ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
1
EXAM 2 IS TUESDAY APRIL 9th, 2019
REVIEW ESFCW CHAPTERS 5 and 6
EXAM 2 is worth 15 POINTS
1. Which of the following statements is an example of climate?
a. The temperature today is unusually cold for this time of year.
b. Heavy local rains caused flooding in low-lying areas.
c. Long winters and hot, humid summers are typical of the upper Midwest.
d. If the drought in Oklahoma continues next year, it will be the worst since the Dust Bowl.
e. High humidity intensifies the oppressive heat.
2. The evolution of the average behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere over time is called
a. weather. b. climate.
c. climate change. d. hurricanes.
e. stratospheric migration.
3. Components of the climate system do not include
a. the sun. b. oceans.
c. glaciers. d. the atmosphere.
e. cosmic rays.
4. What is e-waste and why is it a concern?
5. Which of the following is not a driver in Earth’s climate?
a. The gravitational pull of the moon b. The sun
c. Ocean currents d. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
e. Clouds
6. Which of the following statements concerning the composition of the atmosphere is true?
a. Water consistently is the gas present in the highest concentrations.
b. N2 and O2 concentrations tend to be variable.
c. CO2 is present in the lowest concentration of all gases.
d. Methane concentration is about 17 parts per million by volume.
e. Carbon monoxide concentration is 388 parts per million.
7. What is the difference between a sanitary land fill and an open dump? Does garbage decompose more quickly in a
sanitary landfill?
8. If you were to measure the composition of the atmosphere across the globe, the composition would be relatively
constant except for
a. nitrogen and oxygen.
b. oxygen and helium.
c. helium and carbon dioxide.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
e. water vapor and ozone.
9. Ozone exists mostly
a. in the stratosphere. b. underground in reservoirs.
c. dissolved in water. d. in the cryosphere.
e. None of the above
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
2
10. Incident ultraviolet radiation from the sun is blocked by
a. clouds. b. sulfur dioxide.
c. chlorofluorocarbons. d. methane.
e. ozone.
11. Are most plastics degradable, biodegradable or non-degradable waste? How well do plastics break down?
12. The greatest quantity of fresh water is held in
a. rivers. b. lakes. c. ground water. d. oceans. e. glaciers and ice caps.
13. Which of the following does not play a role in reflecting incident sunlight back into space?
a. Methane b. Ice
c. Clouds d. Sulfur oxides
e. Particulate matter suspended in the atmosphere
14. Other than CO2, what greenhouse gas has the longest lifetime in the atmosphere?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ozone
c. CFCs d. Methane
e. Both a and c
15. Without the greenhouse effect, the atm.
Beyond the EU: DORA and NIS 2 Directive's Global Impact
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019 1 .docx
1. ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
1
EXAM 2 IS TUESDAY APRIL 9th, 2019
REVIEW ESFCW CHAPTERS 5 and 6
EXAM 2 is worth 15 POINTS
1. Which of the following statements is an example of climate?
a. The temperature today is unusually cold for this time of year.
b. Heavy local rains caused flooding in low-lying areas.
c. Long winters and hot, humid summers are typical of the
upper Midwest.
d. If the drought in Oklahoma continues next year, it will be the
worst since the Dust Bowl.
e. High humidity intensifies the oppressive heat.
2. The evolution of the average behavior of the Earth’s
atmosphere over time is called
a. weather. b. climate.
c. climate change. d. hurricanes.
e. stratospheric migration.
3. Components of the climate system do not include
a. the sun. b. oceans.
c. glaciers. d. the atmosphere.
e. cosmic rays.
4. What is e-waste and why is it a concern?
2. 5. Which of the following is not a driver in Earth’s climate?
a. The gravitational pull of the moon b. The sun
c. Ocean currents d. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
e. Clouds
6. Which of the following statements concerning the
composition of the atmosphere is true?
a. Water consistently is the gas present in the highest
concentrations.
b. N2 and O2 concentrations tend to be variable.
c. CO2 is present in the lowest concentration of all gases.
d. Methane concentration is about 17 parts per million by
volume.
e. Carbon monoxide concentration is 388 parts per million.
7. What is the difference between a sanitary land fill and an
open dump? Does garbage decompose more quickly in a
sanitary landfill?
8. If you were to measure the composition of the atmosphere
across the globe, the composition would be relatively
constant except for
a. nitrogen and oxygen.
b. oxygen and helium.
c. helium and carbon dioxide.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
e. water vapor and ozone.
9. Ozone exists mostly
a. in the stratosphere. b. underground in reservoirs.
c. dissolved in water. d. in the cryosphere.
e. None of the above
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
3. 2
10. Incident ultraviolet radiation from the sun is blocked by
a. clouds. b. sulfur dioxide.
c. chlorofluorocarbons. d. methane.
e. ozone.
11. Are most plastics degradable, biodegradable or non-
degradable waste? How well do plastics break down?
12. The greatest quantity of fresh water is held in
a. rivers. b. lakes. c. ground water. d. oceans. e. glaciers and
ice caps.
13. Which of the following does not play a role in reflecting
incident sunlight back into space?
a. Methane b. Ice
c. Clouds d. Sulfur oxides
e. Particulate matter suspended in the atmosphere
14. Other than CO2, what greenhouse gas has the longest
lifetime in the atmosphere?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ozone
c. CFCs d. Methane
e. Both a and c
15. Without the greenhouse effect, the atmosphere around the
planet would be
a. 3°C colder. b. 30°C colder.
c. 30°C warmer. d. 3°C warmer.
e. unchanged.
16. Which of the following statements about the greenhouse
4. effect is false?
a. Without the greenhouse effect, the atmosphere might be too
cold for current life forms.
b. CO2 concentrations in the atmosphere started increasing
during the Industrial Revolution.
c. Methane is an important greenhouse and has several natural
sources.
d. The impact of water vapor and clouds on global warming is
difficult to quantify.
e. CFCs are a natural greenhouse gas with high warming
potential.
17. The greenhouse effect describes what interaction?
a. The reflection of radiant energy by the glaciers and the
absorption of energy by the oceans
b. The reflection of about 50% of the sun’s incident energy
before it reaches Earth’s surface
c. The absorption and subsequent re-emission of longwave
radiation by certain gases in the atmosphere
d. The destruction of the ozone layer by chlorofluorocarbons
e. The elevated temperatures above cities and other constructed
environments
18. The recent period of global warming
a. is unprecedented in Earth’s history.
b. can be easily and accurately predicted.
c. is suspected to result in part from human activities.
d. has been accompanied by a decrease in CO2 concentrations.
e. cannot be documented by accurate temperature records.
19. The most recent glaciation event ended _______ years ago.
a. 600 b. 14,000
c. 145,000 d. 5 million
e. 65 million
5. ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
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20. The figure below illustrates that
a. CO2 concentrations and average global temperatures are
strongly linked.
b. humans are the cause of global warming.
c. Earth is about to enter another small ice age.
d. high CO2 concentrations cause global warming.
e. increases to global temperatures result in increases to
atmospheric CO2 levels.
21. If the current climate trends continue, adverse impacts could
include
a. increased heat extremes and increased tropical storm
intensity.
b. decreased precipitation for high latitudes.
c. increased precipitation for subtropical regions.
d. increased snow cover and permafrost.
e. increased sea ice.
22. The basis of the statement,” We could feed more people if
we would all eat grain rather than feeding it to
livestock,” is?
A. the First Law of Thermodynamics B. the Second Law of
Thermodynamics
C. ecofeminism D. biocentrism
E. anthropocentrism
6. 23. In developed countries, the most recent increases in
agricultural productivity have come from
A. irrigation in arid areas.
B. building up soil reserves on farms worldwide.
C. clearing rainforests.
D. an increase on the land being used for agriculture, especially
in developed countries.
E. new crop varieties and intensified farming.
24. Natural communities consist of species interacting with each
other. How might the structure of the community be
changed?
a. When the interactions are disrupted
b. When new species are introduced
c. When species go extinct
d. When there is a change in resources
e. All of the above
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
4
25. Explain what is meant by the four R’s and give an example
of each.
26. When one organism consumes another it is called
a. competition. b. parasitism.
c. predation. d. amensalism.
e. commensalism.
7. 27-28 In the diagram below, each circle represents the niche of
each species.
27. The overlapping area represents
a. intraspecific competition. b. parasitism of species A on
species B.
c. amensalism. d. interspecific competition.
e. predation of species B by species A.
28. Suppose the overlapping area gradually becomes much
larger. What is most likely happening?
a. Amensalism b. Parasitism of species A on species B
c. Competitive exclusion principle d. Commensalism
e. Predation of species B by species A
29. What is the best interpretation of the image to the right?
(Source: http://conservationreport.com/tag/bioaccumulation/)
a. A food web of fish and humans
b. Biomagnification of Hg (mercury)
c. Bioaccumulation of water around the organisms
d. Used by evolutionary biologists to show how humans evolved
e. The symbiotic relationships between the organisms using Hg
and arrows
Species A Species B
http://conservationreport.com/tag/bioaccumulation/
8. ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
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30. When organisms eat, most biomass is digested and turned
into energy. Certain compounds are stored in the body.
These can be essential minerals and/or toxins. This process is
called
a. trophic leveling. b. biomagnification.
c. bioaccumulation. d. biomass.
e. biodiversity.
31. What are TWO of the greatest threats to biodiversity? (mark
two answers)
a. Habitat destruction
b. Mutualism of cleaner–customers
c. Parasitism of ectoparasites
d. Invasion of non-native species
e. Evolution due to selective pressure
32. Non-native species can increase in population and become
pests to an ecosystem. Which of the following reasons
best describes why this can happen?
a. Non-native species do not always have natural predators.
b. Non-native species may not have natural parasites that
control their populations.
c. There may not be any local competitors for the non-native
species.
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above
33. Which of the following best shows an ecological advantage
of introducing non-native species into a habitat?
9. a. The non-natives may reproduce with natives, resulting in a
genetically superior species.
b. The non-natives may be good pets or nice plants to have.
c. The non-natives may help restore a habitat by replace a
native species that went extinct.
d. Used as a biological control agent, non-natives can be used in
place of pesticides, costing less money and causing less
damage to the environment.
e. There are no advantages to introducing non-native species.
34. A natural form of fertilizer would be
A. manure. B. phosphorous application.
C. nitrogen. D. corn plantings.
E. All of these are correct.
35. Natural resources include
a. only biological resources, because “abiotic” refers to human-
made materials.
b. non-biological resources only, including petroleum and ores.
c. any naturally occurring substance.
d. human-made materials, because humans are natural.
e. all naturally occurring materials that have the potential to be
useful to humans.
36. Which of the following is not an example of a biotic
resource?
a. Lobsters
b. Honey
c. Gasoline
d. Crude oil
e. Pristine forests
10. ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
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37. Which of the following is an example of an abiotic
resource?
a. Water used for generation of hydroelectricity
b. Agricultural crops
c. Hydroponically grown tomatoes
d. Silk worms
e. Free-range chickens
38. Which of the following statements about abiotic resources is
true?
a. Abiotic resources are non-renewable.
b. Sand is not an abiotic resource despite being naturally
occurring, because it has no value.
c. Steel is an abiotic resource because it is a natural product.
d. Water is a renewable abiotic resource.
e. Soil used in organic farming is an abiotic resource, but soil
used in traditional farming is not.
39. Which of the following statements about sustainable
populations is true?
a. Extinction of species due to overharvesting has been a major
problem throughout human history.
b. Populations decline when individuals are removed faster than
they can be replaced through reproduction.
c. Extinction of a species is only temporary until populations
recover.
d. Harvesting of populations can proceed at any rate needed to
support humans because the targeted species are
generally resilient to these pressures.
e. Human population growth and improvement in technologies
11. are directly responsible for fewer species becoming
extinct.
40. The greatest problem in sustainable natural resource
management is
a. ineffective fertilizers for growing food.
b. the finite lifespan of the sun.
c. high populations of humans.
d. insufficient advancements in technology.
e. eroding infrastructure.
41. Which of the following statements most accurately
represents the concept of maximum sustainable yield?
a. Maximum sustainable yields are similar for all species.
b. Species with the highest reproduction rates are the most
sensitive to high rates of harvesting.
c. Large mammals tend to have a lower maximum sustainable
yield because they are far less adaptable than smaller
animals.
d. Maximum sustainable yields are difficult to predict.
e. Wildlife managers build in a safety margin by setting
maximum sustainable yields slightly higher than maximum rate
of population growth.
42. In the context of the maximum sustainable yield, organisms
that mature quickly
a. can tolerate high harvest levels.
b. are intolerant to being harvested.
c. have the same maximum sustainable yield as organisms that
mature slowly.
d. are typified by large, hardwood trees.
e. are generally considered to be pests.
12. ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
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43. Sustainable development requires which of the following?
a. Monitoring the well-being of humans
b. Tracking the health of impacted resources
c. Future social/cultural and environmental benefits
d. Laws and rigorous enforcement to prevent damaging
activities
e. All of the above
44. Which of the following statements regarding sustainable
development is true?
a. Sustainable development cannot be profitable.
b. Practices that have been profitable for generations must be
sustainable.
c. Sustainable development considers social, cultural, and
ecological benefits now and in the future.
d. Sustainability is possible only in a non-industrial economy.
e. Scale is not a consideration in sustainability; if it works on a
small scale, it will work on a large scale.
45. Draw a flow chart of the water cycle. Your diagram should
show how a water molecule moves from clouds
through living organisms and back into the atmosphere.
46. The most common way to generate electricity is
a. batteries.
b. generating static electricity and trapping it in a series of
wires.
c. moving a coil of wire through a fixed magnetic field.
d. transduction.
13. e. the direct capture of electrons (i.e., “catching lightning in a
bottle”).
47. We can trace the current demands for energy back to the
Industrial Revolution. Industrialization means
a. cities replacing farms as the centers of population.
b. replacing human labor with machines.
c. any large change in political policies.
d. replacing feudalism with capitalism.
e. deforestation of pristine areas.
48. Electricity is a “secondary” energy source, meaning
a. steam is a preferred energy source.
b. electricity is used to replace human and animal power.
c. wires must carry electrical currents.
d. another source of energy must be used to generate electricity.
e. electricity is less important than coal, gas, and hydropower.
49. Methods of generating electricity do not include
a. inducing an arc (electric spark) to form across electrodes.
b. electromagnetic induction.
c. light-induced electrical currents.
d. using heat to generate electricity.
e. the mixing of chemicals.
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
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50. Despite the appearance of being a clean source of energy,
14. the generation of electricity can have negative impacts
on the environment. Which of the following is not an
environmental impact from the primary energy sources?
a. Degradation of land through mining
b. Pollution of water and air from burning fossil fuels
c. Destruction of the protective ozone layer
d. Thermal pollution
e. Generation of hazardous wastes
51. When considering the development of a new form of energy,
one must consider the answer to which of the
following questions?
a. Is the technology available for the development and
implementation of the new source?
b. Can we use this new source with minimal impact on the
environment?
c. Is this a long-term source of energy?
d. Do we have a significant net gain of energy from this new
source?
e. All of the above
52. List three example of a Point-Source pollutant to coastal
waters.
53. List three examples of Non-Point Source pollutants to
coastal waters.
54. Identity two strategies that could be used to restore water
quality to the Gulf of Mexico
55. What are riparian areas and what ecosystem services do they
perform?
56. Which of the following statements about renewable sources
of energy is true?
a. Coal is renewable because it is derived from plant and animal
15. residues.
b. Hydroelectricity is not renewable because the amount of
water in the world is finite.
c. Geothermal energy is not renewable because energy taken
from beneath Earth and cannot be replaced.
d. Methane can be renewable or nonrenewable depending upon
the source.
e. Carbon dioxide is a renewable energy source because it is
abundant and is constantly regenerated.
57. One disadvantage of solar cells is that
a. solar cell technology does not exist yet in a workable form.
b. the technology has not been tested.
c. electricity generated from solar cells is available only when
the sun is shining.
d. a relatively large surface area is needed to generate
significant amounts of electricity.
e. they are a source of air pollution.
58. The positive aspects of establishing wind power include
a. providing a habitat for birds and bats.
b. enhancing aesthetics.
c. operational under all weather conditions.
d. no requirement for energy storage or transmission.
e. exploiting a renewable source of energy.
59. Which of the following is a shortcoming of wind energy?
a. Air pollution from wind turbines b. Initially high capital
investment
c. Very little land in the US suitable for wind energy
d. The requirement of high winds necessary to produce
electricity
e. The insurmountable problems with sound generation and bird
kills
16. ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
9
60. What would be a likely impact if harsh restrictions were
imposed on global greenhouse gas emissions? (A typical
proposal is that all countries agree to roll back their CO2
emissions to 1990 levels.)
a. Developing nations would have a competitive advantage over
industrialized nations.
b. The industrialization of developing nations would be nearly
halted.
c. The standard of living of all nations would increase
dramatically.
d. Air pollution from non-greenhouse gases would increase.
e. It would result in global energy shortages.
61. Which of the following is not an example of how surface
water functions to serve humans?
a. Coastal waters serve as breeding areas for many species of
plants and animals critical to humans.
b. Oceans support a great diversity of plant and animal species.
c. Pollution can disrupt the natural balance of aquatic
ecosystems.
d. Water is continually cycled and renewed.
e. Coral reefs are especially sensitive to changes in their
immediate environment.
62. The greatest quantity of accessible drinking water is held in
a. rivers.
b. lakes.
c. ground water.
d. oceans.
17. e. glaciers and ice caps.
63. What fraction of people in the world has access to safe
drinking water?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 95%
64. Which of the following statements about the water cycle is
true?
a. It is the cycle from the water molecule to elemental hydrogen
and oxygen and back to the molecule.
b. The water cycle is limited to the water we can see on the
surface of the Earth.
c. The water cycle helps keep water clean.
d. The majority of water in the water cycle is available for
drinking.
e. Once underground, water stops moving and the cycle is
broken.
65. Which of the following is not one of the ways that humans
alter the water cycle?
a. Harnessing the power of water to produce energy
b. Removing salt from saline water
c. Moving water from unwanted areas
d. Trapping water where water is scarce
e. All of the above are ways that human alter the water cycle.
66. When contaminating/polluting substances are discharged
directly into a body of water, it is called _______
pollution.
a. nonpoint source
b. intrusion
c. dilution
18. d. water treatment
e. point source
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
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67. When contaminating/polluting substances originate from
many diffuse sources and enter a body of water
indirectly, it is called _______ pollution.
a. nonpoint source
b. intrusion
c. dilution
d. water treatment
e. point source
68. Which of the following would not be an effect of
eutrophication?
a. Enhanced biodiversity
b. Increased water turbidity
c. Decreased oxygen content
d. An increase in toxic and inedible phytoplankton
e. Higher incidence of dead fish