Please write your answers in the spaces following the questions. .docxLeilaniPoolsy
Please write your answers in the spaces following the questions.
You may use your text book for this exam. But please work individually.
It is due on Monday the last day of class.
Name
1) According to the Environmental Science text, the underlying issue underlying all environmental problems is:
a) the rapid growth in human population
b) the refusal of developing nations to stop using CFCs
c) the Greenhouse Effect
d) contaminated soil and drinking water
e) our generation does not have a global perspective on environmental problems and how to solve them
Answer
2) List the six unifying themes in environmental science introduced in the first chapter of the textbook.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
3) One distinction between (A) science and (B) religion, ethics, and morals is that scientific statements are:
a) disprovable
b) universally accepted
c) inference
d) deductive
e) numerical
Answer
4) Like the Scientific Method, the process of making decisions can be presented as a series of steps. List these steps, as enumerated in the textbook.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5)
The flooding disaster of the Missouri River is a good example of
a) a materially closed system
b) a human attempt to control a natural ecological system
c) misuse of the carrying capacity of the environment
d) overpopulation of an environment
e) a natural fixed ecological system
Answer
6) The growth rate at which the amount increases at a constant rate for a fixed unit of time is called:
a) linear growth
b) negative feedback
c) exponential growth
d) positive feedback
e) equilibrium
Answer
7) Which of the following examples describes the maximum number of a particular species that an environment can support without degrading the environment?
a) demographic transition
b) replacement fertility curve
c) logistic growth curve
d) sustainability
e) carrying capacity
Answer
8) Which of the following examples describes the movement of a nation from a high population growth to a low population growth?
a) demographic transition
b) replacement fertility curve
c) logistic growth curve
d) sustainability
e) carrying capacity
Answer
9) An ecological community is:
a) a set of interacting species that occur in the same place
b) a system of interdependent living and nonliving components in a given area over a given period of time
c) a system based on the living environment
d) the smallest group that has all characteristics necessary to sustain life
e) the total physical and chemical environment of a continent
Answer
10)
The most basic processes in an ecosystem are:
a) photosynthesis and respiration
b) transport and storage of food
c) trophic chains and storage of food
d) flow of energy and cycling of chemical elements
e) waste decomposition and cycling of energy
Answer
11) The reservoirs and pathways that any chemical element follows through the Earth’s system is called the:
a) carbon cycle
b) nitrogen cycle
c) hydrologic cycle
d) geological cycle
e) biogeochemical cycle
Answe.
Please write your answers in the spaces following the questions. .docxLeilaniPoolsy
Please write your answers in the spaces following the questions.
You may use your text book for this exam. But please work individually.
It is due on Monday the last day of class.
Name
1) According to the Environmental Science text, the underlying issue underlying all environmental problems is:
a) the rapid growth in human population
b) the refusal of developing nations to stop using CFCs
c) the Greenhouse Effect
d) contaminated soil and drinking water
e) our generation does not have a global perspective on environmental problems and how to solve them
Answer
2) List the six unifying themes in environmental science introduced in the first chapter of the textbook.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
3) One distinction between (A) science and (B) religion, ethics, and morals is that scientific statements are:
a) disprovable
b) universally accepted
c) inference
d) deductive
e) numerical
Answer
4) Like the Scientific Method, the process of making decisions can be presented as a series of steps. List these steps, as enumerated in the textbook.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5)
The flooding disaster of the Missouri River is a good example of
a) a materially closed system
b) a human attempt to control a natural ecological system
c) misuse of the carrying capacity of the environment
d) overpopulation of an environment
e) a natural fixed ecological system
Answer
6) The growth rate at which the amount increases at a constant rate for a fixed unit of time is called:
a) linear growth
b) negative feedback
c) exponential growth
d) positive feedback
e) equilibrium
Answer
7) Which of the following examples describes the maximum number of a particular species that an environment can support without degrading the environment?
a) demographic transition
b) replacement fertility curve
c) logistic growth curve
d) sustainability
e) carrying capacity
Answer
8) Which of the following examples describes the movement of a nation from a high population growth to a low population growth?
a) demographic transition
b) replacement fertility curve
c) logistic growth curve
d) sustainability
e) carrying capacity
Answer
9) An ecological community is:
a) a set of interacting species that occur in the same place
b) a system of interdependent living and nonliving components in a given area over a given period of time
c) a system based on the living environment
d) the smallest group that has all characteristics necessary to sustain life
e) the total physical and chemical environment of a continent
Answer
10)
The most basic processes in an ecosystem are:
a) photosynthesis and respiration
b) transport and storage of food
c) trophic chains and storage of food
d) flow of energy and cycling of chemical elements
e) waste decomposition and cycling of energy
Answer
11) The reservoirs and pathways that any chemical element follows through the Earth’s system is called the:
a) carbon cycle
b) nitrogen cycle
c) hydrologic cycle
d) geological cycle
e) biogeochemical cycle
Answe.
1) If atmospheric carbon dioxide was eliminated from our atmospher.docxhirstcruz
1) If atmospheric carbon dioxide was eliminated from our atmosphere, we would expect that the
Earth would:
A) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase
B) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease
C) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase
D) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease
2) Which of the following is a correlation that is causing widespread concern?
A) As atmospheric oxygen levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.
B) As atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.
C) As levels of methane decline, average global temperatures are increasing.
D) As levels of carbon dioxide increase, average global temperatures are increasing.
3) Which of the following is part of natural capital but not ecosystem capital?
A) solar energy used to drive photosynthesis throughout the biosphere
B) coal and oil reserves
C) the production of electrical energy from wind turbines and dams
D) the genetic diversity of all plants and animals used in modern agriculture
4) From an ecological economist’s perspective, without sustainability, as economies grow:
A) gross national product grows too
B) natural resources are renewed
C) the natural world is depleted
D) natural ecosystems are replenished
5) Natural capital includes ecosystem capital plus:
A) natural forms of energy, such as solar, wind, and flowing water
B) nonrenewable resources such as fossil fuels
C) money available to invest in growing industry
D) all of the products of photosynthesis in the biosphere
6) The concept of sustainability requires that:
A) economic growth does not exceed the renewal of natural capital
B) all sources of energy used in an economy must come from the sun
C) global economic systems are based on the harvesting of natural products
D) economies use equal portions of land, labor, and capital
7) Uncertain about the best way to keep his new lizard alive, Jerome places a heat lamp at one
end of the long lizard cage. Over several days, Jerome notices that the lizard tends to sit in a
certain place when the lamp is on. The lizard’s selection of a particular place to stay
represents its:
A) range of tolerance
B) temperature optimum
C) biotic conditioning
D) use of a limited resource
8) As global climate change warms certain mountain ranges, the temperature optima for the insect
species living on the mountain is causing these insects to:
A) move higher up the mountain
B) move down the mountain
C) move to a new biome
D) become parasitic
9) Energy is lost as it moves from one trophic level to the next because:
A) one trophic level does not consume the entire trophic level below it
B) some of the calories consumed drive cellular activities and do not add mass
C) some ingested materials are undigested and eliminated
D) All of the above.
10) In general, biomes at.
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019 1 .docxtidwellveronique
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
1
EXAM 2 IS TUESDAY APRIL 9th, 2019
REVIEW ESFCW CHAPTERS 5 and 6
EXAM 2 is worth 15 POINTS
1. Which of the following statements is an example of climate?
a. The temperature today is unusually cold for this time of year.
b. Heavy local rains caused flooding in low-lying areas.
c. Long winters and hot, humid summers are typical of the upper Midwest.
d. If the drought in Oklahoma continues next year, it will be the worst since the Dust Bowl.
e. High humidity intensifies the oppressive heat.
2. The evolution of the average behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere over time is called
a. weather. b. climate.
c. climate change. d. hurricanes.
e. stratospheric migration.
3. Components of the climate system do not include
a. the sun. b. oceans.
c. glaciers. d. the atmosphere.
e. cosmic rays.
4. What is e-waste and why is it a concern?
5. Which of the following is not a driver in Earth’s climate?
a. The gravitational pull of the moon b. The sun
c. Ocean currents d. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
e. Clouds
6. Which of the following statements concerning the composition of the atmosphere is true?
a. Water consistently is the gas present in the highest concentrations.
b. N2 and O2 concentrations tend to be variable.
c. CO2 is present in the lowest concentration of all gases.
d. Methane concentration is about 17 parts per million by volume.
e. Carbon monoxide concentration is 388 parts per million.
7. What is the difference between a sanitary land fill and an open dump? Does garbage decompose more quickly in a
sanitary landfill?
8. If you were to measure the composition of the atmosphere across the globe, the composition would be relatively
constant except for
a. nitrogen and oxygen.
b. oxygen and helium.
c. helium and carbon dioxide.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
e. water vapor and ozone.
9. Ozone exists mostly
a. in the stratosphere. b. underground in reservoirs.
c. dissolved in water. d. in the cryosphere.
e. None of the above
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
2
10. Incident ultraviolet radiation from the sun is blocked by
a. clouds. b. sulfur dioxide.
c. chlorofluorocarbons. d. methane.
e. ozone.
11. Are most plastics degradable, biodegradable or non-degradable waste? How well do plastics break down?
12. The greatest quantity of fresh water is held in
a. rivers. b. lakes. c. ground water. d. oceans. e. glaciers and ice caps.
13. Which of the following does not play a role in reflecting incident sunlight back into space?
a. Methane b. Ice
c. Clouds d. Sulfur oxides
e. Particulate matter suspended in the atmosphere
14. Other than CO2, what greenhouse gas has the longest lifetime in the atmosphere?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ozone
c. CFCs d. Methane
e. Both a and c
15. Without the greenhouse effect, the atm.
Microbial Biotransformation of Pesticides(xenobiotics).pptxAliya Fathima Ilyas
* Biotransformation is the chemical modification made by an organism on a chemical compound, often associated with change in pharmacologic and toxicologic activity.
1) If atmospheric carbon dioxide was eliminated from our atmospher.docxhirstcruz
1) If atmospheric carbon dioxide was eliminated from our atmosphere, we would expect that the
Earth would:
A) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase
B) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease
C) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase
D) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease
2) Which of the following is a correlation that is causing widespread concern?
A) As atmospheric oxygen levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.
B) As atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.
C) As levels of methane decline, average global temperatures are increasing.
D) As levels of carbon dioxide increase, average global temperatures are increasing.
3) Which of the following is part of natural capital but not ecosystem capital?
A) solar energy used to drive photosynthesis throughout the biosphere
B) coal and oil reserves
C) the production of electrical energy from wind turbines and dams
D) the genetic diversity of all plants and animals used in modern agriculture
4) From an ecological economist’s perspective, without sustainability, as economies grow:
A) gross national product grows too
B) natural resources are renewed
C) the natural world is depleted
D) natural ecosystems are replenished
5) Natural capital includes ecosystem capital plus:
A) natural forms of energy, such as solar, wind, and flowing water
B) nonrenewable resources such as fossil fuels
C) money available to invest in growing industry
D) all of the products of photosynthesis in the biosphere
6) The concept of sustainability requires that:
A) economic growth does not exceed the renewal of natural capital
B) all sources of energy used in an economy must come from the sun
C) global economic systems are based on the harvesting of natural products
D) economies use equal portions of land, labor, and capital
7) Uncertain about the best way to keep his new lizard alive, Jerome places a heat lamp at one
end of the long lizard cage. Over several days, Jerome notices that the lizard tends to sit in a
certain place when the lamp is on. The lizard’s selection of a particular place to stay
represents its:
A) range of tolerance
B) temperature optimum
C) biotic conditioning
D) use of a limited resource
8) As global climate change warms certain mountain ranges, the temperature optima for the insect
species living on the mountain is causing these insects to:
A) move higher up the mountain
B) move down the mountain
C) move to a new biome
D) become parasitic
9) Energy is lost as it moves from one trophic level to the next because:
A) one trophic level does not consume the entire trophic level below it
B) some of the calories consumed drive cellular activities and do not add mass
C) some ingested materials are undigested and eliminated
D) All of the above.
10) In general, biomes at.
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019 1 .docxtidwellveronique
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
1
EXAM 2 IS TUESDAY APRIL 9th, 2019
REVIEW ESFCW CHAPTERS 5 and 6
EXAM 2 is worth 15 POINTS
1. Which of the following statements is an example of climate?
a. The temperature today is unusually cold for this time of year.
b. Heavy local rains caused flooding in low-lying areas.
c. Long winters and hot, humid summers are typical of the upper Midwest.
d. If the drought in Oklahoma continues next year, it will be the worst since the Dust Bowl.
e. High humidity intensifies the oppressive heat.
2. The evolution of the average behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere over time is called
a. weather. b. climate.
c. climate change. d. hurricanes.
e. stratospheric migration.
3. Components of the climate system do not include
a. the sun. b. oceans.
c. glaciers. d. the atmosphere.
e. cosmic rays.
4. What is e-waste and why is it a concern?
5. Which of the following is not a driver in Earth’s climate?
a. The gravitational pull of the moon b. The sun
c. Ocean currents d. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
e. Clouds
6. Which of the following statements concerning the composition of the atmosphere is true?
a. Water consistently is the gas present in the highest concentrations.
b. N2 and O2 concentrations tend to be variable.
c. CO2 is present in the lowest concentration of all gases.
d. Methane concentration is about 17 parts per million by volume.
e. Carbon monoxide concentration is 388 parts per million.
7. What is the difference between a sanitary land fill and an open dump? Does garbage decompose more quickly in a
sanitary landfill?
8. If you were to measure the composition of the atmosphere across the globe, the composition would be relatively
constant except for
a. nitrogen and oxygen.
b. oxygen and helium.
c. helium and carbon dioxide.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
e. water vapor and ozone.
9. Ozone exists mostly
a. in the stratosphere. b. underground in reservoirs.
c. dissolved in water. d. in the cryosphere.
e. None of the above
ECS111 P SEALEY EXAM 2 STUDY QUESTIONS 2019
2
10. Incident ultraviolet radiation from the sun is blocked by
a. clouds. b. sulfur dioxide.
c. chlorofluorocarbons. d. methane.
e. ozone.
11. Are most plastics degradable, biodegradable or non-degradable waste? How well do plastics break down?
12. The greatest quantity of fresh water is held in
a. rivers. b. lakes. c. ground water. d. oceans. e. glaciers and ice caps.
13. Which of the following does not play a role in reflecting incident sunlight back into space?
a. Methane b. Ice
c. Clouds d. Sulfur oxides
e. Particulate matter suspended in the atmosphere
14. Other than CO2, what greenhouse gas has the longest lifetime in the atmosphere?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ozone
c. CFCs d. Methane
e. Both a and c
15. Without the greenhouse effect, the atm.
Microbial Biotransformation of Pesticides(xenobiotics).pptxAliya Fathima Ilyas
* Biotransformation is the chemical modification made by an organism on a chemical compound, often associated with change in pharmacologic and toxicologic activity.
* Caryophyllaceae is also known as pink family. Members of this family are well known for ornamental purposes.
* This family is well represented in the British Flora and many species are cultivated as ornamental garden flowers.
* The members of this family are commonly found in the temperate regions of the Northern Hemisphere.
*Reference - Taxonomy of Angiosperms - Dr. B. P. Pandey
Pteridophytes are part of a large group of plants known as tracheophytes.
Tracheophytes are plants that have a vascular system that allows water and nutrients to move throughout the plant.
* The Gymnosperms originated in the Devonian period of the Palaeozoic Era and formed the supreme vegetation in the Mesozoic Era.
* It was Robert Brown (1827) who first recognised gymnosperms as a separate entity among plant kingdom.
* The members of this family are mainly distributed in the tropical parts of the world. The plants occur mostly in dry regions.
* Several shrubby species of Capparis occur in the Mediterranean region.
* Reference - Taxonomy of Angiosperms - Dr. B. P. Pandey
* Water hyacinth is scientifically known as Eichhornia crassipes (Mart.) Solms and the common name is Lilac devil. Water hyacinth or water hyacinth is an herbaceous weed, succulent stem and has a flow (stolon) spanning the water surface.
* Water hyacinth is considered invasive throughout the world because it grows rapidly and can form thick mat over the water. These mats shade out the other aquatic plants. Eventually these shaded plants die and decay. Decaying process depletes the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water. Often waters below the water hyacinth masses become devoid of life.
• Transcription machinery interacts with the template strand to produce an mRNA whose sequence resembles the coding strand.
• Life on earth is said to have begun from self-replicating RNA since it is the only class of molecules capable of both catalysis and carrying genetic information.
• Transcription maintains the link between these two molecules and allows cells to use a stable nucleic acid as the genetic material while retaining most of their protein synthesis machinery.
• The scanning tunneling Microscope is an electron microscope that transmits three - dimensional images of the electron cloud around the nucleus.
• The scanning tunneling Microscope (STM) works by scanning a very sharp metal wire tip over a surface. By bringing the tip very close to the surface, and by applying an electrical voltage to the tip or sample, we can image the surface at an extremely small scale - down to resolving individual atoms.
Water stress & physiological consequences in plant growth.pdfAliya Fathima Ilyas
• Plants experience water stress either when the water supply to their roots becomes limiting or when the transpiration rate becomes intense.
• Water stress may range from moderate, and of short duration, to extremely severe and prolonged summer drought that has strongly influenced evolution and plant life.
• The physiological responses of plants to water stress and their relative importance for crop productivity vary with species, soil type, nutrients and climate.
• Spatial data is of crucial importance to the Military Commander in the battle as it is for a decision maker in planning and development in a state’s growth.
• Ministry of Defence in any country gathers data on routing, filtering, analysing and presenting information for decision-making.
• The genetic code is the set of rules by which information encoded in genetic material (DNA or RNA sequences) is translated into proteins (amino acid sequences) by living cells.
• The genetic code, once thought to be identical in all forms of life, has been found to diverge slightly in certain organisms and in the mitochondria of some eukaryotes.
• Nevertheless, these differences are rare, and the genetic code is identical in almost all species, with the same codons specifying the same amino acids.
• The membrane enclosing a cell is called cell membrane or plasma membrane (animal cells) and plasma lemma (plant cells).
• It contains proteins and lipids in the ratio of 80 : 20 in bacteria on one extreme and on the other extreme 20 : 80 in some nerve cells.
• The over all composition of most of the cell membranes is 40-50% protein and 50-60% lipids; both the components vary in their composition.
• Neo – Darwinians thought that adaptations result from multiple forces and natural selections is only one of these many forces.
• This lead to the formulation of the ‘Germplasm theory’ which states that ‘any change to the somatoplam will not have an influence over the germplasm’.
• Marsilea hirsuta & Marsilea quadrifolia are two most common Indian species, usually found growing in marshy places, wet soil or near muddy margins of ponds.
• The species are hydrophytic or amphibious i.e., they grow rooted in mud or marshes and shallow pools or are completely submerged or partially or entirely out of water in wet habitats.
• Chara is fresh water green algae found submerged in shallow water ponds, tanks, lakes and slow running water.
• Chara is found mostly in hard fresh water, rich in organic matter, calcium and deficient in oxygen.
• Chara plants are often encrusted with calcium carbonate, and hence commonly known as stone wart.
How to Make a Field invisible in Odoo 17Celine George
It is possible to hide or invisible some fields in odoo. Commonly using “invisible” attribute in the field definition to invisible the fields. This slide will show how to make a field invisible in odoo 17.
The French Revolution, which began in 1789, was a period of radical social and political upheaval in France. It marked the decline of absolute monarchies, the rise of secular and democratic republics, and the eventual rise of Napoleon Bonaparte. This revolutionary period is crucial in understanding the transition from feudalism to modernity in Europe.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
Macroeconomics- Movie Location
This will be used as part of your Personal Professional Portfolio once graded.
Objective:
Prepare a presentation or a paper using research, basic comparative analysis, data organization and application of economic information. You will make an informed assessment of an economic climate outside of the United States to accomplish an entertainment industry objective.
June 3, 2024 Anti-Semitism Letter Sent to MIT President Kornbluth and MIT Cor...Levi Shapiro
Letter from the Congress of the United States regarding Anti-Semitism sent June 3rd to MIT President Sally Kornbluth, MIT Corp Chair, Mark Gorenberg
Dear Dr. Kornbluth and Mr. Gorenberg,
The US House of Representatives is deeply concerned by ongoing and pervasive acts of antisemitic
harassment and intimidation at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). Failing to act decisively to ensure a safe learning environment for all students would be a grave dereliction of your responsibilities as President of MIT and Chair of the MIT Corporation.
This Congress will not stand idly by and allow an environment hostile to Jewish students to persist. The House believes that your institution is in violation of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, and the inability or
unwillingness to rectify this violation through action requires accountability.
Postsecondary education is a unique opportunity for students to learn and have their ideas and beliefs challenged. However, universities receiving hundreds of millions of federal funds annually have denied
students that opportunity and have been hijacked to become venues for the promotion of terrorism, antisemitic harassment and intimidation, unlawful encampments, and in some cases, assaults and riots.
The House of Representatives will not countenance the use of federal funds to indoctrinate students into hateful, antisemitic, anti-American supporters of terrorism. Investigations into campus antisemitism by the Committee on Education and the Workforce and the Committee on Ways and Means have been expanded into a Congress-wide probe across all relevant jurisdictions to address this national crisis. The undersigned Committees will conduct oversight into the use of federal funds at MIT and its learning environment under authorities granted to each Committee.
• The Committee on Education and the Workforce has been investigating your institution since December 7, 2023. The Committee has broad jurisdiction over postsecondary education, including its compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, campus safety concerns over disruptions to the learning environment, and the awarding of federal student aid under the Higher Education Act.
• The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is investigating the sources of funding and other support flowing to groups espousing pro-Hamas propaganda and engaged in antisemitic harassment and intimidation of students. The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is the principal oversight committee of the US House of Representatives and has broad authority to investigate “any matter” at “any time” under House Rule X.
• The Committee on Ways and Means has been investigating several universities since November 15, 2023, when the Committee held a hearing entitled From Ivory Towers to Dark Corners: Investigating the Nexus Between Antisemitism, Tax-Exempt Universities, and Terror Financing. The Committee followed the hearing with letters to those institutions on January 10, 202
Introduction to AI for Nonprofits with Tapp NetworkTechSoup
Dive into the world of AI! Experts Jon Hill and Tareq Monaur will guide you through AI's role in enhancing nonprofit websites and basic marketing strategies, making it easy to understand and apply.
Embracing GenAI - A Strategic ImperativePeter Windle
Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty,
International FDP on Fundamentals of Research in Social Sciences
at Integral University, Lucknow, 06.06.2024
By Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Normal Labour/ Stages of Labour/ Mechanism of LabourWasim Ak
Normal labor is also termed spontaneous labor, defined as the natural physiological process through which the fetus, placenta, and membranes are expelled from the uterus through the birth canal at term (37 to 42 weeks
Biological screening of herbal drugs: Introduction and Need for
Phyto-Pharmacological Screening, New Strategies for evaluating
Natural Products, In vitro evaluation techniques for Antioxidants, Antimicrobial and Anticancer drugs. In vivo evaluation techniques
for Anti-inflammatory, Antiulcer, Anticancer, Wound healing, Antidiabetic, Hepatoprotective, Cardio protective, Diuretics and
Antifertility, Toxicity studies as per OECD guidelines
A Strategic Approach: GenAI in EducationPeter Windle
Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
Synthetic Fiber Construction in lab .pptxPavel ( NSTU)
Synthetic fiber production is a fascinating and complex field that blends chemistry, engineering, and environmental science. By understanding these aspects, students can gain a comprehensive view of synthetic fiber production, its impact on society and the environment, and the potential for future innovations. Synthetic fibers play a crucial role in modern society, impacting various aspects of daily life, industry, and the environment. ynthetic fibers are integral to modern life, offering a range of benefits from cost-effectiveness and versatility to innovative applications and performance characteristics. While they pose environmental challenges, ongoing research and development aim to create more sustainable and eco-friendly alternatives. Understanding the importance of synthetic fibers helps in appreciating their role in the economy, industry, and daily life, while also emphasizing the need for sustainable practices and innovation.
1. UGC NET - JULY 2018
PAPER 2
ENVIRONMENTAL
SCIENCE
2. 1. For a thermally comfortable, seated bare bodied person at 258C, the maximum energy
loss is due to:
a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. Evaporation
2. High concentrations of pollutants at ground level during winter season are due to:
a. Radiation inversion
b. Subsidence inversion
c. Frontal inversion
d. Landscape induced inversion
3. The theme ‘Transforming our world:2030 Agenda’ pertains to:
a. Protection of ozone layer
b. Climate change - Action plans
c. Sustainable development goals
d. Millennium development goals
4. At a latitude of 308, there is pressure gradient of 5.0 mb per 100 km. Given the density
of air ~ 1.25 kg/m3, the geostrophic winds will have velocity (m/s):
a. 5.48 m/s
b. 54.86 m/s
c. 109.72 m/s
d. 27.43 m/s
5. The basic nature of lithosphere does not arise from element(s):
a. Na and K
b. Ca
c. Mg
d. Si
6. If the tropospheric lapse rate be 6.58C/km and if T denotes temperature and Z denotes
the altitude then:
a.
dT
dZ
= 6.5°C/km
b.
𝐝𝐓
𝐝𝐙
= - 6.5°C/km
c.
dZ
dT
= 6.5°C/km
3. d.
dZ
dT
= - 6.5°C/km
7. Identify the statement, which best describes the second law of thermodynamics:
a. The internal energy of the universe is constant.
b. Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
c. At absolute zero, entropy of a substance is considered to be zero.
d. When an isolated system undergoes a spontaneous change, the entropy
of the universe increases.
8. Tropical cyclones occur on:
a. Meso - scale
b. Micro - scale
c. Planetary scale
d. Synoptic scale
9. If e and p are vapour pressure of water and total pressure of moist air, the equation of
state for moist atmosphere can be written as:
a. PV −
̃ RT (1 +
e
p
)
b. PV −
̃ RT (1 −
e
p
)
c. PV = RT (𝟏 + 𝟎. 𝟑𝟖
𝐞
𝐩
)
d. PV = RT (1 + 0.62
e
p
)
10. Select the incorrect statement about the redox potential of aqueous solutions:
a. As the concentration of molecular oxygen increases, the redox potential
increases.
b. As the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, the redox potential
increases.
c. As the concentration of molecular oxygen decreases, the redox potential
decreases.
d. As the concentration of hydrogen ions decreases, the redox potential
increases.
11. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
List - I List - II
(Analyte) (Method)
(a) Lead (i) Winkler Method
4. (b) Dissolved oxygen (ii) Gravimetric Method
(c) SO2 (iii) GC-MS
(d) PAH (iv) West Gaeke Method
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
12. The main acidic component of the present atmosphere is:
a. HCl
b. NOX
c. SO2
d. CO2
13. Identify the incorrect statement regarding PCBs:
a. These are water soluble and hence bioaccumulate.
b. These are fire resistant.
c. These are stable at high temperatures.
d. These have high electrical resistance.
14. Toxicity of which of the following metals is not due to reaction with sulfhydryl group?
a. Arsenic
b. Cadmium
c. Lead
d. Chromium
15. By chemical reaction, the hydroxyl radicals fail to remove which of the following trace
gases from the atmosphere?
a) CO
b) NO
c) SO2
d) CFCs
16. How many grams of acetic acid (molar mass = 60 g/mole) are present in 100 ml of
0.1M acetic acid?
a. 0.6 g
5. b. 0.06 g
c. 6.0 g
d. 60.0 g
17. Three coloured sheets of equal thickness are placed in a light beam. Each sheet absorbs
20% of light incident upon it. What is the intensity of light transmitted after the third plate?
a. 9.0%
b. 10.5%
c. 51.2%
d. 40.0%
18. In a volumetric titration, a 20 ml aqueous HCl solution, needs 10 ml of 0.1 N NaOH
for complete neutralization. The concentration of HCl solution is:
a. 0.2 N
b. 0.002 N
c. 0.01 N
d. 0.05 N
19. The best way for assessing the organic component of a water sample is the
determination of:
a. TOC
b. COD
c. BOD
d. DO
20. Biogas produced by the anaerobic digestion is a mixture of:
a. CO2, SO2, N2O, CH4 and H2O
b. CO, CO2, H2S, CH4 and natural gas
c. CH4, CO2, NH3, H2S and H2O
d. CO2, NH3, C2H5OH and H2O
21. The percentage concentration of which of the following ions is highest in sea water?
a. Bicarbonate
b. Chloride
c. Sulfate
d. Sodium
22. In which of the following ecosystems, the food web involves more species and more
trophic levels?
6. a. Rain forest
b. Ocean
c. Desert
d. Glacier
23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The available energy of an ecosystem decreases with the length of food
chain.
Reason (R): At each transfer of energy in food chain, a large proportion of potential
energy is lost as heat.
Choose the correct answer:
a. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
24. The origin of eukaryotic cell on earth took place:
a. 1500 Million years ago
b. 1850 Million years ago
c. 850 Million years ago
d. 1000 Million years ago
25. Ratio of energy transfer at different trophic levels in the food chain is called:
a. Metabolic efficiency
b. Ecological efficiency
c. Energy flow rate
d. Food chain complexity
26. At which stage of ecological succession, an ecosystem exhibits, photosynthesis (P) =
Respiration (R):
a. Pioneer stage
b. Mid seral stage
c. Climax stage
d. Early seral stage
27. The species determining the ability of large number of other species to persist in a
community are called:
a. Indicator species
7. b. Keystone species
c. Dominant species
d. Endemic species
28. Biodiversity:
(a) Increases towards the Arctic region
(b) Decreases towards the Arctic region
(c) Increases towards the equator
(d) Decreases towards the equator
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c)
29. Arctic Tundra is situated around:
a. 66.58 N
b. 55.58 N
c. 458 N
d. 66.58 S
30. Main limiting factor governing primary productivity in pelagic zone of the ocean is:
(a) Light
(b) Available nutrients
(c) Number of primary producers
(d) Tidal current
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
31. The nature of food web at the developmental stage of a succession is:
a. linear, predominantly grazing
b. linear, predominantly detritus
c. weblike, predominantly detritus
d. weblike, predominantly grazing
8. 32. Based on the casualties reported worldwide, which one of the following is most deadly
airborne bacterial disease?
(1) Diphtheria
(2) Whooping cough
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Meningitis
33. Match the List - I and List -II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I List - II
(Endangered animals) (Distribution)
(a) Lion tailed Macaque (i) Himalayan foothills
(b) Golden Langur (ii) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Spotted Linsang (iii) Western Ghats
(d) Pallas’s cat (iv) Central and Eastern Himalayas
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
34. Reproductive isolation of populations leads to:
a. infertility
b. population explosion
c. speciation
d. population decline
35. In the context of local environment, heleoplankton refers to:
a. Saltwater plankton
b. Pond plankton
c. Stream plankton
d. Lake plankton
36. According to India State Forest Report (ISFR), 2017 of MOEFCC, GOI, the increase
in forest cover of the country with reference to the year 2015 is:
a. 1.8%
b. 2.0%
c. 2.2%
9. d. 1.0%
37. Which one of the following is a cultivable species of tropical earthworm?
a. Elsenia fetida
b. Lumbricus rubellus
c. Drawida nepalensis
d. Polypheretima elongata
38. Slow downslope movement of water saturated rock mass which is not confined to a
definite channel, is called:
a. Soil creep
b. Debris flow
c. Mudslide
d. Solifluction
39. Isogons are the points which join beds of:
a. Equal dip amount
b. Same strike direction
c. Equal thickness
d. Opposite strike direction
40. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I List - II
(Ecosystem service) (Function)
(a) Provisioning (i) Nutrient cycling
(b) Regulating (ii) Recreational
(c) Cultural (iii) Carbon sequestration
(d) Supporting (iv) Pharmaceuticals
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
41. Cartostat-2 satellite has a spatial resolution of:
a. better than 1 m
b. 2 m
10. c. 5.8 m
d. 23 m
42. L - band in microwave remote sensing provides information about scattering from:
a) Volume
b) Soil
c) Canopy
d) Trunks and boles
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) only
(2) (a), (b), only
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (b), (d) only
43. In temperate lakes upwelling replenishes nutrients turnover during:
(a) Autumn and spring
(b) Autumn and winter
(c) Summer and winter
(d) Summer and spring
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (d) only
44. Soil pollution is caused by:
(a) Industrial waste
(b) Agrochemicals
(c) Petrochemicals
(d) Detergents
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d) only
45. In an aquifer having a coefficient of permeability k = 0.1 mm/s and water table sloping
at a rate of 1 m over a distance of 200 m, the value of groundwater flow is:
11. a. 0.005 mm/s
b. 0.0010 mm/s
c. 0.0015 mm/s
d. 0.0025 mm/s
46. Seismic waves travel faster through:
a. Gas
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. Lava
47. Urban Heat Island effect is best studied using remote sensing in the following spectral
region:
(a) 0.5 - 0.9 μm
(b) 3 - 5 μm
(c) 10 - 12 μm
(d) 3 - 6 cm
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (d) only
48. In landscape ecological studies, the term landscape process includes:
(a) The exchange of materials and energy
(b) Exchange or movement of organisms
(c) Patch, matrix and corridor
(d) Porosity
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
49. A drowned river valley estuary is formed when?
a. a barrier island or sand bar separates a section of the coast where fresh water
enters.
12. b. sea level rose at the end of the last glacial age invading low lands and
rivers.
c. a deep valley is created by retreating glaciers.
d. land sinks due to movements of the crust.
50. Fringing reef generally develops:
a. as a narrow band close to a shore.
b. at some distance from the coast.
c. as a ring around central lagoon.
d. as a patch in the pelagic zone of the sea.
51. According to River Continuum Concept of Vannote et. al (1980), the major sources of
energy in medium - sized streams are:
(a) Fine particulate organic matter
(b) Coarse particulate organic matter
(c) Algae
(d) Aquatic plants
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c), and (d)
52. Self-purification of running streams may be due to:
a. oxidation, sedimentation and coagulation
b. sedimentation, dilution and oxidation
c. dilution, sedimentation and coagulation
d. dilution, oxidation and coagulation
53. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The efficiency of a PV cell is limited by the quantum processes involving
incident photons and the electrons in the cell.
Reason (R): The band gap energy of the semiconducting material used to fabricate PV
cell is less in comparison to the energies of photons of insolation.
Choose the correct answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
13. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
54. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The recoverable renewable energy is a fraction of the resource base of the
renewable sources available in the world.
Reason (R): Much of the renewable energy is either of high entropy or too inaccessible
to use.
Choose the correct answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
55. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Tidal range is a critical factor in determining whether an estuary would be
useful for tidal power generation.
Reason (R): Tidal power is proportional to tidal range.
Choose the correct answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
56. A single solar cell on illumination by insolation of about 800 Wm-2
produces a voltage
of 0.5 V and a current upto 2.0 A. The efficiency of the solar cell is 12.5%. The area of the
cell is:
a. 2×10-2
m2
b. 5×10-3
m2
c. 4×10-4
m2
d. 10-2
m2
57. If the ion density in a high temperature fusion plasma consisting of deuterium and
tritium fuel is 2.5×1020
m-3
, the minimum confinement time required for nuclear fusion to
produce net energy will be:
a. 0.5 s
b. 0.4 s
c. 0.25 s
14. d. 4.0 s
58. At present, which geothermal resource is exploited on commercial scale in the world?
a. Magma
b. Hot dry rock
c. Geopressured
d. Hydrothermal
59. Which of the following substances has the maximum energy content (MJ/m3
)?
a. Methane gas
b. Liquid butane
c. Natural gas
d. Hydrogen gas
60. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The nuclei of elements such as plutonium and uranium have extremely
large energy potentials.
Reason (R): They are in states of thermodynamic non-equilibrium.
Choose the correct answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
61. In a nuclear fission reaction involving U
235
92
and a slow neutron, the mass defect is
found to be 0.223 u. How much energy will be released from 5.0 gram of U
235
92
? (1u =
1.66 × 10-27
kg)
(1) 426.7 GJ
(2) 85.3 GJ
(3) 170.6 GJ
(4) 42.6 GJ
62. Which of the following biofuels is produced from acidification and distillation of
woody crops?
a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Producer gas
15. d) Esters
63. How thick a sound barrier be made if it is to attenuate efficiently sound transmitted at
5.0 kHz?
a) ~ 2.0 cm
b) ~ 3.3 cm
c) ~ 6.6 cm
d) ~ 2.0 m
64. Identify the most reducing water sample as inferred from pE values given below:
a) pE = 15
b) pE = 12
c) pE = 7
d) pE = 5
65. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In an unpolluted and dust free atmosphere, rainwater pH is ~ 5.6.
Reason (R): Dissolution of carbon dioxide in rainwater produces hydrogen ions.
Choose the correct answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
66. As per BIS, the recommended pH for drinking water is:
a) 5.0 - 6.5
b) 6.5 - 8.5
c) 7.5 - 9.0
d) 8 - 10
67. In the disinfection of water by chlorine, the most reactive chlorine species is:
a) Cl2
b) ClO-
c) HOCl
d) Cl-
16. 68. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Black carbon contributes to global warming.
Reason (R): Black carbon behaves like a black body.
Choose the correct answer:
a. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
69. Which of the following air pollutants are responsible for photochemical smog?
(a) Oxides of nitrogen
(b) Ozone
(c) Unburnt hydrocarbons
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
70. Temporary hardness is caused by:
a. Calcium sulfate
b. Magnesium sulfate
c. Magnesium carbonate
d. Magnesium chloride
71. Bioremediation of soil is not achieved readily if:
a. Contaminant is a lighter molecule.
b. Contaminant has high aromaticity.
c. Contaminant is a polar molecule.
d. Contaminant is non-halogenated.
72. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Traffic policemen in urban centres generally suffer from oxygen deficiency.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide forms a very strong complex with haemoglobin.
Choose the correct answer:
17. a. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
73. A bar graph whose bars are drawn in decreasing order of frequency is:
a. histogram
b. frequency polygon
c. pareto chart
d. cumulative bar chart
74. If four groups of vehicles consisting of 5, 10, 12 and 8 cars reported the gaseous
pollutant emissions of 1.2 kg, 2.1 kg, 3.0 kg and 1.5 kg per day respectively, then the mean
emission of gaseous pollutant from all cars is:
a. 4.43 kg/day
b. 2.14 kg/day
c. 4.80 kg/day
d. 3.12 kg/day
75. A sample of 10 measurements of diameter of trees in a survey gives a mean of 43.8 cm
and a standard deviation of 0.6 cm. Given t = 2.26, the 95% confidence limit for the actual
diameter is in between:
a. 41.54 and 46.06 cm
b. 43.348 and 44.252 cm
c. 43.20 and 44.812 cm
d. 43.252 and 44.348 cm
76. In a fish population of a pond it is believed that males and females are in equal
proportion. If out of 200 fish in a catch, 120 are male and 80 are female, then the Chi square
(χ2) value is:
a. 8
b. 4
c. 16
d. 12
77. In multiple regression analysis, the value that refers to the extent of possible variance
in the dependent variable that can be accounted for, by the independent variable is:
a. R Value
b. Adjusted R2
Value
18. c. ‘r’ Value
d. 1/R Value
78. A population size at t=0 is 80 and has a growth rate of 0.12. If the population follows
logistic growth, what is the growth rate constant if the carrying capacity is 240?
a. 5.32
b. 9.60
c. 0.18
d. 3.80
79. In a city of area (8 km×8 km), the vehicular traffic is releasing 10-5
g/m2
−s of CO during
the winter season between 4 pm and 8 pm. During this period mixing height is 100 m. The
wind is blowing in the city at a speed of 4.0 m/s along the side of the city. If the initial
concentration of CO at 4 pm was negligible, the estimated concentration of CO after 4
hours should be:
a. 0.2 mg/m3
b. 3.2 mg/m3
c. 2.0 mg/m3
d. 20.0 mg/m3
80. In the Gaussian plume model, the effective stack height is the sum of actual stack height
and the plume rise which depends on:
(a) buoyancy of exhaust gases
(b) momentum of exhaust gases
(c) stability of the atmosphere
(d) emission rate of the pollutants
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
81. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Global shipping is a source of net cooling of atmosphere.
Reason (R): Ships are responsible for significant amounts of sulphur emissions.
Choose the correct answer:
a. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
19. c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
82. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Ozone depletion in stratosphere causes melanoma.
Reason (R): Ozone is a gas which largely absorbs UV - A radiation.
Choose the correct answer:
a. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
83. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to saline and alkaline soil:
a. These show white incrustation of salts of calcium, magnesium and sodium
on the soil surface.
b. These soils are infertile.
c. These soils are poor in drainage.
d. These soils are pervious.
84. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Phosphorus limits eutrophication if nitrogen is eight times more abundant
(weight wise) than phosphorus in fresh water.
Reason (R): About eight times more nitrogen (weight wise) is required than phosphorus
for plant growth.
Choose the correct answer:
a. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
85. World Bio-diversity day is celebrated every year on:
a. March 22
b. May 22
c. July 22
d. November 22
20. 86. To achieve its objectives, the International Solar Alliance aims to mobilize financial
investment over:
a. Z 1 trillion
b. Z 100 billion
c. Z 500 billion
d. Z 200 billion
87. A Ramsar site not able to perform its ecological functions comes under:
a. Montreal protocol
b. Montreux record
c. Montreal record
d. Montreaux protocol
88. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil
spills?
a. Bacillus denitrificans
b. Pseudomonas denitrificans
c. Pseudomonas putida
d. Bacillus subtillis
89. For the scientific research or investigations, the chief wildlife warden may grant the
permission to public to enter a sanctuary under the section:
a. 35 of The wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
b. 28 of The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
c. 72 of The Indian Forest Act 1922
d. 73 of The Indian Forest Act 1927
90. Power to issue notification reserving the trees or class of trees in a protected forest lies
with:
a. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, GOI
b. Biodiversity Board
c. State Government
d. Central Government
91. In which stage of decomposition of landfilled waste, the bacteria acetogen helps to
reduce the pH of leachate and allows heavy metals to be solubilized?
a. Aerobic Phase
b. Acid Phase
c. Unsteady Methanogenesis Stage
21. d. Steady Methanogenesis Stage
92. Choose the correct sequence in resource recovery for mixed solid waste:
a. Screening → Air classifier → Shredder → Magnetic separation
b. Magnetic separation → Shredder → Screening → Air classifier
c. Shredder → Screening → Air classifier → Magnetic separation
d. Screening → Shredder → Magnetic separation → Air classifier
93. Onsight mulching and composting of waste is a component of integrated solid waste
management under the process of:
a. recycling
b. disposal
c. source reduction
d. disinfection
94. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Waste types) (Disposal methods)
(a) Human tissues (i) Disinfection and shredding
(b) Laboratory wastes (ii) Disinfection and discharge into drains
(c) Waste sharps (iii) Autoclaving
(d) Liquid waste (iv) Incineration and deep burial
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
95. Which of the following materials are used as landfill sealants for the control of gas and
leachate?
(a) Fly ash
(b) Lime
(c) Bentonite
(d) Butyl rubber
Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) and (b) only
22. (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (d) and (a) only
96. Select the correct sequence with reference to Environmental Management System
ISO1401:
a. Environmental policy → Implementation and operation → Checking and
corrective action → Management review
b. Implementation and operation → Checking and corrective action →
Management review → Environmental policy
c. Implementation and operation → Environmental policy → Checking and
corrective action → Management review
d. Checking and corrective action → Management review → Implementation
and operation → Environmental policy
97. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(EIA process) (Features)
(a) Environmental Baseline (i) Systematic Appraisal of EIS
(b) Development Action (ii) Avoid, reduce and remedy for impacts
(c) Mitigation measures (iii) Rationale of the project
(d) Review (iv) Establishment of present and future state of
environment
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
98. The type of project in ‘B’ category in the schedule attached with EIA notification of
14th
September 2006, needs environmental clearance from:
(a) Central Govt. without the recommendation of the Expert Appraisal Committee.
(b) State Govt. on the recommendation of the State Expert Appraisal Committee.
(c) State Environmental Impact Assessment Authority on the recommendation of State
Expert Appraisal Committee.
23. Choose the correct code:
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (c) and (a) only
99. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Process) (Description)
(a) Development action (i) Compensation for adverse impacts
(b) Environmental baseline (ii) Development stages and processes
(c) Impacts prediction (iii) Establishment of future and present state of
environment
(d) Mitigation measures (iv) Magnitude of identified change in environment
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
100. Battelle - Columbus environmental evaluation system is used to assess the impact of:
a. Mining development projects.
b. Pulp and paper mill projects.
c. Water resources projects.
d. Highway projects.