UNIT-01 -History and development of medicinal chemistry - Physicochemical properties in relationship to biological action -Drug metabolism

1. Medicinal Chemistry-I
2021
MCQ
GOURAV SINGH
UNIT-01

2. GOURAV SINGH 1
Introduction, History and Development of Medicinal Chemistry
1] Medicinal chemistry is a science of which roots are interlinked with-
A) Chemistry and Biology B) Chemistry and Physics
C) Technology and Biology D) None of above
2] Morphine was isolated from opium by-
A) Sertuner B) Davy
C) Knorr D) Emil Fischer
3] Aspirin is introduce by_____________ in 1889.
A) Dreser’s B) Emil Fischer and Mering
C) Barger and Date D) None of above
4] First hormone epinephrine was synthesized in year
A) 1903 B) 1904
C) 1909 D) 1889
5] Who is founder of modem medicine?
A) Hippocartes B) Clark
C) Charak D) Henry’s
6] Identification of a new chemical entity as a potential therapeutic agent (From Hit to
Lead) is Known as
A) Drug discovery B) Drug development
C) Both of above D) None of the above
7] The process of bringing a new pharmaceutical drug to the market once the lead
compound has been identified through the process of drug discovery. (From Lead to
NDA) is known as
A) Drug discovery B) Drug development

3. GOURAV SINGH 2
C) Both of above D) None of above
8] Natural product on derivative or synthetic substance with good binding ability in Drug
discovery is known as
A) Hit B) Lead
C) NDA D) IND
9] Compound with good activity and selectivity in screening during drug discovery is
known as
A) Hit B) Lead
C) NDA D) IND
10] The main goals of pre-clinical studies
A) To determine the safe dose for first-in-man study
B) To assess a product’s safety profile
C) A and B both
D) None
11] IND Stand for
A) Improved new drug B) Investigational new drug
C) International new drug D) International novel drug
12] Human micro dosing studies conducted in which clinical phase?
A) Phase 0 B) Phase I
C) Phase II D) Phase III
13] MTD is
A) Maximum targeted dose B) Minimum tolerated dose
C) Minimum targeted dose D) Maximum tolerated dose
14] Single ascending dose studies are done in___________

4. GOURAV SINGH 3
A) Phase Ib B) Phase Ia
C) Phase II D) Phase IIa
15] NDA is
A) New Drug Application B) New Drug Approval
C) Novel Drug Administration D) New Drug Agenda
16] Phase IV trial is also known-
A) Base of clinical trial B) Multiple ascending dose era
C) Post marketing surveillance D) Pre-clinical trial
17] How many people will be selected for phase I trial?
A) The whole market will be under surveillance B) 300-3000 people
C) 20-300 people D) 20-50 people
18] How many people will be selected for phase II trial?
A) The whole market will be under surveillance B) 300-3000 people
C) 20-300 people D) 20-50 people
19] How many people will be selected for phase III trial?
A) The whole market will be under surveillance B) 300-3000 people
C) 20-300 people D) 20-50 people
20] Which one of the following will be checked under phase IV surveillance?
A) The whole market will be under surveillance B) 300-3000 people
C) 20-300 people D) 20-50 people
21] Precision Medicine is an emerging approach depending on-
A) Genomic study of individual B) Diagnostic process of individual
C) Diseases condition D) None of above
22] How many main families of GPCRs are there?

5. GOURAV SINGH 4
A) 5 B) 6
C) 7 D) 4
23] Which of the following reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme adenylate cyclase?
A) Conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP B) Conversion of cyclic AMP to AMP
C) Conversion of cyclic AMP to ATP D) Conversion of AMP to cyclic AMP
24] Oxadiazole ring contains-
A) 1 Nitrogen /oxygen B) 2 Oxygen/Nitrogen
C) 2 Nitrogen/Sulphur D) 2 Nitrogen/Oxygen
25] The hetroaromatic redical is called
CH+
A) Anthryl B) Naphthyl
C) Phenanthryl D) Dibenzyl
26] Name of this aromatic ring is
A) Diphenylmethyl ethane B) 2-ethyl-1-methyl naphthalene
C) 1-ethyl-2-methyl naphthalene D) 1-ethyl-1-methyl naphthalene

6. GOURAV SINGH 5
27] Name of this aromatic ring is
NH
A) Azopane B) Azepine
C) Azepane D) None of above
28] Which of the following statement best describes pharmacodynamics?
A) The study of how drug reach their target in the body and how the level of a drug in the blood
are affected by absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion.
B) The study of how drug can be designed using molecular modelling based on a drug’s
pharmacophore.
C) The study of how a drug interact with its target binding site at the molecular level.
D) The study of which functional group are important in binding a drug to its target binding site
and the identification of a pharmacophore.
29] Which of the following statement best describe pharmacokinetics?
A) The study of how drug reach their target in the body and how the level of a drug in the
blood are affected by various factors.
B) The study of how drug can be designed using molecular modelling based on a drug’s
pharmacophore.
C) The study of how a drug interact with its target binding site at the molecular level.
D) The study of which functional groups are important in binding a drug to its target binding
site and the identification of a pharmacophore.
30] What are soft drug?
A) Drug given to babies
B) Chemical drug which are already found in the body

7. GOURAV SINGH 6
C) Nutrient which kill the gut harmful microbes
D) Anything that is not nutrients and enters the body through different routes.
Physicochemical properties in relation to biological action
1] The most important physicochemical properties affecting drug action-
a) Partition coefficient b) Solubility c) Acid base properties d) Chemical bonding e)
Chelation f) Surface activity
A. All of the above
B. A and B both
C. D and E both
D. C and F both
2] In QSAR, study of medicinal chemistry Q stands for-
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Both
D. Quantam
3] Dimercaprol is a chelating agent used in the treatment of-
A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Iron poisoning
D. Vanadium poisoning
4] The non-polar compound dispersed
A. By forming hydrogen bonding
B. By interacting with lipid
C. By forming drug receptor complex
D. by forming hydrophilic bond

8. GOURAV SINGH 7
5] pka is a parameter which indicates the-
A. Strength of drug as acid base reaction in water
B. Aqueous phase in phosphate buffer
C. Hydrophilic and lyphophilic character
D. All of the above
6] 85% of drugs are ionizied in which pH
A. 2-5
B. 7-12
C. 1.5-8
D. Neutral
7] Bioisoterism is the process of-
A. Replacement similar group
B. Replacement similar valence group
C. Replacement similar mass no. group
D. Addition of group having different mass no.
8] A drug like phenytoin & barbiturate when pka is larger than 7 is-
A. Ionised at all pH
B. unionised at pH
C. Ionised at pH 8
D. Unionised at pH 6
9] A drug where pka is 7 & unionised at all pH it is-
A. Weak acidic
B. Very weak acidic
C. Weak basic
D. Very weak basic
10] Dissolution & pka helps in drug-
A. ionization & solubility
B. dissociation & transportation
C. Dissociation & solubility
D. None of these
11] Bioisosteres are similar in their-
A. Physical character
B. Chemical character
C. Both character a & b
D. Biochemical character
12] Which of the following is not a bivalent?
A. CO

9. GOURAV SINGH 8
B. CS
C. CC
D. SH
13] A molecule having 3 chiral centre carbon it has-
A. 4 set of diasters
B. 9 set of enantiomers
C. 6 set of monomers
D. 9 set of diasters
14] The 3D structure elucidation is done by process-
A. IR
B. FTIR
C. NMR
D. MS
15] Which of the following is odd one regarding drug-receptor interaction-
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Electrostatic
C. Weak Wander wall Force
D. Dipole- induced dipole interaction
16] Which of the following is a fastest receptor-
A. Enzyme linked
B. Ion- gated
C. GPCR
D. Nuclear
17] Which of the following is not an optically isomer-
A. Enantiomers
B. Epimers
C. Disasters
D. Meso
18] Enantiomer has a higher affinity to receptor are called-
A. Eudismic
B. Diastomer
C. Eutomer
D. None of these
19] Which type of hydrogen bonding present when hydrogen bonding occurs
between molecules?

10. GOURAV SINGH 9
A. Intramolecular
B. Intermolecular
C. A & B both
D. None of them
20] Which compound is capable of forming a ring structure with metal atoms?
A. Ligands
B. Chelates
C. Surfactants
D. All of the above
21] For dissolution of solute in solvent which condition is necessary?
1. Solute-solvent interaction should be less than solute-solute and solvent-solvent
interaction
2. Solute-solvent interaction should equal solute-solute and solvent-solvent interaction
3. Solute-solvent interaction should exceed solute-solute and solvent-solvent interaction
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1 & 3
D. 1, 2 & 3
22] Addition of polar group in a drug increases its interaction with
A. Water B. Lipid C. Both D. None
23] Methyl Prednisolone is water insoluble but its which salt is water soluble?
A. Sodium
B. Hydrochloride
C. Salicylate
D. Palmitate
24] Phenobarbitone is water insoluble but its which salt is water soluble?
A. Sodium
B. Hydrochloride
C. Salicylate
D. Palmitate
25] Which ester of Chloramphenicol is prepared to mask its bitter taste?
A. Sodium
B. Hydrochloride
C. Salicylate
D. Palmitate
26] Generally drugs are absorbed in which form?
A. In ionized form

11. GOURAV SINGH 10
B. In unionized form
C. In both of abone form
D. In none of above form
27] Most weakly acidic drugs (pKa < 2) are absorbed from
A. Stomach
B. Intestine
C. Stomach and Intestine
D. They Can’t be absorbed
28] Most weakly basic drugs (pKa > 8) are absorbed from
A. Stomach B. Intestine
C. Stomach and Intestine D. They Can’t be absorbed
29] Absorption of neutral drugs (pKa 6- 8) is independent of pH.
A. True
B. False
30] Addition of non-polar group _________ partition co-efficient
A. Improves
B. Reduces
C. No effect on
31] Gentamicin, streptokinase can be given
A. Orally
B. Parentrally
C. Both of above
D. None of above
32] Distance between H-bond is
A. 2.3- 5.2 A°
B. 1.2 – 2.5 A°
C. 2.5 – 3.2 A°
D. 3.2 – 8.5 A°
33] Angel of H-bond
A. 1.3 – 1.8°
B. 13-18°
C. 130 – 180 °
D. 1300 – 1800 °
34] Strength of H-bond is
A. 1-7 Kcal/mol
B. 10-70 Kcal/mol

12. GOURAV SINGH 11
C. 10-17 Kcal/mol
D. 17-70 Kcal/mol
35] p-nitrophenol contains
A. Intramolecular H-bond
B. Intermolecular H-bond
C. Both of above
D. None of above
36] Which one of the following factors related to protein-drug binding is not related to
drugs?
A. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug
B. The concentration of the drug in the body
C. The affinity of the drug for binding
D. Number of binding sites on the binding agent
37] Which one of the following factor related to protein-drug binding is not related to
drug interactions with the binding site?
A. Competition between the drug and the binding site
B. Competition between drugs and normal body constituents
C. Allosteric changes in a protein molecule
D. Inter subject variation
38] Which of the following factors for protein drug binding is a drug interaction
factor?
A. Competition between drugs for the binding site
B. Age
C. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug
D. Physicochemical characteristics of the protein or binding agent
39] Only unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated.
A. True
B. False
40] Plasma proteins bound with drugs by formation of
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Hydrophobc bonding
C. Vander-waals forceD. Ionic interaction
E. All
41] The most significant protein involved in binding with a drug is
A. Albumin
B. Glycoprotein

13. GOURAV SINGH 12
C. Lipoprotein
D. Globulin
42] The most abundant plasma protein is
A. Albumin (HAS – Human serum albumin)
B. Glycoprotein
C. Lipoprotein
D. Globulin
43] Chelating agent Dimercaprol is used in the treatment of
A. Lead poisoning
B. Vanadium poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. All of above
44] In Lead and vanadium poisoning, which chelating agent is used as an antidote?
A. Disodium EDTA
B. Haemoglobin
C. Cyanocobalamine
D. Dimercaprol
45] Absorption of Tetracycline is reduced in the presence of milk because of
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Protein binding
C. Ionization
D. Chelation
46] Functional groups of same valance and ring equivalents are known as
A. Classical Bioisosteres
B. Non- Classical Bioisosteres
C. Enantiomer
D. Geometric isomer
47] Bioisosteres have
A. Same physical properties
B. Same chemical properties
C. Similar biological properties
D. All of above
48] R (-) Epinephrine shows 3 point of interaction with receptor while S (+)
Epinephrine shows 2 point of interaction with receptor.
A. True
B. False

14. GOURAV SINGH 13
49] (+) Warfarin is _____times more potent than (-) Warfarin.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
50] (+) Sotalol is beta blocker while (-) Sotalol is
A. beta blocker
B. Analgesic
C. Antidepressant
D. Antiarrhythmic
51] D-Penicillamine is antiarthritic while L-Penicillamine is
A. Antiarthritic
B. Antiarrhythmic
C. Antidepressant
D. Toxic
52] D-Asparagine has sweet taste while L-Asparagine has
A. Sweet taste
B. Sour Taste
C. Bitter Taste
D. Tasteless

15. GOURAV SINGH 14
Drug Metabolism
1] Biotransformation of drugs is defined as the conversion from one physical form to
another.
A. True
B. False
2] The drug biotransformation is a detoxification process.
A. True
B. False
3] Phase 1 reactions are also known as a synthetic reaction.
A. True
B. False
4] The phase I reactions are detoxification pathways.
A. True
B. False
5] The phase II reactions are detoxification pathways.
A. True
B. False
6] Following are the Phase I reactions except ____________
A. Oxidative reactions
B. Hydrolytic reactions
C. Reductive reactions
D. Sulphide reactions

16. GOURAV SINGH 15
7] Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase I
metabolism?
A. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug
or one of its metabolites
B. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.
C. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.
D. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.
8] Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase II
metabolism?
A. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a
drug
or one of its metabolites.
B. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.
C. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.
D. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.
9] Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moieties that are transferred to
the substrate in phase II reactions?
A. Simple endogenous molecules are transferred
B. Large molecular sized groups are attached
C. Strong polar groups are attached
D. Strong nonpolar groups are attached
10] Which of the following enzymes is not involved in catalyzing Phase I metabolic
reaction?
A. Flavin-containing monooxygenases
B. Oxidation of alkyl groups
C. Glucuronyl transferase
D. Esterases
11] Which of the following reactions is not a Phase I metabolic transformation?
A. Reduction of ketones
B. Conjugation to alcohols
C. Monoamine oxidases
D. Esterhydrolysis
12] What is the major end product of oxidation of aromatic carbon atoms?
A. Arenols
B. Catechol
C. Glutathione
D. Arene oxide

17. GOURAV SINGH 16
13] Which of the following is not a common N containing functional groups which
undergo reduction reactions?
A. Nitro compounds
B. Azo compounds
C. N-oxide compounds
D. Nitrite compounds
14] What does the hydrolysis of Aspirin yield us with?
A. Salicylic acid only
B. Salicylic acid and CH3COOH
C. CH3COOH
D. Succinic acid
15] Which enzyme is important in the Phase II reactions?
A. Esterase
B. Amidases
C. Transferase
D. Aldo-keto-reductases
16] Which of the following groups is least susceptible to cytochrome P450 enzymes?
A. Terminal methyl groups
B. Epoxide group
C. Benzylic carbon atoms
D. Quaternary carbon atoms
17] Alkenes and aromatic groups can be metabolised to diols. Which enzymes are
involved?
A. cytochrome P450 enzymes
B. epoxide hydrolase
C. both of the above
D. neither of the above
18] Solubility of a drug in polar solvents and Non-polar solvents depends upon-
A. Chemical structure
B. Particle size
C. Crystal form
D. All of above
19] Higher will be the diffusion of the drug across the membrane if-
A. Higher value of partition-coefficient
B. Low value of partition-coefficient
C. Higher water soluble
D. None of above

18. GOURAV SINGH 17
20] Diazepam gets metabolised into Hydroxydiazepam is example of-
A. Oxidation at allylic carbon atom
B. Oxidation at the carbon alpha to carbonyl and imino group
C. Oxidation at benzylic carbon atom
D. Aromatic and Side chain Hydroxylation
21] __________reaction is most common in drugs having ester or amide functional
groups
A. Oxidative reactions
B. Reduction
C. Hydrolysis
D. Phase I
22] UDPGA means….
A. Urane diphospho -a- D glucuronic acid
B. Uridine diphospho -a- D glucuronic acid
C. Uridine diphospho-D glucuronic acid
D. Uric diphospho -a- D glucuronic acid
23] Which of the following statement is false?
A. D-glucuronic acid is easily available
B. Several functional groups can be easily linked with the D-glucuronic acid
C. Conjugation with D-glucuronic acid occurs to a high degree
D. Whole animal kingdom have the common ability to produce D-glucuronic acid
24] Which enzyme is of the utmost importance for the 2nd step in the formation of
Glucuronide?
A. Esterase
B. Amidases
C. Transferase
D. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
25] What is the site of first-pass metabolism before molecules reach systemic
circulation?
A. Kidney
B. Throat
C. Liver
D. Intestine
26] What plays a major role in extra-hepatic metabolism and contains CYP3A4
isozyme and P-glycoprotein?
A. Kidney
B. Throat

19. GOURAV SINGH 18
C. Liver
D. Intestine
27] What test uses microsomal extracts from the ER for in-vitro drug metabolism
studies?
A. Ames test
B. Biochemical tests
C. Serology
D. Polymorphisms
28] Which of the following are protein components of the cytochrome P450 system?
A. Heme protein CYP450
B. NADH-CYP450 reductase
C. NADPH-CYP450 reductase
D. A and B E. A and C
29] Which of the following statements is not true about cytochrome P450 enzymes?
A. They contain haem and magnesium.
B. They belong to a general class of enzymes called monooxygenases.
C. There are over 30 different cytochrome P450 enzymes.
D. Variation in cytochrome P450 enzyme profile between individuals can explain
individual variation in drug susceptibility.
30] What is not a xenobiotic?
A. Plant toxins
B. Drugs
C. Steroids
D. Environmental pollutants
31] What cytochrome P450 isozyme is most abundantly expressed in the human liver
and intestines?
A. CYP1A1
B. CYP3A4
C. CYP2C9
D. CYP2D6
32] Which of the following is an antiarrhythmic drug that is a calcium channel
blocker?
A. Lidocaine
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Nifedipine
D. Codeine

20. GOURAV SINGH 19
33] What drug should not be given to a patient that is a poor CYP2D6 metabolizer?
A. Codeine
B. Lidocaine
C. Nifedipine
D. Nitroglycerin
34] What injection is administered directly into systemic circulation causing rapid
distribution?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Intracerebral
D. Intraspinal
35] Where is Protonsil converted to Sulfanilamide?
A. Liver
B. Gut
C. Kidney
D. Colon
36] What are xenobiotics?
A. Another form of antibiotics
B. A form of nutrient
C. Nutrients which kill the gut harmful microbes
D. Anything that is not nutrients and enters the body through different routes
37] What is the active form of salicylic acid?
A. Sialic acid
B. Salic acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Salicycle acid
38] What is the inactive form of Codeine?
a. Codene
b. Codane
c. Morphine
d. Poppy
39] Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of drug metabolism?
A. Liver > lungs > kidneys > intestine > placenta > skin > adrenals
B. Liver > lungs > kidneys > intestine > adrenals > placenta > skin
C. Liver > kidneys > lungs > intestine > placenta > adrenals > skin
D. Liver > lungs > intestine > kidneys > placenta > adrenals > skin
40] Which one of the following is reactive and a known carcinogenic?
A. Cytochrome P-450

21. GOURAV SINGH 20
B. Catechol
C. Glutathione
D. Arene oxide
41] Which of the following is not an example of a drug undergoing acetylation
reaction?
A. Hydrazine
B. Salicylic acids
C. Sulphonamides
D. Histamines
42] The overall rate of biotransformation is higher in neonates and infants than in
adults.
A. True
B. False
43] In comparison with children and young adults, elderly adults tend to have a
reduced capacity to metabolize drugs.
A. True
B. False
44] What is enzyme induction?
A. The phenomenon of increased drug metabolizing ability of enzymes by drugs and
chemicals
B. The phenomenon of increasing drug bioavailability drugs and chemicals
C. The phenomenon of increasing drug distribution drugs and chemicals
D. The phenomenon of increasing drug concentration for a particular tissue by drugs and
chemicals
45] Which of the following drugs has self -induction to stimulate their own
metabolism?
A. Cortisol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Meprobamate
D. Contraceptives
Ans. C
46] Alcohol is the inducer for which drug?
A. Cortisol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Meprobamate
D. Oral contraceptives

22. GOURAV SINGH 21
47] What is the name of the process where structurally same compounds compete
for the same site on an enzyme to inhibit that?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
48] What is the name of the process where structurally different compounds interact
with the enzyme and prevent the metabolism of the drug?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
49] What is the name of the process where the enzyme amount is decreases due to a
decrease in enzyme synthesis?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
50] What is the name of the process where due to nutritional deficiency an enzyme
content is decreased?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
51] Which one of the following is not an environmental agent to decrease drug
metabolizing ability?
A. DDT
B. Cigarette smoke
C. Organophosphate insecticides
D. Methacholine
52] What is polygenic control of drugs?
A. Drug controlling seen in an individual
B. Drug controlling seen in twins
C. Drug controlling seen in between different species
D. Drug controlling seen in a particular population
53] Differences observed in metabolism of drug among different races is known as
A. Pharmacogenetics
B. Ethnic variations

23. GOURAV SINGH 22
C. Discontinues variation
D. Polygenic control
54] Which age group is known as the neonates?
A. Up to 2 months
B. Up to 2 years
C. Up to 6 months
D. Up to 1 year
55] Which age group metabolizes drugs faster than the adults?
A. Between 1-12 year
B. Between 1-15 year
C. Between 6-12 year
D. Between 12-18 year
56] Fat-free diet depresses cytochrome P-450 level.
A. True
B. False
57] Material drug metabolizing ability increases in the later stage of pregnancy.
A. True
B. False
58] Enzyme activity is maximum during the early morning.
A. True
B. False
59] Intermediate of aromatic hydroxylation is
A. Arene
B. Epoxide
C. Aldehyde
D. Ketone
60] Oxidation of Propranolol results in
A. 2-hydroxy propranolol
B. 3-hydroxy propranolol
C. 4-hydroxy propranolol
D. 2,2-Dihydroxy propranolol
61] Oxidation of olefin results in
A. Aldehyde
B. Ketone
C. Diol
D. Carboxylic acid
62] Oxidation of Tolbutamide is the example of
A. Oxidation of Olefin

24. GOURAV SINGH 23
B. Oxidation of Aliphatic carbon
C. Oxidation of Benzylic carbon
D. Oxidation of Allylic carbon
63] Carbon atom adjacent to olefinic double bond is known as
A. Alicyclic carbon
B. Aliphatic carbon
C. Benzylic carbon
D. Allylic carbon
64] Oxidation of Hexobarbital results in
A. 2-hydroxy Hexobarbital
B. 3-hydroxy Hexobarbital
C. 4-hydroxy Hexobarbital
D. 2,3-Dihydroxy Hexobarbital
65] Given reaction is the example of_________
A. Oxidation of Carbon atom alpha to Carbonyl and Imine
B. Oxidation of Aliphatic carbon
C. Oxidation of Benzylic carbon
D. Oxidation of Allylic carbon
66] ω – oxidation of Valproic acid results in
A. 2-hydroxy valproic acid

25. GOURAV SINGH 24
B. 3-hydroxy valproic acid
C. 4-hydroxy valproic acid
D. 5-hydroxy valproic acid
67] ω1 – oxidation of Valproic acid results in
A. 2-hydroxy valproic acid
B. 3-hydroxy valproic acid
C. 4-hydroxy valproic acid
D. 5-hydroxy valproic acid
68] Reduction of given drug results in______
A. Paroxon
B. Sulphanilamide
C. PABA
D. 7 – aminometabolite
69] By Glycine conjugation Benzoic acid results in
A. Salicylic acid
B. Oxalic acid
C. Hippuric acid
D. Carbamic acid
70] The enzymes are divided into two categories, these are _______ and ______
A. Acidic drug metabolizing and basic drug metabolizing
B. Present in the liver and not present in the liver
C. Microsomal and non-microsomal
D. There is no such division