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1) ________ is the logical integration of techniques to gather
and report data for planning and control decisions and to
evaluate performance.
A) An internal control system
B) A quality control system
C) A financial reporting system
D) A management control system
2) A management control system includes the techniques to
gather and use information to ________.
A) motivate employee behavior
B) evaluate performance
C) make planning and control decisions
D) all of the above
3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a
management control system?
A) A management control system aids and coordinates the
process of decision making.
B) A management control system encourages the use of only
short-term goals.
C) A management control system motivates individuals
throughout the organization to act in concert.
D) A management control system measures and evaluates
performance.
4) What is the first step in designing a management control
system?
A) evaluating management's performance
B) establishing organizational goals
C) preparing financial statements
D) differentiating between profit centers and cost centers
5) What is the first and most basic component in a management
control system?
A) the organization's long-range budget
B) the organization's goals
C) the stockholders' goals
D) the manager's personal desires
6) ________ are characteristics or attributes that managers must
achieve to drive the organization toward its goals.
A) Nonfinancial performance measures
B) Targets
C) Key success factors
D) Objectives
7) Which of the following statements about performance
measures is FALSE?
A) Organizational goals without performance measures do not
motivate managers.
B) Every performance measure used to evaluate employees
should be consistent with organizational goals.
C) An ideal management control system should include at least
one performance measure related to every goal.
D) Performance measures become more specific at higher levels
of the organization.
8) A hotel has the following organizational goal: Increase
customer satisfaction of overnight guests by 50%. Which is the
best performance measure of the organizational goal?
A) number of new employees trained
B) turnover rate of hotel employees
C) overall rating on guest satisfaction survey
D) percent of guests paying by credit card
9) A management control system is a logical integration of
techniques to gather and report data and to evaluate
performance. T or F
10) The purpose of performance measures is to set direction and
to motivate managers.
T or F
11) The following information is available for Wildwood
Consulting Company and its two offices:
Euclid Royal
Office Office
Net sales $250,000 $400,000
Fixed costs:
Controllable by division manager 78,000 48,000
Controllable by others 4,000 8,000
Variable costs:
Cost of merchandise sold 30,000 120,000
Operating expenses 15,000 60,000
Unallocated costs were $152,000.
Required:
A) Compute the contribution margin for the Euclid office.
B) Compute the contribution controllable by the manager of the
Royal Office.
C) Compute the contribution by segment for the Euclid office.
D) Compute the income before taxes for the company as a
whole. Extra credit
12) ________ is the process by which organizations concentrate
decision making within a particular location or group.
A) Management by objective
B) Balanced scorecard
C) Decentralization
D) Centralization
13) Which of the following statements is NOT a benefit of
decentralization?
A) Lower-level managers are able to make faster and better
decisions on local decisions than higher-level managers.
B) By delegating decision-making authority to local managers,
higher-level managers free up time to deal with larger issues
and fundamental strategy.
C) Local managers who are given more authority often have
greater motivation and job satisfaction.
D) Managers in decentralized units may spend time negotiating
transfer prices for goods transferred between units.
14) The decentralization of organizations has several
disadvantages that include ________.
A) lower level managers can make faster decisions than higher
level managers.
B) innovative ideas are less likely to be shared in decentralized
organizations.
C) local managers are given the opportunity to develop decision
making skills so they can move up in the organization.
D) higher level managers are given more time to pursue strategy
issues.
15) A firm is a good candidate for decentralization if ________.
A) segments buy from the same suppliers
B) segments sell to the same customers
C) there is frequent transferring of products between segments
D) an organization's segments are relatively independent of
each other
16) ________ is the delegation of decision-making power to
segment managers of an organization.
A) Goal congruence
B) Segment autonomy
C) Managerial effort
D) Segment contribution
17) Decentralization may increase a firm's costs because
________.
A) lower level managers duplicate services that may be less
expensive if centralized
B) information costs rise as top management needs additional
reports to learn about decentralized units
C) lower level managers may make decisions that are not in the
best interests of the firm as a whole
D) all of the above
18) Decentralization is the delegation of freedom to make
decisions. T or F
19) The lower in the organization that the freedom to make
decisions exists, the greater the centralization.
T or F
20) The increasing sophistication of telecommunications
facilitates decentralization in organizations.
Answer: T or F
21) Segment autonomy means that the activities of segment
managers are directed by top managers.
Answer: T or F
22) When compared to a decentralized organization, there are
really no advantages to a centralized organization. T of F
23) The Nicholson and Cage Divisions are in the same
company. Currently the Cage Division buys a part from the
Nicholson Division for $82 per unit. The Nicholson Division
wants to increase the price of the part to $100 per unit. Cage
Division can buy the part for $94 from an outside supplier. The
cost data for the part obtained from the Nicholson Division is
below:
Direct materials $25.50
Direct labor 32.50
Variable indirect production 22.50
Fixed indirect production 9.60
If Nicholson does not provide the parts to Cage, it will save
one-fourth of the fixed indirect production costs. The
Nicholson Division has excess capacity but no alternative uses
of the facilities.
Required:
A) From the standpoint of the company as a whole, should Cage
Division continue to buy the part from Nicholson Division?
B) From the standpoint of Cage Division only, should Cage
Division continue to buy the part from Nicholson Division?
24) Long-term planning for making investments that require
large amounts of resources is called ________.
A) operating budgeting
B) capital budgeting
C) strategic analysis
D) sensitivity analysis
25) The phases of capital budgeting do NOT include ________.
A) a post-audit of the investment
B) the selection of the investment to undertake
C) the identification of potential investments
D) awarding bonuses to managers for good investment decisions
26) In the capital budgeting process, accountants are NOT
involved in ________.
A) identifying potential investments
B) choosing which investments to make
C) gathering data to aid the investment decision
D) follow-up monitoring of investments
27) The minimum desired rate of return on an investment is
sometimes referred to as ________.
A) the discount rate
B) the hurdle rate
C) the required rate of return
D) all of the above
28) In net present value analysis, the minimum desired rate of
return for an investment project depends on the ________ of a
proposed project.
A) expected return
B) desired return
C) risk
D) payback period
29) The higher the risk of an investment project, the ________
for the project.
A) lower the minimum desired rate of return
B) higher the minimum desired rate of return
C) lower the expected rate of return
D) higher the expected rate of return
30) The net present value method computes the present value of
all ________ using a minimum desired rate of return.
A) expected future cash inflows
B) expected future cash outflows
C) expected future cash inflows and expected future cash
outflows
D) past cash inflows
31) Using the net present value method, mangers sum the
present values of all expected future cash flows from the project
and ________.
A) add the initial investment
B) subtract the initial investment
C) ignore the initial investment
D) add the depreciation expense
32) If the net present value of an investment project is positive,
then the project is ________. If the net present value of an
investment project is negative, then the project is ________.
A) ignored; accepted
B) desirable; undesirable
C) unacceptable; acceptable
D) rejected; accepted
33) Accepting a project with a ________ NPV makes the firm
worse off financially because the cost of the investment exceeds
the ________.
A) positive; present value of future benefits
B) negative; present value of future cash flows
C) negative; present value of present cash flows
D) positive; present value of present cash flows
34) Bryant Company has obtained the following data about a
possible planned investment:
Cost $270,000
Terminal salvage value in 8 years $10,000
Additional annual revenues for 8 years $250,000
Additional annual cash expenses for 8 years $200,000
Estimated useful life in years 8
Minimum desired rate of return 10%
Present value of ordinary annuity, 10%, 8 periods 5.3349
Present value of one, 10%, 8 periods 0.4665
The company uses straight-line depreciation method. Ignore
income taxes.
Required:
A) Compute the net present value of the investment.
B) Compute the payback period.
35) Jesse Company has obtained the following data about a
possible planned investment:
Cost $300,000
Terminal salvage value in 10 years 0
Additional annual revenues for 10 years $250,000
Additional annual cash expenses for 10 years $200,000
Estimated useful life in years 10
Minimum desired rate of return 10%
Present value of ordinary annuity, 10%, 10 periods 6.1446
Present value of one, 10%, 10 periods 0.3855
Income tax rate 40%
The company uses the straight-line depreciation method for
taxes.
Required:
A) Compute the net present value of the investment.
B) Compute the net present value of the investment if the
terminal salvage value is estimated to be $50,000 in 10 years.
36)
Research Project Six Sigma.
In our lecture on Chapter 9 we discussed Six Sigma.
I. The text mentions four companies that use Six Sigma:
Motorola, General Electric, 3M Dow Chemical.
Go to the website for each of these companies and find out what
they have to say about Six Sigma efforts.
II. Find a Financial Services Firm that uses Six Sigma. And
discuss how they are using Six Sigma.
III. Describe the levels of Six Sigma, and indicate what local
institutions are offering Six Sigma Training.

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1) ________ is the logical integration of techniques to gather and.docx

  • 1. 1) ________ is the logical integration of techniques to gather and report data for planning and control decisions and to evaluate performance. A) An internal control system B) A quality control system C) A financial reporting system D) A management control system 2) A management control system includes the techniques to gather and use information to ________. A) motivate employee behavior B) evaluate performance C) make planning and control decisions D) all of the above 3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a management control system? A) A management control system aids and coordinates the process of decision making. B) A management control system encourages the use of only short-term goals. C) A management control system motivates individuals throughout the organization to act in concert. D) A management control system measures and evaluates performance. 4) What is the first step in designing a management control system? A) evaluating management's performance B) establishing organizational goals C) preparing financial statements
  • 2. D) differentiating between profit centers and cost centers 5) What is the first and most basic component in a management control system? A) the organization's long-range budget B) the organization's goals C) the stockholders' goals D) the manager's personal desires 6) ________ are characteristics or attributes that managers must achieve to drive the organization toward its goals. A) Nonfinancial performance measures B) Targets C) Key success factors D) Objectives 7) Which of the following statements about performance measures is FALSE? A) Organizational goals without performance measures do not motivate managers. B) Every performance measure used to evaluate employees should be consistent with organizational goals. C) An ideal management control system should include at least one performance measure related to every goal. D) Performance measures become more specific at higher levels of the organization. 8) A hotel has the following organizational goal: Increase customer satisfaction of overnight guests by 50%. Which is the best performance measure of the organizational goal? A) number of new employees trained B) turnover rate of hotel employees C) overall rating on guest satisfaction survey
  • 3. D) percent of guests paying by credit card 9) A management control system is a logical integration of techniques to gather and report data and to evaluate performance. T or F 10) The purpose of performance measures is to set direction and to motivate managers. T or F 11) The following information is available for Wildwood Consulting Company and its two offices: Euclid Royal Office Office Net sales $250,000 $400,000 Fixed costs: Controllable by division manager 78,000 48,000 Controllable by others 4,000 8,000 Variable costs: Cost of merchandise sold 30,000 120,000 Operating expenses 15,000 60,000 Unallocated costs were $152,000. Required: A) Compute the contribution margin for the Euclid office. B) Compute the contribution controllable by the manager of the Royal Office. C) Compute the contribution by segment for the Euclid office. D) Compute the income before taxes for the company as a whole. Extra credit 12) ________ is the process by which organizations concentrate decision making within a particular location or group.
  • 4. A) Management by objective B) Balanced scorecard C) Decentralization D) Centralization 13) Which of the following statements is NOT a benefit of decentralization? A) Lower-level managers are able to make faster and better decisions on local decisions than higher-level managers. B) By delegating decision-making authority to local managers, higher-level managers free up time to deal with larger issues and fundamental strategy. C) Local managers who are given more authority often have greater motivation and job satisfaction. D) Managers in decentralized units may spend time negotiating transfer prices for goods transferred between units. 14) The decentralization of organizations has several disadvantages that include ________. A) lower level managers can make faster decisions than higher level managers. B) innovative ideas are less likely to be shared in decentralized organizations. C) local managers are given the opportunity to develop decision making skills so they can move up in the organization. D) higher level managers are given more time to pursue strategy issues. 15) A firm is a good candidate for decentralization if ________. A) segments buy from the same suppliers B) segments sell to the same customers C) there is frequent transferring of products between segments D) an organization's segments are relatively independent of
  • 5. each other 16) ________ is the delegation of decision-making power to segment managers of an organization. A) Goal congruence B) Segment autonomy C) Managerial effort D) Segment contribution 17) Decentralization may increase a firm's costs because ________. A) lower level managers duplicate services that may be less expensive if centralized B) information costs rise as top management needs additional reports to learn about decentralized units C) lower level managers may make decisions that are not in the best interests of the firm as a whole D) all of the above 18) Decentralization is the delegation of freedom to make decisions. T or F 19) The lower in the organization that the freedom to make decisions exists, the greater the centralization. T or F 20) The increasing sophistication of telecommunications facilitates decentralization in organizations. Answer: T or F 21) Segment autonomy means that the activities of segment managers are directed by top managers. Answer: T or F
  • 6. 22) When compared to a decentralized organization, there are really no advantages to a centralized organization. T of F 23) The Nicholson and Cage Divisions are in the same company. Currently the Cage Division buys a part from the Nicholson Division for $82 per unit. The Nicholson Division wants to increase the price of the part to $100 per unit. Cage Division can buy the part for $94 from an outside supplier. The cost data for the part obtained from the Nicholson Division is below: Direct materials $25.50 Direct labor 32.50 Variable indirect production 22.50 Fixed indirect production 9.60 If Nicholson does not provide the parts to Cage, it will save one-fourth of the fixed indirect production costs. The Nicholson Division has excess capacity but no alternative uses of the facilities. Required: A) From the standpoint of the company as a whole, should Cage Division continue to buy the part from Nicholson Division? B) From the standpoint of Cage Division only, should Cage Division continue to buy the part from Nicholson Division? 24) Long-term planning for making investments that require large amounts of resources is called ________. A) operating budgeting B) capital budgeting C) strategic analysis D) sensitivity analysis 25) The phases of capital budgeting do NOT include ________.
  • 7. A) a post-audit of the investment B) the selection of the investment to undertake C) the identification of potential investments D) awarding bonuses to managers for good investment decisions 26) In the capital budgeting process, accountants are NOT involved in ________. A) identifying potential investments B) choosing which investments to make C) gathering data to aid the investment decision D) follow-up monitoring of investments 27) The minimum desired rate of return on an investment is sometimes referred to as ________. A) the discount rate B) the hurdle rate C) the required rate of return D) all of the above 28) In net present value analysis, the minimum desired rate of return for an investment project depends on the ________ of a proposed project. A) expected return B) desired return C) risk D) payback period 29) The higher the risk of an investment project, the ________ for the project. A) lower the minimum desired rate of return B) higher the minimum desired rate of return C) lower the expected rate of return D) higher the expected rate of return
  • 8. 30) The net present value method computes the present value of all ________ using a minimum desired rate of return. A) expected future cash inflows B) expected future cash outflows C) expected future cash inflows and expected future cash outflows D) past cash inflows 31) Using the net present value method, mangers sum the present values of all expected future cash flows from the project and ________. A) add the initial investment B) subtract the initial investment C) ignore the initial investment D) add the depreciation expense 32) If the net present value of an investment project is positive, then the project is ________. If the net present value of an investment project is negative, then the project is ________. A) ignored; accepted B) desirable; undesirable C) unacceptable; acceptable D) rejected; accepted 33) Accepting a project with a ________ NPV makes the firm worse off financially because the cost of the investment exceeds the ________. A) positive; present value of future benefits B) negative; present value of future cash flows C) negative; present value of present cash flows D) positive; present value of present cash flows 34) Bryant Company has obtained the following data about a possible planned investment: Cost $270,000
  • 9. Terminal salvage value in 8 years $10,000 Additional annual revenues for 8 years $250,000 Additional annual cash expenses for 8 years $200,000 Estimated useful life in years 8 Minimum desired rate of return 10% Present value of ordinary annuity, 10%, 8 periods 5.3349 Present value of one, 10%, 8 periods 0.4665 The company uses straight-line depreciation method. Ignore income taxes. Required: A) Compute the net present value of the investment. B) Compute the payback period. 35) Jesse Company has obtained the following data about a possible planned investment: Cost $300,000 Terminal salvage value in 10 years 0 Additional annual revenues for 10 years $250,000 Additional annual cash expenses for 10 years $200,000 Estimated useful life in years 10 Minimum desired rate of return 10% Present value of ordinary annuity, 10%, 10 periods 6.1446 Present value of one, 10%, 10 periods 0.3855 Income tax rate 40% The company uses the straight-line depreciation method for taxes. Required: A) Compute the net present value of the investment. B) Compute the net present value of the investment if the terminal salvage value is estimated to be $50,000 in 10 years.
  • 10. 36) Research Project Six Sigma. In our lecture on Chapter 9 we discussed Six Sigma. I. The text mentions four companies that use Six Sigma: Motorola, General Electric, 3M Dow Chemical. Go to the website for each of these companies and find out what they have to say about Six Sigma efforts. II. Find a Financial Services Firm that uses Six Sigma. And discuss how they are using Six Sigma. III. Describe the levels of Six Sigma, and indicate what local institutions are offering Six Sigma Training.