÖúÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü êú ¤üß‘ÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö úÖê ¯ÖêÖ ÃÖê ³Ö¸üú¸ü úÖ»ÖÖ ú¸üÖÖ Æîü •ÖîÃÖÖ
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the ×ú Öß“Öê פüÖÖµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ Æîü …
correct response against each item. ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÖ : A B C D
Example : A B C D •Ö²Ö×ú (C) ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Æîü …
where (C) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯Ö¡Ö I †Öî¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯Ö¡Ö II êú ×»Ö‹ ‹ú Æüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¯Ö¡Öú Æîü •ÖÖê ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ êú †¤ü¸ü פüµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ Æîü … ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë êú ˆ¢Ö¸ü êú¾Ö»Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Ö¡Öú ¯Ö¸ü Æüß
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for †Ó×úŸÖ ú¸üÖê Æïü … µÖפü †Ö¯Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¯Ö¡Öú ¯Ö¸ü פüµÖê ÖµÖê ¤üß‘ÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö êú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in ×úÃÖß †µÖ ãÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü דÖÅÖÖÓ×úŸÖ ú¸ŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖúÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓúÖ ÖÆüà
the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
ÆüÖêÖÖ …
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
6. †¤ü¸ü פüµÖê ÖµÖê ×Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë úÖê ¬µÖÖÖ¯Öæ¾ÖÔú ¯ÖœÍëü …
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the
7. ú““ÖÖ úÖ´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ êú †ÛŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü ú¸ëü …
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
8. µÖפü †Ö¯Ö ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ¯Ö¸ü †¯ÖÖÖ ÖÖ´Ö µÖÖ ‹êÃÖÖ úÖê‡Ô ³Öß ×Ö¿ÖÖÖ ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render †Ö¯Öúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖÖ ÆüÖê ÃÖêú, ×úÃÖß ³Öß ³ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ü ¤ü¿ÖÖÔŸÖê µÖÖ †Ó×úŸÖ ú¸üŸÖê Æïü ŸÖÖê
yourself liable to disqualification. ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ êú ×»ÖµÖê †µÖÖêµÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ú¸ü פüµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÖê …
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. †Ö¯ÖúÖê ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖêÖê ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛßÖúÖ ‹¾ÖÓ OMR ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Ö¡Öú
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination ×Ö¸üßÖú ´ÖÆüÖê¤üµÖ úÖê »ÖÖî™üÖÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖú Æîü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖÛ¯ŸÖ êú ²ÖÖ¤ü ˆÃÖê
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the †¯ÖÖê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸üßÖÖ ³Ö¾ÖÖ ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü Ö »Öêú¸ü •ÖÖµÖë …
Examination Hall. 10. êú¾Ö»Ö Öß»Öê/úÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯ÖîÖ úÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö ú¸ëü …
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ×úÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏúÖ¸ü úÖ ÃÖÓÖÖú (îú»Öãú»Öê™ü¸ü) µÖÖ »ÖÖÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü úÖ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖϵÖÖêÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
12. Negative Marking :- For each incorrect answer 0.5 marks 12. ÖêÖê×™ü¾Ö †Óú ¯ÖÏÖÖ»Öß : ¯ÖÏŸµÖêú Ö»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü êú ×»Ö‹ 0.5 †Óú úÖ™êü
shall be deducted. •ÖÖ‹ÑÖê …
X-00 P.T.O.
2. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Question
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Number
Question
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................
(Evaluation) Date .........................
X-00 2
3. Paper – I
¯ÖÏ¿−Ö-¯Ö¡Ö – I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than 50 questions are attempted, only the first 50 questions will be
evaluated.
−ÖÖê™ü : ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾Öú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö Æïü, ¯ÖÏŸµÖêú ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö êú ¤üÖê (2) †Óú Æïü …
†³µÖ£Öá úÖê ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿−ÖÖë êú ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü−Öê Æïü …
µÖפü ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ÃÖê †×¬Öú ¯ÖÏ¿−ÖÖë êú ˆ¢Ö¸ü פüµÖê ŸÖÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿−Ö Æüß •ÖÖÑ“Öê •ÖÖµÖëÖê …
1. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively
with the classroom teaching ?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3 (B) 2 & 3 (C) 2, 3 & 4 (D) 2 & 4
2. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India ?
(A) NAAC and UGC (B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE (D) NCTE and IGNOU
3. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own
channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
1. ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖß úÖµÖÔãú¿Ö»ÖŸÖÖ Æîü •ÖÖê †Ö•Ö êú †¬µÖÖ¯Öú êú ×»Ö‹ úÖÖ-†¬µÖÖ¯Ö−Ö ´Öë ÃÖ´ÖÖµÖÖê•Ö−Ö ú¸ü−Öê ´Öë
¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Ö¿ÖÖ»Öß ×ÃÖ¨ü ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü ?
1. ¯ÖÏÖîªÖê×Öúß úÖ –ÖÖ−Ö
2. †¬µÖÖ¯Ö−Ö †×¬ÖÖ´Ö ´Öë ¯ÖÏÖîªÖê×Öúß úÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÖ
3. ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë úß †Ö¾Ö¿µÖúŸÖÖ†Öë úÖ –ÖÖ−Ö
4. ×¾ÖÂÖµÖ ¯Ö¸ü †×¬ÖúÖ¸ü
(A) 1 †Öî¸ü 3 (B) 2 †Öî¸ü 3 (C) 2, 3 †Öî¸ü 4 (D) 2 †Öî¸ü 4
2. ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×úÃÖ−Öê ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ úß †¬µÖÖ¯Öú ׿ÖÖÖ ÃÖÓãÖÖ−ÖÖë ÃÖê †×¬ÖþÖßéú×ŸÖ êú ×»Ö‹ ÃÖ´Ö—ÖÖîŸÖÖ-¯Ö¡Ö ¯Ö¸ü ÆüßÖÖÖ¸ü
×úµÖê Æïü ?
(A) ‹−Ö.‹.‹.ÃÖß. †Öî¸ü µÖæ.•Öß.ÃÖß. (B) ‹−Ö.ÃÖß.™üß.‡Ô. †Öî¸ü ‹−Ö.‹.‹.ÃÖß.
(C) µÖæ.•Öß.ÃÖß. †Öî¸ü ‹−Ö.ÃÖß.™üß.‡Ô. (D) ‹−Ö.ÃÖß.™üß.‡Ô. †Öî¸ü †Ö‡Ô.•Öß.‹−Ö.†Öê.µÖæ. (‡−ÖÖê)
3. ×−Ö´−Ö×»Ö×ÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê úÖî−Ö ÃÖÖ ×¾Ö¿¾Ö×¾ÖªÖ»ÖµÖ Æîü •ÖÖê †¯Ö−Öê ×−Ö•Öß “Öî−Ö»Ö ÃÖê †−ŸÖ¸ü ×ÎúµÖÖ ÃÖ´²Ö−¬Öß ¿Öî×Öú úÖµÖÔúÎ ´Ö
¤ü¿ÖÖÔŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ˆÃ´ÖÖ×−ÖµÖÖ µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß (B) µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß †Öò±ú ¯ÖæÖê
(C) †−−ÖÖ´Ö»ÖÖ‡ µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß (D) ‡Óפü¸üÖ ÖÖѬÖß −Öê¿Ö−Ö»Ö †Öê¯Ö−Ö µÖæ×−Ö¾ÖÙÃÖ™üß (‡−ÖÖê)
X-00 3 P.T.O.
4. Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 4 to 9 :
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the
autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing
Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very
foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the
20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial
no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red
Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and
a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai,
Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his
barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide
protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom
been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say,
sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A
journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that
‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of
the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that
Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became
extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January
the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had
been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.
4. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage ?
(A) Wavell’s Journal (B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials (D) Red Fort Prisoners
5. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
6. I.N.A. stands for
(A) Indian National Assembly (B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association (D) Indian National Army
7. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest
and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across
communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom ?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
8. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were
the
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs (D) Hindus and Muslims both
9. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore
indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
X-00 4
6. 10. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers
in the world is
(A) Great Britain (B) The United States
(C) Japan (D) China
11. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
12. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication ?
(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C) Information is power.
(D) Telepathy is technological.
13. Communication becomes circular when
(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
14. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008
was
(A) Orkut (B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com (D) Twitter
15. Assertion (A) : For an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to
use the projection technology.
Reason (R) : Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of
course contents.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
16. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996 ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
X-00 6
8. 17. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage
error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
18. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be
(A) 74 (B) 75
(C) 76 (D) None of the above
19. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be
answered in
(A) 20 ways (B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways (D) 1024 ways
20. What will be the next term in the following ?
DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO (B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ (D) LMRS
21. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They used
it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y ?
(A) Rs. 290 (B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360 (D) Rs. 440
22. Deductive argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence (B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations (D) repeated observation
23. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature (B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature (D) laws of nature
24. To be critical, thinking must be
(A) practical (B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying (D) analytical
25. Which of the following is an analogous statement ?
(A) Man is like God
(B) God is great
(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being.
X-00 8
10. Questions from 26 - 27 are based on the following diagram in which there are three
intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian Express and T
representing The Times of India. A total of 50 persons were surveyed and the number in the
Venn diagram indicates the number of persons reading the newspapers.
26. How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers ?
(A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 29
27. How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers ?
(A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 48
28. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic) behaviour of the
variable f(t) ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
X-00 10
12. Study the following graph and answer the questions 29 to 31 :
No. of
Patients
Registered
29. In which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y was the
maximum ?
(A) 2003 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
30. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two hospitals in a
year ?
(A) 8000 (B) 6000
(C) 4000 (D) 2000
31. In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in hospital X ?
(A) 2003 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
X-00 12
14. [For Blind Students Only]
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 26 to 31 :
London’s phenomenal growth was probably at its fastest in the sixteenth century,
a period when the population was growing everywhere. Many people were attracted to
the rapidly growing port, which handled upto 90% of total English foreign trade and
gave rise to a wide range of ancillary industries. Other sectors provided goods and
services for the court, which now settled permanently in the capital, and for the
growing numbers of the rich and ambitious who were attracted by court’s presence.
This concentration of the wealthy made London a great leisure centre and the main
purveyor of professional services, especially in medicine and law. Population growth
now tended to become cumulative. More people needed even more people to provide
them with goods and services that they required to survive in a large city. London was
always an unhealthy place and mortality rates were much higher than elsewhere in the
country, sometime rising to catastrophic heights, as in the terrible plagues of 1603,
1625 and 1665, the last of which killed 80,000 people, 1/6th of the total population of
the city. Such high death rates coupled with rather low fertility, meant that London
could never grow by its own natural increase. In the century after 1650, when London
continued to grow but the English population remained fairly stable, immigration to the
city drained the countryside of people and gave London its highest-yet population. It
has probably then, in the early eighteenth century London of Defoe and Hogarth, that
the city also had its greatest significance as a school centre and a school of manners and
ideas for the rest of the country.
26. London’s rate of population increase was at its greatest in the seventeenth century
because
(A) Its death rate was the highest in Britain at that time
(B) It was a time when the population growth was declining everywhere
(C) Migrants were drawn to London because of the vast increase in trading
(D) Its high rate of mortality was offset by a low birthrate
27. In comparison to the rest of the country, the population decline in London in the
seventeenth century was as a result of
(A) frequent outbreaks of plague
(B) low rate of fertility
(C) immigration to other parts of the country
(D) movement of people to other countries
X-00 14
16. 28. After 1600 A.D., the demography of London was characterised by
(A) high deathrates and birthrates
(B) three major outbreaks of disease, the last of which was responsible for the death
of over 80,000 people
(C) a rise in population through natural growth
(D) population stability
29. Examples of the economic hegemony of London in the seventeenth century include
(A) the movement of the Court permanently to the capital
(B) 9/10th of England’s overseas trade passing through its docks
(C) a large variety of secondary industries growing up around the port of London.
(D) London becoming England’s major intellectual and cultural centre at the time of
Defoe and Hogarth.
30. Which one of the following was not the cause of high rate of death among the people of
London ?
(A) Increasing low fertility among people
(B) Absence of diseases
(C) Family planning regulations of the State
(D) Migration of population
31. What made London a great leisure centre ?
(A) Growth of ancillary industries.
(B) Concentration of wealth among people who were earlier poor.
(C) Increased rate of mortality.
(D) Due to increase in immigrant population.
32. Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data collection ?
(A) Census of India (B) National Sample Survey
(C) Statistical Abstracts of India (D) National Family Health Survey
33. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion ?
(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1 1 0 –1 –2
(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 –2 –8
34. Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet ?
(A) Data Encryption (B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding (D) Information Retrieval
35. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following ?
(A) Terabyte (B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte
X-00 16
18. 36. bit stands for
(A) binary information term (B) binary digit
(C) binary tree (D) Bivariate Theory
37. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure ?
(A) Array (B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue (D) Stack
38. Which one of the following is not a network device ?
(A) Router (B) Switch
(C) Hub (D) CPU
39. A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be executed
(A) High-level language (B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language (D) Natural language
40. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan (B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast (D) Delta regions
41. The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of
which mountain peak ?
(A) Kanchenjunga (B) Mount Everest
(C) Annapurna (D) Dhaulavira
42. Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
43. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
44. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most
economically ?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
45. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
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20. 46. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of
1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public
institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
47. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall
be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
48. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric ?
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
49. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
50. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of
Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while
considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
51. Assertion (A) : The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve
the quality of teachers.
Reason (R) : University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and
refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
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22. 52. The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
53. Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
54. What quality the students like the most in a teacher ?
(A) Idealist philosophy (B) Compassion
(C) Discipline (D) Entertaining
55. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
56. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research (B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research (D) Content analysis
57. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
58. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation (B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling (D) Content Analysis
59. Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research (B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research (D) Experimental research
60. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and
intelligence ?
(A) 1.00 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.3
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