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1
-
Plates, minor connectors, guiding plates, and proximal
contacts of natural teeth all contribute to
A
.
Reciprocation
B
.
Esthetics
C
.
Good oral hygiene
D
.
The United Fund
E
.
Rigidity
2
-
Which of the following is/are true concerning Kennedy’s/
Applegates rules
?
1
.
Kennedy class 1 involves bilateral edentulous areas posterior to
the natural teeth while a Class II has a unilateral edentulous
area posterior to the natural teeth
.
2
.
Kennedy Class 3 always has one unilateral edentulous area
with teeth posterior to it. A Class 4 has a single edentulous
area crossing the midline and anterior to natural teeth
.
3
.
You may have up to 2 mods only in a Kennedy Class 4 case
.
4
.
If a second or third molar is missing and is not to be replaced it
is not considered in Applegate's rules. If to be replaced it will
determine the class
.
5
.
Modifications are those areas other than those that determine
the classification and are designated by their number
.
a) All the above are true
b)None are true
c) 1,2,3 are true
d)1,4,5 are true
e) 3,4,5 are true
f) 1, 4 are true.
3
-
After surveying your diagnostic casts you determine your RPD
design and the necessary alterations. The design is then drawn on
the cast and you are now ready to make tooth modifications. In
what sequence will you follow
?
A
.
Heights of contour / guiding planes / rest seats / impression
B
.
Guiding planes/ impression / heights of contour / rest seats
C
.
Guiding planes / heights of contour / rest seats / impression
D
.
Guiding planes/ heights of contour / impression / rest seats
4
-
What is the main purpose of a cast distal extension posterior
metal stop
?
A
.
Provides for a more rigid RPD framework
.
B
.
Increases overall retention of the RPD to resist displacement
.
C
.
Provides a positive apical seat (tissue stop) for the RPD in
function
.
D
.
Provide stability of the distal extension framework during
acrylic processing
.
5
-
Which one of the following is true regarding components of
upper removable partial denture
?
A
.
Major connectors should be flexible so that functional chewing
forces are properly transmitted to the teeth and other
tissues
.
B
.
A minor connector is the unit of the partial denture that
connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of
the arch with those on the other side
.
C
.
The linguoplate can in itself serve as an indirect retainer
.
D
.
Each direct retainer and each occlusal rest are joined to the
major connector by a minor connector
.
6
-
The investment cast upon which a removable partial denture
wax pattern is formed is called a __________________ cast
:
A
.
Reformed
B
.
Refractory
C
.
Reformatted
D
.
Blocked out
7
-
The channel which allows molten metal to flow from the
crucible to the mold cavity during the casting procedure is
called a
.__________
A
.
Cannula
B
.
Barrel
C
.
Peanut
D
.
Sprue
8-Which of the following major clinical appointments for
construction of an RPD can be safely skipped?
A.Diagnosis and treatment planning
B.Mouth preps and final impressions
C. Post-preparation endodontic testing
D.Delivery
9
-
I-bar is most often located in .01” undercut on the
A.Cemento-enamel junction
B. Greatest distal curvature of the buccal surface
C.Mesio-buccal line angle
D. Disto-buccal line angle
10
-
Dislodging movement of a RPD is resisted by
A.Stabilizing clasps
B. Mechanical retainers
C.Reciprocating clasps
D. Denture base retainers
E. Denture base mesh
11
-
A master cast is placed in the cast holder and aligned at the
zero degree tilt. A 0.02 “undercut is found on the mesiolingual
of the mandibular right second molar. Tilting the cast to the
anterior will
A.Increase the undercut
B.Decrease the undercut
C.Not affect the undercut
D.None of the above. The cast should not be tilted since all
RPD’s are designed at the zero degree tilt.
12
-
The rests of a RPD must be free to move in function (except
gingivally) in Kennedy Class
A.I, II, IV
B. I, II, III, IV
C.I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV
E. None. Rests should never move in function
13
-
All of the following are sites of arbitrary blockout of the
mandibular RPD master except
A.All gingival crevices
B. Gross tissue undercuts situated below areas involved in design of
denture framework
C.Labial and buccal tooth and tissue undercuts not involved in
denture design
D.Tissue undercuts to be crossed by origin of bar clasps
E.All of the above are sites of arbitrary blockout
14
-
All of the following features describe the proximal
plate/guiding plate area needed for proper functioning of the
RPI clasp assembly, except
A.A guiding plane is prepared on the distal surface of the
abutment tooth in the occlusal one-third
B.The guiding plane is approximately 2 3 mm in height
occlusogingivally
C. An undercut should exist below the guiding plane to permit
movement of the proximal plate
D.The proximal plate contacts approximately 1-2 mm of the
occlusal portion of the guiding plane
E. The proximal plate contacts approximately 1 mm of the
gingival portion of the guiding plane
15
-
In distal extension removable partial denture, the jaw relations
should be recorded ____________ the secondary impression is
made and __________ the framework in place
.
A.before; with
B.before; without
C. after; with
D.after; without
E. as; with
16-The only indication for use of box shape occlusal rest in
A. class I
B. class II
C. class II modification I
D. class III
E. class IV
17-Final impression for RPD can be made at
A. At impression stage with custom tray
B. At framework stage
C. At delivery stage
D. All of above
18-During designing direct retention for upper RPD class
III and you found that the posterior abutment was
severely tilted, what is the most satisfactory option
A. Make a new undercut on the tooth
B. Make telescopic crown on abutment
C. Ring clasp
D. Extraction of abutment
E. Orthodontically abrightening tooth
19-Patient who has un-modified class II Kennedy
classification with good periodontal condition and no
carious lesion, the best clasp to use on the other side is
A. Reciprocal clasp
B. Ring clasp
C. Embrasure clasp
D. Gingivally approaching clasp
E. No need to clasp at dentate side
20-Guiding planes prepared on enamel surfaces should be
A. Flat occlusogingivally
B. Rounded occlusogingivally
C. Should not parallel to long axis of abutment
D. Should not prepared
21- The seat for occlusal rest on abutment should be
A. On proximal surface of abutment
B. On the marginal ridge at 900
to long axis of abutment
C. Parallel to pontic
D. Parallel to long axis of the tooth
23- Beading should have a depth and width of
approximately
A. 0.25 to 0.5 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 1 to 1.5 mm
D. 1.5 to 2 mm
E. 2 to 2.5 mm
24- For tooth supported partial dentures, denture base
flange is kept
A. Just short of reflection of soft tissue
B. Too short of reflection of soft tissue
C. Just extended of reflection of soft tissue
D. All of above
E. Non of above
25- The best path of insertion of RPD is one
A. That is having right or left tilt
B. That is perpindicular to occlusal plane
C. That having anterior tilt
D. That having posterior tilt
26- Tissue stops is made by removing approximately
A. 1 square mm of relief wax
B. 2 square mm of relief wax
C. 6 square mm of relief wax
D. 4 square mm of relief wax
E. Non of above
27- Minimal width of finish line of RPD is
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2 mm
E.2.25 mm
28- During waxing up of mandibular major connector it
must be cut at
A. 45 degree
B. 90 degree
C. Obtuse angle
D. Non of above
29- Ring clasp is most often indicated in
A. Tipped canine
B. Tipped incisor
C. Tipped molar
D. Untilted canine
E. Any of them
30- Which of the following is an indication for an RPI?
A. Adjacent to a free distal extension
B. Guide plane only on the distal
C. Rest area only on the mesial occlusal
D. All of the above are indications.

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309926180 mcq-in-rpd

  • 1. 1 - Plates, minor connectors, guiding plates, and proximal contacts of natural teeth all contribute to A . Reciprocation B . Esthetics C . Good oral hygiene D . The United Fund E . Rigidity 2 - Which of the following is/are true concerning Kennedy’s/ Applegates rules ? 1 . Kennedy class 1 involves bilateral edentulous areas posterior to the natural teeth while a Class II has a unilateral edentulous area posterior to the natural teeth . 2 . Kennedy Class 3 always has one unilateral edentulous area with teeth posterior to it. A Class 4 has a single edentulous area crossing the midline and anterior to natural teeth . 3 . You may have up to 2 mods only in a Kennedy Class 4 case . 4 . If a second or third molar is missing and is not to be replaced it is not considered in Applegate's rules. If to be replaced it will determine the class . 5 . Modifications are those areas other than those that determine the classification and are designated by their number .
  • 2. a) All the above are true b)None are true c) 1,2,3 are true d)1,4,5 are true e) 3,4,5 are true f) 1, 4 are true. 3 - After surveying your diagnostic casts you determine your RPD design and the necessary alterations. The design is then drawn on the cast and you are now ready to make tooth modifications. In what sequence will you follow ? A . Heights of contour / guiding planes / rest seats / impression B . Guiding planes/ impression / heights of contour / rest seats C . Guiding planes / heights of contour / rest seats / impression D . Guiding planes/ heights of contour / impression / rest seats 4 - What is the main purpose of a cast distal extension posterior metal stop ? A . Provides for a more rigid RPD framework . B . Increases overall retention of the RPD to resist displacement . C . Provides a positive apical seat (tissue stop) for the RPD in function . D . Provide stability of the distal extension framework during acrylic processing .
  • 3. 5 - Which one of the following is true regarding components of upper removable partial denture ? A . Major connectors should be flexible so that functional chewing forces are properly transmitted to the teeth and other tissues . B . A minor connector is the unit of the partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the other side . C . The linguoplate can in itself serve as an indirect retainer . D . Each direct retainer and each occlusal rest are joined to the major connector by a minor connector . 6 - The investment cast upon which a removable partial denture wax pattern is formed is called a __________________ cast : A . Reformed B . Refractory C . Reformatted D . Blocked out 7 - The channel which allows molten metal to flow from the crucible to the mold cavity during the casting procedure is called a .__________ A . Cannula B . Barrel
  • 4. C . Peanut D . Sprue 8-Which of the following major clinical appointments for construction of an RPD can be safely skipped? A.Diagnosis and treatment planning B.Mouth preps and final impressions C. Post-preparation endodontic testing D.Delivery 9 - I-bar is most often located in .01” undercut on the A.Cemento-enamel junction B. Greatest distal curvature of the buccal surface C.Mesio-buccal line angle D. Disto-buccal line angle 10 - Dislodging movement of a RPD is resisted by A.Stabilizing clasps B. Mechanical retainers C.Reciprocating clasps D. Denture base retainers E. Denture base mesh 11 - A master cast is placed in the cast holder and aligned at the zero degree tilt. A 0.02 “undercut is found on the mesiolingual of the mandibular right second molar. Tilting the cast to the anterior will
  • 5. A.Increase the undercut B.Decrease the undercut C.Not affect the undercut D.None of the above. The cast should not be tilted since all RPD’s are designed at the zero degree tilt. 12 - The rests of a RPD must be free to move in function (except gingivally) in Kennedy Class A.I, II, IV B. I, II, III, IV C.I, III, IV D. II, III, IV E. None. Rests should never move in function 13 - All of the following are sites of arbitrary blockout of the mandibular RPD master except A.All gingival crevices B. Gross tissue undercuts situated below areas involved in design of denture framework C.Labial and buccal tooth and tissue undercuts not involved in denture design D.Tissue undercuts to be crossed by origin of bar clasps E.All of the above are sites of arbitrary blockout 14 - All of the following features describe the proximal plate/guiding plate area needed for proper functioning of the RPI clasp assembly, except A.A guiding plane is prepared on the distal surface of the abutment tooth in the occlusal one-third B.The guiding plane is approximately 2 3 mm in height occlusogingivally C. An undercut should exist below the guiding plane to permit movement of the proximal plate
  • 6. D.The proximal plate contacts approximately 1-2 mm of the occlusal portion of the guiding plane E. The proximal plate contacts approximately 1 mm of the gingival portion of the guiding plane 15 - In distal extension removable partial denture, the jaw relations should be recorded ____________ the secondary impression is made and __________ the framework in place . A.before; with B.before; without C. after; with D.after; without E. as; with 16-The only indication for use of box shape occlusal rest in A. class I B. class II C. class II modification I D. class III E. class IV 17-Final impression for RPD can be made at A. At impression stage with custom tray B. At framework stage C. At delivery stage D. All of above
  • 7. 18-During designing direct retention for upper RPD class III and you found that the posterior abutment was severely tilted, what is the most satisfactory option A. Make a new undercut on the tooth B. Make telescopic crown on abutment C. Ring clasp D. Extraction of abutment E. Orthodontically abrightening tooth 19-Patient who has un-modified class II Kennedy classification with good periodontal condition and no carious lesion, the best clasp to use on the other side is A. Reciprocal clasp B. Ring clasp C. Embrasure clasp D. Gingivally approaching clasp E. No need to clasp at dentate side 20-Guiding planes prepared on enamel surfaces should be A. Flat occlusogingivally B. Rounded occlusogingivally C. Should not parallel to long axis of abutment D. Should not prepared 21- The seat for occlusal rest on abutment should be A. On proximal surface of abutment
  • 8. B. On the marginal ridge at 900 to long axis of abutment C. Parallel to pontic D. Parallel to long axis of the tooth 23- Beading should have a depth and width of approximately A. 0.25 to 0.5 mm B. 0.5 to 1 mm C. 1 to 1.5 mm D. 1.5 to 2 mm E. 2 to 2.5 mm 24- For tooth supported partial dentures, denture base flange is kept A. Just short of reflection of soft tissue B. Too short of reflection of soft tissue C. Just extended of reflection of soft tissue D. All of above E. Non of above 25- The best path of insertion of RPD is one A. That is having right or left tilt B. That is perpindicular to occlusal plane C. That having anterior tilt D. That having posterior tilt
  • 9. 26- Tissue stops is made by removing approximately A. 1 square mm of relief wax B. 2 square mm of relief wax C. 6 square mm of relief wax D. 4 square mm of relief wax E. Non of above 27- Minimal width of finish line of RPD is A. 0.5 mm B. 1mm C. 1.5 mm D. 2 mm E.2.25 mm 28- During waxing up of mandibular major connector it must be cut at A. 45 degree B. 90 degree C. Obtuse angle D. Non of above 29- Ring clasp is most often indicated in A. Tipped canine
  • 10. B. Tipped incisor C. Tipped molar D. Untilted canine E. Any of them 30- Which of the following is an indication for an RPI? A. Adjacent to a free distal extension B. Guide plane only on the distal C. Rest area only on the mesial occlusal D. All of the above are indications.