To increase your chances of passing the LET, engage yourself in a review that is focused on the LET competencies and this LET reviewer will be of great help. Set a regular schedule for review but do not forget to give yourself the needed rest. Most of the questions in the actual LET are situational, so internalize and don’t memorize. Lastly, do not feel tired and discouraged. Treat the review as an enjoyable challenge. Stay positive and believe in yourself. You can do it future LPT! Good luck!
This document is a 40 question biology exam consisting of multiple choice questions testing concepts related to biology. It provides instructions to candidates to answer all questions by choosing the best answer and indicating their choice on the provided answer sheet. The exam is 1 hour long and covers topics such as molecular biology, genetics, evolution, and physiology.
This document contains a 67 question practice test in biology. The questions cover various topics in biology including cellular processes like photosynthesis and respiration, levels of organization, genetics, anatomy and physiology. Example questions ask about where producers obtain their energy, the building blocks of proteins and carbohydrates, and organelles involved in protein synthesis. The practice test seems to be assessing a student's understanding of core concepts in biology from the cellular to organismal levels.
test bank Principles of Life Digital Update, 3e by David Hillis, Mary Price, ...NailBasko
This document provides a test bank with questions and answers for Chapter 1 of the textbook "Principles of Life Digital Update, 3e by David Hillis, Mary Price, Richard Hill, David Hall, Marta Laskowski". It includes 53 multiple choice questions testing foundational concepts in biology, such as the definition of life, cellular structure, evolution, and the tree of life. The questions cover topics like the basic unit of life (the cell), the early evolution of life on Earth, the emergence of eukaryotes and multicellular organisms, and the three domain system of classifying life.
This document is a biology exam for 8th grade students consisting of two sections with a total of 100 marks. Section A contains 30 multiple choice questions testing topics like cellular structures, transport processes, and chemical reactions in living things. Section B requires students to label diagrams, define terms, explain concepts, and provide examples related to photosynthesis, plant and animal cells, enzymes, and other biology topics. The exam instructions specify the time allotted, supplies permitted, and organization of answer sheets.
This document is a biology exam for 8th grade students consisting of two sections with a total of 100 marks. Section A contains 30 multiple choice questions testing topics like chemical molecules, plant structures and functions, cellular structures, and metabolic processes. Section B requires students to label diagrams, define terms, describe cellular structures and their functions, explain processes like photosynthesis and osmosis, and define key biology concepts. The exam tests students' understanding of topics covered in the first term.
1BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016FINAL EXAMINATIONPlease copy and.docxfelicidaddinwoodie
1
BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016
FINAL EXAMINATION
Please copy and paste the final examination into a Word file. Complete it in this form (do not make any structural changes!) and submit it as an attachment into your Assignment Folder.Do not forget to put your name on top of the exam!
The absolute deadline for submission is Sunday, October 16, NOON ET.
I cannot accept any later submissions.
YOUR NAME:
_______________________________________________________________
Total possible points: 100
I. Multiple choice questions. Please bold or underline the correct answer (1point each=50 points)
1. Several features, or properties, of living things may also be found in non-living things, such as fire. Of the following, which is the least likely to be found in non-living things?
A. Consumption of energy-containing molecules
B. Growth
C. Reproduction
D. Homeostasis
E. Response to external stimuli
2. Suppose you conduct an experiment which simulates glacial recession over time. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?
A. Glacial mass
B. Sunlight
C. The season
D. Time
3. If life on another planet were fundamentally like life on Earth, the macromolecules of living things would be based on which element?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
E. Phosphorus
4. The effectiveness of a medication containing growth hormones is tested on a group of young male rabbits 3 weeks of age. The best control group would be:
A. Any group of rabbits
B. A group of male rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
C. A group of female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
D. A mixed group of male/female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
E. No control is required; just measure whether the rabbits grew
5. Temperature is a measure of
A. The potential energy in a substance
B. How fast the molecule in a substance are moving
C. The energy lost from a substance to its surroundings.
D. How much heat is being absorbed by a substance
E. All of the above
6. Which of the following refers to a substance that has ‘lost’ a carbon dioxide molecule?
A. Denatured
B. Phosphorilated
C. Decarboxylated
D. Carbonated
E. Oxidated
7. Which of the following reactions or pathways is catabolic?
A. Converting glucose to carbon dioxide and water (cellular respiration)
B. Making starch from many glucose monomers
C. Photosynthesis, which builds glucose from carbon dioxide using energy from light
D. Making ATP from ADP and phosphate
8. One human disease is caused by a change in the DNA from GAA to GUA. This change is an example of:
A. Crossing-over
B. A meiosis error
C. A mitosis error
D. A mutation
9. During which part of the cell cycle is DNA polymerase most active?
A. Cytokinesis
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase
D. S phase
E. M phase
10. Which of the following correctly describes a buffer?
A. A buffer converts an alkaline solution to neutral
B. A buffer converts an acid solution to neutral.
C. A buffer converts alkaline solutions to acid solutions.
D. A b ...
This document contains a biology exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics like biological organization, elements that make up living organisms, cell structures, plant and animal classification, evolution, and plant physiology. The questions test fundamental concepts in these subject areas and each question is followed by the correct multiple choice answer.
Which of these is the smallest structureA. Amino acidB. Prote.docxalanfhall8953
Which of these is the smallest structure?
A. Amino acid
B. Protein
C. Polypeptide
D. Dipeptide
2. Any energy transformation involves the loss of some energy as
A. motion.
B. heat.
C. electric charge.
D. light.
3. Which one of the following molecules is a by-product of cellular respiration?
A. Glucose
B. Oxygen
C. Water
D. Pyruvate
4. The following atoms are all variations of the element carbon: 12C, 13C, and 14C due to differing numbers of neutrons. What are these variations called?
A. Isotopes
B. Isomers
C. Molecules
D. Polymers
5. When a scientific experiment is carried out in a controlled setting, all variables are kept the same except for the _______ variable.
A. environmental
B. observational
C. experimental
D. control
6. Which of the following is a true difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. Eukaryotic cells are more ancient.
B. Eukaryotic cells are less complex.
C. Eukaryotic cells are smaller.
D. Eukaryotic cells have true nuclei.
7. In a eukaryotic cell, protein synthesis occurs in the
A. nuclear envelope.
B. ribosomes.
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
D. chromosomes.
8. Nucleic acids are composed of monomers called
A. base pairs.
B. amino acids.
C. nucleotides.
D. ribose.
9. Which one of the following is a trans fatty acid found in most snack foods?
A. Carboxyl acid
B. Elaidic acid
C. Oleic acid
D. Stearic acid
10. The structure that surrounds the cytoplasm in a bacterial cell is the
A. cell wall.
B. nucleoid.
C. ribsosome.
D. plasma membrane.
11. Which of these statements most accurately describes how carbon dioxide enters a leaf?
A. CO
2 is pulled in by leaf veins. B. CO2 defuses by way of the stomata.
C. CO
2 enters a leaf through osmosis. D. CO2 is carried by water in leaf veins.
12. The Calvin cycle of photosynthesis begins when
A. the reduction of carbon dioxide occurs.
B. electrons leave a photosystem.
C. light becomes available.
D. carbon dioxide is attached to RuBP.
End of exam
13. Which of the following is true about bases?
A. They release hydroxide ions in solution.
B. They have a sharp or sour taste.
C. They help to build up cells.
D. They tend to decrease the pH of a solution.
14. The two major sets of reactions involved in photosynthesis are
A. light reactions and the electron transport chain.
B. glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
C. Calvin cycle reactions and citric acid cycles.
D. light reactions and Calvin cycle reactions.
15. Which one of the following is an example of a monosaccharide?
A. Sucrose
B. Starch
C. Cellulose
D. Glucose
Which of these is the smallest structure?
A. Amino acid
B. Protein
C. Polypeptide
D. Dipeptide
2. Any energy transformation involves the loss of some energy as
A. motion.
B. heat.
C. electric charge.
D. light.
3. Which one of the following molecules is a by-product of cellular respiration?
A. Glucose
B. Oxygen
C. Water
D. Pyruvate
4. The following atoms are all variations of the element carbon: 12C, 13C, and 14C due to differing numbers of neutrons..
This document is a 40 question biology exam consisting of multiple choice questions testing concepts related to biology. It provides instructions to candidates to answer all questions by choosing the best answer and indicating their choice on the provided answer sheet. The exam is 1 hour long and covers topics such as molecular biology, genetics, evolution, and physiology.
This document contains a 67 question practice test in biology. The questions cover various topics in biology including cellular processes like photosynthesis and respiration, levels of organization, genetics, anatomy and physiology. Example questions ask about where producers obtain their energy, the building blocks of proteins and carbohydrates, and organelles involved in protein synthesis. The practice test seems to be assessing a student's understanding of core concepts in biology from the cellular to organismal levels.
test bank Principles of Life Digital Update, 3e by David Hillis, Mary Price, ...NailBasko
This document provides a test bank with questions and answers for Chapter 1 of the textbook "Principles of Life Digital Update, 3e by David Hillis, Mary Price, Richard Hill, David Hall, Marta Laskowski". It includes 53 multiple choice questions testing foundational concepts in biology, such as the definition of life, cellular structure, evolution, and the tree of life. The questions cover topics like the basic unit of life (the cell), the early evolution of life on Earth, the emergence of eukaryotes and multicellular organisms, and the three domain system of classifying life.
This document is a biology exam for 8th grade students consisting of two sections with a total of 100 marks. Section A contains 30 multiple choice questions testing topics like cellular structures, transport processes, and chemical reactions in living things. Section B requires students to label diagrams, define terms, explain concepts, and provide examples related to photosynthesis, plant and animal cells, enzymes, and other biology topics. The exam instructions specify the time allotted, supplies permitted, and organization of answer sheets.
This document is a biology exam for 8th grade students consisting of two sections with a total of 100 marks. Section A contains 30 multiple choice questions testing topics like chemical molecules, plant structures and functions, cellular structures, and metabolic processes. Section B requires students to label diagrams, define terms, describe cellular structures and their functions, explain processes like photosynthesis and osmosis, and define key biology concepts. The exam tests students' understanding of topics covered in the first term.
1BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016FINAL EXAMINATIONPlease copy and.docxfelicidaddinwoodie
1
BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016
FINAL EXAMINATION
Please copy and paste the final examination into a Word file. Complete it in this form (do not make any structural changes!) and submit it as an attachment into your Assignment Folder.Do not forget to put your name on top of the exam!
The absolute deadline for submission is Sunday, October 16, NOON ET.
I cannot accept any later submissions.
YOUR NAME:
_______________________________________________________________
Total possible points: 100
I. Multiple choice questions. Please bold or underline the correct answer (1point each=50 points)
1. Several features, or properties, of living things may also be found in non-living things, such as fire. Of the following, which is the least likely to be found in non-living things?
A. Consumption of energy-containing molecules
B. Growth
C. Reproduction
D. Homeostasis
E. Response to external stimuli
2. Suppose you conduct an experiment which simulates glacial recession over time. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?
A. Glacial mass
B. Sunlight
C. The season
D. Time
3. If life on another planet were fundamentally like life on Earth, the macromolecules of living things would be based on which element?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
E. Phosphorus
4. The effectiveness of a medication containing growth hormones is tested on a group of young male rabbits 3 weeks of age. The best control group would be:
A. Any group of rabbits
B. A group of male rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
C. A group of female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
D. A mixed group of male/female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
E. No control is required; just measure whether the rabbits grew
5. Temperature is a measure of
A. The potential energy in a substance
B. How fast the molecule in a substance are moving
C. The energy lost from a substance to its surroundings.
D. How much heat is being absorbed by a substance
E. All of the above
6. Which of the following refers to a substance that has ‘lost’ a carbon dioxide molecule?
A. Denatured
B. Phosphorilated
C. Decarboxylated
D. Carbonated
E. Oxidated
7. Which of the following reactions or pathways is catabolic?
A. Converting glucose to carbon dioxide and water (cellular respiration)
B. Making starch from many glucose monomers
C. Photosynthesis, which builds glucose from carbon dioxide using energy from light
D. Making ATP from ADP and phosphate
8. One human disease is caused by a change in the DNA from GAA to GUA. This change is an example of:
A. Crossing-over
B. A meiosis error
C. A mitosis error
D. A mutation
9. During which part of the cell cycle is DNA polymerase most active?
A. Cytokinesis
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase
D. S phase
E. M phase
10. Which of the following correctly describes a buffer?
A. A buffer converts an alkaline solution to neutral
B. A buffer converts an acid solution to neutral.
C. A buffer converts alkaline solutions to acid solutions.
D. A b ...
This document contains a biology exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics like biological organization, elements that make up living organisms, cell structures, plant and animal classification, evolution, and plant physiology. The questions test fundamental concepts in these subject areas and each question is followed by the correct multiple choice answer.
Which of these is the smallest structureA. Amino acidB. Prote.docxalanfhall8953
Which of these is the smallest structure?
A. Amino acid
B. Protein
C. Polypeptide
D. Dipeptide
2. Any energy transformation involves the loss of some energy as
A. motion.
B. heat.
C. electric charge.
D. light.
3. Which one of the following molecules is a by-product of cellular respiration?
A. Glucose
B. Oxygen
C. Water
D. Pyruvate
4. The following atoms are all variations of the element carbon: 12C, 13C, and 14C due to differing numbers of neutrons. What are these variations called?
A. Isotopes
B. Isomers
C. Molecules
D. Polymers
5. When a scientific experiment is carried out in a controlled setting, all variables are kept the same except for the _______ variable.
A. environmental
B. observational
C. experimental
D. control
6. Which of the following is a true difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. Eukaryotic cells are more ancient.
B. Eukaryotic cells are less complex.
C. Eukaryotic cells are smaller.
D. Eukaryotic cells have true nuclei.
7. In a eukaryotic cell, protein synthesis occurs in the
A. nuclear envelope.
B. ribosomes.
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
D. chromosomes.
8. Nucleic acids are composed of monomers called
A. base pairs.
B. amino acids.
C. nucleotides.
D. ribose.
9. Which one of the following is a trans fatty acid found in most snack foods?
A. Carboxyl acid
B. Elaidic acid
C. Oleic acid
D. Stearic acid
10. The structure that surrounds the cytoplasm in a bacterial cell is the
A. cell wall.
B. nucleoid.
C. ribsosome.
D. plasma membrane.
11. Which of these statements most accurately describes how carbon dioxide enters a leaf?
A. CO
2 is pulled in by leaf veins. B. CO2 defuses by way of the stomata.
C. CO
2 enters a leaf through osmosis. D. CO2 is carried by water in leaf veins.
12. The Calvin cycle of photosynthesis begins when
A. the reduction of carbon dioxide occurs.
B. electrons leave a photosystem.
C. light becomes available.
D. carbon dioxide is attached to RuBP.
End of exam
13. Which of the following is true about bases?
A. They release hydroxide ions in solution.
B. They have a sharp or sour taste.
C. They help to build up cells.
D. They tend to decrease the pH of a solution.
14. The two major sets of reactions involved in photosynthesis are
A. light reactions and the electron transport chain.
B. glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
C. Calvin cycle reactions and citric acid cycles.
D. light reactions and Calvin cycle reactions.
15. Which one of the following is an example of a monosaccharide?
A. Sucrose
B. Starch
C. Cellulose
D. Glucose
Which of these is the smallest structure?
A. Amino acid
B. Protein
C. Polypeptide
D. Dipeptide
2. Any energy transformation involves the loss of some energy as
A. motion.
B. heat.
C. electric charge.
D. light.
3. Which one of the following molecules is a by-product of cellular respiration?
A. Glucose
B. Oxygen
C. Water
D. Pyruvate
4. The following atoms are all variations of the element carbon: 12C, 13C, and 14C due to differing numbers of neutrons..
This document provides a review for a first grade biology test. It covers topics like cell structures and functions, transport mechanisms, mitosis and meiosis, plant and animal tissues, photosynthesis and cellular respiration. The test will include multiple choice, word analogy, true/false, diagram completion and application questions testing knowledge of these concepts. It provides examples of questions that may appear on the test covering organelles, transport, tissues, mitosis stages, and cellular processes.
Biological science Comprehensive LET ReviewerKendral Flores
1. The kidney maintains osmotic balance by filtering excess material from the blood.
2. At the end of mitosis, the cell divides through cytokinesis where a new cell wall is formed.
3. A boring tool would first encounter xylem, then vascular cambium, and then phloem when drilling into a tree.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about photosynthesis. It asks about the light reactions, materials used, products formed, location in the chloroplast, and more. Key details assessed include: green light is not used for photosynthesis; autotrophs produce their own food; the mesophyll is specialized for photosynthesis; the light reaction begins in photosystem II; chlorophyll initially traps solar energy; glucose and oxygen are products of photosynthesis.
NEET Biology Test Series practice questions and answers pdf | Best NEET Coach...Vari Medical Academy
Vari Academy offers an exceptional test series tailored specifically for biology, designed to enhance your understanding and performance in this crucial subject. With meticulous attention to detail and a comprehensive approach, their test series equips you with the knowledge and skills needed to excel in biology in the NEET exam. By enrolling in Vari Academy's biology test series, you gain access to meticulously curated practice tests, insightful explanations, and expert guidance, all aimed at maximizing your score potential. Whether you're aiming to strengthen your grasp of biological concepts or fine-tune your problem-solving abilities, Vari Academy's test series provides the perfect platform to achieve your goals. Prepare with confidence, tackle the NEET exam with ease, and pave the way for a successful future in the field of biology with Vari Academy's top-notch test series.
1- Microbiology became an aceepted branch of 3- Which of these three l.docxpandoragardner78605
1. Microbiology became an aceepted branch of 3. Which of these three legs of Medical biological science Mierobiology came into use a while after A. when it was proposed, in 1546 , by Girolamo Microbiology was necepted? Fracastoro regarding objects carrying A. Sanitation pathogens. B. Vaccination. C. Antibioties B. in the late 1600 s with the invention of D. Disinfectants microscopes by Hook and van Lecuwenhoek's description of common microbes in solutions like saliva. E. Sterilization C. when objections to experiments where sterility 4. The range of different types of microbially was maintained in air-tight containers were produced chemicals circulating in your body are addressed by allowing air exchange. A. primarily pathogenic. D. when the 4 humors and treatments like bleeding B. removed by antibodies patients became unpopular and sanitation. C. primarily antibiotics. became the new focus. D. removed by kidneys. E. because discase became more of a problem, E. greater than the range from your tissues. with small pox and tuberculosis killing large numbers of people. 5. The most common phylogenetic trees of genetic diversity show that larger, multicellular creatures, like you and me, don't have a great deal of genetic diversity compared to the microbial world. But 2. Fleming discovered penicillin by structurally these multicellular creatures are quite A. chemical synthesis. diverse. Genetic diversity, on the other hand, mos B. observing infections. importantly corresponds to diversity in gene C. studying antibiotics. A. sequence. D. therapy. D. studying contamination. B. regulation. E. translation. E. analyzing moldy oranges. 6. Henatz Scmmelweis was not a popponent of porm theory bur his stery is instructive in understanding obsatacles to germ theory beenule A. doetor's warda had 3 times the mortality of whitr elycucatyx inclube midwife wards. B. his peers dismissed his ideas, since they ran contrary to established medical opinion. C. puemeral fever (or childbed fever) was common in mid-19th-century hospitals. D. the handwashing decreased mortakity rates. A. phaposytiring (enfeling) oher cetiti. E. he proposed the practice of washing with chlorinated lime solution. B. preventing phapocyrosis by other cells. glyoocalyz. D. cataking cavities H. faking of surface skin cells oft from the 7. These are mostly Koch's postulates, out of order. Choose the one not from Koch's postulates. The pathogen: A. can be isolated and grown in pure culture. B. must be present in all eases of the disease. C. must be found in most animals, for compatibility. D. must be reisolated from the new host and shown to be the same strain. E. pure culture isolate must cause the disease. 12. The Gram positive cell envelope does not include A. cytosolic membranc. B. Peptidoglycan. Chapter 3 C. molecular anchors for peptidoglycan. D. proteins blocking entry to peptidoglycan 8. Bacterial translation of mRNA typically occurs E. All of these are Gram positive features. A. in the n.
The document contains information about the key topics in Life Science and the number of hours and items allocated to assess each topic. It includes a table that lists the 7 major topics of Life Science, the number and percentage of total hours allocated to each, and the number of assessment items for each topic. It also includes a similar table for the key topics in Philippine Politics and Governance.
This document contains a review exam for a Crop Science course. It consists of 56 multiple choice questions covering various topics related to crop science such as plant physiology, soil science, sustainable agriculture, seed science, and horticultural techniques. The questions assess understanding of concepts like photosynthesis pathways, transpiration, plant nutrition, effects of climate on crop growth, and components of sustainable crop production systems.
This document contains a 22 question quiz on cellular biology concepts. The questions cover topics like cellular transport mechanisms, cellular structures like organelles and membranes, the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, and the distinguishing features of bacteria, plant, and animal cells.
This document contains 25 multiple choice questions about science topics such as plants, cells, farming equipment, light phenomena, the atmosphere, composting, sources of energy, the solar system, biology processes like photosynthesis and more. The questions have a single correct multiple choice answer labelled A, B, C or D.
The document appears to contain multiple choice questions from natural science and social science subjects. It includes questions about density calculations, chemical and physical changes, human anatomy, astronomy, the scientific method, and Philippine history. The questions cover a wide range of science and social studies topics at varying levels of difficulty.
Schleiden & Schwann were responsible for the second postulate of the Cell Theory that all living things are made of cells. Anton van Leeuwenhoek was integral to the development of the Cell Theory because he was the first to observe living cells using microscopes he had constructed. Some statements that are considered true include that some living things can exist without cells and that the ability to reproduce does not immediately mean something is a living thing. Viruses are generally considered non-living things.
The document appears to be a test containing multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions about English grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It covers topics such as pronunciation, word stress patterns, parts of speech, sentence structure, and summarizing passages. The test contains 40 total questions divided into 6 sections.
This document contains a 50 question multiple choice quiz about various topics in science including physics, chemistry, biology and medicine. The questions cover definitions, principles, discoveries and applications across these fields as well as causes of diseases, chemical properties and biological processes. Correct answers are identified for each multiple choice question.
1. The document contains questions and multiple choice answers about biology topics such as cells, genetics, taxonomy, and ecosystems.
2. It reviews phases of mitosis, producers in ecosystems, blood types and their genetic determination, characteristics of arthropods, and energy transfer in food chains.
3. The questions assess understanding of cellular organelles, chemical bonding, biogeochemical cycles, cell division, enzyme function, and experimental design.
This 35-item reviewer tests knowledge of various biology concepts through multiple choice questions. It covers topics like cellular reproduction, organelle functions, symbiotic relationships, ecosystems, cellular transport, genetics, and more. Test takers have 30 seconds to answer each question before moving to the next slide. No returning to previous questions is allowed.
A module-based test in Science for ALS Secondary Level compiled by the ALS Teachers of the Districts of maydolong, Balangkayan, Llorente, Hernani, and Gen. MacArthur of the Division of Eastern Samar
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019 1 .docxtidwellveronique
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
1
EXAM 2 IS TUESDAY APRIL 9th, 2019
REVIEW ESFCW CHAPTERS 5 and 6
EXAM 2 is worth 15 POINTS
1. Which of the following statements is an example of climate?
a. The temperature today is unusually cold for this time of year.
b. Heavy local rains caused flooding in low-lying areas.
c. Long winters and hot, humid summers are typical of the upper Midwest.
d. If the drought in Oklahoma continues next year, it will be the worst since the Dust Bowl.
e. High humidity intensifies the oppressive heat.
2. The evolution of the average behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere over time is called
a. weather. b. climate.
c. climate change. d. hurricanes.
e. stratospheric migration.
3. Components of the climate system do not include
a. the sun. b. oceans.
c. glaciers. d. the atmosphere.
e. cosmic rays.
4. What is e-waste and why is it a concern?
5. Which of the following is not a driver in Earth’s climate?
a. The gravitational pull of the moon b. The sun
c. Ocean currents d. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
e. Clouds
6. Which of the following statements concerning the composition of the atmosphere is true?
a. Water consistently is the gas present in the highest concentrations.
b. N2 and O2 concentrations tend to be variable.
c. CO2 is present in the lowest concentration of all gases.
d. Methane concentration is about 17 parts per million by volume.
e. Carbon monoxide concentration is 388 parts per million.
7. What is the difference between a sanitary land fill and an open dump? Does garbage decompose more quickly in a
sanitary landfill?
8. If you were to measure the composition of the atmosphere across the globe, the composition would be relatively
constant except for
a. nitrogen and oxygen.
b. oxygen and helium.
c. helium and carbon dioxide.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
e. water vapor and ozone.
9. Ozone exists mostly
a. in the stratosphere. b. underground in reservoirs.
c. dissolved in water. d. in the cryosphere.
e. None of the above
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
2
10. Incident ultraviolet radiation from the sun is blocked by
a. clouds. b. sulfur dioxide.
c. chlorofluorocarbons. d. methane.
e. ozone.
11. Are most plastics degradable, biodegradable or non-degradable waste? How well do plastics break down?
12. The greatest quantity of fresh water is held in
a. rivers. b. lakes. c. ground water. d. oceans. e. glaciers and ice caps.
13. Which of the following does not play a role in reflecting incident sunlight back into space?
a. Methane b. Ice
c. Clouds d. Sulfur oxides
e. Particulate matter suspended in the atmosphere
14. Other than CO2, what greenhouse gas has the longest lifetime in the atmosphere?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ozone
c. CFCs d. Methane
e. Both a and c
15. Without the greenhouse effect, the atm.
1. A bee/flower relationship represents a mutualistic relationship, where both organisms benefit.
2. If two populations of flightless beetles become separated and unable to interbreed, they will most likely become separate species over time.
3. A woman who is a carrier for sickle cell disease marrying a man with no sickle cell disease will have a 0% chance of having a child with sickle cell anemia.
Class 11 Important Questions for Biology - Kingdom PlantaeInfomatica Academy
Here you can get Class 11 Important Questions for Biology based on NCERT Textbook for Class XI. Biology Class 11 Important Questions are very helpful to score high marks in board exams. Here we have covered Important Questions on Kingdom Plantae for Class 11 Biology subject.
Biology 204 Principles of Biology I Assignment 1CMichael Taylor
Biology 204 Principles of Biology I Assignment 1C
For students with first names starting with the letters O to Z.
This assignment is graded out of 110 points, and is worth 10% of your final mark. Please submit this assignment after you have completed Chapter 7 and before you write the midterm exam.
CAUSES OF GEOLO-WPS Office. powerpoint presentationMaggelAnclote2
A geologic hazard or geohazard is an adverse geologic condition capable of causing widespread damage or loss of property and life.These hazards are geological and environmental conditions and involve long-term or short-term geological processes.
Effective Oral and Multimodal Presentations Education Presentation in Yellow ...MaggelAnclote2
Volcano, vent in the crust of Earth or another planet or satellite, from which issue eruptions of molten rock, hot rock fragments, and hot gases. A volcanic eruption is an awesome display of Earth’s power. Yet, while eruptions are spectacular to watch, they can cause disastrous loss of life and property, especially in densely populated regions of the world.
This document provides a review for a first grade biology test. It covers topics like cell structures and functions, transport mechanisms, mitosis and meiosis, plant and animal tissues, photosynthesis and cellular respiration. The test will include multiple choice, word analogy, true/false, diagram completion and application questions testing knowledge of these concepts. It provides examples of questions that may appear on the test covering organelles, transport, tissues, mitosis stages, and cellular processes.
Biological science Comprehensive LET ReviewerKendral Flores
1. The kidney maintains osmotic balance by filtering excess material from the blood.
2. At the end of mitosis, the cell divides through cytokinesis where a new cell wall is formed.
3. A boring tool would first encounter xylem, then vascular cambium, and then phloem when drilling into a tree.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about photosynthesis. It asks about the light reactions, materials used, products formed, location in the chloroplast, and more. Key details assessed include: green light is not used for photosynthesis; autotrophs produce their own food; the mesophyll is specialized for photosynthesis; the light reaction begins in photosystem II; chlorophyll initially traps solar energy; glucose and oxygen are products of photosynthesis.
NEET Biology Test Series practice questions and answers pdf | Best NEET Coach...Vari Medical Academy
Vari Academy offers an exceptional test series tailored specifically for biology, designed to enhance your understanding and performance in this crucial subject. With meticulous attention to detail and a comprehensive approach, their test series equips you with the knowledge and skills needed to excel in biology in the NEET exam. By enrolling in Vari Academy's biology test series, you gain access to meticulously curated practice tests, insightful explanations, and expert guidance, all aimed at maximizing your score potential. Whether you're aiming to strengthen your grasp of biological concepts or fine-tune your problem-solving abilities, Vari Academy's test series provides the perfect platform to achieve your goals. Prepare with confidence, tackle the NEET exam with ease, and pave the way for a successful future in the field of biology with Vari Academy's top-notch test series.
1- Microbiology became an aceepted branch of 3- Which of these three l.docxpandoragardner78605
1. Microbiology became an aceepted branch of 3. Which of these three legs of Medical biological science Mierobiology came into use a while after A. when it was proposed, in 1546 , by Girolamo Microbiology was necepted? Fracastoro regarding objects carrying A. Sanitation pathogens. B. Vaccination. C. Antibioties B. in the late 1600 s with the invention of D. Disinfectants microscopes by Hook and van Lecuwenhoek's description of common microbes in solutions like saliva. E. Sterilization C. when objections to experiments where sterility 4. The range of different types of microbially was maintained in air-tight containers were produced chemicals circulating in your body are addressed by allowing air exchange. A. primarily pathogenic. D. when the 4 humors and treatments like bleeding B. removed by antibodies patients became unpopular and sanitation. C. primarily antibiotics. became the new focus. D. removed by kidneys. E. because discase became more of a problem, E. greater than the range from your tissues. with small pox and tuberculosis killing large numbers of people. 5. The most common phylogenetic trees of genetic diversity show that larger, multicellular creatures, like you and me, don't have a great deal of genetic diversity compared to the microbial world. But 2. Fleming discovered penicillin by structurally these multicellular creatures are quite A. chemical synthesis. diverse. Genetic diversity, on the other hand, mos B. observing infections. importantly corresponds to diversity in gene C. studying antibiotics. A. sequence. D. therapy. D. studying contamination. B. regulation. E. translation. E. analyzing moldy oranges. 6. Henatz Scmmelweis was not a popponent of porm theory bur his stery is instructive in understanding obsatacles to germ theory beenule A. doetor's warda had 3 times the mortality of whitr elycucatyx inclube midwife wards. B. his peers dismissed his ideas, since they ran contrary to established medical opinion. C. puemeral fever (or childbed fever) was common in mid-19th-century hospitals. D. the handwashing decreased mortakity rates. A. phaposytiring (enfeling) oher cetiti. E. he proposed the practice of washing with chlorinated lime solution. B. preventing phapocyrosis by other cells. glyoocalyz. D. cataking cavities H. faking of surface skin cells oft from the 7. These are mostly Koch's postulates, out of order. Choose the one not from Koch's postulates. The pathogen: A. can be isolated and grown in pure culture. B. must be present in all eases of the disease. C. must be found in most animals, for compatibility. D. must be reisolated from the new host and shown to be the same strain. E. pure culture isolate must cause the disease. 12. The Gram positive cell envelope does not include A. cytosolic membranc. B. Peptidoglycan. Chapter 3 C. molecular anchors for peptidoglycan. D. proteins blocking entry to peptidoglycan 8. Bacterial translation of mRNA typically occurs E. All of these are Gram positive features. A. in the n.
The document contains information about the key topics in Life Science and the number of hours and items allocated to assess each topic. It includes a table that lists the 7 major topics of Life Science, the number and percentage of total hours allocated to each, and the number of assessment items for each topic. It also includes a similar table for the key topics in Philippine Politics and Governance.
This document contains a review exam for a Crop Science course. It consists of 56 multiple choice questions covering various topics related to crop science such as plant physiology, soil science, sustainable agriculture, seed science, and horticultural techniques. The questions assess understanding of concepts like photosynthesis pathways, transpiration, plant nutrition, effects of climate on crop growth, and components of sustainable crop production systems.
This document contains a 22 question quiz on cellular biology concepts. The questions cover topics like cellular transport mechanisms, cellular structures like organelles and membranes, the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, and the distinguishing features of bacteria, plant, and animal cells.
This document contains 25 multiple choice questions about science topics such as plants, cells, farming equipment, light phenomena, the atmosphere, composting, sources of energy, the solar system, biology processes like photosynthesis and more. The questions have a single correct multiple choice answer labelled A, B, C or D.
The document appears to contain multiple choice questions from natural science and social science subjects. It includes questions about density calculations, chemical and physical changes, human anatomy, astronomy, the scientific method, and Philippine history. The questions cover a wide range of science and social studies topics at varying levels of difficulty.
Schleiden & Schwann were responsible for the second postulate of the Cell Theory that all living things are made of cells. Anton van Leeuwenhoek was integral to the development of the Cell Theory because he was the first to observe living cells using microscopes he had constructed. Some statements that are considered true include that some living things can exist without cells and that the ability to reproduce does not immediately mean something is a living thing. Viruses are generally considered non-living things.
The document appears to be a test containing multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions about English grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It covers topics such as pronunciation, word stress patterns, parts of speech, sentence structure, and summarizing passages. The test contains 40 total questions divided into 6 sections.
This document contains a 50 question multiple choice quiz about various topics in science including physics, chemistry, biology and medicine. The questions cover definitions, principles, discoveries and applications across these fields as well as causes of diseases, chemical properties and biological processes. Correct answers are identified for each multiple choice question.
1. The document contains questions and multiple choice answers about biology topics such as cells, genetics, taxonomy, and ecosystems.
2. It reviews phases of mitosis, producers in ecosystems, blood types and their genetic determination, characteristics of arthropods, and energy transfer in food chains.
3. The questions assess understanding of cellular organelles, chemical bonding, biogeochemical cycles, cell division, enzyme function, and experimental design.
This 35-item reviewer tests knowledge of various biology concepts through multiple choice questions. It covers topics like cellular reproduction, organelle functions, symbiotic relationships, ecosystems, cellular transport, genetics, and more. Test takers have 30 seconds to answer each question before moving to the next slide. No returning to previous questions is allowed.
A module-based test in Science for ALS Secondary Level compiled by the ALS Teachers of the Districts of maydolong, Balangkayan, Llorente, Hernani, and Gen. MacArthur of the Division of Eastern Samar
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019 1 .docxtidwellveronique
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
1
EXAM 2 IS TUESDAY APRIL 9th, 2019
REVIEW ESFCW CHAPTERS 5 and 6
EXAM 2 is worth 15 POINTS
1. Which of the following statements is an example of climate?
a. The temperature today is unusually cold for this time of year.
b. Heavy local rains caused flooding in low-lying areas.
c. Long winters and hot, humid summers are typical of the upper Midwest.
d. If the drought in Oklahoma continues next year, it will be the worst since the Dust Bowl.
e. High humidity intensifies the oppressive heat.
2. The evolution of the average behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere over time is called
a. weather. b. climate.
c. climate change. d. hurricanes.
e. stratospheric migration.
3. Components of the climate system do not include
a. the sun. b. oceans.
c. glaciers. d. the atmosphere.
e. cosmic rays.
4. What is e-waste and why is it a concern?
5. Which of the following is not a driver in Earth’s climate?
a. The gravitational pull of the moon b. The sun
c. Ocean currents d. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
e. Clouds
6. Which of the following statements concerning the composition of the atmosphere is true?
a. Water consistently is the gas present in the highest concentrations.
b. N2 and O2 concentrations tend to be variable.
c. CO2 is present in the lowest concentration of all gases.
d. Methane concentration is about 17 parts per million by volume.
e. Carbon monoxide concentration is 388 parts per million.
7. What is the difference between a sanitary land fill and an open dump? Does garbage decompose more quickly in a
sanitary landfill?
8. If you were to measure the composition of the atmosphere across the globe, the composition would be relatively
constant except for
a. nitrogen and oxygen.
b. oxygen and helium.
c. helium and carbon dioxide.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
e. water vapor and ozone.
9. Ozone exists mostly
a. in the stratosphere. b. underground in reservoirs.
c. dissolved in water. d. in the cryosphere.
e. None of the above
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
2
10. Incident ultraviolet radiation from the sun is blocked by
a. clouds. b. sulfur dioxide.
c. chlorofluorocarbons. d. methane.
e. ozone.
11. Are most plastics degradable, biodegradable or non-degradable waste? How well do plastics break down?
12. The greatest quantity of fresh water is held in
a. rivers. b. lakes. c. ground water. d. oceans. e. glaciers and ice caps.
13. Which of the following does not play a role in reflecting incident sunlight back into space?
a. Methane b. Ice
c. Clouds d. Sulfur oxides
e. Particulate matter suspended in the atmosphere
14. Other than CO2, what greenhouse gas has the longest lifetime in the atmosphere?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ozone
c. CFCs d. Methane
e. Both a and c
15. Without the greenhouse effect, the atm.
1. A bee/flower relationship represents a mutualistic relationship, where both organisms benefit.
2. If two populations of flightless beetles become separated and unable to interbreed, they will most likely become separate species over time.
3. A woman who is a carrier for sickle cell disease marrying a man with no sickle cell disease will have a 0% chance of having a child with sickle cell anemia.
Class 11 Important Questions for Biology - Kingdom PlantaeInfomatica Academy
Here you can get Class 11 Important Questions for Biology based on NCERT Textbook for Class XI. Biology Class 11 Important Questions are very helpful to score high marks in board exams. Here we have covered Important Questions on Kingdom Plantae for Class 11 Biology subject.
Biology 204 Principles of Biology I Assignment 1CMichael Taylor
Biology 204 Principles of Biology I Assignment 1C
For students with first names starting with the letters O to Z.
This assignment is graded out of 110 points, and is worth 10% of your final mark. Please submit this assignment after you have completed Chapter 7 and before you write the midterm exam.
CAUSES OF GEOLO-WPS Office. powerpoint presentationMaggelAnclote2
A geologic hazard or geohazard is an adverse geologic condition capable of causing widespread damage or loss of property and life.These hazards are geological and environmental conditions and involve long-term or short-term geological processes.
Effective Oral and Multimodal Presentations Education Presentation in Yellow ...MaggelAnclote2
Volcano, vent in the crust of Earth or another planet or satellite, from which issue eruptions of molten rock, hot rock fragments, and hot gases. A volcanic eruption is an awesome display of Earth’s power. Yet, while eruptions are spectacular to watch, they can cause disastrous loss of life and property, especially in densely populated regions of the world.
Olive Green Organic Shapes and Scribbles Group Project Presentation.pptxMaggelAnclote2
This refers to the amount of volcanic activity. “Active” means there’s regular activity, “dormant” means there’s been recent activity but the volcano is currently quiet, and “extinct” means it’s been so long since the last eruption that it’s unlikely to ever erupt again.
Earthquake-induced ground movements have long been considered a secondary effect of earthquakes as opposed to ground vibrations. However, many examples from around the world have shown that their destructive potential can be very high.
The K to 12 curriculum is standard and competency-based. It is inclusive and built around the needs of the learners and the community. The K to 12 program was carefully studied and designed based on research from other countries and our own local successes and failures in education. The curriculum is available on DepED website. It is the first time in history that the entire curriculum is digitized and made accessible to the public.
practical research 1 chapter 4 qualitative researchMaggelAnclote2
practical research I activity sheets intended for grade 11 students. This Senior High School (SHS) Disaster Readiness and Risk Reduction Quarter 1 – Module 1: Basic Concept of Disaster and Disaster Risk for School Year 2021-2022 is intended to help you
Learn how to write a title that helps readers find your article, draws your audience in and sets the stage for your research! How your title impacts the success of your article. Researchers are busy and there will always be time to search for their topics.
There are different ways to introduce oneself in a class. One way is to state one's name, major, and the courses they are taking123. Another way is to ask students to introduce themselves and share something about themselves, such as where they are from or a funny story45. The goal is to come across as warm and approachable. When you introduce yourself in class, keep it light and friendly. Your goal is to come across as warm and approachable. When asked to introduce yourself in college, consider the needs and interests of your audience when choosing what academic information to share.
Sinkholes are caused by erosion. They may appear suddenly and have devastating consequences. Sinkholes are cavities in the ground that form when water erodes an underlying rock layer. Sinkholes have both natural and human causes. Sinkholes are formed when the land surface above collapses or sinks into the cavities or when surface material is carried downward into the voids. Drought, along with resulting high groundwater withdrawals, can make conditions favorable for sinkholes to form.
A geologic hazard is an adverse geologic condition capable of causing damage or loss of property or life. These geologic processes only become hazards when humans get in their way; if there were no people affected, we would find these natural phenomena interesting, but not concerning. Landslides of all kinds, including seismically-triggered landslides, debris flows, mud flows, and rock falls. Mineral hazards such as asbestos, radon, and mercury. Volcanic hazards, such as ash fall, lava flows, lahars, pyroclastic flows, toxic gases, and volcanic landslides.
STS REPORT_SCIENCE AS A WAY OF REVEALING (1).pptxMaggelAnclote2
First, the essence of technology is not something we make; it is a mode of being, or of revealing. This means that technological things have their own novel kind of presence, endurance, and connections among parts and wholes. They have their own way of presenting themselves and the world in which they operate.
(BACERO AND AVENILLA) Lithosphere-on-Crisis-and-Actions-on-Lithosphere.pdfMaggelAnclote2
The lithosphere is the solid, outer part of Earth. The lithosphere includes the brittle upper portion of the mantle and the crust, the outermost layers of Earth's structure. It is bounded by the atmosphere above and the asthenosphere (another part of the upper mantle) below. What is the issue about the lithosphere?
It has been reported from many parts of the country that agricultural intensification, faulty irrigation techniques, deforestation and excessive use of pesticides and herbicides have lead to widespread soil degradation.
The document provides information about different types of variables that can be used in quantitative research. It defines continuous and discrete variables, and further categorizes them into interval, ratio, nominal and ordinal variables. Specific examples are given to illustrate each type of variable, like temperature as an interval variable, height as a ratio variable, and planet names as nominal variables. The document aims to help the reader differentiate between kinds of variables and understand their appropriate uses in research.
humans impact the physical environment in many ways: overpopulation, pollution, burning fossil fuels, and deforestation. Changes like these have triggered climate change, soil erosion, poor air quality, and undrinkable water. Impacts from human activity on land and in the water can influence ecosystems profoundly. Human impact on the environment (or anthropogenic impact) refers to changes to biophysical environments and to ecosystems, biodiversity.
An online material for Media and Information Literacy that can be used for grade 12 students. Media and information literacy empowers people to think critically about information and use of digital tools. It helps people make informed choices about how to literately used medias. Think before you click. Becoming media and information literate individuals will test our patience on how we deal with information and misinformation.
Ecology is the study of organisms, populations, communities, and ecosystems. It examines how living things interact with each other and their non-living environments. The main levels of ecological study are organisms, populations, communities, and ecosystems. Ecologists seek to understand life processes, interactions between organisms, energy and material flows, ecosystem development, and biodiversity distribution.
A pdf file about the topic in science, technology and society that talks about nano world. This informative material is a helped to students in understanding the importance of nanotechnology and its effects to human life. Nano technology refers to the science, engineering and technology conducted at the nanoscale. nanoscience and nano technology employs the study and application of small things in areas of science
Good day! May I ask the status of my application in renewing my license ID. Here is the tracking number of my transaction last Nov. 25, 2022 . SInce, I haven't received any text or details about my renewed ID. I already contacted the WExpress, and they said that the ID was not yet turn over on their facility. Thank you and Godbless
This document discusses different types of sampling methods used in research. It explains that sampling allows researchers to study large populations by measuring a representative subset. The main types discussed are probability and non-probability sampling. Non-probability sampling methods described include judgment sampling, convenience sampling, quota sampling, and snowball sampling. Each method has advantages and limitations for selecting samples without random selection.
How to Build a Module in Odoo 17 Using the Scaffold MethodCeline George
Odoo provides an option for creating a module by using a single line command. By using this command the user can make a whole structure of a module. It is very easy for a beginner to make a module. There is no need to make each file manually. This slide will show how to create a module using the scaffold method.
How to Make a Field Mandatory in Odoo 17Celine George
In Odoo, making a field required can be done through both Python code and XML views. When you set the required attribute to True in Python code, it makes the field required across all views where it's used. Conversely, when you set the required attribute in XML views, it makes the field required only in the context of that particular view.
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty,
International FDP on Fundamentals of Research in Social Sciences
at Integral University, Lucknow, 06.06.2024
By Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
This presentation includes basic of PCOS their pathology and treatment and also Ayurveda correlation of PCOS and Ayurvedic line of treatment mentioned in classics.
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRMCeline George
Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
हिंदी वर्णमाला पीपीटी, hindi alphabet PPT presentation, hindi varnamala PPT, Hindi Varnamala pdf, हिंदी स्वर, हिंदी व्यंजन, sikhiye hindi varnmala, dr. mulla adam ali, hindi language and literature, hindi alphabet with drawing, hindi alphabet pdf, hindi varnamala for childrens, hindi language, hindi varnamala practice for kids, https://www.drmullaadamali.com
Strategies for Effective Upskilling is a presentation by Chinwendu Peace in a Your Skill Boost Masterclass organisation by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan on 08th and 09th June 2024 from 1 PM to 3 PM on each day.
A review of the growth of the Israel Genealogy Research Association Database Collection for the last 12 months. Our collection is now passed the 3 million mark and still growing. See which archives have contributed the most. See the different types of records we have, and which years have had records added. You can also see what we have for the future.
How to Add Chatter in the odoo 17 ERP ModuleCeline George
In Odoo, the chatter is like a chat tool that helps you work together on records. You can leave notes and track things, making it easier to talk with your team and partners. Inside chatter, all communication history, activity, and changes will be displayed.
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdfTechSoup
"Learn about all the ways Walmart supports nonprofit organizations.
You will hear from Liz Willett, the Head of Nonprofits, and hear about what Walmart is doing to help nonprofits, including Walmart Business and Spark Good. Walmart Business+ is a new offer for nonprofits that offers discounts and also streamlines nonprofits order and expense tracking, saving time and money.
The webinar may also give some examples on how nonprofits can best leverage Walmart Business+.
The event will cover the following::
Walmart Business + (https://business.walmart.com/plus) is a new shopping experience for nonprofits, schools, and local business customers that connects an exclusive online shopping experience to stores. Benefits include free delivery and shipping, a 'Spend Analytics” feature, special discounts, deals and tax-exempt shopping.
Special TechSoup offer for a free 180 days membership, and up to $150 in discounts on eligible orders.
Spark Good (walmart.com/sparkgood) is a charitable platform that enables nonprofits to receive donations directly from customers and associates.
Answers about how you can do more with Walmart!"
2. 1.Which of the following is a part of the
process of chemiosmosis?
A. Protons move along the electron
transport chain.
B. Water molecules are split.
C. Hydrogen ions pass through
membranes.
D. Light is absorbed by chlorophyll.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 2
3. 2. During mitosis, a double-stranded
chromosome is attached to a spindle
fiber at the.
A. cell plate
B. centromere
C. centrosome
D. centriole
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 3
4. 3. Which is the effect of drugs on
cells?
A. Produce toxic substance
B. Discontinuous cell activity
C. Cause damage to their
structure
D. Poison the cell liquid
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 4
5. 4. The cell wall of plant is made of .
A. Lipids
B. Cellulose
C. Protein
D. Cell membrane
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 5
6. 5. Which is the storage cell of plants?
A. Microtubule
B. Collenchyma
C. Meristem
D. Parenchyma
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 6
7. 6. Which results from drinking
saltwater?
A. Poisoning of the cells
B. Dehydration of the cells
C. Increase in cell pressure
D. Bursting of the cells
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 7
8. 7. What kind of tissue lines our skin and
what is its important function?
A. Nerve tissue; responsible for reflexes
B. Epithelial; protection from ultraviolet
radiation
C. Nerve tissue; receive stimuli on the
skin
D. Epithelial; produce new cells when
peeled off
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 8
9. 8. At metaphase of the first meiotic
division, the chromosomes are attached
to the spindle fibers as _.
A. double chromatids
B. non-homologous pairs
C. single chromatid strand
D. a tetrad of chromatids
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 9
10. 9. Which type of cell would probably
provide the best opportunity to study
lysosomes?
A. Leaf
B. Nerve
C. Muscle
D. White blood
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 10
11. 10. Which best describes meiosis as another
form of cell division with accompanying
nuclear changes?
A. The nuclear changes follow one another
indefinitely.
B. The new cell has double the amount from
both parents.
C. The nucleoli break up into two parts and
disappear.
D. Each new cell has half the number of
chromosomes.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 11
12. 11. How are mitochondria and
chloroplasts similar to bacteria? They
A. are larger than normal cells.
B. are bounded by a single membrane.
C. lack ribosomes.
D. have a limited amount of genetic
material.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 12
13. 12. Which is the energy storage
compound used to do all forms of work of
the cell?
A. Electron
B. Adenine
C. Nicotinamide
D. Adenosine triphosphate
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 13
14. 13. Meiosis reduces genetic make-up by
half. What process brings it back to
diploid state?
A. Menstruation
B. Fertilization
C. Ejaculation
D. Mitosis
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 14
15. 14. The bipolar nature of the cell
membrane is due to .
A. presence of carriers
B. presence of glycolipids
C. phospholipid bilayer
D. integral protein
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 15
16. 15. When a red blood cell is placed in
distilled water, it .
A. plasmolysis
b. remains the same
C. shrinks
D. swells
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 16
17. 16. The “eyes” of potato are actually .
A. internodes
B. nodes
C. leaf scars and buds
D. stems
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 17
18. 17. Which of these is NOT a fruit?
A. Cucumber
B. Ampalaya
C. Squash
D. Carrot
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 18
19. 18. Which plant has an underground
stem modified for reproduction?
A. Banana
B. Bermuda
C. Tubers
D. Strawberry
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 19
20. 19. Which plants formed the vast coal
beds during the carboniferous period?
A. Lycopods
B. Conifers
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 20
21. 20. What kind of relationship is exhibited
by an alga and a fungus in lichen?
A. Commensalism
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Competition
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 21
22. 21. Chlorophyll appears green because
the green portion of light is .
A. dispersed
B. absorbed
C. refracted
D. reflected
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 22
23. 22. The end products of dark reaction
phase of photosynthesis are ADP and .
A. carbon dioxide
B. sugar
C. carbon
D. nitrogen
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 23
24. 23. Which gas is needed by the seed
during germination?
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrogen
D. Oxygen
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 24
25. 24. Which is the universal energy source
of the cell of all living things?
A. Carbon
B. ATP
C. H2O
D. PGAL
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 25
26. 25. When the staminate flower is found in
one plant and the pistillate flower on
another, the plant is described as .
A. complete
B. monoecious
C. robust
D. dioecious
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 26
27. 26. Which pigment is dominant in red
algae?
A. Phycocyanin
B. Fucoxanthin
C. Chlorophyll
D. Phycoerythrin
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 27
28. 27. Which process during
photosynthesis involves the addition of
hydrogen?
A. Oxidation
B. Hydration
C. Carbonation
D. Reduction
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 28
29. 28. The dark reaction phase of
photosynthesis consists of a series of
chemical reactions which end up with the
formation of a 3-carbon sugar called
A. ADP
B. NADPH
C. ATP
D. PGAL
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 29
30. 29. Which cell structure regulates the
opening and closing of the stomata?
A. Phloem
B. Xylem
C. Companion
D. Guard
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 30
31. 30. Spraying some plants with
combination of auxins and gibberellins will
.
A. promote ripening of fruits
B. result to seed dormancy
C. allow division of cells
D. enlarge fruit growth
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 31
32. 31. All flowering plants belong to _.
A. conifers
B. angiospermae
C. filicinae
D. gymnospermae
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 32
33. 32. Fruit growers often propagate their
plants by sexual means because the
resulting offspring will .
A. be an improved variety than the parent
B. show little variation from the parent
C. bear larger fruit than the parent
D. show no environmental variation
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 33
34. 33. Which of the following is incorrectly
paired?
A. Cnidaria- corals
B. Porifera- sponge
C. Annelida- earthworm
D. Platyhelminthes-Ascaris
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 34
35. 34. What process is caused for the
upward movement of water in very tall
trees?
A. Transpiration
B. Osmosis
C. Turgor pressure
D. Air pressure
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 35
36. 35. Which popular plant is described as
carnivorous?
A. Water hyacinth
B. Cactus
C. Pitcher plant
D. Kataka-taka
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 36
37. 36. What is the purpose of RA 8749?
A. Prevent rather than control air pollution
B. Formulate air pollution management
C. Utilize sustainable development
D. All of the above
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 37
38. 37. What do you call the male
gametophyte of an angiosperm?
A. Pollen
B. Ovule
C. Seed
D. Petal
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 38
39. 38. Which root system is the best
adapted for anchorage?
A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Taproot
D. Fibrous
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 39
40. 39. Egg-laying mammals are called .
A. viviparous
B. primates
C. oviparous
D. marsupials
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 40
41. 40. To what order do pouch bearing
mammals?
A. Marsupials
B. Craniata
C. Monotremata
D. Placental mammals
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 41
42. 41. Large colonies belonging to class
Anthozoa secrete hard skeletons of lime
which later form reefs.
A. Sea anemone
B. Obelia
C. Coral
D. Jellyfish
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 42
43. 42. When body parts are paired on either
side of the body; this type of symmetry is
called .
A. Dorso-ventral
B. Bilateral
C. Radial
D. Dorsal
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44. 43. What substance do leeches secrete
which keeps the blood they feed on
liquid?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Ecdysone
C. Anticoagulin
D. Fibrinogen
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 44
45. 44. One who specializes in all kinds of
fishes and their characteristics has
expertise on
A. Taxonomy
B. histology
C. entomology
D. ichthyology
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46. 45. In protozoans, digestion occurs in the .
A. stomach
B. contractile vacuole
C. ribosome
D. food vacuole
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47. 46. What is a distinguishing characteristic
of Homo sapiens over the lower
mammals?
A. Blood vessels
B. Sensitive skin
C. Large brain
D. Endoskeleton
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 47
48. 47. What kind of adaptation enables the
walking stick to elude its enemies?
A. Aggressive mimicry
B. Aggressive adaptation
C. Protective mimicry
D. Protective coloration
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 48
49. 48. Which stages of incomplete
metamorphosis are undergone by
grasshoppers?
A. Nymph, pupa, adult
B. Egg, larva, pupa, adult
C. Egg, nymph, adult
D. Egg, pupa, adult
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 49
50. 49. Which are the hosts of Ascaris
lumbricoides and Ascaris suum?
A. Cow and man
B. Man and dog
C. Cow and pig
D. Man and pig
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 50
51. 50. Two organisms can be identified as
belonging to the same species if they can
A. eat the same kind of food
B. breed in a natural setting
C. tolerate one another in nature
D. survive together in nature
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 51
53. 51. Which statement about the North-
magnetic pole of the Earth is TRUE?
A. Its location never changes.
B. It corresponds to the N-pole of a bar
magnet.
C. It corresponds to the S-pole of a bar
magnet.
D. It is at the same location as the
geographic north pole of the Earth
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 53
54. 52. An iron nail can be turned into a
temporary magnet if it is held in a strong
magnet field. Which method of
magnetization is this?
A. Charging
B. Conduction
C. Introduction
D. Saturation
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55. 53. Which of the following factors affect the
size of the induced current in a coil?
I. Number of turns in the coil
II. Size of the inducing field
III.Direction of the winding in the coil
IV. Resistance of the wire in the coil
A. I and II only C. I, II, and III only
B. III and IV only D. I, II, and IV only
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 55
56. 54. To use the right hand rule to predict
the direction of n induced current in a
coil, your thumb must point .
A. to the direction of the motion of the
wire
B. to the S-pole of the induced magnetic
field
C. in the direction of the induced current
D. in the direction of the inducing field
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 56
57. 55. When a bar magnet is inserted into a
coil, a current of 12.0 A is induced in the
coil. If four magnets of the same type are
inserted into a coil at the same time, what
would be the induced current?
A. 3 A
B. 4 A
C. 12 A
D. 48 A
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 57
58. 56. Which of the following involves
adsorption?
A. Plating the copper on a steel object
B. Adherence of paint to wood surfaces
C. Brown color of the eyes of the Filipinos
D. Removal of odor inside a refrigerator
using charcoal
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 58
59. 57. Which of the following BEST describes
temperature?
A. Temperature measures the total energy
in something.
B. Temperature measures the kinetic
energy in substance.
C. Temperature measures the total kinetic
energy contained in an object.
D. Temperature measures the average
molecular kinetic energy in substance.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 59
60. 58. What is the direction of a magnetic
field within a magnet?
A. From north to south
B. From south to north
C. Front to back
D. Back to front
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61. 59. Which is the induced voltage across
a stationary conductor in a stationary
magnetic field?
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Zero
D. Reversed in polarity
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62. 60. What is the magneto motive force
(mmf) of a wire with 8 turns carrying 3 A of
current?
A. 2. 67
B. 24
C. 240
D. 2400
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63. 61. A coil of wire is placed in a charging
magnet field. If the number of turns in the
coil is decreased, what will happen to the
voltage induced across the coil?
A. Remain constant
B. Be excessive
C. Decrease
D. Increase
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 63
64. 62. Which of the following is TRUE about
the frequency and velocity of
electromagnetic waves?
A. Frequency and wavelength are
interdependent of each other
B. As frequency increases, wavelength
decreases
C. As frequency increases, wavelength
increases
D. Frequency is constant for all
wavelengths
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 64
65. 63. Which of the following correctly lists
electromagnetic waves in order form
longest to shortest wavelength?
A. Television, infrared, visible light, X-rays
B. Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared,
microwaves
C. Radio waves, infrared, gamma rays,
ultraviolet
D. Micro waves, ultraviolet, visible light,
gamma rays
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 65
66. 64. An electromagnetic wave is radiated by
a straight wire antenna that is oriented
vertically. What should be the orientation of
a straight wire receiving antenna?
A. Diagonally
B. Vertically
C. Horizontally and in a direction parallel to
the wave’s direction of motion
D. Horizontally and in a direction
perpendicular to the wave’s direction of
motion
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 66
67. 65. What should a good diode tested with an
ohmmeter indicate?
A. High resistance when forward or reverse
biased
B. Low resistance when forward or reverse
biased
C. High resistance when reverse biased and
low resistance when forward biased
D. High resistance when forward biased and
low resistance when forward biased
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 67
68. 66. Vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter
are used to .
A. record programs
B. provide DC supply
C. generate high power radio waves
D. provide lighting inside the studio
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 68
69. 67. Which material is the usual component
of an anode?
A. Aluminum
B. Carbon
C. Copper
D. Nickel
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70. 68. A metal spoon is placed in a cup filled
with hot coffee. After some time, the
exposed end of the spoon becomes hot
even without direct contact with the liquid.
What explains this phenomenon?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Thermal expansion
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71. 69. Which causes the warmth that you
feel when you place your finger at the
side of the flame of a burning candle?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Not enough information given
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72. 70. Which process of heat transfer
happens by the movement of mass from
one place to another?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Induction
D. Radiation
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 72
73. 71. When work is done by a system,
what happens to its temperature
assuming that no heat is added to it?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
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74. 72. Which states that “when two systems
are in thermal equilibrium with a third
system, then they are in thermal
equilibrium with each other?
A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
B. First Law of Thermodynamics
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics
D. Mechanical Equivalent of Heat
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 74
75. 73. What happens in an adiabatic
process?
A. No heat enters or leaves the system.
B. The pressure of the system remains
constant.
C. The temperature of the system remains
constant.
D. The system does no work nor work is
done on it.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 75
76. 74. What thermodynamic process is
involved in a closed car inside a hot
garage?
A. Adiabatic
B. Isobaric
C. Isochoric
D. Isothermal
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 76
77. 75. Consider the thermal energy transfer
during a chemical process. When heat is
transferred to the system, the process is
said to be and the sign of H is
A. endothermic, positive
B. endothermic, negative
C. exothermic, positive
D. exothermic, negative
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78. 76. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Entropy increases with the number of microstates
of the system.
B. Any irreversible process results in an overall
increase in entropy.
C. The total entropy of the universe in any
spontaneous process.
D. The change in entropy in a system depends on
the initial and final states of the system and the path
taken from one state to the order.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 78
79. 77. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is
rejected by the refrigerant in .
A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaporator
D. expansion valve
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80. 78. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a
refrigeration system?
A. Rejects energy to a low temperature body.
B. Rejects energy to a high temperature body.
C. Removes heat from a low temperature body and
delivers it to a high temperature body.
D. Removes heat from a high temperature body and
delivers it to a low temperature body.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 80
81. 79. Which of the following refrigerants
has the maximum ozone depletion
potential in the stratosphere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Fluorine
D. Sulfur dioxide
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 81
82. 80. Which phenomenon is BEST
explained by the particle nature of light?
A. Doppler effect
B. Interference
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Polarization
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83. 81. According to the quantum theory of
light, the energy of light is carried in
discrete unit called .
A. alpha particles
B. photoelectrons
C. photons
D. protons
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 83
84. 82. Rutherford observed that most of the alpha
particles directed at a metallic foil appear to pass
through unhindered, with only a few deflected at
large angles. What did he conclude?
A. Atoms can easily absorb and re-emit alpha
particles
B. Atoms consist mainly of empty space and have
small, dense nuclei.
C. Alpha particles behave like waves when they
interact with atoms.
D. Atoms have most of their mass distributed
loosely in an electron cloud.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 84
85. 83. When an electron change from a
higher energy to a lower energy state
within an atom, a quantum of energy is .
A. absorbed
B. emitted
C. fissioned
D. fused
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 85
86. 84. When does nuclear fission occur?
A. When we cut nuclei into two with a very
small cutting device
B. When one nucleus bumps into another
causing a chain reaction
C. When a nucleus divides spontaneously,
with no apparent reason
D. When electrical force inside a nucleus
overpower forces
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 86
87. 85. When does nuclear fusion release
energy?
A. When uranium emits a neutron
B. When heavy ions fuse together
C. When very light nuclei fuse together
D. When uranium splits into two fragments
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 87
88. 86. Abert Einstein’s Second postulate of
Special Relativity state that the speed of light .
A. can decrease if the speed of the observer
decreases
B. can increase if the speed of the observer
increases
C. randomly changes depending upon its
original light source
D. is constant regardless of the speed of the
observer or the light source
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 88
89. 87. A passenger train travels east at high speed.
One passenger is located at the east side of one
car, another is located at the west side of that car.
In the train’s frame, these two passengers glance
up the same time. In the earth’s frame .
A. they glance up simultaneously
B. the passengers glance sideways
C. the passenger at the east side glances up first
D. the passenger at the west side glances up first
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90. 88. Benie11 travels at high speed from Earth to the
star Alpha Centauri which four light years away.
Which one is CORRECT in Benie11’s frame?
A. The clocks on earth and on Alpha Centauri are
synchronized.
B. The trip takes more time than it does in the
earth’s frame
C. Benie11 travels to Alpha Centauri over a length
that is shorter than four light years.
D. Alpha Centauri travels to Benie11 over a length
that is shorter than four light years.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 90
91. 89. One clock is placed on top of a
mountain and another clock is at the
bottom of the mountain. Ignore the
rotation of the earth. Which clock ticks
more slowly?
A. They tick at the same rate.
B. The one on top of the mountain.
C. The one at the bottom of the
mountain.
D. Cannot be determined.
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92. 90. You are in a windowless spacecraft. What do
you need to do to determine whether your
spaceship is moving at constant non-zero velocity,
or is at rest, in an inertial frame of earth?
A. Make very precise time measurements.
B. Make very precise mass measurements.
C. Make very precise length and time
measurements.
D. Nothing, becau.se you cannot succeed no
matter what you do
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 92
93. The way to get started is
to quit talking and begin
doing.
Walt Disney
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