Pmp test 05

Full Length Mock Test 05.
Resources: Based on PMBOK 5th Edition
Info:
 Maintainer: TechFAQ360
 Home page: http://www.techfaq360.com
 Version: 2
Questions
Question - 1
Finding out all people or organizations impacted by the project is called_________.
A. Identify Stakeholders
B. Plan Stakeholder Management
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Reports performance
A is the correct answer. Finding out all people or organizations impacted by the project is called
Identify Stakeholders. PMBOK page no 392.
Question - 2
Which of the following is an output of Identify Stakeholders?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Initial list of stakeholders
C. Project Management plan
D. Communication plan

A is the correct answer. Stakeholder Register is the output of Identify Stakeholders. Initial list of
stakeholders can be found in project charter. PMBOK page no 391.
Question - 3
Who is responsible for managing stakeholder's expectations ?
A. Sponsor
B. Project Lead
C. Project Manager
D. Senior Management
C is the correct answer. Project Manager is responsible for stakeholder's expectations
management.
Question - 4
The ___________ is used to document changes that occur during a project?
A. Issue Log
B. Change Log
C. Project Management Plan
D. Scope statement
B is the correct answer. The Change Log is used to document changes that occur during a
project. PMBOK page no 406.
Question - 5

A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and
taken off the project team is called _______.
A. Staffing Management Plan
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
C. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
D. Resource Assignment Chart
A is the correct answer. Staffing Management Plan:A document or tool which describes when
and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team
Question - 6
A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or activities and team members is
called _______.
A. Define Scope Matrix
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix
B is the correct answer. A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or
activities and team members is called Responsibility Assignment Matrix
Question - 7
Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?
A. Plan Communications

B. Manage Communications
C. Control Communications
D. Conflict Management
D is the correct answer. Conflict Management is a tool and technique for Manage Project Team
Question - 8
Which of the following is output of the Plan Communications process?
A. Project Records
B. Communications Management Plan
C. Performance Reports
D. Formal Acceptance
B is the correct answer. Communications Management Plan and Project document updates are
output of the Plan Communications process.
Question - 9
How much time does a typical project manager spend communicating both formally and
informally?
A. 40-60%
B. 50-70%
C. 60-80%
D. 75-90%

D is the correct answer. project manager spend 75-90% time to communicate both formally and
informally
Question - 10
Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except ___________.
A. Team building
B. Analysis of alternatives
C. Convergent thinking
D. Uninhibited verbalization
C is the correct answer. Group brainstorming does not encourages Convergent thinking
Question - 11
The three major types of communication are:
A. Written, verbal, and non-verbal
B. Verbal, formal documentation, and informal documentation
C. Verbal, written, and graphic
D. Verbal, written, and electronic
A is the correct answer. Written, verbal, and non-verbal are three major types of communications
Question - 12
All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT __________.

A. Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other
B. Avoiding conflict
C. Seeking facts
D. Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging
B is the correct answer. Avoiding conflict is the correct answer.
Question - 13
All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT _________.
A. Memos
B. Verbal circulation of a rumour
C. Video conferencing
D. Inputting data into a spreadsheet
D is the correct answer. Inputting data into a spreadsheet is not communication tool. Memos
belongs to push communication. Video conferencing belongs to interactive communication.
Question - 14
A Strong Matrix is _____.
A. A balanced matrix organization
B. Where all team members are brought together in one location
C. Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own
departments and to the project manager

D. Power reset with Functional Manager
B is the correct answer. No Expl 14
Question - 15
The sender is responsible for __________.
A. Confirming that the message is understood
B. Ensuring that the receiver agrees with the message
C. Scheduling communication exchange
D. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner
A is the correct answer. The sender is responsible for Confirming that the message is understood
Question - 16
What are the four parts of the communications model?
A. Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending
B. Sender, Message, Medium, and Receiver
C. Communicator, Message, Receiver, and Decoder
D. Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, and Comprehending
B is the correct answer. four parts of the communications model are Sender, Message, Medium,
and Receiver

Question - 17
A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and
formulates solutions as a group is called _________.
A. Autocratic
B. Consultation in a group
C. Consensus
D. One-to-one consultation
C is the correct answer. Consensus is related to Delphi technique.project manager shares
problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group.
Question - 18
Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed
during which of the following process?
A. Distribute Information
B. Administrative Closure
C. Organizational Planning
D. Report Performance
B is the correct answer. Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be
prepared and distributed during Administrative Closure process
Question - 19
A project manager's role is likely to be part-time in which of the following organizations?

A. Weak matrix
B. Projectized organization
C. Balanced matrix matrix
D. All of the above
A is the correct answer. project manager's role is likely to be cordinator in weak or functional
matrix organization
Question - 20
Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT ________.
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Response
C is the correct answer. Perform qualitative risk analysis and Perform quantitative risk analysis is
the process of Project Risk Management NOT Risk Analysis
Question - 21
Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about
contingency reserves is false?
A. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations
which may be planned for only in part.
B. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.

C. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.
D. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.
C is the correct answer. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns
Question - 22
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used during the Perform quantitative risk
analysis Process?
A. Expected Monetary Value Analysis
B. Risk Categorization
C. Interviewing
D. Sensitivity Analysis
B is the correct answer. Risk Categorization is done in Perform qualitative risk analysis
Question - 23
A contingency plan is ________.
A. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken, if an identified risk event should occur
B. A workaround
C. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part
D. All of the above
A is the correct answer. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken, if an identified risk
event should occur is called contingency plan

Question - 24
Wgich of the following is NOT considered as strategy for negative risk ?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Exploit
D is the correct answer. Exploit is considered as strategy for positive risk.Strategies for negative
risks are Avoid,Transfer,Mitigate and Accept.
Question - 25
Wgich of the following is NOT considered as strategy for positive risk ?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Exploit
D is the correct answer. Exploit is considered as strategy for positive risk.Strategies for negative
risks are Avoid,Transfer,Mitigate and Accept.
Question - 26
A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called ___________.

A. Mitigation
B. Deflection
C. Avoidance
D. Transfer
C is the correct answer. Avoidance is eliminating threat entirely. PMPBOK Page no 303.
Question - 27
Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response
categories?
A. Transfer
B. Acceptance
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigate
A is the correct answer. transfer of a risk to another party (third party) is part of Transfer strategy
(Strategies for negative risks).
Question - 28
When Identify Risks should be performed?
A. During Concept Phase
B. During Development Phase
C. During Implementation Phase

D. On a regular basis throughout the project
D is the correct answer. Identify Risks should be performed On a regular basis throughout the
project
Question - 29
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.
B. The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.
C. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the
risk event value.
D. Opportunities are positive outcome of risks.
B is the correct answer. All statements are true EXCEPT B
Question - 30
A contingency plan is executed when _______.
A. A risk is identified
B. An identified risk occurs
C. When a workaround is needed
D. All of the above
B is the correct answer. A contingency plan is executed when An identified risk occurs

Question - 31
Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
A. Unknown unknowns
B. Known unknowns
C. Business risks
D. Pure risks
A is the correct answer. Management reserves are used to handle Unknown unknowns. Specific
unknown risks cannot be managed proactively; project team should create a contingency plan.
Question - 32
Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project
durations more accurately?
A. CPM
B. PERT
C. Schedule Simulation
D. Path Convergence Method
C is the correct answer. Schedule Simulation generally estimates project durations more
accurately.
Question - 33
Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?
A. Delphi

B. PERT
C. CPM
D. Monte Carlo Analysis
D is the correct answer. Most schedule simulations are based Monte Carlo Analysis
Question - 34
When a risk should be avoided?
A. The risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.
B. The risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and
high impact.
C. The risk can be transferred by purchasing insurance.
D. A risk event can never be avoided.
B is the correct answer. Most radical avoidance strategy is shutdown the project entirely.
Question - 35
If a project has an 80% chance of activity will take 2 weeks or less. what is the probability of the
event?
A. 75%
B. 65%
C. 50%
D. 20%

D is the correct answer. 20% probability of exceeding 2 weeks - 80% chance of activity will take
2 weeks or less
Question - 36
The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence
of the other is called _______.
A. Event phenomenon
B. Independent probability
C. Statistical independence
D. Statistical probability
C is the correct answer. The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not
related to the occurrence of the other is called Statistical independence
Question - 37
The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is _______.
A. Risk Management Plan
B. WBS
C. Scope Statement
D. Project Charter
B is the correct answer. WBS always be used to help identify risk.

Question - 38
Risks are accepted when __________.
A. You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.
B. To eliminate the threat entirely.
C. You transfer the risk to another party.
D. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.
A is the correct answer. Risks are accepted when You develop a contingency plan to execute in
case the risk event occurs and You accept the consequences of the risk.
Question - 39
An example of risk mitigation is:
A. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.
B. Purchasing insurance
C. Eliminating the cause of a risk
D. You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.
A is the correct answer. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage
after risk has occurred is mitigation.
Question - 40
A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called
__________.
A. A cost reimbursable contract

B. A lump sum contract
C. A time and material contract
D. A fixed price contract
C is the correct answer. A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per
unit of service is called time and material contract.
Question - 41
Which of the following is considered during the Plan Procurement Process?
A. Whether to procure
B. How to procure and how much to procure
C. What and when to procure
D. All of the above
D is the correct answer. All of the above are true
Question - 42
Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the
effect of personal prejudice on source selection?
A. Weighting System
B. Screening System
C. Selecting System
D. None of the above

A is the correct answer. Weighting System can be used Select a single seller that will be asked to
sign a contract and establishing a negotiating sequence by raking the proposals by the weighted
evaluation scores assigned to each proposal.
Question - 43
Which of the following is true concerning the evaluation criteria?
A. Can often be found in procurement documents
B. Can be objective or subjective
C. Used to rate or score proposals
D. All of the above
D is the correct answer. All of the above are true
Question - 44
Which of the following are examples of indirect costs?
A. Salaries of corporate executives
B. Salaries of full-time project staff
C. Overhead costs
D. Both a and c
D is the correct answer. Salaries of full-time project staff included in direct cost.
Question - 45

Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract
C. Fixed-price-incentive fee contract
D. Firm-fixed-price contract
D is the correct answer. Firm-fixed-price contract is good for buyer because product cost not
change unless scope of work not changes.
Question - 46
In which of the following contract types the seller's profit is limited?
A. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract
B. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
C. Firm Fixed price contract
D. Fixed-price-incentive fee contract
B is the correct answer. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract and Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract where
seller's profit is limited
Question - 47
As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the
conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for
which of the following:
A. Estimating future projects

B. Changing the project scope
C. Defining future project tasks
D. Validating the quality process
C is the correct answer. quality audit can confirm the implementation of approved change
requests,Defining future project tasks.
Question - 48
The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project
participants plays the most important role in the quality function?
A. Customer
B. Project Manager
C. Project Team
D. Vendors and Suppliers
A is the correct answer. Customer
Question - 49
Collect Requirements is:
A. Developing a comprehensive plan based on input from major stakeholders
B. The process of defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet project objectives
C. The process which provides information for planning project milestones
D. Subdividing the project into smaller, more manageable components

B is the correct answer. Collect Requirements : The process of defining and documenting
stakeholders needs to meet project objectives
Question - 50
Completion of the _____________ scope is measured against the project management plan.
A. Project
B. Technical
C. Product
D. Baseline
A is the correct answer. Completion of the Project scope is measured against the project
management plan.
Question - 51
Project initiation is all of the following except:
A. A process of formally recognizing that a new project exists
B. A process of formally recognizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase
C. It links the project to the ongoing work of the performing organization
D. Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions
D is the correct answer. No Expl 16
Question - 52

A work breakdown structure is a ______.
A. Result of the Collect Requirements process
B. Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes and defines the total scope of
the project
C. Structure that can be used to track the project's time, cost, and quality performance against a
defined baseline
D. Valuable communications tool, but cannot be used to establish the number of required
networks for Control Costs
B is the correct answer. WBS :Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes
and defines the total scope of the project
Question - 53
The items at the lowest level of the WBS are called __________.
A. Code of accounts
B. Subtasks
C. Work packages
D. Nodes
C is the correct answer. items at the lowest level of the WBS are called Work packages
Question - 54
All of the following statements about the project charter are correct except:
A. It is often an internal legal document.

B. It identifies the project manager's authority and responsibility.
C. It identifies management and/or customer approved scope of the project.
D. It usually does not identify cost and time estimates.
D is the correct answer. project charter includes budget summary and summary milestone
schedule also.
Question - 55
Maintenance should ________.
A. Be considered part of the project life cycle because it is part of the total life cycle costing
needed to do benefit/cost analysis in Collect Requirements
B. Be part of the work breakdown structure to give the total scope of the required activities and
effort
C. Not be considered as a part of the project life cycle
D. Be managed carefully because it is often a source of scope creep
C is the correct answer. Maintenance should not be considered as a part of the project life cycle
Question - 56
Projects are typically authorized as a result of any of the following except:
A. Market demand
B. Successful RFP bidding
C. Regulatory requirement

D. Technological advance
Question - 57
The major project scope management processes include:
A. Change order control
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope validation
Question - 58
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions is called __________.
A. Product scope
B. Staffing scope
C. The project
D. Project scope
Question - 59

The ___________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was
undertaken to create.
A. Project charter
B. Scope statement
C. Product description
D. Technical article
C is the correct answer. No Expl 25
Question - 60
An input to the Control Scope process is ___________.
A. Work results
B. Work Performance information
C. Customer requirements
D. Product defects
B is the correct answer. Work Performance information is an input of Control Scope.
Question - 61
The project manager should be assigned ___________ as an output from the Initiation process.
A. Once a budget has been approved
B. As early in the project as is feasible

C. After the stakeholders have approved the assignment
D. As soon as the project plan is ready to be executed
Question - 62
Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called
_________________.
A. Product Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Project Development
D. Collect Requirements
Question - 63
Techniques for conducting product analysis include:
A. Technical benefit analysis
B. Value engineering
C. Expert judgment
D. Alternatives identification

Question - 64
Collect Requirements includes alternatives identification, which can be conducted by the
common technique of
A. Lateral thinking
B. Value engineering
C. Cost/benefit analysis
D. Constraints analysis
A is the correct answer. No Expl 30
Question - 65
A scope management plan describes __________.
A. An assessment of the stability of the stakeholder environment
B. A highly detailed approach to managing the work breakdown structure scope
C. How the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the
project
D. The stakeholder's expectation on how changes will be identified and by what priority they
will be addressed
Question - 66
Decomposition is ___________.

A. What happens when changes to the project scope are ignore
B. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
C. Defining a general product description into more discrete definitions of individual
components
D. Subdividing the project into logical divisions of effort aligned within the performing
organization's functional areas
Question - 67
A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the
following project management tools EXCEPT:
A. Critical path analysis
B. Technical performance metrics
C. Risk mitigation plans
D. Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates
Question - 68
You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him
with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if
the budget should be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the
usual information sources, which of the following should you also consider?
A. Cost estimates from similar projects

B. The WBS
C. Long-range weather forecasts
D. Existing change requests
Question - 69
The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on
completion is the ___________.
A. Owner
B. Sponsor
C. Customer
D. Client
Question - 70
The core planning processes include:
A. Collect Requirements, Sequence Activities, and Plan Communications
B. Plan Quality Management, Plan Communications, and Risk Response Development
C. Define Scope, Estimate Activity Durations, and Determine Budget
D. Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Estimate Costs, Plan Quality Management, and Plan
Risk Responses

Question - 71
In project communications, the sender is responsible for _____________.
A. Making the information clear, unambiguous, and complete so that the receiver can receive it
correctly
B. Ensuring information conveyed is accurate, clear, and timely so that it is useful to the receiver
C. Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood correctly
D. Identifying the proper choice of media, eliminating communications barriers, and utilizing the
appropriate style and tone
Question - 72
The seller delivers a fixed price plus incentive fee project at a cost of $90,000. The terms of the
contract are a ceiling price of $120,000, a target cost of $ 100,000, a target profit of $10,000, and
a target price of $110,000. The share ratio is 70/30. The final price (your total reimbursement) is
_________.
A. $93,000
B. $96,000
C. $97,000

Question - 73
A project is defined as ________________.
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. An endeavour, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people and
constrained by limited resources
C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature
Question - 74
Project management processes can be organized into the following:
A. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration
B. Designing, developing, testing, and implementing
C. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and implementation
D. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
Question - 75
_____________ involve coordinating people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work breakdown structure

B. Resource planning
C. Planning processes
D. Executing processes
Question - 76
___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule progress
D. Cost and schedule
Question - 77
completion is the _______.
A. Owner
B. Sponsor
C. Customer
D. Client

Question - 78
During the execution phase, a resource is added to the project team. What effect will this have on
the project?
A. The effect cannot be determined
B. The project duration will be shortened
C. A scope change will be required
D. The quality of the project will be increased
Question - 79
To shorten project duration, resources have been added to tasks on the critical path. The plan
should then be reviewed for the __________.
A. Lagging time on other paths
B. Emergence of a new critical path
C. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path
D. Longest task remaining in the plan
Question - 80
The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called

resource _______.
A. Tracking
B. Loading
C. Crashing
D. Levelling
Question - 81
Work packages are described in the __________.
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Work charter
C. Statement of work
D. Work project plan
Question - 82
During project lose out, the final task is __________.
A. Verify that contractual obligations were met
B. Transfer the deliverables to the client
C. Reassign team member

D. Complete lessons learned records
Question - 83
Cost of Quality is a project management concept that includes cost of _________.
A. Exceeding requirements
B. Changes to the requirements
C. Ensuring conformance to requirements
D. The quality control requirements
Question - 84
Ideally, resource levelling should be limited to activities ________.
A. With negative float
B. With zero float
C. On the critical path
D. With positive float
Question - 85

Which of the following are not functions of the project kick off meeting?
A. Identifying project goals
B. Obtaining commitment
C. Presenting the project cost
D. Introducing the stakeholders
Question - 86
The PERT method is MOST used in situations where _____________.
A. It is important to know the inter relationships of activities
B. Little is known about the cost estimated related to the project
C. Little experience exists on which to base estimated of activity duration
D. Resource requirements are well define
Question - 87
Which of the following approaches to quality improvement is LEAST likely to produce positive
results?
A. Continuous improvement
B. Increased inspection
C. Statistical quality control

D. IS09001 certified process
Question - 88
Team motivation, problem resolution, and space verification occur during which process?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Close
Question - 89
You are project manger of an existing project. You have been with your company for several
years but not in the area where this project is occurring. A Project Management Plan is in place.
The project has not exceeded many baseline change thresholds. The customer is not happy with
the status of the project. Which of the following is the BEST initial action?
A. Prepare a corrective action plan
B. Conduct team-building with all stakeholders
C. Verify the customer's needs and expectations
D. None

Question - 90
Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include ______________.
A. Withdrawing, compromising, controlling, and forcing
B. Controlling forcing smoothing, and withdrawing
C. Confronting, compromising, smoothing and directing
D. Smoothing, confronting, forcing, and withdrawing
Question - 91
On a project, quality should generally be of ________.
A. Equal priority with schedule, but higher priority than cost
B. Higher priority than cost and schedule
C. Equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule
D. Equal priority with cost and schedule
Question - 92
The most effective method in developing a project team within a matrix organization is to follow
the ________.
A. Communications plan

B. Control Scope plan
C. Staffing management plan
D. Training development plan
Question - 93
A service or product's reliability and maintenance characteristics are MOST affected by which of
the following:
A. Function
B. Design
C. Cost
D. Fabrication
Question - 94
You are the project manager of a project .The senior executive of your company wants monthly
schedule update of your project. Which of the following would you send to the executive?
A. Milestone chart
B. Time scaled network diagram
C. Arrow activity diagram
D. PERT chart

Question - 95
When closing a project that involved significant procurement, attention must be given to
archiving ________.
A. Financial records
B. Inspection specifications
C. Project charter
D. Project reports
Question - 96
The principle states that "Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective
performance and who anticipate important rewards for their accomplishments become productive
stay productive." This principle illustrates which of the following theory?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Maslow theory
C. Herzberg theory
D. None

Question - 97
Project Procurement Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Administration
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Planning
D. Solicitation
Question - 98
The BEST way to organize project activities for scheduling is by ________.
A. WBS
B. Critical path
C. Task start date
D. Responsible organization
Question - 99
In a large, complex project, the authority to accept or reject a requested change should rest with
the ________.
A. Lead
B. Client

C. Project manager
D. Change control board
Question - 100
Correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests are ___________ of contract
administration.
A. Outputs
B. Tools
C. Functions
D. Inputs
Question - 101
Which of the following statement is true about Quality control?
A. Monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards
B. Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis
C. Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project
D. Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project

Question - 102
During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project
without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change
BEST be documented?
A. Project charter
B. Procurement Management plan
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Quality assurance plan
Question - 103
You are the project manager of a project. The project plan has been developed. A project end
date has been established. The customer later requesters additional work to be included in the
project, but will not renegotiate the end date. Cost is not a factor. What should the project team
do immediately?
A. Invoke the change control process
B. Initiate contingency plans
C. Modify the original project scope to include the additional work
D. Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work
Question - 104

An individual's willingness to take a risk can be determined by which of the following:
A. Decision Tree modelling
B. Monte Carlo method
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Utility theory
Question - 105
You are the project manager of a project. You have to determine the staffing requirements of the
project. Which of the following you need:
A. Resource breakdown schedule
B. Responsibility assignment matrix
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Organization chart
Question - 106
Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance measurement

C. Parametric modelling
D. Statistical sampling
Question - 107
The communications management plan is primarily dependent on the ____________.
A. Length of the project
B. Physical location of team members
C. Specific needs of the project
D. Project deliverables
Question - 108
Technical staffs tend to be particularly responsive to __________.
A. Referent power
B. Formal power
C. Functional power
D. Expert power

Question - 109
Determining conformance with scope requirements is called _________.
A. Quality Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Quality Control
Question - 110
Who is the person responsible for obtaining funding for a new project's conceptual study?
A. Project manager
B. President
C. Chief financial officer
D. Project sponsor
Question - 111
Which of the following statements concerning bottom up estimating is true?
A. The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work
items
B. Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy

C. Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy
D. Both A and B are true
Question - 112
Percent complete is calculated by _________.
A. ACWP/BAC
B. BCWP-ACWP
C. BCWP/BAC
D. EAC/BAC
Question - 113
Life cycle costing ________________.
A. Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives
B. Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service
C. Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the
resulting product
D. Both B and C

Question - 114
Analogous estimating ___________.
A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques.
B. Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project
C. Is synonymous with top-down estimating
D. Both B and C
Question - 115
Estimated at Completion is determined by ___________.
A. ETC + ACWP
B. BAC - ETC
C. BAC/CPI
D. Both A and C
Question - 116
Parametric Estimate Costs involves:
A. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package

B. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs
C. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs
D. Both A and B
Question - 117
A cost management plan is ______________.
A. A plan for describing how cost variances will be managed
B. A subsidiary element of the project charter
C. An input to the Estimate Costs process
D. Both A and C
Question - 118
Estimate Costs_____________.
A. Involves developing an estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project
activities
B. Cost estimates are generally expresses in unit of some currency.
C. Involves allocating the overall estimates to individual work items
D. All of the above

D is the correct answer. All of the above
Question - 119
Which of the following are inputs belong to Estimates Activity Resources?
A. Activity List
B. Resource Calendar
C. Activity attributes
D. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources
D is the correct answer. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources.
Question - 120
The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence
that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called __________.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
D. Quality Review
A is the correct answer. The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis
to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called Quality
Assurance
Question - 121

The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant
quality standards is called ______________.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
D. Quality Review
B is the correct answer. The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they
comply with relevant quality standards is called Quality Control
Question - 122
A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by
each identified cause is __________.
A. Statistical Histogram
B. Juran Histogram
C. Fishbone Diagram
D. Pareto Diagram
D is the correct answer. Pareto diagram (Pareto chart) shows how many defects were generated
by types or category of identified cause.
Question - 123
Tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality Management process include which of the
following:
A. Benefit/cost analysis

B. Control charts
C. Cost of Quality
D. All of the above
D is the correct answer. All are tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality Management
process.
Question - 124
The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as formally
expressed by top management is a __________.
A. Quality Plan
B. Quality Statement
C. Quality Policy
D. TQM
C is the correct answer. Quality Policy : endorsed by senior management.
Question - 125
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements

D is the correct answer. Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is
done in Close Procurements.
Question - 126
___________ is a groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or
results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
A. Procurement Management
B. Planning Management
C. Scope Management
D. Control Management
A is the correct answer. Procurement Management is a groups of processes required to purchase
or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the
work.
Question - 127
What is CI?
A. Continuous improvement
B. A sustained, gradual change
C. Constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focus
D. All of the above
D is the correct answer. Continuous Improvement : The plan-do-check-act is basis of quality
improvement as defined by Edward and modified by Deming.

Question - 128
The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to which
of the following:
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
Question - 129
The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of maturity is called
_________.
A. Innovation
B. Continuous improvement
C. Just in time
D. Paradigm
A is the correct answer. The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of
maturity is called Innovation
Question - 130
The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under

different conditions determines its __________.
A. Usability
B. Flexibility
C. Operability
D. Availability
Question - 131
Which of the following is NOT considered a cost of non-conformance to quality?
A. Scrap
B. Rework
C. Liabilities
D. Training
D is the correct answer. Training is considered as cost of conformance to quality.
Question - 132
Cost of quality includes ___________.
A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
B. Training programs
C. Cost of all work resulting from non-conformance to the requirements

D. All of the above
D is the correct answer. Cost of quality includes both cost of conformance and cost of non-
conformance to quality
Question - 133
A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called ____________.
A. Run Chart
B. Trend Analysis
C. Outliers
D. Cycle
A is the correct answer. A Run chart is a line graph that shows data points in the order in which
they occur.A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average.
Question - 134
80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of ___________.
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
D is the correct answer. Pareto law : A relatively small number of causes typically produce a
majority of the problems and defects. This is called 80/20 principle , 80% of the problems due to
20% of the causes.

Question - 135
A relatively small number of causes typically produce a majority of the problems and defects is a
concept of ___________.
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
D is the correct answer. Pareto law : A relatively small number of causes typically produce a
majority of the problems and defects. This is called 80/20 principle , 80% of the problems due to
20% of the causes.
Question - 136
A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps
has been performed is called __________.
A. Quality Policy
B. Check List
C. Trend Analysis
D. Pareto Diagram
B is the correct answer. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that
a set of required steps has been performed is called Check List
Question - 137

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called
______________________.
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Fishbone diagram
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. All of the above
D is the correct answer. Cause and effect diagram is also called Ishikawa diagram or fishbone
diagram.
Question - 138
The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental
level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:
A. Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative
B. Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring
C. Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment
D. Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating
Question - 139
Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of which of the following:
A. Project Management Team

B. Human Resources Department
C. Executive Manager
D. Project Manager
Question - 140
Which of the following is a mandatory prerequisite for team building?
A. Funding for staff development activities
B. Shared work ethics among team members
C. Commitment from top level management
D. Removal of troublesome individuals
Question - 141
A key barrier to team development is _________.
A. A strong matrix management structure
B. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets
C. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers
D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented

Question - 142
What impact does a matrix organization have on project team development?
A. No impact at all
B. It complicates team development
C. It simplifies team development
D. It hinders team development completely
Question - 143
A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the
dispute and make a decision is called __________.
A. Negotiation
B. Arbitration
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
Question - 144
Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?
A. Recruitment practices

B. Project interfaces
C. Staffing requirements
D. Constraints
Question - 145
When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?
A. When the project is extremely important to the organization
B. When a project's cost and importance are relatively low
C. When the project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability
D. When the organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects
Question - 146
The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads
to high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation
theory?
A. Theory Y
B. Theory Z
C. Theory X
D. Contingency Theory

Question - 147
Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation?
A. Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members
B. Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills
and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a
sense of competence
C. People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to
successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards
Question - 148
Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?
A. Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction
B. Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives
C. Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation
D. A Definitive resolution is seldom achieved

Question - 149
Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?
A. Executing processes
B. Planning processes
C. Controlling Processes
D. Closing processes
A is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
Coordinating people and other resources. Controlling Processes: Monitoring, measuring, and
taking corrective action. Closing processes: Formal product acceptance and end of project.
Question - 150
Which process involves Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?
C is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
Question - 151
Which process involves Formal product acceptance and end of project?

D is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
Question - 152
_______ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.
A. Project performance
B. Stakeholder requirements
C. Schedule progress
D. Cost and schedule
A is the correct answer. Variance Analysis: Project performance measurements are used to assess
the magnitude of variation.
Question - 153
completion is the _________.
A. Owner
B. Client

C. Sponsor
D. Customer
A is the correct answer. Owner
Question - 154
You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them
determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model,
which one of the following is the most important factor?
A. Business needs
B. Type of constraints
C. Budget
D. Schedule
A is the correct answer. Projects are selected based on business needs.
Question - 155
On any project, who creates the Lessons Learned document?
A. Customers
B. Project team
C. Project Sponsor
D. Stakeholders
B is the correct answer. The project team contributes to the Lessons Learned document.

Question - 156
A project Control Scope system is documented during which of the Project Scope Management
processes?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Control Scope
B is the correct answer. A project scope management plan should document the Control Scope
system.
Question - 157
Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality
testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is
an example of which one of the following?
A. Scope creep
B. Change control
C. Quality Assurance
D. Integrated Change Control
D is the correct answer. Additional quality testing will require additional time and resources for
the project. This is an example of Integrated Change Control.
Question - 158

Which of the following is not true about change requests?
A. They always require additional funding.
B. They happen while the project work is being done.
C. They can be written or verbal.
D. They can be requested by a stakeholder.
A is the correct answer. Change requests do not always require more money. Approved changes
may require more funds, but not always.
Question - 159
During the project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing
which one of the following?
A. Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues
B. Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders
C. Showing management the project progress and status reports
D. None
A is the correct answer. The project sponsor can help the project manager and the stakeholders
resolve issues during project integration management.
Question - 160
A project is considered successful when ______________.
A. The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders

B. The product of the project has been manufactured
C. The project sponsor announces the completion of the project
A is the correct answer. A project is considered successful when stakeholder needs and
expectations are met or exceeded.
Question - 161
When a project is being performed under contract, who provides SOW?
A. Buyer
B. Contractor
C. Project sponsor
D. Project manager
A is the correct answer. Buyer provides SOW when projects are performed under contract.
Question - 162
Which of the following are inputs of Develop Project Charter process?
A. Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets
B. Project SOW, project selection methods, and enterprise environmental factors
C. Contract, project selection methods, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets
D. Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

A is the correct answer. Inputs to the Develop Project Charter process are Project statement of
work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets.
Question - 163
Employees in a balanced matrix often report to ______________.
A. Two or more managers
B. One manager
C. Only Functional manager
D. None
A is the correct answer. Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers.
Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.
Question - 164
According to the PMBOK Guide, the project statement of work (SOW) should contain or
reference all the following elements except?
A. Business need, strategic plan, and product scope description
B. Requirements, business needs, and stakeholder expectations
C. Strategic plan, product scope description, stakeholder influences, and business needs
D. Project purpose, business case, stakeholder influences, and product scope description
A is the correct answer. The project SOW should contain the business needs for the project and
the product scope description and should support the organization's strategic plan.

Question - 165
What are the tools and techniques used in Collect Requirements?
A. Prototypes
B. Group Decision Making Techniques
C. Observations
D. All of the above
D is the correct answer. Tools and techniques used in Collect Requirements are Prototypes,
Group Decision Making Techniques, Observations and Collect Requirements Process.
Question - 166
What are the two approaches to observation?
A. Passive and Active
B. Active and Engineer
C. Collector
D. Engineer
A is the correct answer. There are two approaches to observation: Passive (invisible) and Active
(visible). In Passive observation, the observer does not interfere by asking questions or
participating in the work they simply observe and take notes (afterwards they may ask
questions). In Active observation, the observer is free to ask questions and may even perform
some of the work.
Question - 167
Which of the following is true regarding NPV?

A. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
B. NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.
C. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.
D. NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.
A is the correct answer. Net present value (NPV) assumes reinvestment is made at the cost of
capital.
Question - 168
You are the project manager for an organization. You are considering recommending a project
that costs $280,000; expected inflows are $10,000 per quarter for the first two years and then
$25,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period?
A. 48 months
B. 40 months
C. 36 months
D. 50 months
A is the correct answer. Year 1 and 2 inflows are each $40,000 for a total of $80,000. Year 3
inflows are an additional $100,000. Add one more quarter to this total, and the $280,000 is
reached in 4 years, or 48 months.
Question - 169
Which of the following is true regarding IRR?
A. IRR is a constrained optimization method.

B. IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
C. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero.
D. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.
D is the correct answer. IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR rate and is the discount rate when
NPV is equal to zero.
Question - 170
Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered as
______________.
A. Project selection methods
B. Project selection criteria
C. A form of expert judgment
D. A form of historical information
A is the correct answer. Mathematical models are one of the methods described in the project
selection methods tool and technique of the Develop Project Charter process.
Question - 171
Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 20
months. Project B has a cost of $150,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year
and $25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend?
A. Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equal
B. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 24 months
C. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 20 months

D. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 21 months
B is the correct answer. Project B has a payback period of 24 months; $50,000 is received in the
first 12 months, with another $100,000 coming in over next 12 months.
Question - 172
Which of the following is true about the project charter?
A. The project charter should be published under the name of a manager external to the project.
B. The project charter should be published under the project sponsor's name.
C. The project charter should be published under the name of the project manager.
D. The project charter should be published under the name of the project champion.
A is the correct answer. According to the PMBOK Guide, the project charter should be published
by a manager external to the project but with sufficient power and authority to carry it off.
Question - 173
An activity has an Early Finish(EF) of 5 days and Late Finish(LF) of 16 days.What is activity's
float ?
A. 11 days
B. 21 days
C. 5 days
D. 16 days
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Activity float = Late Finish - Early Finish = 16-

5 = 11 days
Question - 174
As a project manager of a project , you have just completed Schedule network diagram. What
should you do NEXT time management activity?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Schedule network diagram is an output of
Sequence Activities, NEXT process is Estimate Activity Resources.
Question - 175
As a project manager of a project , you have just completed Schedule network diagram. Which
of the following time management activity you have completed?
D. Develop Schedule
B is the correct answer. B is the correct answer. Schedule network diagram is an output of
Sequence Activities.
Question - 176

You are project manager of a project and you have decided to CRASH the project. Which of the
following is the most likely outcome of this ?
A. increased cost
B. added risk
C. increased project time
D. doing activities in parallel
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. CRASHING is reducing project time by
expending additional resources. Therefore option A is true.
Question - 177
Risk probability and impact Assessment, Risk Categorization are done during:
A. qualitative risk analysis
B. quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk identification
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Risk probability and impact Assessment, Risk
Categorization are done during qualitative risk analysis.
Question - 178
A Heuristics is best described as :
A. thumb rule.

B. activity diagram.
C. workaround.
D. control tool.
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Heuristics is thumb rule. Examples are cost per
square feet etc.
Question - 179
Comparing target dates with the actual or forecast start and finish dates is called :
A. Variance Analysis
B. Earned Value
C. Progress Reporting
D. Crashing
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Variance Analysis : Comparing target dates with
the actual or forecast start and finish dates.
Question - 180
Total activity float is the amount of time :
A. can be delayed without delaying project completion date.
B. can be delayed without delaying project.
C. delayed for indefinite time.
D. Not relation with project.

A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Total activity float is the amount of time can be
delayed without delaying project completion date.
Question - 181
You are project manager of a software project. Your team member want to technical change to a
activity which will add more time to that activity. What should you do ?
A. Check the activity is in critical path
B. Allow team member to change the activity
C. Report to senior management
D. Ignore change in activities.
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Check the activity is in critical path is the best
option.
Question - 182
You are project manager of a software project. You have just analyzed activity sequences,
durations, resource requirements , schedule constraints and created project schedule. The above
task belongs to which process?
A. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
C is the correct answer. C is the correct answer. analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource
requirements , schedule constraints and created project schedule is belongs to Develop Schedule

process.
Question - 183
A weighted average duration estimate to calculate duration called :
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. GERT
D. pareto chart
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
(PERT): Uses a weighted average duration estimate to calculate duration. Uses the probability of
an estimate's accuracy. Expected Time = (Low + 4*Medium + High) / 6
Question - 184
Identify and documenting the activities that must be performed to produce the project
deliverables is called :
D. Define Activities
D is the correct answer. D is the correct answer. Identify and documenting the activities that
must be performed to produce the project deliverables is called Define Activities .
Question - 185

If you are the project manager of a project and you break down the WBS into smaller _______ to
get detail so that you can construct a schedule.
A. Work packages
B. Section
C. Issues
D. None
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. The work packages give you the detail you need
to construct a schedule.
Question - 186
You are the project manager for the Project. You are decomposing the Define Activities, the
final output is ______?
A. Deliverables
B. Work packages
C. Activity list
D. Milestone List
C is the correct answer. C is the correct answer. Activity list - A list of all the activities that will
be performed on the project and a description of each.
Question - 187
You are the project manager for the large Project. You are identifying and documenting
relationship among the project activities. This process is called ______?

C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
B is the correct answer. B is the correct answer. Sequence Activities - identifying and
documenting relationship among the project activities.
Question - 188
You are the project manager for the large Project. You are identifying external dependencies for
the activities with management team. Identifying external dependencies are done in ______?
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
B is the correct answer. B is the correct answer. Identifying external dependencies are done in
Sequence Activities.
Question - 189
You are the project manager for the large Project. You have identified and documented
relationship among the project activities and created project schedule network diagram. What is
your NEXT step ?

C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
C is the correct answer. C is the correct answer. project schedule network diagram is input of
Develop Schedule.
Question - 190
You are the project manager for the Project. You are updating the WBS during Define Activities,
are often called ________?
A. Refinements
B. Updates
C. Activities
D. Supporting detail
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. updating the WBS during Define Activities, are
often called Refinements. It occurs with riskier projects.
Question - 191
Three estimates are : Pessimistic (P) : 30 Most Likely (M) : 25 Optimistic (O) : 14 What is
Standard deviation ?
A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 14%
D. 26.6%

D is the correct answer. D is the correct answer. Standard deviation formula = (P - O) / 6 then
(30-14)/6 = 70
Question - 192
Which of the following estimating technique is less costly and time consuming?
A. Analogous estimating
B. Parametric analysis
C. Bottom up estimating
D. Regression analysis
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Analogous estimating is less accurate than other
estimating methods. Analogous estimating is used in early phase of the project. Analogous
estimating technique is less costly and time consuming.
Question - 193
A requirement document is an input to which of the following processes?
B. Define Scope
C. Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
B is the correct answer. A requirement document is an input to the Define Scope process.

Question - 194
The high level project and product requirements must be defined in the ____
A. Requirement document
B. Project Charter
C. Project Plan
D. WBS
B is the correct answer. The high level project and product requirements must be defined in the
Project Charter.
Question - 195
A Change Request is not a possible output from the ___________process.
B. Control Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Define Scope
A is the correct answer. A Change Request is not a possible output from the Collect
Requirements process.
Question - 196
You are a project manager of a large project and you are identifying some alternative techniques
to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of a project. You are doing it
as a part of:

B. Control Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Define Scope
D is the correct answer. This is call an Alternative Identification in the Define Scope process.
Question - 197
As a project manager you are creating a table that map requirements to their origin and traces
them throughout the project life cycle. You are doing it as a part of:
B. Control Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Define Scope
A is the correct answer. Creating a table that map requirements to their origin and traces them
throughout the project life cycle is called the Requirement tractability matrix, which is an output
of Collect Requirements process. PMBOK Page no, 105.
Question - 198
A ___________process enables the creation of the WBS from a detailed project scope statement.
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Create WBS

D. Define Scope
B is the correct answer. The Plan Scope Management process defines the process of creating the
WBS
Question - 199
The Product Acceptance Criteria are included in the _________ document.
A. Project Management Plan
B. Requirements Document
C. WBS
D. Project scope statement
D is the correct answer. The product acceptance criteria are included in the project scope
statement. PMBOK Page no 122.
Question - 200
You are project manager and need as many as inputs is possible in the initiation phase. Which of
the following is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical Information
B. WBS
C. Business Plans
D. Project Closure Document
A is the correct answer. Historical information is the best input for the initiation phase. WBS is

incorrect as the WBS would not be ready. Business is incorrect as business plans are not a likely
input to the initiation process.

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