This ppt discuss the previous year (2011 - 2020) CSIR UGC NET Questions with answers which mainly focus on the applied biology part.

2. Microbial fermentation and production of small and macro
molecules
Part 01
Applications of immunological principles, vaccines, diagnostics.
Tissue and cell culture methods in plants and animals
Part 02
Transgenic animals and plants, molecular approaches to
diagnosis and strain identification
Part 03
Genomics and its application to health and agriculture, including
gene therapy
Part 04

3. 1. The word "fermentation is used in bio chemistry and microbial technology to denote different phenomena. If
the former is called C and latter is called T, which of the following statements is true? (JUNE 2012)
1. All C is T but all T is not C
2. All T is C but all C is not T
3. T is always a product of genetic engineering while C is not
4. C is always an aerobic process, while T can be aerobic or anaerobic
ANS - 4

4. 2. Which of the following food crops has recently been genetically engineered to obtain edible vaccine to develop
immunity against hepatitis B? (JUNE 2011)
a. Banana
b. Maize
c. Potato
d. Tomato ANS - C

5. 3. Monoclonal antibodies (mAb) can be potentially used as therapeutic agents. The major advantage is that they can
specifically target aberrant cells. However, there is a practical difficulty. Monoclonal are raised in mouse and therefore
it is expected that an immune reaction will develop if these are injected into humans. It is therefore necessary to
humanize monoclonal antibody by (JUNE 2011)
a. Expressing the genes for the mAb in cultured human cells and isolating the mAb from these cells
b. Replacing the Fv region of a mAb with one derived from a human IgG
C. Replacing CL and CH regions of the mAb with that obtained from human IgG
d. Taking a human IgG and replacing the CDRs by those derived from the mouse mAb
4. Which of the following factors is NOT true for the low levels of immune response in Plasmodium infection? (DEC
2012)
1. Different types of antigens are expressed at various stages of Plasmodium life cycle.
2. Most of the phases in the life cycle of Plasmodium are intracellular.
3. Sporozoites are rapidly cleared from blood circulation.
4. Plasmodium infection primarily destroys macrophages and dendritic cells.
ANS - D
ANS - 4

6. 5. In the case of monoclonal antibody production by hybridoma technology, myeloma cells used lack the enzyme
hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoriboxyl transferase (HGPRT) such that fused cells can only survive when selected on
hypoxanthine-aminopterin-thymidine (HAT). (JUNE 2013)
What is the role of aminopterin in this medium?
1. To be used as cell cycle inhibitor of myeloma cells.
2. To block the pathway for nucleotide synthesis.
3. To facilitate fusion of myeloid B cells and antibody producing B cells.
4. To facilitate production of antibody producing B cells.
6. A pathogen like Mycobacterium, which colonizes inside the cells of the host, is likely to be least affected by
which one of the following host immune defense mechanisms? (JUNE 2014)
1. Cell-mediated immune response
2. CD4 T lymphocytes
3. Cytokines
4. Humoral immune response
ANS - 2
ANS - 3

7. 7. In a confirmatory test for HIV, one or more viral antigens are detected in the blood of patients. Following are the
steps to be performed for the experiment: (JUNE 2015)
A. Transfer of viral antigens to nitrocellulose paper
B. Incubation with the buffer containing antibodies specific for viral antigens
C. Separation of viral antigens by SDS PAGE
D. Detection of bands by enzyme-linked secondary antibody
Identify the correct sequence steps to be performed for the experiment.
1. A-B-C-D
2. B-C-D-A
3. C-A-B-D
4. C-B-A-D ANS - 3

8. 8. If a disease caused by an intracellular pathogen is associated with host anti-inflammatory response, which one
of the following may lead to an effective therapeutic approach (JUNE 2018)
1. Treatment with TGE-β
2. Treatment with macrophage activating agent
3. Depiction of IFN- γ from the system
4. Treatment with IL-4 and IL- 10
9. Which one of the following is NOT related to immediate hypersensitivity reactions? (JUNE 2014)
1. Mast cell degranulation results in histamine- mediated allergic reactions
2. Reaginic antibodies trigger allergic reactions.
3. Granulomatous reaction is a key to contain infection.
4. Anaphylactic reaction is triggered primarily by IgE
ANS - 2
ANS - 1

9. 10. An antigen was injected into a mouse. Macrophages and antigen primed TH cells were isolated from this mouse to
perform the following in vitro experiments: (NOV 2020)
A. Macrophages were treated with the antigen for an hour and then incubated with TH cells.
B. Macrophages were treated with paraformaldehyde first and then treated with the antigen for an hour. These macrophages
were then incubated with TH cells.
C. Macrophages were treated with paraformaldehyde first then treated with the digested (proteolytically cleaved) antigen for an
hour. These macrophages were then incubated with TH cells.
D. Macrophages were treated with the antigen for an hour and then treated with paraformaldehyde. These macrophages were
then incubated with TH cells.
Which of the above experiments would lead to TH cells proliferation?
1. A and D only
2. B only
3. A, C and D only
4. C and D only ANS - 3

10. 11. In a type I hypersensitivity-mediated asthmatic response, which one of the is thought to contribute significantly to
the prolonged bronchospasm and build-up of mucous seen in asthmatics? (JUNE 2019)
1. Thromboxane
2. Leukotriene
3. TGFβ
4. Chondroitin
12. In order to check whether a protein has been phosphorylated during treatment with a drug, you would perform
(JUNE 2017)
1. Southern hybridization
2. Western blot analysis
3. ChIP assay
4. RFLP ANS - 2
ANS - 2

11. 13. Virus induced gene silencing (VIGS) is a process that takes advantage of the RNAi-mediated antiviral defence
mechanism. Which one of the following ultimately guides siRNA to degrade the target transcript (mRNA)? (JUNE
2014)
1. dsRNA
2. ssRNA
3. RNA Induced Silencing (RIS) Complex
4. dsRNA binding protein
14. Cervical cancer-causing papilloma virus produces two oncoproteins E6 and E7 which are responsible for
interfering with cell cycle regulation by (JUNE 2018)
1. Inactivating pRb and p53. respectively
2. Modulating p53 and pRb, respectively
3. Binding to cyclin D1 and CDK4
4. Activating expression of p21 ANS - 2
ANS - 2

12. 15. Following are few statements for regeneration of plants from explants/tissues. (JUNE 2013)
(A) Cytokinin is required for shoot development.
(B) Auxin is required for shoot development
(C) Auxin to cytokinin ratio is very important.
(D) Jasmonic acid is required for both root and shoot development.
Which of the following combinations of above statements is true?
1.(A) and (C)
2. (B) and (D)
3. (A) and (D)
4. (B) and (C) ANS - 1

13. 16. Protoplast fusion is used in plant tissue culture for various applications. In protoplast fusion: (JUNE 2013)
(A) naked plant cells are used.
(B) transfer of organelles is not possible.
(C) partial genome transfer is involved.
(D) cells from two different plants can be mixed together and forced to fuse.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?
1.(A), (B) and (C)
2. (A), (C) and (D)
3. (A), (B) and (D)
4. (B), (C) and (D)
17. During which one of the following stages of Arabidopsis embryogenesis, cell elongation throughout the embryonic axis
and further development of the cotyledons occur? (JUNE 2014)
1. Globular stage.
2. Torpedo stage.
3. Heart stage.
4. Mature stage.
ANS - 2
ANS - 3

14. 19. Arabidopsis thaliana seeds were planted on Murashige Skoog (MS) plates with or without a hormone added to the
medium Seeds were found to germinate late in the hormone containing MS plates as compared to MS plates without
hormone Identify the hormone. (JUNE 2014)
1. Jasmonic acid
2. Cytokinin
3. Auxin
4. Abscisic acid
18. Dark - grown seedlings display ‘triple response’ when exposed to ethylene. Which one of the following is NOT a
part of ‘triple response’? (JUNE 2015)
1. Decrease in epicotyl elongation.
2. Rapid unfolding and expansion of leaves.
3. Thickening of shoot.
4. Horizontal growth of epicotyl. ANS - 2
ANS - 4

15. 20. Dark grown Arabidopsis seedlings show triple response when exposed to ethylene hormone. Which one of the
following options is characteristic of “triple response"? (JUNE 2018)
1. Reduced shoot elongation, increased shoot thickness and tightening of apical hook.
2. Reduced shoot elongation, reduced shoot thickness and loosening of apical hook.
3. Increased shoot elongation, increased shoot thickness and loosening of apical hook.
4. Increased shoot elongation, reduced shoot thickness and tightening of apical hook
21. In which stage of Arabidopsis embryogenesis is hypophysis first observed? (DEC 2018)
1. Octant
2. Dermatogen
3. Globular
4. Transition
ANS - 1
ANS - 1

16. 22. For the generation of transgenic plants in crop improvement, one important regulatory gene X was
overexpressed in a crop plant. Out of 30 transgenic rice plants generated, 22 showed high levels of gene X
expression. However, rest 8 lines displayed low levels of expression. One explanation of such observation may be:
(JUNE 2012)
1. Suppression effect of the transgene
2. Knock-down effect of the gene X
3. Gene silencing effect
4. Co-suppression effect of the transgene ANS - 3

17. 23. Which of the following genes was engineered in the "Flavr Savr" transgenic tomato variety? (JUNE 2013)
1. 1-Amino cyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid Synthase
2. 1-Amino cyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid oxidase
3. Expansin
4. Polygalacturonase
24. A T0 transgenic plant containing a transgene for herbicide resistance shows two bands on Southern blot analysis
using a probe that is internal to the restriction sites used for genomic DNA digestion. However, it segregates in a 3:1
ratio for herbicide resistance: sensitivity in the T1 progeny obtained by self-pollination. Which one of the following
statements is correct? (JUNE 2017)
1. The T0 plant is a single-copy event
2. The T0 plant is a double-copy event and the two transgene copies are tightly linked
3. The T0 plant is a double-copy event and the two transgene copies are integrated in two different chromosomes
4. The T0 plant contains two unlinked copies of the transgene, both of which are truncated versions of the herbicide resistance
gene.
ANS - 2
ANS - 4

18. 25. Transgenic tobacco plants over-expressing isopentenyl transferase (IPT) under the control of promoter region of
Senescence Associated Receptor kinase (PSARK) were exposed to drought for 15 days followed by re-watering for 7 days.
The following hypotheses were proposed regarding changes in the transgenic plants at the end of 7 days of re-watering
(DEC 2017)
A. The plants would be wilted and fail to survive.
B. The plants would be healthy and survive.
C. The plants would show higher production of cytokinin compared to wild type plants
D. The plants would show higher production of abscisic acid compared to wild type plants.
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct?
1. A and C
2. A and D
3. B and C
4. B and D ANS - 3

19. 26. Some of the following transgenic approaches could be used for functional characterization of endogenous genes
in plants: (DEC 2017)
A. Transformation using a binary vector containing a strong enhancer element and lacking the right border of T-DNA
B. Transformation using a binary vector containing a promoter-less reporter gene sequence and a selection maker gene
cassette within the T-DNA
C. Transformation using a binary vector containing only a strong enhancer element and a selection marker gene cassette within
the T-DNA
D. Transformation using a binary vector lacking a reporter gene as well as both the left and right borders of T-DNA.
Which one of the following combinations can be used?
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only
ANS - 2

20. 27. A T0 transgenic plant contains two unlinked copies of the T-DNA of which one is functional and the other is
silenced. Segregation of the transgenic to non-transgenic phenotype would occur in a ____(i)_____ratio in
progeny obtained by backcrossing and in a ____(ii)_____ ratio in F1 progeny obtained by self-pollination. (JUNE
2019)
Fill in the blanks with the correct combination of(i) and (ii) from the options given below:
1. (i) - 3:1 and (ii) - 15:1
2. (i) - 1:1 and (ii) - 3:1
3. (i) - 3:1 and (ii) - 3:1
4. (i) -1:1 and (ii) -15:1
28. Most of the plant disease resistance (R) gene products contain: (JUNE 2019)
1. G-Box domains
2. Transcription repression domains
3. Leucine-rich repeats
4. Enzymatic activities ANS - 3
ANS - 2

21. 29. Following statements were given regarding factors influencing variation in expression levels of transgene in transgenic
plants: (JUNE 2019)
A. Difference in restriction enzyme sites within the T-DNA.
B. Difference in copy number of the transgene.
C. Variations in site of integration of the T- DNA within the plant genome.
D. Presence of multiple promoters within the T-DNA region.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of statements that would NOT lead to variations in transgene
expression levels in transgenic plants generated using the same T-DNA binary vector?
1. A and C only
2. B only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only
ANS - 4

22. 30. Agrobacterium mediated transformation was used to generate transgenic plants using a construct with a
selection marker gene “X” and a passenger gene “Y”. Expression levels of “Y” protein in eight independent
transgenic plants are given below:
(JUNE 2017)
The following could represent probable reasons for the observed variability in
transgene expression levels.
A. Position effects on passenger gene
B. Transgene silencing of the marker gene
C. Variation in copy number of passenger gene
D. mRNA instability of marker gene
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
1. A and C
2. C and D
3. B and D
4. A and B
ANS - 1

23. 31. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is frequently used as a vector to create transgenic plants. Under laboratory conditions
Agrobacterium - mediated plant transformation does not require (DEC 2019)
1. host plant genes
2. bacterial type IV secretion system
3. vir genes
4. opine catabolism genes
32. Oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes are termed as cancer-critical genes. Increasingly powerful tools are now
available for systematically searching the DNA or mRNAs of cancer cells for either significant mutations or altered
expression. To identify independently an oncogene or a tumour suppressor gene, which of the following would be the most
convincing tests to use? (JUNE 2012)
1.Transgenic mice that overexpress the candidate oncogene and knockout mice that lack candidate tumour suppressor gene.
2. Transgenic mice that overexpress the candidate tumour suppressor gene and knockout mice that lack candidate oncogene.
3. Transgenic mice that overexpress the candidate oncogene and tumour suppressor gene.
4. Knockout mice that lack the candidate oncogene and tumour suppressor gene.
ANS - 4
ANS - 1

24. 33. One aims to find out the role of a gene product in macrophages by using a transgenic mouse expressing the genes
under a promoter. Which of the following is the most appropriate promoter? (JUNE 2013)
1. Actin promoter
2. MHC Class II promoter
3. Mac-1/CD 11b promoter
4. IL-2 promoter
34. For developing transgenic mice, embryonic stem cells are engineered to express the transgene. These cells are
selected by (JUNE 2013)
1. novobiocin.
2. neomycin.
3. tetracycline
4. Penicillin
ANS - 3
ANS - 2

25. 35. Inbreeding for 5 generations led to production of homozygous transgenic mice. However, these homozygous males
or females were infertile. Which of the following approach is most preferable and economical to obtain heterozygous
transgenic animals continuously? (JUNE 2013)
1. More transgenic founder (1st animal) should be generated.
2. Crossing (breeding) of transgenic mice with wild type mice in earlier generations should be done for continued production of
transgenic heterozygous offspring
3. Inbreeding should be avoided after 5th generation.
4. Homozygous transgenic mice should be mated with wild type mice for continued production of transgenic heterozygous
offspring
36. Which one of the following techniques is generally used to produce transgenic animals? (JUNE 2014)
1. Processed mRNA containing only exons are introduced into blastocyst stage embryo.
2. Entire foreign nucleus is introduced in enucleated unfertilized egg
3. Desired DNA is microinjected into fertilized eggs followed by implantation of embryo in a foster mother.
4. cDNA of desired gene is introduced into animal embryos and implanted in a foster mother ANS - 1
ANS - 2

26. 37. The following statements are made regarding developing a transgenic mouse. (DEC 2019)
A The transgenic mouse thus born will be a homozygous transgenic animal and can be maintained by crossing with another transgenic
animal.
B. The fertilized transgenic eggs are allowed to develop in vitro.
C. The desired gene is preferably microinjected in male pronucleus after sperm entry in oocyte
D. For best efficiency, the desired gene is always microinjected in the male games and then they are allowed to fertilize the female
gametes
E. Blastocyst stage embryos are transferred to the uterus of hormonally prepared mother
F. The fertilized eggs are collected from specific strain of mouse
G. The female mouse of specific strain is super-ovulated, oocytes are collected and allowed to fertilize in vitro.
Choose the combination of statements arranged in the correct sequence for developing transgenic mouse
(1) G → C → E
(2) F → C → B → A
(3) G → D → A
(4) D → F → B → A ANS - 1

27. 38. Cre/loxP system is used by phage PI to remove terminally redundant sequences that arise during packaging
of the phage DNA. Cre-lox system can be used to create targeted deletions, insertions and inversion in
genomes of transgenic animals and plants. Consider a series of genetic markers A to K. How should the Lox P
sites be positioned in order that Cre recombinase can create an inversion in the EFG segment relative to ABCD
and HIJK ? (DEC 2011)
ANS - 3

28. 39. A student, while constructing knock-out mice, isolated mouse embryonic stem cells and introduced an
engineered DNA into the cells. However, none of the mice were transgenic. On checking the cells containing DNA
construct, he found that he had made a mistake in constructing the DNA since the cells were resistant to
gancyclovir but sensitive to G418. Which one of the following constructs had he designed? (JUNE 2015)
ANS - 3

29. 40. Genomic DNA of transgenic plants (P1, P2 and P3) obtained by transforming with binary vector A whose map
is depicted below, was digested with BamH I and Sal I and hybridized with a labelled fragment X. (DEC 2011)
The pattern obtained in Southern hybridization is shown below:
Based on the above, which of the following interpretations is correct:
1. All the plants (P1, P2 and P3) contain two copies of the transgene
2. P1, P3 contain one and P2 contains two copies of the transgene
3. P1 contains two, whereas P2 and P3 contain one copy of transgene
each
4. P1 and P2 contains two and P3 contains one copy of the transgene
ANS - 3

30. 41. A transgenic plant is developed with the following T-DNA construct (DEC
2013)
In order to analyse the nature of integration genomic DNA digested with
EcoRI was used for Southern hybridization using either probe A or B. The
result obtained is as
The following conclusions were made:
A There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated at one loci and a third
copy at another loci.
B. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated at one loci.
C. Complete T-DNA cassette has been integrated in all cases.
D. In one T-DNA cassette there is a truncation towards the RB
E. In one T-DNA cassette there is a truncation towards the LB

31. F. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassettes integrated at the same loci
is
G. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassette integrated at the same loci
is
1. B, E and G
2. B, D and F
3. A, D and F
4. B, C and F
ANS - 2

32. 42. Which of the following methods of plant transformation can be used to induce a gene into chloroplast genome? (JUNE
2011)
a. Agrobacterium mediated transformation
b. Particle delivery system
c. Permeabilization
d. Electroporation
43. Eukaryotic genomes are organized into chromosomes and can be visualized at mitosis by staining with specific
dyes. Heat denaturation followed by staining with Giemsa produced alternate dark and light bands. The dark bands
obtained by this process are mainly (JUNE 2011)
a. AT rich and gene rich regions
b. AT rich and gene desert regions
C. GC rich and gene rich regions
d. GC rich and gene desert regions
ANS - B
ANS - B

33. 44. Cancer causing genes can be functionally classified into mainly three types (a) genes that induce cellular proliferation,
(b). tumour suppressor genes, (c) genes that regulate apoptotic pathway. Epstein-Barr virus that cause cancer by
modulating apoptotic pathway, contain a gene having sequence homology with which of the following genes? (JUNE 2011)
a. bax
b. bcl-2
C. p53
d. caspase-3
45. Gene therapy is a promising tool for addressing several diseases in humans. With respect to the above, which one of
the following statements is FALSE? (NOV 2020)
1. Gene therapy involves the direct genetic modification of the cells/model to achieve a therapeutic goal.
2. Current gene therapy is directed at modifying somatic cells.
3. The only successful gene therapies are those in which cells are removed from a patient, genetically modified, and then
reintroduced into patients.
4. Recessively inherited disorders are good targets for gene therapy.
ANS - B
ANS - 3

34. 46. Genetic studies demonstrated that TBP mutant cell extracts are deficient in transcription of genes from all three
promoters viz. class I, II, and III. Following statements describe characteristic features of TBP. A. TBP is considered as a
universal basal transcription factor B. TBP is not required for transcription of archaeal genes C. TBP is involved in
recognizing TATA box D. TBP operates at all promoters regardless of their TATA content. (JUNE 2011)
Which of the following combinations is NOT correct?
a. A and D
b. Cand D
C. B and D
d. A and C
47. If one wishes to design a microarray chip for whole genome expression analysis of an eukaryotic system, which region
of the gene should be preferred for selection of unique target sequences? (JUNE 2012)
1. Any region of the coding DNA sequence (CDS).
2. 3' region of the CDS and 3’ untranslated region (UTR).
3. 5'region of the CDS and 5'UTR.
4. 1st intron only
ANS - C
ANS - 2

35. 48. A gene from genomic library is screened by using hybridization technique. After hybridizing the probe, usually a
stringent washing step is given. The following statements are given to explain the stringent washing step: (JUNE 2015)
A. Stringent washing takes care of removing unincorporated and non-specifically hybridized probe molecules
B. Stringent washing is done in solution having high salt concentration and lower temperature
C. Stringent washing is done in solution having low salt concentration keeping higher temperature
D. Salt present in washing solution supports hybrids to stay intact by shielding the interference of water molecules
E. Salt reacts with DNA molecules and allows easy dissociation of hybrids
F. Stability of hybrid is directly proportional to the temperature
Which combination of the above statements is most appropriate for stringent washing step?
1. A, B and D
2. A, C and D
3. A, B and F
4. C, E and F
ANS - 2

36. 49. Bacteria often acquire genes by the process of lateral or horizontal transfer. Such foreign gens, if acquired in
recent past, may be identified by their typical GC content, as compared to native genes. Suppose the genomic GC
content of a bacterium is 40%. Gene A of this organism contains 1000 bases with 225 G and 215 C. Another gene B
of length 800 bases contain 160 G and 140 C. Which one of the following would be the most acceptable hypothesis
(giving that X2 = 3.841 at 0.05 significance level)? (JUNE 2011)
a. A native, B foreign
b. A foreign, B native
C. A foreign, B foreign
d. A native, B native
ANS - B

37. 50. siRNA and miRNA are used for achieving gene silencing. Although, major steps are similar there are distinct
differences in the key players of the two processing pathways. Following statements related to some characteristic
features of gene silencing. (JUNE 2011)
A. Both siRNAs and miRNAs are processed by cytoplasmic endonuclease dicer
B. Drosha is needed for processing miRNA and precursor siRNA
C. Both siRNA and miRNA show association with Argonaute protein
D. Both the processing pathways involve RISe complex
Which of the following combinations is NOT correct?
a. A and C
b. C and D
c. A and B
d. D and A ANS - C