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WBPSC AE CIVIL 2020
FULL LENGTH
Online Test Series
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 Contains theoretical, conceptual, Numerical based Questions
 Track & Monitor Your Performance
 Detailed Explanation of Every Question after Evaluation of Test.

TENTATIVE SCHEDULE OF TESTS
TEST CODE TEST NO Test Start Date
WCE01 FULL LENGTH TEST-01 30/10/2020(Live
From Today)
WCE02 FULL LENGTH TEST-02 05/11/2020
WSC06 FULL LENGTH TEST-06 26/11/2020

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Civil Engineering
CHINMOY GHOSH
One Liner Part II
1500+ Content
Subject: Building Construction, Environment Engineering, Estimation &
Costing, Highway Engineering & Surveying.
Helpful for WBPSC JE/AE, KMC, KMDA, SSC JE, STATE JE/AE &
Any other exam related to Civil Engineering

CONTENTS
SUBJECTS PAGE NO. NO. OF ONE LINER
BUILDING CONSTRUCTION 1-11 354
ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGGINEERING
12-20 274
ESTIMATION & COSTING 21-27 203
HIGHWAY ENGINEERING 28-40 372
SURVEYING 41-51 315
1518

1
Do not share this book content Building construction One Liner
Building Construction
1. Cast iron piles are useful for heavy vertical loads.
2. The form work from the slabs excluding props, can be removed only after 3 days.
3. The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known Dubbing out.
4. The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose
of carrying the load of the wall above is Relieving arch.
5. The platform at the end of a series of steps, is known as Landing.
6. The pile which supports the load due to friction between pile face and surrounding soil, is
generally known as Friction pile.
7. A mortar joint having a concave finishing in brick masonry, is called keyed joint.
8. A mortar joint projecting beyond the face of a masonry wall, is called tucked joint.
9. A mortar joint having a recess in it, is called ruled joint.
10. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is
known as Gambrel roof.
11. The inclined surface of an abutment to receive the arch, is known as Skew back.
12. D.P.C. should be continuous, good impervious material, may be horizontal or vertical.
13. DPC (Damp Proof Course): measured in m2
.
14. Used to prevent the moisture from sub-structure to super-structure & provided at plinth
level.
15. General thickness of DPC is 25 mm but up to 40 mm.
16. Grade of concrete used- M15 (1: 2: 4) to M20 (1: 1.5: 3).
17. For 1st class building, grade of DPC M20 (1: 1.5: 3).
18. Most commonly bitumen used as water repellent agent above DPC for filling minor voids.
Other water repellent agents are oleic acid, Steric acid etc.
19. Max size of aggregate used is 10 mm in DPC.
20. A wall constructed with stones to protect slopes of cuttings in natural ground from the action
of weathering agents, is called Breast wall.
21. Higher pitch of the roof Results in stronger roof, Requires more covering material.
22. Open test pit is only suitable up to a depth of 3 metres.
23. The service area in a building means the area occupied by Stairs, Toilets, Light and shafts
etc.
24. The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than 3.
25. The columns of multi-storeyed buildings are designed to withstand the forces due to Dead
loads, Live loads & Wind loads.
26. In soils possessing low bearing capacity, the type of foundation generally provided, is column
footing, Raft footing & Grillage footing.
27. The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is 100 N/cm2
.
28. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be Less.
29. To obtain good bonding in brick masonry First class bricks are used, Vertical joints in
alternate courses are kept in plumb line, Bats are used where necessary.
30. The type of pointing in which upper side of mortar joints is kept about 12 mm inside the face
of the masonry and bottom is kept flushed with face of wall, is Struck pointing
31. The wedge-shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called Voussoirs.

48
Don’t share on any online platform Surveying One Liner
210. The radius of a simple circular curve is 300 m and length of its specified chord is 30 m. The
degree of the curve is 5.73°.
211. If ‘R’ is the radius of the main curve, ‘θ’ the angle of deflection, ‘S’ the shift and ‘L’ the
length of the transition curve, then, total tangent length of the curve, is (R + S) tan θ/2 + L/2.
212. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a Steep slope.
213. In an internal focusing telescope The objective is at a fixed distance from the diaphragm,
The focusing is done by the sliding of a divergent lens, The focusing divergent lens is
situated at about the middle of the tube.
214. During secular variation of magnetic meridian at different places Range and period of
oscillation both vary.
215. Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of α radians, is 100 α.
216. While viewing through a level telescope and moving the eye slightly, a relative movement
occurs between the image of the levelling staff and the cross hairs. The instrument is Said to
have parallax.
217. Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for Hilly areas.
218. While measuring a chain line between two stations ‘A’ and ‘B’ intervened by a raised ground
Vision gets obstructed.
219. Mistakes which may produce a very serious effect upon the final results arise due to
Inattention, Inexperience, Carelessness.
220. Number of links per metre length of a chain are 5.
221. The 'point of curve' of a simple circular curve, is Point of commencement.
222. Prolongation of chain line across an obstruction in chain surveying, is done by Drawing
perpendiculars with a chain.
223. Resolving power of a telescope depends on The diameter of the aperture, The pupil
aperture of the eye, The diameter of the object glass.
224. ABCD is a regular parallelogram plot of land whose angle BAD is 60°. If the bearing of the
line AB is 30°, the bearing of CD, is 210°.
225. If the image of the object does not fall on the plane of the cross-lines, parallax exists.
226. Parallax has nothing to do with the eyepiece
227. The eyepiece is adjusted for clear vision of the cross hairs.
228. The Huygens telescope eye piece Is aplanatic, Achromatic.
229. The bearing of lines OA and OB are 16° 10' and 332° 18', the value of the included angle
BOA is 43° 52'.
230. For a curve of radius 100 m and normal chord 10 m, the Rankine's deflection angle, is
2°51'.53.
231. The reduced bearing of a line is N 87° W. Its whole circle bearing is 273°.
232. While surveying a plot of land by plane tabling, the field observations and plotting proceed
simultaneously.
233. The back staff reading on a B.M. of R.L. 500.000 m is 2.685 m. If foresight reading on a
point is 1.345 m, the reduced level of the point, is 501.340 m.
234. Let angular value of one graduation of a tube of length ‘x’ be ‘φ’ seconds and ‘R’ be the
radius of its internal curved surface, then φ = x/206265 R.
235. If ‘L’ is in kilometres, the curvature correction is 78.4 L2
mm.
236. Permanent adjustments of a level are 2 in number.
237. Orientation of a plane table by solving two-point problems is only adopted when Given
points are inaccessible.
238. If ‘V’ is the speed of a locomotive in km per hour, ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity, ‘G’
is the distance between running faces of the rails and ‘R’ is the radius of the circular curve,
the required super elevation is GV2
/gR.
239. The method generally preferred to for contouring an undulating area, is Tacheometrical
surveying.

49
240. Measuring with a 30 m chain, 0.01 m too short, introduces Positive cumulative error.
241. The ratio of the radius and apex distance of a curve deflecting through Δ°, is sec (Δ/2) – 1.
242. In setting up a plane table at any station Both levelling and centering are done
simultaneously.
243. Metric chains are generally available in 20 m and 30 m length.
244. The bearing of AB is 190° and that of CB is 260° 30'. The included angle ABC, is 70° 30'.
245. Planimeter is used for measuring Area.
246. An ideal vertical curve to join two gradients, is Parabolic.
247. The bubble tube is nearly filled with Alcohol or chloroform, A liquid which is very mobile,
A liquid having low freezing point.
248. Perpendicular offset from a tangent to the junction of a transition curve and circular curve is
equal to Four times the shift.
249. Determining the difference in elevation between two points on the surface of the earth, is
known as Differential levelling.
250. If arithmetic sum of latitudes of a closed traverse is ‘ƩL’ at and closing error in latitude is
‘dx’, the correction for a side whose latitude is ‘l’, as given by Transit Rule, is l × (dx/Ʃ Lat).
251. The distance between terminal points computed from a subsidiary traverse run between them,
is generally known, as Traverse base.
252. The bearing of line AB is 152° 30' and angle ABC measured clockwise is 124° 28'. The
bearing of BC is 96° 58'.
253. The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon Indefinite features to be surveyed.
254. In a closed traverse, sum of south latitudes exceeds the sum of north latitudes and the sum of
east departures exceeds the sum of west departures, then, the closing line will lie in North-
west quadrant.
255. The most reliable method of plotting a theodolite traverse, is By independent co-ordinates
of each station.
256. The distance between steps for measuring downhill to obtain better accuracy Decreases with
increase of slope.
257. The boundary of water of a still lake represents Contour line.
258. The 10 mm markings on a levelling staff placed at 20 m are separated by 1/2000 radian.
259. The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if Both viscosity and surface tension are
increased.
260. The orthographical projection of a traverse leg upon the reference meridian, is known as
Latitude to the leg.
261. The distances AC and BC are measured from two fixed points A and B whose distance AB is
known. The point C is plotted by intersection. This method is generally adopted in Chain
surveying.
262. The defect of a lens whereby rays of white light proceeding from a point get dispersed into
their components and conveyed to various foci, forming a blurred and coloured image is
known as Chromatic aberration.
263. Systematic errors are those errors Whose effects are cumulative and can be eliminated.
264. A transit is oriented by setting its vernier A to read the back azimuth of the preceding line. A
back sight on the preceding transit station taken and transit is rotated about its vertical axis.
The vernier A reads Azimuth of the forward line.
265. For taking offsets with an optical square on the right hand side of the chain line, it is held By
left hand upright.
266. It ‘θ’ is the probable error of an observed bearing of a line of length ‘l’, the error over the
whole length of the traverse of ‘n’ lines of length ‘l’ is l √n.
267. The magnetic meridian at any point, is the direction indicated by a freely suspended Properly
balanced and uninfluenced by local attractive force.
268. Bergschrund is a topographical feature in Water bodies.

50
269. If Δ is the angle of deflection of a simple curve of radius R, the distance between the mid-
point of the curve and long chord, is R (1 - cos Δ/2).
270. A relatively fixed point of known elevation above datum, is called Bench mark.
271. The power of a lens is measured in Dioptre.
272. The approximate formula for radial or perpendicular offsets from the tangent, is x2
/2R.
273. The included angles of a theodolite traverse, are generally measured Clockwise from the
back station.
274. The intercept of a staff Is minimum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight.
275. In a constant level tube, size of the bubble remains constant because upper wall is Of
relatively larger radius.
276. While measuring the distance between two points along upgrade with the help of a 20 m
chain, the forward end of the chain is shifted forward through a distance 20 (secθ - 1).
277. Contours of different elevations may cross each other only in the case of An overhanging
cliff.
278. Dioptre is the power of a lens having a focal length of 100 cm.
279. A theodolite is said to be in perfect adjustment if Rotation axis is vertical to the transit
axis, Transit axis is perpendicular to line of collimation, Line of collimation sweeps out a
vertical plane while the telescope is elevated or depressed.
280. In chain surveying, perpendiculars to the chain line are set out by an optical square.
281. A lens or combination of lenses in which the following defect is completely eliminated is
called aplanatic Spherical aberration.
282. The main principle of surveying is to work From whole to the part.
283. The rise and fall method of reduction of levels, provides a check on Back sights, Fore sights,
Intermediate sights.
284. The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is slightly irregular and curved, is
known as Geoid surface.
285. The apparent error on reversal is Twice the actual error.
286. If the long chord and tangent length of a circular curve of radius R are equal the angle of
deflection, is 120°.
287. The diaphragm of a stadia theodolite is fitted with two additional Horizontal hairs.
288. Magnetic bearing of a survey line at any place Varies differently in different months of the
year.
289. The chaining on sloping ground is Easier along the falling gradient.
290. The additional lines which are measured to show the correctness of the chain surveying are
called: Check clines/Proof lines/Tie lines.
291. The best method of interpolation of contours, is by Computation.
292. Greater accuracy in linear measurements, is obtained by Direct taping.
293. If Δ is the angle of deflection of a simple curve of radius R, the length of its long chord, is 2R
sin Δ/2.
294. Cross hairs in surveying telescopes, are fitted in front of the eye piece.
295. Prismatic compass is considered more accurate than a surveyor's compass, because It is
provided with a prism to facilitate reading of its graduated circle.
296. The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is generally kept 100 m.
297. The direction of steepest slope on a contour, is At right angles to the contour.
298. The difference in the lengths of an arc and its subtended chord on the earth surface for a
distance of 18.2 km, is only 15 cm.
299. If deflection angles are measured in a closed traverse, the difference between the sum of the
right-hand and that of the left-hand angles should be equal to 360°.
300. The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not depend upon General layout of
the chain lines.
301. The area of any irregular figure of the plotted map is measured with Planimeter.

51
302. The construction of optical square is based, on the principle of optical Double reflection.
303. If Δ is the angle of deflection of a simple curve of radius R, the length of the curve is :
πRΔ/180°.
304. Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of α° is 1.5α2
/100.
305. Surveys which are carried out to provide a national grid of control for preparation of accurate
maps of large areas are known Geodetic surveys.
306. The angle between two plane mirrors of optical square, is 45°.
307. With usual notations, the expression V2
/gR represents Centrifugal ratio.
308. Profile levelling is usually done for determining Elevations along a straight line.
309. Perpendicularity of an offset may be judged by eye, if the length of the offset is 15 m.
310. You have to observe an included angle with better accuracy than what is achievable by a
vernier, you will prefer the method of Repetition.
311. If the radius of a simple curve is 600 m, the maximum length of the chord for calculating
offsets, is taken 30 m.
312. Subtense tacheometry is generally preferred to if ground is Undulating.
313. In reciprocal levelling, the error which is not completely eliminated, is due to Refraction.
314. The first reading from a level station is Back-sight.
315. If ‘S’ is the length of a sub-chord and ‘R’ is the radius of simple curve, the angle of deflection
between its tangent and sub-chord, in minutes, is equal to 1718.9 S/R.

Q.1 Arun is to the south east of Ajay. Aman is to the east of Arun. Abhay is to the south of
Aman. Aakash is to the east of Abhay. In which direction is Ajay from Aakash?
Ans 1. South West
2. North West
3. South
4. North
Question ID : 54592762526
Q.2 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
Bird, Parrot, Elephant
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.3 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer ﬁgures is the right image of the
given ﬁgure?
Ans
1.
Participant ID 12370400038
Participant Name YOGESH KUMAR
Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ 1 Sector 62
Test Date 20/10/2019
Test Time 8:30 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject Junior Environment Engineer
Section : Mental Ability
Civil Junction

2.
3.
4.
Q.4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
Ans 1. Lily
2. Jasmine
3. Rose
4. Tree
Q.5 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table. A sits third to the right of B. C is not the
neighbour of A. D sits to the immediate right of B. E is the neighbour of C. Who sits between
A and D?
Ans 1. C
2. F
3. E
4. B
Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘MORNING’ is written as ‘GNINROM’. What is the code for
‘NIGHT’ in that code language?
Ans 1. TGHIN
2. THIGN
3. TIHGN
4. THGIN
Q.7 In the following question, select the wrong ﬁgure from the given series.
Ans
1.
2.

3.
4.
Q.8 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
1, 2, 6, 15, 31, ?
Ans 1. 54
2. 57
3. 56
4. 55
Q.9 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question
mark (?) from the given alternatives.
Ans 1. 43
2. 33
3. 36
4. 34
Q.10 A is the husband of B’s father’s only child. C is the grandson of A’s father. How is B related to
C?
Ans 1. Mother
2. Niece
3. Sister in law
4. Aunt
Q.11 Eleven students P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in the ﬁrst row of the class facing
the teacher. S sits to the immediate left of R. P sits second to the right of T. T is at one of
the ends. Y is the immediate neighbour of P and Q. S sits third to the right of Q. U sits to the
immediate left of S. W sits to the immediate right of Q and fourth to the left of X. Who is
sitting in the middle of the row?
Ans 1. U
2. W
3. Q
4. Y
Q.12 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions

based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All trucks are iron.
II. No iron is copper.
Conclusions:
I. No truck is copper.
II. Some copper are truck.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and II follows.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Only conclusion I follows.
4. Neither conclusion follows.
Q.13 In the following question, select the odd ﬁgure from the given alternatives.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.14 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the English dictionary.
1. Same
2. Sample
3. Satisfy
4. Some
5. Salad
Ans 1. 12345
2. 15243
3. 51234
4. 15324
Q.15 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions
based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All dogs are birds.
II. All birds are parrot.
III. No parrot is crow.
Conclusions:
I. All dogs are parrot.
II. No dog is crow.
III. Some birds are crow.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion follows।

2. Both conclusion I and II follows.
3. Both conclusion II and III follows.
4. Both conclusion I and III follows।
Q.16 How many Quadrilaterals are there in the given ﬁgure?
Ans 1. 7
2. 4
3. 3
4. 5
Q.17 Mahesh walks 12 km towards West. He then takes a right turn and walks 6 km. He then
takes a left turn and walks 8 km. He then takes a right turn and walks 4 km. He again takes
a right turn and walks 20 km. In which direction is he now from his initial position?
Ans 1. North
2. South West
3. North East
4. North West
Q.18 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
SUNNY : URPKA :: RAINY : ?
Ans 1. TYKKA
2. TXKKB
3. TXKKA
4. TXKLA
Q.19 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.
AB3, CE8, EH13, GK18, ?
Ans 1. IM21
2. IM23
3. IN23
4. IN22
Q.20 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Parrot : Bird :: ? : ?
Ans 1. Pen : Drawing

2. Football : Playing
3. Axe : Cutting
4. Earth : Planet
Q.1 Which Indian was conferred the ‘Grand Collar of the State Palestine’?
Ans 1. Rajnath Singh
2. Shashi Tharoor
3. Narendra Modi
4. Manmohan Singh
Q.2 Emergency Provisions are given in which part of the constitution?
Ans 1. Part XVIII
2. Part XV
3. Part XVII
4. Part XX
Q.3 Who has been appointed as the governor of West Bengal in July 2019?
Ans 1. Lal ji Tandon
2. Jagdeep Dhankar
3. Keshari Nath Tripathi
4. Anandiben Patel
Q.4 Kathakali, a classical dance, belongs to which state of India?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Kerala
4. Odisha
Q.5 Who wrote the book, “Stri-purush tulna” criticising the social differences between men and
women?
Ans 1. Pandita Ramabai
2. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
3. Tarabai Shinde
4. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
Q.6 Nayanars were saints devoted to ______.
Ans 1. Buddha
Section : General Awareness

2. Vishnu
3. Shiva
4. Durga
Q.7 Which of the following is the nodal central agency of government of India for procurement
of Wheat and Paddy under price support scheme?
Ans 1. NASSCOM
2. FCI
3. IFPRI
4. NAFED
Q.8 Who won Wimbledon Tennis Championship in Women’s doubles category in 2019?
Ans 1. Gabriela Dabrowski and Xu Yifan
2. Serena Williams and Venus Williams
3. Barbora Krejčíková and Kateřina Siniaková
4. Barbora Strýcová and Hsieh Su – wei
Q.9 ‘X’ is an organism having bilateral symmetry and are segmented. There is an open
circulatory system and coelomic cavity is blood – ﬁlled. It has jointed legs. Identify ‘X’.
Ans 1. Annelida
2. Arthropoda
3. Echinodermata
4. Nematoda
Q.10 Mount Abu hill station is located in ______.
Ans 1. Aravallil
2. Himalayas
3. Satpuras
4. Western Ghats
Q.11 Chindwin river in Manipur is a tributary of ______.
Ans 1. Brahmaputra
2. Ganga
3. Irrawady
4. Meghna
Q.12 Who became the ﬁrst Indian to be elected as a FIFA council member?
Ans 1. Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
2. Sunil Chhetri

3. Subrata Dutta
4. Praful Patel
Q.13 Which article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter – state water
disputes?
Ans 1. Article 272
2. Article 266
3. Article 262
4. Article 270
Q.14 An electric Tubelight of 120W is used for 12 hours per day. How many units of energy does
the tubelight consume in one day?
Ans 1. 10 units
2. 1.44 units
3. 144 units
4. 0.144 units
Q.15 Gandhi Sagar Dam is located in ______.
Ans 1. Haryana
2. Gujarat
3. Maharashtra
4. Madhya Pradesh
Q.16 The Interest rate at which RBI absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against
the collateral of eligible government securities under Liquidity Adjustment Facility is known
as ______.
Ans 1. Marginal Standing Facility
2. Bank Rate
3. Repo Rate
4. Reverse Repo Rate
Q.17 Butter is a/an ______.
Ans 1. Foam
2. Gel
3. Sol
4. Aerosol
Q.18 Vimal Vasahi Temple belongs to which of the following religion?
Ans 1. Hinduism
2. Jainism
3. Judaism

4. Buddhism
Q.19 Who was the ﬁrst Indian Governor-General of free India?
Ans 1. C. Rajagopalachari
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
4. Lord Mountbatten
Q.20 Which launch vehicle was used to carry Chandrayaan-2 to the moon?
Ans 1. PSLV C – 46
2. GSLV Mk – II
3. PSLV C – 44
4. GSLV Mk – III
Q.1 What is the value of 20 percent of 50 percent of 3/4 of 2400?
Ans 1. 240
2. 180
3. 160
4. 200
Q.2 The table given below shows the milk (in litres) sold by 2 milkman in different cities.
What is the difference in the average milk sold by the two milkmen per city?
Ans 1. 1 litre
2. 4 litre
3. 2 litre
4. 3 litre
Q.3 The line graph given below shows the number of cars parked in parking area on different
days of a week.
Section : Arithmetic Ability

What is the percentage increase in number of cars parked on day D1 to day D5?
Ans 1. 153.63 percent
2. 183.63 percent
3. 163.63 percent
4. 173.63 percent
Q.4 The line graph given below shows the number of employees present in a company on
different days of a week.
The number of employees present on day D4 is how much percent more than the number of
employees present on day D2?
Ans 1. 47.5 percent
2. 57.5 percent
3. 67.5 percent
4. 77.5 percent
Q.5
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.6 Which of the following is in descending order?
Ans

1. 7/9, 5/7, 5/8, 3/5
2. 5/7, 5/8, 3/5, 7/9
3. 3/5, 5/8, 5/7, 7/9
4. 5/7, 7/9, 5/8, 3/5
Q.7 From the below options choose the greatest 3 digit number which is exactly divisible by 35?
Ans 1. 990
2. 945
3. 980
4. 970
Q.8 Which among 11/13, 6/7, 7/9 and 5/6 is second largest fraction?
Ans 1. 5/6
2. 11/13
3. 7/9
4. 6/7
Q.9 In what ratio rice costing Rs 60/kg should be mixed with rice costing Rs 90/kg so that on
selling the mixture at Rs 80/kg there is a proﬁt of 25 percent?
Ans 1. 13 : 2
2. 11 : 2
3. 3 : 2
4. 1 : 2
Q.10
Ans 1. 8/7
2. 1
3. 7/6
4. 6/7
Q.11 A train passes two platforms of length 400 metres and 200 metres in 40 seconds and 30
seconds respectively. What is the length of the train?
Ans 1. 600 metres
2. 400 metres
3. 500 metres
4. 300 metres
Q.12 A bus travels at a speed of 30 m/s. for 6 hours. What is the distance travelled by the bus?

Ans 1. 50 km
2. 30000 km
3. 180 km
4. 648 km
Q.13 Two numbers are more than the third number by 20 percent and 60 percent respectively.
First number is what percent of the second number?
Ans 1. 50 percent
2. 75 percent
3. 25 percent
4. 40 percent
Q.14 Rs 3600 is divided among Ram, Mohan and Shyam in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 9 respectively. What
is the difference between the share of Mohan and Shyam?
Ans 1. Rs 600
2. Rs 900
3. Rs 800
4. Rs 700
Q.15 Average of 6 observations is 60. Average of ﬁrst three is thrice the average of other three.
What is the sum of ﬁrst three observations?
Ans 1. 270
2. 320
3. 280
4. 240
Q.16 If the diameter of a sphere is 7 cm, then what is the surface area of the sphere?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 A sum of Rs 20000 is invested in a scheme of compound interest. The interest rate is 40
percent. If the interest is compounded half yearly, then what will be the interest after 2 year?
Ans 1. Rs 21472
2. Rs 20876
3. Rs 28476
4. Rs 19866

Q.18 A, B and C alone can do a work in 20, 24 and 30 days respectively. A leaves the work 10
days before it is complete and B leaves the work 4 days after A leaves the work. If C
completes the remaining work alone, then how many days will it take for the total work to
get completed?
Ans 1. 12 days
2. 45/4 days
3. 15 days
4. 14 days
Q.19 Smaller diagonal of a rhombus is equal to length of its sides. If length of each side is 4 cm,
then what is the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is equal to the bigger diagonal of
the rhombus?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.20 80 percent of the cost price of an article is equal to the 50 percent of its selling price. What
is the proﬁt percentage?
Ans 1. 75 percent
2. 50 percent
3. 60 percent
4. 30 percent
Q.1 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
It’s hard to please every
P: feminism, you can sometimes run
Q: into enormous, raucous disagreement
R: perspective, and with the realm of
Ans 1. RPQ
2. QRP
3. PQR
4. RQP
Q.2 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
A CHIP ON ONE’S SHOULDER
Ans 1. Praising someone
2. A feeling of resentment
Section : General English

3. At one’s disposal
4. Talking nonsense
Q.3 A sentence has been given with a blank to be ﬁlled with an appropriate word. Choose the
correct alternative.
The goods shall arrive ______ a week.
Ans 1. within
2. on
3. by
4. into
Q.4 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
A PENNY FOR YOUR THOUGHTS
Ans 1. Wasting time in useless effort or task
2. A way of asking what someone is thinking
3. Paying someone for their advice
4. Asking for money after advising someone
Q.5 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
Shiv died (from) tuberculosis.
Ans 1. No Improvement
2. of
3. by
4. with
Q.6 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
One who is hard to please (very selective in his habits)
Ans 1. Fastidious
2. Narcissist
3. Heretic
4. Mercenary
Q.7 Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
Challenge
Ans 1. Embrace
2. Abide
3. Confront
4. Support

Q.8 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No
error’.
Modern workplaces often feel like theaters (1)/ which we pretend to work rather (2)/ than
get actual work done (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4
Q.9 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
I’d prefer we
P: both digital and analog
Q: dedicate our conversations
R: to far thornier questions
Ans 1. PQR
2. RPQ
3. QPR
4. RQP
Q.10 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.
Noisy
Ans 1. Clamorous
2. Moderate
3. Harsh
4. Talkative
Q.11 A sentence has been given with a blank to be ﬁlled with an appropriate word. Choose the
correct alternative.
The ladder was placed ______ the wall.
Ans 1. by
2. off
3. with
4. against
Q.12 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
He (were going) to the school.
Ans 1. have going
2. was going
3. No Improvement
4. were gone
Q.13 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No

error’.
She could see in the open square (1)/ under her house the tops of the trees (2)/ that were all
aquiver with the new spring life (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 3
Q.14 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Choose
the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Terror
2. Tearor
3. Teror
4. Tearror
Q.15 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Choose
the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Realice
2. Realise
3. Relies
4. Reelise
Comprehension:
Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
The Alps are the youngest and highest mountain system in Europe. They stretch across the
western and southern part of the continent in a broad arc. The mountain range starts near the
Mediterranean Sea on the border between Nice, France and Italy to Lake Geneva. Then it
curves north and eastward through northern Italy, Switzerland Liechtenstein, southern
Germany, Austria and Slovenia. There they touch the Danube River and meld with the adjacent
plain. The Alps are about 1,000 km long, the broadest section over 260 km wide. The highest
peak, Mont Blanc, situated on the border between France, Italy and Switzerland, rises 4807
meters above sea level. Other famous peaks are the Monte Rosa, the Matterhorn, the
Grossglockner and the Zugspitze. Some 750 miles long and more than 125 miles wide at their
broadest point between Garmisch-Partenkirchen, Germany, and Verona, Italy, the Alps cover
more than 80,000 square miles. They are the most prominent of Western Europe’s
physiographic regions. The Alpine crests isolate one European region from another and are
the source of many of Europe’s major rivers, such as the Rhône, Rhine, Po, and numerous
tributaries of the Danube. Thus, waters from the Alps ultimately reach the North,
Mediterranean, Adriatic, and Black seas. The Alps emerged during the Alpine orogeny that
began about 65 million years ago as the Mesozoic Era was drawing to a close. At the end of
the Paleozoic Era, about 250 million years ago, eroded Hercynian mountains, similar to the
present Massif Central in France and Bohemian Massif embracing parts of Germany, Austria,
Poland, and the Czech Republic, stood where the Alps are now located. From the
Mediterranean to Vienna, the Alps are divided into Western, Central, and Eastern segments,
each of which consists of several distinct ranges.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 How far do The Alps stretch?
Ans 1. Geneva to Danube
2. Nice to Danube
3. Italy to Slovenia
4. France to Slovenia

Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 What does the term ‘Orogeny’ in the passage mean?
Ans 1. A geological process
2. A point of contact
3. A time period
4. An event that took place on The Alps
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Choose the word from the passage that means the same as ‘attrition’.
Ans 1. Erosion
2. Physiography
3. Region
4. Segment
Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 How many rivers are affected by The Alps?
Ans 1. 6
2. 4
3. 5
4. 3
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Where are The Alps located?
Ans 1. Eastern Europe
2. Western Europe
3. Black Sea
4. Mediterranean Sea
Q.1 दए गए श द का वलोम श द ात क जए।
संगम
Ans
Section : General Hindi

1. बछुड़न
2. मलन
3. द ड
4. देह
Q.2 दए गए श द का ी लग ात क जए।
बाज
Ans 1. मादा बाज
2. बाघी
3. बाजी
4. बाजनी
Q.3 दए गए श द क
े प क पहचान क जए।
मुगा
Ans 1. शु वचन
2. वचन
3. एकवचन
4. ब वचन
Q.4 दए गए वा य म कस कार का कारक है ात क जए।
महक ने राम को शरबत शरबत पलाया।
Ans 1. कम
2. स दान
3. करण
4. अ धकरण
Q.5 दए गए वा य म रेखां कत भाग कस कार का सवनाम है ात क जए।
बाहर दरवाजे पर कोई खड़ा है।
Ans 1. न यवाचक
2. पु षवाचक
3. अ न यवाचक
4. वाचक
Q.6 न न ल खत म से शु वतनी का चयन क जए।
Ans 1. अनुर
2. अनुरकत
3. अनूर
4. अन

Q.7 दए गए वा य म रेखां कत भाग कस कार क या है ात क जए।
च ड़या चहचहाती है।
Ans 1. अकमक
2. सकमक
3. ेरणाथक
4. क
ृ दंत
Q.8 दए गए वा य म कस कार क
े वराम च का उपयोग कया जाएगा ात क जए।
म य सारा काय क ँ
Ans 1. ,
2. ;
3. !
4. ?
े समूह का उ चत अथ ात क जए।
खालाजी का घर
Ans 1. सदा पढ़ने म लगा रहना।
2. चुगली करना।
3. चुपक
े चुपक
े बात करना।
4. अ यंत आसान काम।
े समूह म कस कार का वशेषण है ात क जए।
दो कलो सेब
Ans 1. समूहबोधक
2. संक
े तवाचक
3. प रमाणवाचक
4. गुणवाचक
Q.11 न न ल खत म से कौन सा वा य शु है?
Ans 1. ग रश को काटकर सेब दो।
2. अनेक लोग ने खाना खाया।
3. द ली संगीता क बहन गई है।
4. वह लौट आये।
Q.12 दए गए श द का पयायवाची ात क जए।
सुरभी
Ans 1. भ ा

2. गीता
3. करण
4. पपीहा
Q.13 दए गए वा य म रेखां कत भाग क
े पद का भेद ात क जए।
वनीत ने क ा म शोर मचाया।
Ans 1. वाचक
2. समूहवाचक
3. भाववाचक
4. जा तवाचक
Q.14 दए गए वा यांश क
े लए उ चत श द का चयन क जए।
जसम कसी काय करने का साम य हो
Ans 1. सौ य
2. सांमरण
3. समथ
4. सौरभ
Q.15 दए गए वा य क
े लए सही लोको का चयन क जए।
आ य दाता से बैर
Ans 1. छोटा मुँह और बड़ी बात।
2. जल म रहकर मगर से बैर।
3. खोदा पहाड़ नकली चु हया।
4. ऊ
ँ ची कान फ का पकवान।
Comprehension:
ग ांश को यानपूवक पढ़ तथा येक म चार वक पो म से सही वक प चुने।
“खुशी” इस श द का शा दक अथ होता है। रमजान क
े 1 माह क
े बाद आने वाला यह योहार सबक
े दल म खु शयाँ बखेर
देता है। इ लाम म येक मुसलमान क
े लए पांच कत का पालन करना अ याव यक है। उनम से एक रोजा रखना
मुख कत म आता है। रोजे क
े दौरान दनभर ना तो क
ु छ खाना होता है, ना ही पीना। फतर श द का अथ होता है पु य
करना। इस दन अ धक से अ धक पु य क
े काम कए जाते ह। इसक
े लए क
ु छ वधान भी बनाए जाते ह प रवार क
े येक
सद य क ओर से पौने दो सेर आटा गे ं या इसक क मत क
े बराबर पया पैसा गरीब अपा हज लोग को वत रत कया
जाता है। उ ह करते समय देने वाले क
े दय म जवाब नह होना चा हए क म दे रहा ं यह ईद रमजान क
े 30 दन क
े बाद
आती है इसको मीठ ईद भी कहते ह।
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 दए गए श द से या अ भ ाय है ात क जए।
फतर
Ans 1. खु शयाँ
2. ईद
3. पु य करना
4. उमंग

Comprehension:
े 1 माह क
े लए क
े येक
े 30 दन क
े बाद
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 ईद का शा दक अथ या है?
Ans 1. मीठ
2. पव
3. खुशी
4. योहार
Comprehension:
े 1 माह क
े लए क
े येक
े 30 दन क
े बाद
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 इ लाम म मु लम वग क
े लए क
ु ल कतने कत का ावधान है?
Ans 1. तीन
2. पाँच
3. चार
4. छः
Comprehension:
े 1 माह क
े लए क
े येक
े 30 दन क
े बाद
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 ईद कब आती है?
Ans 1. रमजान क
े एक माह बाद।
2. कभी भी।
3. रमजान म।
4. रमजान क
े सरे दन।
Comprehension:

े 1 माह क
े लए क
े येक
े 30 दन क
े बाद
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 उपयु ग ांश का उ चत शीषक या होगा?
Ans 1. रोजा
2. ईद का योहार
3. मीठ ईद
4. रमजान
Q.1 Identify the INCORRECT statement.
Ans 1. Contamination of ground water can result in high costs for alternative water
supplies
2. Contamination of ground water can result in potential health problems
3. Contamination of ground water can result in better drinking water quality
4. Contamination of ground water can result in loss of water supply
Q.2 The substances in a solution that offer resistance to changes in pH as acids or bases are
added to or formed within the solution are called:
Ans 1. catalysts
2. retarders
3. enzymes
4. buffers
Q.3 In a lined open well, the entry of water is from the _______.
Ans 1. sides
2. both sides and bottom
3. inclines
4. bottom
Q.4 Which of the following is NOT a method of drilling tube wells?
Ans 1. Darcy’s method
2. Cable tool method
3. Hydraulic rotary method
4. Water jet boring method
Section : Discipline1

Q.5 The federal law which established three drinking water source protection programs: the
Wellhead Protection Program, Sole Source Aquifer Program and the Source Water
Assessment Program is:
Ans 1. Safe Drinking Water Act
2. The Water Act
3. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
4. Ground Water Protection Act
Q.6 Interactions between the abiotic aspects of nature and specific living organisms together
form:
Ans 1. the atmosphere
2. the ecosystem
3. nature
4. the biosphere
Q.7 A unimodal function is one that has only:
Ans 1. one peak (maximum) or valley (minimum) in a given interval
2. one peak (minimum) or valley (minimum) in a given interval
3. one peak (maximum) or valley (maximum) in a given interval
4. one peak (minimum) or valley (maximum) in a given interval
Q.8 The liquid from a landfill containing contaminants which ultimately pollute ground water is
called:
Ans 1. filtrate
2. percolate
3. leachate
4. run off
Q.9 Perched aquifer is a special type of:
Ans 1. confined aquifer
2. artesian aquifer
3. transit aquifer
4. unconfined aquifer
Q.10 The Zoological Survey of India was established in:
Ans 1. 1913
2. 1916
3. 1923
4. 1926

Ans 1. Tube wells should be selected at a site where large underground water reservoirs
exist
2. The area for the tube well should have an access for the availability of electric
supply
3. Tube wells should not be located where there is a depression in the valley
4. The area around the tube well should have intensive cultivation and it has to be
located at the centre.
Q.12 In constant level pumping test, when the depression head is kept equal to half of the critical
head, such a head is known as:
Ans 1. equilateral head
2. yield head
3. constant head
4. working head
Q.13 When the rate of the reaction is proportional to the square of the concentration of one of the
reactants or to the product of the concentrations of two different reactants, then it is:
Ans 1. ﬁrst order reaction
2. second order reaction
3. complex order reaction
4. zero order reaction
Q.14 Which among the following is the world’s single largest contributor of greenhouse gases
and is one of the most important causes of global warming?
Ans 1. Wood
2. Oil
3. Coal
4. Biogas
Q.15 The Brownian movement was invented by:
Ans 1. Robert John
2. Robert Bean
3. Robert Brown
4. Robert Thomas
Q.16 Which of the following CANNOT be considered as elimination methods for optimisation
techniques to solve environmental problems?
Ans 1. Golden section method
2. Dichotomous search
3. Direct root method
4. Fibonacci method

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a source of ground water pollution?
Ans 1. Septic tanks and soak pits
2. Improper disposal of hazardous waste
3. Use of pesticide and fertilizers
4. Water supply lines
Q.18 The depletion of the groundwater level in bore wells during summer is due to:
Ans 1. high water level in aquifers
2. both availability of water in the nearest water body and high water level in aquifers
3. insuﬃcient knowledge of sub-surface geological conditions of the region during
drilling
4. availability of water in the nearest water body
Q.19 Which method is used to solve problems where the interval in which the optimum is known
to lie is ﬁnite?
Ans 1. Exorbitant search
2. Finite search
3. Exhaustive search
4. Intensive search
Q.20 The process of interposing coarse material such as gravel and coarse sand between the
well pipe and the aquifer soil is called:
Ans 1. well shrouding
2. well shearing
3. well surging
4. well shredding
Q.1 Pressure surge caused when the velocity of water in the pipe is checked suddenly by
sudden closure of a valve is called:
Ans 1. water hammer
2. water thrust
3. water buckling
4. water surge
Q.2 Which organism is seen in many inland, standing bodies of water and can often be seen
forming a surface scum or bloom?
Ans 1. Cyanobacteria
2. Cryptosporidium
3. Campylobacter
4. Cyclospora

Q.3 The physical washing operation that is used to reduce chemical conditioning requirements
is:
Ans 1. elutriation
2. eluviation
3. heat treatment
4. elution
Q.4 Who are the causative agents of typhoid and paratyphoid fever?
Ans 1. Species of Shigella
2. Species of Vibrio
3. Species of Salmonella
4. Species of Yersinia
Pipe corrosion can be prevented by:
Ans 1. proper selection of material
2. providing protective linings and coatings
3. treatment of water
4. anodic protection
Q.6 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to water supply pipes.
Ans 1. Plastic pipes are good insulators
2. Plastic pipes are free from corrosion
3. Plastic pipes are highly resistant to acidic waters
4. Plastic pipes are more prone to damage due to freezing and thawing of water in
closed pipes
Q.7 Lack of proper mixing in the conventional digesters leads to:
Ans 1. stratification
2. gratification
3. solidification
4. liquification
Ans 1. In aerobic-anaerobic processes, stabilisation of waste is brought about only by
facultative bacteria
2. Constant aeration is achieved in trickling filters
3. MLSS content is generally taken as an index of the mass of micro-organisms in the
aeration tank

4. Thickening is a procedure used to increase the solid content of sludge by removing
a portion of liquid fraction.
Q.9 The isotherm which assumes that a single adsorbate binds to a single site on the adsorbent
and that all surface sites on the adsorbent have the same affinity for the adsorbate is:
Ans 1. Langmuir isotherm
2. BET isotherm
3. Freundlich isotherm
4. Linear isotherm
Q.10 The fecal test requires precise incubation temperatures of:
Ans 1. 45.5 °C ± 0.2 °C
2. 44.5 °C ± 0.2 °C
3. 45.5 °C ± 0.5 °C
4. 44.5 °C ± 0.5 °C
Q.11 The maximum velocity of flow at which scouring action takes place is known as:
Ans 1. non-scouring velocity
2. Baldwin velocity
3. hydraulic velocity
4. scouring velocity
Q.12 The digestion of settled sludge in a septic tank is carried out by:
Ans 1. Both aerobic decomposition process and anaerobic decomposition process
2. aerobic decomposition process
3. anaerobic decomposition process
4. claustrophobic process
Q.13 In the biological nitrification, ammonia is oxidised to nitrite by:
Ans 1. Nycelium
2. Nicotineamide
3. Nitrosomonas
4. Nitrobacter
Q.14 The flexible joints in sewers are made flexible by using:
Ans 1. bitumen
2. cement mortar
3. polycarbonate
4. rubber rings

Q.15 Which bacteria is used as an indicator of fecal pollution?
Ans 1. Escherichia coli
2. Eubacterium
3. Eubacteriales
4. Excellospora
Q.16 The combustion of sludge in a reactor under high temperature, along with auxiliary fuels (if
needed) is called:
Ans 1. polarisation
2. gasification
3. congestion
4. incineration
Q.17 Wastewater from bathrooms, kitchens, washing places and wash basins is called:
Ans 1. garbage
2. sewerage
3. sullage
4. sewage
Q.18 Which is the valve which allows water to flow in one direction only?
Ans 1. Scour valve
2. Reflux valve
3. Air relief valve
4. Sluice valve
Q.19 What is the hydraulic mean depth from a circular sewer running half full?
Ans 1. R = D/2
2. R = D/4
3. R = D/8
4. R = D/6
Q.20 The biological process developed for the removal of phosphorous from treated wastewater
effluent is:
Ans 1. Phosstrip process
2. Bardenpho process
3. both Bardenpho process and Phosstrip process
4. Elution process

Q.1 Identify the INCORRECT statement. Gel electrophoresis:
Ans 1. is diﬃcult to polymerise in place
2. is an excellent anti-convective gel
3. has little residual charge on the polymer
4. can be polymerised in a variety of pore sizes
Q.2 Which of the following executes programming codes line-by-line, rather than the whole
programme?
Ans 1. Translator
2. Interpreter
3. Compiler
4. Executer
Q.3 A computer cannot 'boot' if it does NOT have a/an:
Ans 1. linker
2. operating system
3. compiler
4. assembler
Q.4 Which of the following is NOT an effect of concentration polarisation?
Ans 1. Increase in the viscosity of the solution
2. Solute enters into the pores and the pores are blocked partially or completely
3. Formation of gel over the membrane surface
4. Decrease in osmotic pressure of the solution
Q.5 Which of the following is NOT a hazardous characteristic of a waste?
Ans 1. Corrosivity
2. Reactivity
3. Ignitability
4. Compressibility
Q.6
Ans 1. 4a = b
2. a = 4b
3. 2a = b
4. a = 2b

Q.7 The Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF) guideline of 1991 has suggested:
Ans 1. a double liner system with synthetic or clay liner for landfill
2. a single liner system with PVC liner for landfill
3. a single liner system with synthetic or clay liner for landfill
4. a double liner system with PVC liner for landfill
Q.8 Wastes produced by hospitals, nursing homes, clinics, research laboratories and diagnostic
centres are called:
Ans 1. bioinfer waste
2. radioactive waste
3. commingled waste
4. biomedical waste
Q.9 The distillation process which involves the removal of volatile organic matter from
wastewater is called:
Ans 1. thin film extraction
2. fractionation
3. thermal stripping
4. steam stripping
Q.10 One byte consists of _____ bits.
Ans 1. 16
2. 12
3. 4
4. 8
Q.11 Let A be a real 4x4 matrix. Consider the following statements: S1: A has 4 linearly
independent vectors; S2: A has 4 distinct eigenvalues; S3: A is invertible. Which of the
following is true?
Ans 1. S1 implies S3
2. S2 implies S1
3. S1 implies S2
4. S3 implies S2
Q.12 Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?
Ans 1. Key board
2. Arithmetic and logic unit
3. Mouse
4. Printer
Q.13 Which legislative law has to be followed by health care centres to ensure that their waste is

handled and managed without causing any adverse health effects to human beings and the
environment?
Ans 1. Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1997
2. Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1999
Q.14 The process involving the complete coating or enclosure of a toxic particle or waste
agglomerate with a new substance is called:
Ans 1. simpliﬁcation
2. ampliﬁcation
3. macro-encapsulation
4. encapsulation
Q.15 A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
Ans 1. Macro virus
2. Trojan horse
3. Virus
4. Worm
Q.16 Which device is required for an internet connection?
Ans 1. Joystick
2. Modem
3. NIC card
4. CD drive
Q.17 Gauss-Seidel iterative method can be used for solving a set of:
Ans 1. linear algebraic equations
2. both linear and nonlinear algebraic equations
3. both linear and nonlinear differential equations
4. linear differential equations
Q.18
Ans 1. e
2. -0.5
3. 1
4. 0
Q.19 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to wetlands.

Ans 1. Wetlands protect water quality by assimilating water pollutants and removing
sediments containing heavy metals
2. Wetlands recharge groundwater supplies
3. Wetlands prevent potentially extensive and costly ﬂoods by temporarily storing ﬂood
waters
4. Wetlands lead to soil erosion
Q.20 CAD stands for:
Ans 1. Computer Analogue Design
2. Computer Aided Design
3. Computer Algorithm for Design
4. Computer Application in Design
Q.1 Which is the standard unit for measuring carbon footprints?
Ans 1. Carbon dioxide equivalent
2. Carboxyl equivalent
3. Carbon monoxide equivalent
4. Carbon oxide equivalent
Q.2 In GIS, a matrix of cells (or pixels) organised into rows and columns (or a grid) is called:
Ans 1. processed data
2. vector data
3. raster data
4. imaginary data
Q.3 The term ‘centroid’ is:
Ans 1. the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to
rotate about a certain axis
2. same as centre of gravity
3. the point of dissection of forces
4. the point of suspension
Q.4 Remote sensing methods that provide their own source of electromagnetic radiation to
illuminate the terrain is called:
Ans 1. cohesive remote sensing
2. adhesive remote sensing
3. active remote sensing
4. passive remote sensing

Q.5 The primary scientific tools to evaluate transformation and transport processes in the
environment are:
A. direct field observations
B. laboratory scale tests and physical modelling studies
C. mathematical modelling
D. Passive data collection
Ans 1. B, C and D
2. A and D
3. A, B and C
4. A and B
Q.6 World Health day is celebrated on:
Ans 1. 7th August
2. 8th August
3. 8th April
4. 7th April
Q.7 Which of the following is NOT an environmental factor that affects health?
Ans 1. Climate change
2. Exposure to hazardous substances in the air, water and soil
3. Consuming expired medicine
4. Natural and technological disasters
Q.8 The energy derived from a wide variety of material of plant or animal origin is called:
Ans 1. passive energy
2. active energy
3. bioenergy
4. living energy
Q.9 Which is the recognised Green Building Rating System in India?
Ans 1. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Development
2. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
3. Leadership in Energy and Economical Design
4. Leadership in Energy and Ecological Design
Q.10 EPA has classified Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) as:
Ans 1. class A carcinogen
2. class D carcinogen
3. class C carcinogen
4. class B carcinogen

Q.11 When was Chandrayaan - 2, India's second lunar exploration mission launched?
Ans 1. 22nd July 2019
2. 18th July 2019
3. 16th July 2019
4. 15th July 2019
Q.12 When temperature is increased beyond a certain degree in an aqueous solution of a non-
ionic surfactant, the solution separates into two phases and the temperature is known as:
Ans 1. breakpoint
2. cloud point
3. threshold temperature
4. minimum temperature
Q.13 Which of the following is NOT an effect of climate change?
Ans 1. Afforestation
2. Disappearance of species
3. Rising sea levels
4. Extreme weather events
Q.14 Identify the unsustainable energy component from the following.
Ans 1. Natural gas
2. Hydroelectricity
3. Land wind turbines
4. Geothermal energy
Q.15 The unit of moment of inertia of an area is:
Ans 1. kg/m2
2. kg-m-s2
3. kg-m2
4. m4
Q.16
Ans 1. reciprocal of R
2. logarithm of R
3. square of R
4. square root of R

Q.17
Ans 1. 1
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
Q.18 ______ has published guidelines for different sectors, which outline the significant issues to
be addressed in the EIA studies.
Ans 1. State Pollution Control Board
2. Federal Reserve Board
3. Central Pollution Control Board
4. Ministry of Environment and Forests
Q.19 Choose the correct answer from the options:
A. Green buildings are energy efficient
B. Initial cost of green buildings are higher than those of traditional buildings
C. Green buildings have poor indoor environment quality
Ans 1. Only A is correct
2. Only B is correct
3. Both A and B are correct
4. Only C is correct
Q.20 The unit of force in the SI system of units is:
Ans 1. Watt
2. Dyne
3. Newton
4. Kilogram
Q.1 The indentation marks left on bricks during the process of moulding are known as:
Ans 1. projections
2. fillets
3. frogs
4. marks
Q.2 In a jet of water striking at the centre of the curved vane moving with a uniform velocity in
the direction of the jet, for the maximum efficiency, the vane velocity is ______ of the jet
velocity.
Ans 1. two – third
2. one – half

3. one – third
4. three – fourth
Q.3 The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to specific weight of pure water at standard
temperature is called:
Ans 1. density of a liquid
2. surface tension of a liquid
3. specific gravity of a liquid
4. compressibility of a liquid
Q.4 In order to determine natural features such as valleys, rivers, lakes etc., the surveying
preferred is:
Ans 1. location surveying
2. cadastral surveying
3. city surveying
4. topographical surveying
Q.5 In a truss structure, _________ bear tension.
Ans 1. bottom chords
2. bases
3. joints
4. top chords
Q.6 The error in measured length due to incorrect holding of the chain is:
Ans 1. cumulative error
2. negative error
3. instrumental error
4. compensating error
Q.7 The process in which the impeller of a centrifugal pump will get fully submerged in a liquid
without any air trap inside is called _______.
Ans 1. pumping
2. gauging
3. priming
4. lifting
Q.8 In a frame structure, which of the following transfers the load to columns?
Ans 1. Roof
2. Foundation
3. Slabs

4. Beams
Q.9 The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called:
Ans 1. capillarity
2. compressibility
3. surface tension
4. viscosity
Q.10 The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is called:
Ans 1. modulus of rigidity
2. modulus of elasticity
3. Poisson’s ratio
4. bulk modulus
Q.11 A Pelton wheel is a/an:
Ans 1. tangential flow impulse turbine
2. inward flow impulse turbine
3. outward flow impulse turbine
4. inward flow reaction turbine
Q.12 The deformation per unit length is called:
Ans 1. compressive stress
2. strain
3. shear stress
4. tensile stress
Q.13 In the neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is:
Ans 1. minimum
2. maximum
3. zero
4. infinity
Q.14 Gypsum is added in the manufacture of Portland cement in order to:
Ans 1. decrease the burning temperature
2. decrease the grinding time
3. lengthen the setting time of cement
4. shorten the setting time of cement

Q.15 Hooke’s Law holds good up to:
Ans 1. yield point
2. plastic limit
3. breaking point
4. elastic limit
Q.16 The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid - jointed plane frame having 15 members, 3
reaction components and 14 joints is:
Ans 1. 3
2. 6
3. 2
4. 8
Q.17 The rocks formed due to solidification of molten mass lying below or above the earth’s
surface are called:
Ans 1. igneous rocks
2. metamorphic rocks
3. sedimentary rocks
4. aqueous rocks
Q.18 The fixed support in the real beam becomes a _____ in the conjugate beam.
Ans 1. hinged support
2. fixed support
3. free end
4. roller support
Q.19 The mass per unit volume of a liquid at standard temperature and pressure is called:
Ans 1. specific volume
2. specific weight
3. mass density
4. specific gravity
Q.20 How many types of frame structures are there?
Ans 1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Question Booklet Series :–
ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A
Booklet Code No. :-
iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&
990128
↑
Candidate must fill the above
number correctly, in the OMR Sheet
Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120
vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code- MDF21JECLX6S02 (P–I) ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120
Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. :
vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________
Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________
vH;FkÊ dk uke %
Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature
vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _____________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _____________________
IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question
booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process.
1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be
in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and
Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting
and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your
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filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet
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2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal
mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.
3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be
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4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4).
Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per
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fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

APTITUDE
DIRECTIONS: (Question no. 1 to 3) Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below.
A group of seven friends Anil, Vinod, Sumit, Dilip, Indra, Firoz
and Gaurav work as Engineer, Accountant, IT Officer,
Technician, Clerk, Physiotherapist and Research Analyst for
companies L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the
same order. Sumit works for company ‘N’ and is neither a
Research Analyst nor a clerk. Indra is an IT officer and works for
company ‘R’ Anil work as Physiotherapist and does not work for
company L or Q. The one who is an Accountant works for
company M. The one who works for company L works as a
technician. Firoz works for company Q. Gaurav works for
company P as Research Analyst. Dilip is not an Accountant.
1. Who amongst the following works as accountant?
(1) Vinod (2) Anil
(3) Firoz (4) Dilip
funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 1 ls 3½ fuEufyf[kr vorj.k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+sa ,oa
uhps fn, ç”uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
lkr fe=ksa dk ,d leqnk; vfuy] fouksn] lqehr] fnyhi] bUæ] fQjkst+ ,oa
xkSjo tks dEiuh & L, M, N, P, Q, R ,oa S esa bUthfu;j] ,dkmUVsUV]
vkbZ-Vh- vQlj] VsDuhf”k;u] DydZ] fQft+;ksFksjsfiLV ,oa fjlpZ ,usfyLV ds
in ij dk;Z djrs gSa ysfdu vko”;d ugha gS fd og blh Øe esa gksaA lqehr
dEiuh N ds fy, dk;Z djrk gS ,oa u rks og fjlpZ ,usfyLV gS vkSj u gh
DydZA bUæ ,d vkbZ-Vh- vQlj gS ,oa dEiuh R ds fy, dk;Z djrk gSA
vfuy fQft+;ksFksjsfiLV ds in ij dk;Z djrk gS vkSj L ;k Q dEiuh ds
fy, dk;Z ugha djrk gSA ,dkmUVsUV dEiuh M ds fy, dk;Z djrk gSA
dEiuh L ds fy, tks dk;Z djrk gS og VsDuhf”k;u gSA fQjkst+ dEiuh Q ds
fy, dk;Z djrk gSA xkSjo dEiuh P ds fy, fjlpZ ,usfyLV ds in ij dk;Z
djrk gSA fnyhi ,dkmUVsUV ugha gSA
1. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk ,dkmUVsUV ds in ij dk;Z djrk gS
(1) fouksn (2) vfuy
(3) fQjkst+ (4) fnyhi
2. What is the profession of Sumit?
(1) Technician (2) Clerk
(3) Engineer (4) None of these
2. lqehr dk is”kk D;k gS
(1) VsDuhf”k;u (2) DydZ
(3) bUthfu;j (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
3. Which of the following combinations of person,
profession and company is correct?
(1) Anil –Physiotherapist –M (2) Firoz –Clerk – Q
(3) Vinod –Accountant – R (4) None of these
3. O;fä] is”kk ,oa dEiuh dk lgh la;kstu dkSu&lk gS
(1) vfuy &fQft+;ksFksjsfiLV&M (2) fQjkst+ & DydZ & Q
(3) fouksn &,dkmUVsUV &R (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
4. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take cold drink
while 9 take cold drink but not ice-cream. How many
persons in this group take ice-cream but not cold-drink?
(1) 27 (2) 20
(3) 11 (4) 23
4. 36 O;fä;ksa ds ,d lewg esa] dqy esa ls 16 “khry is; ysrs gSa tcfd
9 “khry is; ysrs gSa ysfdu vkbZl&Øhe ughaA bl lewg ls fdrus
O;fä vkbZl&Øhe ysrs gSa ysfdu “khry is; ugha
(1) 27 (2) 20
(3) 11 (4) 23
5. Match the pair correctly.
State Hill–Station
A. Uttarakhand 1. Chittangong
B. Assam 2. Kalimpong
C. Tripura 3. Mussoorie
D. West Bengal 4. Haflong
(1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (2) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
5. tksM+ksa dks lgh lqesfyr djsaA
jkT; ioZrh;&LFky
A. mÙkjk[kaM 1. fpêxk¡x
B. vle 2. dSfyeikax
C. f=iqjk 3. elwjh
D. if”pe caxky 4. gk¶ykWx
(1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (2) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
6. Article 243 B(1) of the constitution provides for
constitution of Panchayat in every state. The level of
Panchayats referred under this is:
(1) Village and District level
(2) Village, intermediate and District Level
(3) Village level only
(4) District level only
6. lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 243 B(1) çR;sd jkT; esa ,d iapk;r ds xBu
dk çko/kku djrk gSA bl vuqPNsn esa iapk;r dk Lrj tks lanfHkZr
fd;k x;k gS%
(1) xk¡o ,oa ftyk Lrj
(2) xk¡o] e/;orÊ ,oa ftyk Lrj
(3) dsoy xk¡o Lrj
(4) dsoy ftyk Lrj
7. Jaggery is the main source of:
(1) Protein (2) Carbohydrate
(3) Fat (4) None of these
7. xqM+ fdldk eq[; lzksr gS%
(1) çksVhu (2) dkcksZgkbZMªsV
(3) olk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
8. The black hole theory was discovered by:
(1) Hargobind Khurana (2) C.V. Raman
(3) S. Ramnijan (4) S. Chandrashekhar
8. dkys fNæ ¼CySd gksy½ dk fl)kUr fdlds }kjk [kkstk x;k%
(1) gjxksfoUn [kqjkuk (2) lh-oh- jeu
(3) ,l- jkefutu (4) ,l- pUæ”ks[kj
(SET-02) PAPER – I [990128]
MDF21JECLX6 [ A–1 ]

DIRECTIONS: The Venn diagram given below shows the
estimated readership of 3 daily newspapers (H.T, TOI &
Statesman) in Delhi. The total readership and advertising cost
for each of these papers is as below:
Newspaper
Readership
(Lakhs)
Advertising cost
(Rs per sq cm)
H.T. 8.7 6000
TOI 9.1 6500
Statesman 5.6 5000
The total population of the city is approximately 14 million. The
common readership (in lakhs) indicated in the Venn diagram
9. The number of people (in lakhs) who read at least one
newspaper is:
(1) 4.7 (2) 23.4
(3) 17.4 (4) None of these
funsZ”k% uhps fn;k x;k osu Mk;xzke fnYyh esa rhu nSfud lekpkj i=ksa ¼,p-
Vh-] Vh-vks-vkbZ- ,oa LVsV~leSu½ ds vuqekfur ikBdksa dh la[;k n”kkZrk gSA
dqy ikBdksa ,oa foKkiu ykxr çR;sd lekpkj i= ds fy, uhps fn;k x;k
gS&
lekpkj i=
ikBd
¼yk[k esa½
foKkiu ykxr
(Rs per sq cm)
,p-Vh- 8.7 6000
Vh-vks-vkbZ- 9.1 6500
LVsV~leSu 5.6 5000
“kgj dh dqy tula[;k yxHkx 14 fefy;u gSA osu Mk;xzke esa bafxr
mHk;fu’B ikBd ¼yk[kksa esa½ n”kkZ;k x;k gS&
9. yksxksa dh la[;k ¼yk[kksa esa½ tks de ls de ,d lekpkj&i= i<+rs gSa%
(1) 4.7 (2) 23.4
(3) 17.4 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
10. In a high flying aeroplane, the ink of the fountain pen
leaks out because:
(1) Atmospheric pressure increases
(2) Atmospheric pressure reduces
(3) Atmospheric temperature increases
(4) Atmospheric temperature reduces
10. Å¡ps mM+rs gq, ok;q;ku esa QkmUVsu isu dh L;kgh yhd gks tkrh gS
D;ksafd%
(1) ok;qeaMyh; ncko c<+ tkrk gS
(2) ok;qeaMyh; ncko de gks tkrk gS
(3) ok;qeaMyh; rki c<+ tkrk gS
(4) ok;qeaMyh; rki ?kV tkrk gS
11. Match the following:
Field Nobel Prize winner 2015
A. Economics 1. Svetlana Alxievich
B. Peace 2. Angus Deaton
C. Literature 3. Takaaki Kajita & Arthur B. McDonald
D. Physics 4. Tunisian National Dialogue Quartet
(1) A3, B4, C1, D2 (2) A3, B1, C2, D4
(3) A1, B4, C3, D2 (4) A2, B4, C1, D3
11. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djsa%
{ks= 2015 ukscsy iqjLdkj fotsrk
A. vFkZ”kkL= 1. Losrykuk ,ysDlhfop
B. “kkfUr 2. ,Uxl MhVu
C. lkfgR; 3. rdkdh dthVk ,oa vkFkZj ch- eSdMksukYM
D. HkkSfrdh 4. V;wfuf”k;u us”kuy Mk;ykx DokVsZV
(1) A3, B4, C1, D2 (2) A3, B1, C2, D4
(3) A1, B4, C3, D2 (4) A2, B4, C1, D3
12. During whose reign did Hiuen Tsang visit the Chalukya
Kingdom?
(1) Pulakesin I (2) Kirtivarman
(3) Vinayaditya (4) Pulakesin II
12. fdlds “kkludky ds nkSjku Ogsu lk¡x us pkyqD; lkezkT; dh ;k=k
dh
(1) iqysfLdu I (2) ÑfroeZu
(3) fou;kfnR; (4) iqysfLdu II
13. The capital of world youngest nation South Sudan is:
(1) Juba (2) Rumbek
(3) Malakal (4) Wau
13. fo”o ds lcls de vk;q ds jk’Vª nf{k.k lwMku dh jkt/kkuh dkSu&lh gS
(1) T;wck (2) :Ecsd
(3) eykdy (4) ok;w
14. The equator does not pass through which of the
following countries:
(1) Kenya (2) Mexico
(3) Indonesia (4) Brazil
14. fuEufyf[kr fdl ns”k ls Hkwe/; js[kk ugha xqtjrh gS%
(1) dsU;k (2) eSfDldks
(3) bUMksusf”k;k (4) czkt+hy
15. Number of diagonals in a 30 sided convex polygon will be:
(1) 405 (2) 955 (3) 818 (4) 378
15. 30 Hkqtkvksa okys mÙky ikWyhxu esa fod.kks± dh la[;k gksxh%
(1) 405 (2) 955 (3) 818 (4) 378
(SET-02) PAPER – I [990128]

DIRECTIONS: In the following number series only one number is
wrong. If the wrong number is corrected, the series get
established following a certain logic. Below the series a number is
given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). You have to
complete the series following the same logic as in the given series
after correcting the wrong number. Now answer the following
questions giving the correct values for the letter in the questions.
16.
4
2
)
a
(
14
)
b
(
18
)
c
(
46
)
d
(
82
)
e
(
176
)
f
(
338
What will come in place of (e)
(1) 238 (2) 338
(3) 218 (4) None of these
funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr la[;k Js.kh esa dsoy ,d la[;k xyr gSA ;fn xyr
la[;k dks lgh dj fn;k tkrk gS rks Js.kh ,d fuf”pr rdZ dk vuqlj.k
djrs gq, lgh gks tkrh gSA Js.kh ds uhps ,d la[;k ds i”pkr (a), (b), (c),
(d), (e) ,oa (f) fn;k x;k gSA vkidks mlh rdZ dk vuqlj.k djrs gq, xyr
la[;k dks lgh djds Js.kh dks iw.kZ djuk gSA fuEufyf[kr ç”u dk lgh mÙkj
nsa ,oa ç”u esa fn;s x, v{kj ds LFkku ij lgh eku crk,aA
16.
4
2
)
a
(
14
)
b
(
18
)
c
(
46
)
d
(
82
)
e
(
176
)
f
(
338
(e) ds LFkku ij D;k vk;sxkA
(1) 238 (2) 338
(3) 218 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
17. What is the “ Motto” of Olympics 2020:
(1) Live your passion (2) One world, One Dream
(3) Inspire a Generation (4) Discover Tomorrow
17. vksyfEid 2020 dk ßeksVksÞ D;k gS%
(1) fyo ;ksj iSlu (2) ou oYMZ] ou Mªhe
(3) baLik;j , tujs”ku (4) fMLdoj Vwekjks
18. ‘C’ is a place which is located 2 km away in the north-
west direction from the capital Z. R is another place that
is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from ‘C’.
‘M’ is another place and that is located 2 km away in the
north-west direction from ‘R’. ‘T’ is yet another place that
is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from ‘M’.
In which direction is ‘T’ located in relation to ‘Z’?
(1) South-West (2) West
(3) North (4) None of these
18. jkt/kkuh Z ls mÙkj&if”pe fn”kk esa 2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij ^C* dk
LFkku fLFkr gSA ^R* ,d nwljk LFkku] ^C* ls nf{k.k&if”pe fn”kk esa
2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij gSA ^M* ,d nwljk LFkku] tks fd ^R* ls
mÙkj&if”pe fn”kk esa 2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij gSA ^T* ,d vkSj vU;
LFkku] ^M* ls nf{k.k if”pe fn”kk esa 2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij gSA Z ls]
^T* fdl fn”kk dh vksj gS
(1) nf{k.k&if”pe (2) if”pe
(3) mÙkj (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
19. Find the odd one out?
(1) FIFA World Cup (2) Ryder Cup
(3) Walker Cup (4) Solheim cup
19. fo’ke dk igpkusa
(1) FIFA oYMZ di (2) jkbZMj di
(3) okdj di (4) lkWysghe di
20. The grant of Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orrisa is
associated with:
(1) Shah Alam II (2) Bahadur Shah
(3) Nawab Asif-ud-Daula (4) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula
20. caxky fcgkj ,ao mM+hlk dh nhokuh dk xzkUV lEcfU/kr gS%
(1) “kkg vkye II (2) cgknqj “kkg
(3) uokc vkflQ&mn&nkSyk (4) uokc “kqtk&mn&nkSyk
21. Union Government appointed four brand Ambassaders
for Digital India Programme recently. Who among
these is an author and ethical hacker:
(1) Pranav Mistry (2) Satwat Jagwani
(3) Krati Tiwari (4) Ankit Fadia
21. Hkkjr ljdkj us vHkh gky gh esa fMthVy bafM;k çksxzke ds fy;s pkj
czkWUM ,EcsLMj dh fu;qfä fd;k gSA fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu ,d ys[kd
,oa bFkhdy gSdj gS%
(1) ç.ko feL=h (2) lror txokuh
(3) Øfr frokjh (4) vafdr QkfM;k
22. What is the chronological (first published first and so
on) correct sequence of the following books?
1. Richard Attenborough – In search of Gandhi
2. Louis Fischer – The life of Mahatama Gandhi
3. E.H. Erikson – Gandhi’s truth
4. J. Eaton – Gandhi, Fighter without a sword
Select the correct answers from the codes given below.
(1) 4, 2, 3, 1 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2
(3) 2, 4, 3, 1 (4) 1, 2, 4, 3
22. fuEufyf[kr iqLrdksa dks dkyØe ¼igys çdkf”kr igys ,oa blh rjg
mlds ckn½ ds vuqlkj lgh vuqØe esa yxk,a
1. fjpMZ ,Vucjks & bu lpZ vkWQ xk¡/kh
2. yqbl fQ”kj & n ykbZQ vkWQ egkRek xk¡/kh
3. bZ-,p- ,fjDlu & xk¡/kht&VªwFk
4. ts- bZVu & xk¡/kh] QkbZVj fonkmV , lksMZ
uhps fn;s x, dksMks ls lgh mÙkj pqusaA
(1) 4, 2, 3, 1 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2
(3) 2, 4, 3, 1 (4) 1, 2, 4, 3
23. In a code ‘Mumbai’ is written as ‘Sostpk’ and ‘Chennai’
is written as ‘dcfmmpk’, then “bench” will be written as:
(1) m f m d c (2) t m f d c
(3) t f m d c (4) t f d m c
23. ;fn ,d dksM esa ‘Mumbai’ dks ‘Sostpk’ vkSj ‘Chennai’ dks
‘dcfmmpk’ fy[kk tkrk gS rks ‘bench’ dks mlh dksM esa D;k fy[ksaxs%
(1) m f m d c (2) t m f d c
(3) t f m d c (4) t f d m c
(SET-02) PAPER – I [990128]

DIRECTIONS: To answer the following question, use the
information given below.
i. There are six persons A, B, C, D E and F in a family.
ii. There are two couples in the group.
iii. A is the father of C who is a doctor.
iv. E is the son of C.
v. F is the grand daughter of D.
vi. The father of F is B, who is a professor.
vii. E and F are unmarried.
24. Who is the grandmother of E?
(1) C (2) D
(3) B (4) None of these
funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, fuEu lwpukvksa dks i<+saA
i. ,d ifjokj esa A, B, C, D E ,oa F N% O;fä gSa
ii. lewg esa nks ;qxy gSa
iii. A C dk firk gS tks MkWDVj gSa
iv. E C dk iq= gS
v. F D dh ikS=h gS
vi. B dk firk F gS] tks çksQslj gSa
vii. E ,oa F vfookfgr gSa
24. E dh nknh dkSu gSa
(1) C (2) D
(3) B (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
25. Arrange the following rational members in ascending order:
3
–
2
,
8
–
5
,
10
7
–
(1)
10
–7
8
–
5
3
–
2
<
< (2)
10
–7
3
–
2
8
–
5
<
<
(3)
8
–
5
3
–
2
10
–7
<
< (4)
3
–
2
8
–
5
10
–7
<
<
25. fuEufyf[kr pj la[;kvksa dks vkjksgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsa%
3
–
2
,
8
–
5
,
10
7
–
(1)
10
–7
8
–
5
3
–
2
<
< (2)
10
–7
3
–
2
8
–
5
<
<
(3)
8
–
5
3
–
2
10
–7
<
< (4)
3
–
2
8
–
5
10
–7
<
<
26. Given that in a standard code pattern
ABCD is coded as EFGH
JKLM is coded as NOPQ
then RSTU is coded as:
(1) W V Y X (2) Q P U V
(3) V W X Y (4) V W Y Y
26. ;fn dwV Hkk’kk dk ,d ekud izfreku gS%
ABCD dk dwV EFGH
JKLM dk dwV NOPQ
rks RSTU dk dwV gksxk:
(1) W V Y X (2) Q P U V
(3) V W X Y (4) V W Y Y
27. In a certain code, ‘TEAMWORK’ is written as
‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is
‘PERSON’ written in that code?
(1) SQFNMR (2) SFQMNR
(3) SFQNMR (4) SQMFNR
27. ;fn ,d fuf”pr dksM esa ^TEAMWORK* dks ^NBFUJQNV* fy[kk
tkrk gS ,oa ^SOME* dks ^PTDL* fy[kk tkrk gS] rks ^PERSON*
dks mlh dksM esa D;k fy[kk tk;sxk
(1) SQFNMR (2) SFQMNR
(3) SFQNMR (4) SQMFNR
28. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 10 (4) 9
28. fuEufyf[kr fp= esa f=Hkqtksa dh la[;k fdruh gS
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 10 (4) 9
29. A sphere of radius x is melted and its volume is
divided into two equal parts. One part is cast into a
cylinder of height 10 cm. and second a cone of the
same height. The ratio of the cylinder radius to the
cone radius is:
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 (4) None of these
29. ,d xksyk] ftldh f=T;k x gS] dks xykdj blds ifjek.k dks nks
leku Hkkxksa esa foHkä dj fn;k tkrk gSA ,d Hkkx dks 10 ls-eh-
Å¡pkbZ okys flysUMj esa <kyk tkrk gS rFkk nwljs dks mruh gh Å¡pkbZ
okys ,d “kadq esaA rks flysUMj dh f=T;k ls “kadq dh f=T;k dk
vuqikr gksxk%
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
30. Sukriti and Saloni are athletes. Sukriti covers a
distance of 1 km in 5 minutes and 50 seconds, while
saloni covers the same distance in 6 minutes and 4
seconds. If both them start together and run at uniform
speed, by what approximate distance will sukriti win a
5 km mini marathon?
(1) 200 m (2) 225 m
(3) 250 m (4) 275 m
30. lqÑfr ,oa lyksuh ,d ,FkyhV gSaA lqÑfr 1 fdeh- dh nwjh 5 feuV
50 lsds.M esa r; djrh gS tcfd lyksuh mlh nwjh dks 6 feuV 4
lsds.M esa r; djrh gSA ;fn nksuksa ,d lkFk vkjEHk djrh gSa ,oa
leku xfr ls nkSM+rh gSa] rks 5 fdeh- dh feuh eSjkFku lqÑfr yxHkx
fdruh nwjh ls thrsxh
(1) 200 m (2) 225 m
(3) 250 m (4) 275 m
(SET-02) PAPER – I [990128]

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