Test Bank For Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology 7th Edition By Eisenberg.pdf

Test Bank for Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology
7th Edition by Eisenberg
Chapters 1 - 12, Complete

Table Of Contents
1. Introduction to Pathology
2. Specialized Imaging Techniques
3. Respiratory System
4. Skeletal System
5. Gastrointestinal System
6. Urinary System
7. CardiovascularSystem
8. Nervous System Disease
9. HematopoieticSystem
10. Endocrine System
11. ReproductiveSystem
12. MiscellaneousDiseases

Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A disease process caused by physicians or their treatment is this type of process.
a. Idiopathic
b. Iatrogenic
c. Neoplasia
d. Community acquired
ANSWER: B
The disease process caused by physicians and their treatment is iatrogenic.
REF: p. 3
2. Basic reactions of the body to some form of injury is a:
a. Disease process
b. Pathology
c. Study of diseases
d. Idiopathic process
ANSWER: A
A disease is the pattern of the body’s response to some form of injury.
REF: p. 1

3. What term is used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown?
a. Idiopathic
b. Antietiologic
c. Iatrogenic
d. Nosocomial
ANSWER: A
Idiopathic diseases are those with an unknown, or as of yet unidentified, cause.
REF: p. 3
4. Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells is called:
a. Hyperplasia
b. Dysplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Aplasia
ANSWER: C
Alterations in cell growth lead to the development of neoplasms (tumors).
REF: p. 7
5. The initial response of body tissues to local injury is:
a. Infection
b. Ischemia
c. Edema
d. Inflammation
ANSWER: D
Inflammation is the initial response of body tissues to local injury.

REF: p. 3
6. Heat and redness associated with inflammation is produced by:
a. Hyperemia
b. Scar tissue
c. Hyperplasia
d. Infarction
ANSWER: A
This hyperemia produces the heat and redness associated with inflammation.
REF: p. 3
7. In an injury, the destroyed tissue is replaced with:
a. Granulomatous inflammation
b. Granulation tissue
c. Phagocytes
d. Pyogens
ANSWER: B
A fibrous scar replaces the area of destroyed tissue with granulation tissue. Granulation tissue refers to a
combination of young, developing capillaries and actively proliferating fibroblasts, which produce
connective tissue fibers (collagen) that replace the dead tissue.
REF: p. 4
8. Of the five clinical signs of acute inflammation, the medical term for swelling is:
a. Edema
b. Tumor
c. Calor

d. Dolor
ANSWER: B
The five clinical signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor
(pain), and loss of function.
REF: p. 4
9. Some bacterial organisms that produce these substances that cause damage to the tissue and incite the
inflammatory process are known as:
a. Toxoids
b. Pyogens
c. Toxins
d. Abscesses
ANSWER: C
Some bacterial organisms (such as staphylococci and streptococci) produce toxins that damage the
tissues and incite an inflammatory response.
REF: p. 4
10. Chronic inflammation in a localized area, which often has a centralized necrosis is called:
a. An exudates
b. A granuloma
c. An abscess
d. Hyperplasia
ANSWER: B
A granuloma is a localized area of chronic inflammation, often with central necrosis.
REF: p. 4

11. In acute inflammation, the localized heat and redness are a result of the:
a. Migration of circulating white blood cells
b. Increased blood flow and vascular permeability
c. Regeneration of normal parenchymal cells
d. Enzymatic digestion of dead cells
ANSWER: B
The localized heat and redness result from increased blood flow in the microcirculation at the site of
injury.
REF: p. 4
12. In pyogenic infections, the body responds by producing a thick, yellow fluid called:
a. Bacteria
b. Pus
c. Edema
d. A scar
ANSWER: B
The presence of pyogenic bacteria leads to the production of a thick, yellow fluid called pus, which
contains dead white blood cells, inflammatory exudates, and bacteria.
REF: p. 4
13. All pyogens have the ability to enter the blood circulation causing:
a. Bacteremia
b. Phagocytosis
c. Septicemia
d. Keloid tissue

ANSWER: A
All pyogens, wherever they become implanted, have the ability to invade blood vessels to produce
bacteremia, with the potential involvement of other organs and tissues in the body.
REF: p. 4
14. Connective tissue fibers replacing dead tissue, then contracting in the abdomen are known as:
a. Keloids
b. Suppurative inflammation
c. Fibrous adhesions
d. Hyperemia
ANSWER: C
Eventually the strong connective tissue contracts to produce a fibrous scar. In the abdomen, such
fibrous adhesions can narrow loops of intestine and result in an obstruction.
REF: p. 4
15. An accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue throughout the body is
called:
a. Bacteremia
b. Elephantiasis
c. Filariasis
d. Anasarca
ANSWER: D
Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues throughout the body
(anasarca).
REF: p. 4
16. Localized is produced in an inflammatory reaction as a result of a fluid accumulation.

a. Filariasis
b. Edema
c. Elephantiasis
d. Fibrous adhesions
ANSWER: B
Edema is the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces or body
cavities. Localized edema results from an inflammatory reaction.
REF: p. 4
17. An inflammation associated with pus formation is:
a. Bacteremia
b. Phagocytosis
c. Suppurative
d. Hyperemia
ANSWER: C
Suppurative inflammation is associated with pus formation.
REF: p. 4
18. The protein-rich fluid associated with swelling in an inflammatory process is:
a. Exudate
b. Transudate
c. Pus
d. Permeable
ANSWER: A

This inflammatory exudate in the tissues results in the swelling associated with inflammation. The
protein-rich exudate of inflammation must be differentiated from a transudate, a low-protein fluid, such
as that seen in the pulmonary edema that develops in congestive heart failure.
REF: p. 3
19. The low-protein fluid associated with the inflammatory process as seen in pulmonary edema is
called:
a. An abscess
b. Exudate
c. Transudate
d. Filariasis
ANSWER: C
The protein-rich exudate of inflammation must be differentiated from a transudate, a low-protein fluid,
such as that seen in the pulmonary edema that develops in congestive heart failure.
REF: p. 3
20. A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by vascular occlusion is a(n):
a. Gangrene
b. Infarct
c. Purpura
d. Ecchymosis
ANSWER: B
An infarct is a localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by occlusion of either
its arterial supply or its venous drainage.
REF: p. 5
21. Depriving tissues of oxygen and nutrients caused by an arterial vessel narrowing is referred to as:

a. Ischemia
b. Petechiae
c. Filariasis
d. Gangrene
ANSWER: A
Ischemia refers to an interference with the blood supply to an organ or part of an organ, depriving the
organ’s cells and tissues of oxygen and nutrients.
REF: p. 5
22. The progression of a loss of oxygen and nutrients resulting in tissue necrosis especially in the
diabetic’s foot is called:
a. Infarction
b. Gangrene
c. Ischemia
d. Hemorrhage
ANSWER: B
Severe arterial disease of the lower extremities may result in necrosis of several toes or a large segment
of the foot, a condition called gangrene. A frequent symptom in diabetic patients is ischemia of the
foot, which may progress to infarction and result in gangrene.
REF: p. 5
23. A subcutaneous hematoma greater than 1 to 2 cm is called a(n):
a. Purpura
b. Ecchymosis
c. Petechia
d. Infarct
ANSWER: B

A large (greater than 1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous hematoma, or bruise, is called an ecchymosis.
REF: p. 6
24. An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as a(an):
a. Hematoma
b. Ecchymosis
c. Petechiae
d. Pleural effusion
ANSWER: A
Blood may be trapped within body tissues resulting in an accumulation called a hematoma.
REF: p. 5
25. Bleeding into mucous membranes or serosal surfaces is referred to as:
a. Petechiae
b. Hemorrhage
c. Purpura
d. Ecchymosis
ANSWER: A
Minimal hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae.
REF: p. 5
26. Volume of blood loss, the rate of blood loss, and the site of the blood loss will determine the:
a. Patient status
b. Clinical significance
c. Treatment required

d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
The significance of hemorrhage depends on the volume of blood loss, the rate of loss, and the site of the
hemorrhage. Sudden losses of up to 20% of the blood volume or slow losses of even larger amounts may
have little clinical significance.
REF: p. 6
27. When a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ occurs, this results in:
a. Aplasia
b. Atrophy
c. Hypoplasia
d. Dysplasia
ANSWER: B
Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue.
REF: p. 6
28. When cells fail to develop and as a result the organ is small, the organ is considered:
a. Hypoplastic
b. Dysplastic
c. Hyperplastic
d. Anaplastic
ANSWER: A
Failure of normal development accounts for small size in hypoplasia and aplasia.
REF: p. 6

29. When increased function of an organ is required, the term is used.
a. Neoplastic
b. Hypotrophy
c. Hyperplasia
d. Hypertrophy
ANSWER: D
Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for
increased function.
REF: p. 6
30. The proliferation of granulation tissue to repair an injury is an example of:
a. Hypertrophy
b. Anaplasia
c. Hyperplasia
d. Dysplasia
ANSWER: C
Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ. Proliferation of granulation tissue in
the repair of injury is an example.
REF: pp. 6-7
31. The Latin word for “new growth” is:
a. Tumor
b. Seeding
c. Neoplasia
d. Ecchymosis
ANSWER: C

Neoplasia, from the Latin word for new growth, refers to an abnormal proliferation of cells that are no
longer controlled by the factors that govern the growth of normal cells.
REF: p. 7
32. New growths that invade and destroy adjacent structures and have the ability to spread are
considered:
a. Neoplastic
b. Benign
c. Cachexia
d. Malignant
ANSWER: D
Malignant neoplasms invade and destroy adjacent structures and spread to distant sites (metastasize).
REF: p. 7
33. A polyp is a:
a. Projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane
b. Malignant epithelial neoplasm
c. Benign cartilaginous tumor
d. Cancer
ANSWER: A
An epithelial tumor that grows as a projecting mass on the skin or from an inner mucous membrane
(such as the gastrointestinal tract) is termed a papilloma or a polyp.
REF: p. 7
34. A malignancy of glandular tissue, such as breast or liver, is referred to as a(n):

a. Adenoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Cystadenoma
d. Dysplasia
ANSWER: B
Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and
of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract.
REF: p. 7
35. The term derived from the Latin term for “crab” is:
a. Benign
b. Oncology
c. Neoplasia
d. Cancer
ANSWER: D
Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos,
meaning “crab.”
REF: p. 7
36. The study of neoplasms or tumors is called:
a. Pathology
b. Radiology
c. Oncology
d. Etiology
ANSWER: C

Neoplasms are commonly referred to as tumors; indeed, the study of neoplasms is called oncology,
derived from the Greek word oncos, meaning “tumor.”
REF: p. 7
37. Tumors closely resembling their cells of origin in structure and function are called::
a. Malignant
b. Benign
c. Cancerous
d. Dysplastic
ANSWER: B
Benign tumors closely resemble their cells of origin in structure and function.
REF: p. 7
38. When tumor cells flourish, causing the patient to become weak and emaciated, this condition is
referred to as:
a. Cachexia
b. Petechiae
c. Anorexia
d. Anaplastic
ANSWER: A
Neoplastic cells act as parasites, competing with normal cells and tissues for their metabolic needs. Thus
tumor cells may flourish, and the patient becomes weak and emaciated, a condition termed cachexia.
REF: p. 7
39. Benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in a glandlike pattern are:

a. Cystadenomas
b. Adenocarcinomas
c. Adenomas
d. Fibromas
ANSWER: C
The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns.
REF: p. 7
40. Tumors that contain muscle cells are called:
a. Myelomas
b. Myomas
c. Papilloma
d. Hypertrophic
ANSWER: B
Myomas are tumors consisting of muscle cells.
REF: p. 7
41. Tumor cells of stratified squamous epithelium, which invade and destroy adjacent structures, make up:
a. Adenomas
b. Sarcomas
c. Cystadenomas
d. Squamous cell carcinomas
ANSWER: D
Squamous cell carcinoma denotes a cancer in which the tumor cells resemble stratified squamous
epithelium.

REF: p. 7
42. If a neoplastic growth proliferates without form, it is considered:
a. Anaplastic
b. Dysplastic
c. Aplastic
d. Hyperplastic
ANSWER: A
A tumor growing in a bizarre pattern is termed undifferentiated or anaplastic (without form).
REF: p. 7
43. Symptoms suggestive of esophageal or stomach cancer are:
a. Anasarca and dysphagia
b. Anaplasia and anorexia
c. Aplasia and gangrene
d. Anorexia and dysphagia
ANSWER: D
Difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia) or loss of appetite (anorexia), especially if accompanied by rapid
weight loss, suggests a neoplasm in the esophagus or stomach.
REF: p. 8
44. Diffuse spread of malignant neoplasms by invasion into a natural body cavity is called:
a. Tumor grading
b. Staging
c. Seeding

d. Lymphatic spread
ANSWER: C
Seeding (diffuse spread) of cancers occurs when neoplasms invade a natural body cavity.
REF: p. 8
45. The major metastatic route of carcinomas is:
a. Lymphatic spread
b. Undifferentiated spread
c. Hematopoietic spread
d. Hematogenous spread
ANSWER: A
Lymphatic spread is the major metastatic route of carcinomas, especially those of the lung and breast.
REF: p. 8
46. Assessing the aggressiveness or degree of malignancy is referred to as:
a. Staging
b. Grading
c. Seeding
d. Metastatic
ANSWER: B
The grading of a malignant tumor assesses aggressiveness, or degree of malignancy.
REF: p. 9
47. To determine the most appropriate therapy, the disease process must be:

a. Seeded
b. Staged
c. Graded
d. Phased
ANSWER: B
Staging refers to the extensiveness of a tumor at its primary site and the presence or absence of
metastases to lymph nodes and distant organs, such as the liver, lungs, and skeleton. The staging of a
tumor aids in determining the most appropriate therapy.
REF: p. 9
48. Using a combination of cytotoxic substances to kill neoplastic cells is called:
a. Radiation therapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. Hormonal therapy
d. Seeding
ANSWER: B
Chemotherapy uses one or a combination of cytotoxic substances that kill neoplastic cells, but these
drugs may injure many normal cells and result in significant complications.
REF: p. 9
49. The most common hereditary abnormality is:
a. Chromosomal aberration
b. Enzyme deficiency
c. Glycogen and lipid storage disease
d. Sex-linked disorders
ANSWER: B

The most common hereditary abnormality is an enzyme deficiency.
REF: p. 9
50. Exposure to radiation, chemicals, or viruses may result in alterations in the DNA called:
a. Mutations
b. Reduced penetrance
c. Variable expressivity
d. Aberrations
ANSWER: A
Mutations are alterations in the DNA structure that may become permanent hereditary changes if they
affect the gonadal cells. Mutations may result from radiation, chemicals, or viruses.
REF: p. 10
51. A gene always producing an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or heterozygous is
named a(an) gene.
a. Recessive
b. Dominant
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Autosomal dominant
ANSWER: B
Dominant genes always produce an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or
heterozygous.
REF: p. 10
52. When a vaccine or toxoid is used to counteract an antigen, it is considered:
a. Passive immunity

b. Active immunity
c. Community-acquired immunity
d. Iatrogenic
ANSWER: B
In active immunity, a person forms antibodies to counteract an antigen in the form of a vaccine or a
toxoid.
REF: p. 11
53. The body has the ability to combat antigens by forming in the lymphoid tissue.
a. Antibodies
b. Toxins
c. Immunoglobulins
d. A and C
ANSWER: D
The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it
to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce
antibodies or immunoglobulins to counteract them.
REF: p. 11
54. Hypotension and vascular collapse with urticaria, bronchiolar spasm, and laryngeal edema are
characteristics of:
a. Anaphylactic reactions
b. Cytotoxic reactions
c. Histamine release
d. Delayed reactions
ANSWER: A

Generalized, or systemic, anaphylactic reactions are characterized by hypotension and vascular collapse
(shock) with urticaria (hives), bronchiolar spasm, and laryngeal edema.
REF: p. 11
55. Profound and sustained impairment of cellular immunity resulting in recurrent or sequential
opportunistic infections is characteristic of:
a. Anaphylactic reactions
b. Histamine release
c. AIDS
d. Cytotoxic reactions
ANSWER: C
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), which most commonly affects young homosexual men
and intravenous drug abusers, is characterized by a profound and sustained impairment of cellular
immunity that results in recurrent or sequential opportunistic infections.
REF: p. 12
56. The retrovirus known to contribute to AIDS is:
a. Hepatitis
b. Human immunodeficiency virus
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Kaposi sarcoma
ANSWER: B
AIDS is attributable to infection with retroviruses known as human immunodeficiency viruses (HIV).
REF: p. 12
57. A hazy, perihilar, granular infiltrate spreading to the lung periphery is the early radiographic finding of:

a. AIDS
b. Kaposi syndrome
c. Hepatitis
d. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
ANSWER: D
The typical early radiographic finding of P. carinii pneumonia is a hazy, perihilar, granular infiltrate that
spreads to the periphery and appears preponderantly interstitial.
REF: p. 12
58. The modality of choice to demonstrate the multiple manifestations of AIDS in the central nervous
system is:
a. CT
b. Nuclear medicine
c. Ultrasound
d. MRI
ANSWER: D
MRI best demonstrates the multiple manifestations of AIDS in the central nervous system.
REF: p. 12
59. All of the following are protective personnel equipment (PPE), except:
a. Gown
b. Gloves
c. Mask
d. Sharps container
ANSWER: D
A sharps container is not used for personnel protection against the transmission of diseases.

REF: p. 13
60. All of the following are additive diseases in terms of x-ray attenuation, except:
a. Pneumonia
b. Osteolytic metastasis
c. Callus
d. Ascites
ANSWER: B
Osteolytic metastasis is a destructive disease.
REF: p. 2
MATCHING
Match each of the following terms with the correct answer. Each question has only one correct answer.
a. Rubor
b. Calor
c. Dolor
d. Tumor
1. Heat
2. Pain
3. Redness
4. Swelling
1. ANSWER: B REF: p.
4

NOT: Rationale: The five clinical signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor (heat),
tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and loss of function.
2. ANSWER: C REF: p. 4
3. ANSWER: A REF: p. 4
4. ANSWER: D REF: p. 4
Match the following terms related to edema.
a. A parasitic worm causing a lymphatic obstruction
b. Accumulation of fluid in a serous cavity
c. Extravascular fluid collection surrounding the heart
d. Localized edema resulting from a lymphatic obstruction
e. Pronounced swelling in subcutaneous tissue throughout the body
5. Anasarca
6. Elephantiasis
7. Filariasis
8. Pericardial effusion
9. Peritoneal ascites
5. ANSWER: E REF: p.
4
NOT: Rationale: Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues
throughout the body (anasarca).In filariasis, a parasitic worm causes lymphatic obstruction, and the
resulting localized edema is termed elephantiasis. Extravascular fluid can also accumulate in serous
cavities to produce pleural and pericardial effusions and peritoneal ascites.

9. ANSWER: B REF: p. 4
Match the following terms related to hemorrhage.
a. An accumulation of blood in the tissue
b. Large (greater than 1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise
c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin
d. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane
e. Rupture of a blood vessel
10. Ecchymosis
11. Hematoma
12. Hemorrhage
13. Petechiae

14. Purpura
NOT: Rationale: The term hemorrhage implies rupture of a blood vessel. Blood may be trapped
within body tissues, resulting in an accumulation termed a hematoma. Minimal hemorrhages into the
skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae; slightly larger hemorrhages are
termed purpura.
termed purpura.
12. ANSWER: E REF: p. 5
termed purpura.
termed purpura.
termed purpura.
Match the following terms related to alterations in cell growth.
a. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells
b. Increased size of the cells
c. Loss of uniformity of individual cells
d. Number of cells in the tissue increases
e. Reduction in number or size of cells

15. Atrophy
16. Dysplasia
17. Hyperplasia
18. Hypertrophy
19. Hypoplasia
15. ANSWER: E REF: p.
6
NOT: Rationale: Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue,
hypoplasia and aplasia, in which failure of normal development accounts for small size. Hypertrophy
refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased
function. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, whereas dysplasia is a loss
in the uniformity of individual cells.

Match the following terms related to the neoplastic process.
a. A malignant tumor arising from connective tissue
b. Benign tumor consisting of fibrous tissue
c. Cartilaginous tumor that is benign
d. Composed of blood vessels
e. Forming benign large cystic masses
f. Glandular cell malignancy
g. Malignancy of epithelial cell origin
h. Soft, fatty tissue tumor
i. Tumor that grows in a glandlike pattern
20. Adenocarcinoma
21. Adenoma
22. Angioma
23. Carcinoma
24. Chondroma
25. Cystadenoma
26. Fibroma
27. Lipoma
28. Sarcoma
20. ANSWER: F REF: p.
7
NOT: Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are
chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns.
Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of

soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial
cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab.
Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of
the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective
tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.
21. ANSWER: I REF: p. 7
Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty
tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin
are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab.
23. ANSWER: G REF: p. 7
the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from

connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.
27. ANSWER: H REF: p. 7
Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue,
and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are
called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab.
Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue,
and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are
called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab.
Match the following terms related to immunity.

a. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless
b. Body makes harmless
c. Chemically altered poisonous material
d. Form in lymphoid tissue
e. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus
f. Recognition of foreign substance
29. Antibody
30. Antigen
31. Immune
32. Immunoglobulin
33. Toxoid
34. Vaccine
NOT: Rationale: The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading
organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and
toxins, and to produce antibodies to counteract them. The antibody binds together with the antigen to
make the antigen harmless. Once antibodies have been produced, a person becomes immune to the
antigen. Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, form in lymphoid tissue. A vaccine consists of a low dose of
dead or deactivated bacteria or viruses. A toxoid is a chemically altered toxin, the poisonous material
produced by a pathogenic organism.
30. ANSWER: F REF: p. 11

Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 5th Edition
Chapter 2: Specialized Imaging Techniques
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The first modality capable of producing images without the use of ionizing radiation was:
a. Ultrasound
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Nuclear medicine
d. Computerized tomography
ANSWER: A
The first of these new modalities was ultrasound, which was capable of producing images without the
use of ionizing radiation.
REF: p. 15
2. Which of the following was the first modality to provide sectional anatomy images with increased
visibility of soft-tissue structures?
a. Conventional tomography
b. Computed tomography
c. Positron emission tomography
d. Magnetic resonance imaging
ANSWER: B
In the early to mid-1970s, computed axial tomography (now known as CT) provided revolutionary new
images as a slice of anatomy.
REF: p. 19
3. With the integration of strong magnets and radio frequencies, high resolution soft-tissue imaging in
multiple planes became available with:
a. Nuclear medicine
b. Single-photon emission computed tomography
c. Computed tomography

ANSWER: D
Scientists integrated the use of strong magnets and radio frequencies to provide another mode of
producing images without the use of ionizing radiation—nuclear magnetic resonance (now known as
MRI). Magnetic resonance imaging offers clinicians images with high soft-tissue resolution and the ability
to visualize structural and functional tissue.
REF: p. 15
4. Single-photon emission computed tomography took nuclear medicine imaging concepts and added the
use of:
a. New pharmaceuticals
b. New pulsing sequences
c. Gamma camera movement
d. Stronger frequency transducers
ANSWER: C
Nuclear medicine expanded its role by adding movement and a computer that allowed more than
anterior and posterior projections, resulting in the development of single-photon emission computed
tomography (SPECT).
REF: p. 16
5. Which of the following uses gamma-emitting radionuclides to produce images?
a. X-ray images
b. Nuclear medicine images
c. PET images
d. Sonography images
ANSWER: B
Gamma-emitting radionuclides are detected by the gamma camera to produce an image.

REF: p. 27
6. Molecular imaging advancements using a positron-emitting radiopharmaceutical is:
a. SPECT
b. CAT
c. MRI
d. PET
ANSWER: D
The creation of a positron-emitting radionuclide resulted in the newest modality—positron emission
tomography (PET).
REF: p. 16
7. The superimposition of images from two different digital modalities produces images:
a. Of anatomic and physiologic perspectives
b. Using software for image integration
c. From hybrid equipment, such as PET-CT
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Imaging modalities with special software can now be integrated to create a fused image (superimposition of
two different modalities). PET-CT is the most prominent hybrid equipment available today.
REF: p. 16
8. The complexity of technology requires the radiographer to:
a. Have a more specific skill set
b. Have an extensive knowledge of anatomy

c. Have computer networking classes
d. A and B
ANSWER: D
Complex technology requires the radiographer to have a broader and more specific skill set to produce
quality images.
REF: p. 15
9. Which of the following specialized imaging techniques provides cross-sectional images at a low cost, is
readily available, and has the ability to differentiate cystic, solid, and complex tissue?
a. Sonography
b. CT
c. MRI
d. PET
ANSWER: A
Ultrasound (sonography) is a widely accepted cross-sectional imaging technique because of its low cost,
availability, and ability to differentiate cystic (gallbladder), solid (liver), and complex (liver tumor) tissue.
REF: p. 16
10. In ultrasound the high frequency sound waves are produced by:
a. Sound waves emanating from the body
b. Electrical stimulation of a specialized crystal
c. Magnets and pulse radiofrequencies
d. Radiopharmaceuticals
ANSWER: B
Ultrasound relies on high-frequency sound waves produced by electrical stimulation of a specialized
crystal to produce an image.

REF: p. 16
11. Reflections in ultrasound produced by tissue interaction are called:
a. Isoechoic
b. Echoes
c. Pulses
d. Frequencies
ANSWER: B
The transducer records the tiny changes of the signal’s pitch and direction. A water-tissue interface can
produce strong reflections (echoes), whereas a solid tissue mass that contains small differences in
composition can cause weak reflections.
REF: p. 16
12. Fluid-filled structures transmitting sound waves easily and appearing as a dark region on the image are
tissue.
a. Hyperechoic
b. Hypoechoic
c. Anechoic
d. Isoechoic
ANSWER: C
Anechoic tissue or structures (which are echo free or lacking a signal) transmit sound waves easily and
appear as the dark region on the image.
REF: p. 17
13. The major advantage of ultrasound is:
a. No adverse effects on human tissue

b. Ability to image anatomy in cross-section
c. Ionizing radiation is used to produce an image
d. Only low energy gamma radiation is used to produce an image
ANSWER: A
The major advantage of ultrasound is its safety.
REF: p. 17
14. To produce quantitative data in ultrasound, the equipment must:
a. Integrate real-time imaging with sono CT
b. Include harmonic technology
c. Fuse conventional real-time with Doppler imaging
d. Have a multifrequency transducer
ANSWER: C
The color-flow duplex system, in which conventional real-time imaging is integrated with Doppler
imaging (to produce quantitative data)
REF: p. 18
15. To demonstrate stenoses, blood clots, plaques, and emboli requires:
a. A multifrequency transducer
b. A color-flow duplex system
c. Sono CT real-time compound imaging
d. Harmonic imaging
ANSWER: B
Vascular or color-flow Doppler studies assess the patency of major blood vessels, demonstrating
obstructions (stenoses), blood clots, plaques, and emboli

REF: p. 18
16. Using a narrow x-ray beam and scanning from multiple angles, the amount of radiation absorbed in
tissue is represented by:
a. A relative linear attenuation coefficient
b. Data for computer reconstruction
c. A gray scale on the computer monitor
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Scanning a slice of tissue from multiple angles with a narrow x-ray beam, then calculating a relative linear
attenuation coefficient (representing the amount of radiation absorbed in tissue for the various tissue
elements in the section), and finally displaying the computed reconstruction as a gray- scale image on a
television monitor is CT.
REF: p. 19
17. The attenuation of a specific tissue relative to water is the:
a. CT number
b. Echo coefficient
c. Positron absorption
d. Pulse sequence
ANSWER: A
The CT number reflects the attenuation of a specific tissue relative to that of water, which is arbitrarily
assigned a CT number of 0 and appears gray on the image.
REF: p. 19
18. Window width in CT controls:
a. Density
b. Gray scale

c. Midrange of densities
d. Resolution
ANSWER: B
Window widths control gray scale—contrast scale and window levels control density. From the
radiographer’s perspective, this means the window width determines the number of densities that will be
visualized on the monitor.
REF: p. 19
19. The midpoint or center of the number of densities being viewed in a selected window on CT is the:
a. Window width
b. Pulse width
c. Window level
d. X-ray level
ANSWER: C
The window level is the midpoint or center of the total number of densities being viewed in a selected
window width.
REF: p. 19
20. High-resolution CT requires the slice sections to be:
a. 1.5 to 2.0 mm
b. 2 to 5 mm
c. 5 to 10 mm
d. 1 to 2 cm
ANSWER: A
In high-resolution CT, thin sections (1.5 to 2.0 mm slices) are used to produce a very detailed display of
lung anatomy.

REF: p. 20
21. CT scanning permitting data that can easily be reformatted to produce multiplanes (coronal and
sagittal) is accomplished by:
a. High-resolution scans
b. Conventional scans
c. Helical scanning
d. Single-scan protocols
ANSWER: C
Spiral (helical) scanning is the technique where continual CT scanning is performed as the patient
moves through the gantry (unlike the multiple single scans in conventional CT). This permits much
faster scanning without respiratory motion and provides data that can be easily reformatted in coronal
and sagittal planes.
REF: p. 20
22. What made CT angiography more precise and prevalent?
a. The development of 16-slice (and greater) scanners
b. Multiplanar images produced by multifrequency transducers
c. Three-dimensional images
d. A and C
ANSWER: D
Using volume-rendered imaging and 3-D volume rendering, the vascular system can be viewed from all
perspectives (360°). CT angiography is more prevalent and precise as a result of the development of 16-
slice and greater scanners.
REF: p. 21
23. All of the following are post-processing techniques used in CT, except:
a. Maximum intensity projections

b. Shaded surface rendering
c. Time-of-flight technique
d. Volume-rendering
ANSWER: C
Time-of-flight is an angiographic technique used with MRI.
REF: pp. 22-23
24. The modality of choice to image the central nervous system is:
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Ultrasound
d. PET
ANSWER: B
MRI has become the modality of choice for imaging the central nervous system and spine.
REF: p. 23
25. What atom’s energy is manipulated to produce MRI images?
a. radiofrequency pulse (RF) hydrogen
b. Echo time (TE) carbon
c. Relaxation time (T1/T2) nitrogen
d. Repetition time (TR) oxygen
ANSWER: A
The basic technique consists of inducing hydrogen atoms (protons) to alternate between a high- energy
state and a low-energy state by absorbing and then releasing, or transferring, energy. This absorption of
energy is accomplished by placing the anatomic part to be imaged in a strong static magnetic field and
directing a radiofrequency (RF) pulse at the area

REF: p. 23
26. Relaxation is:
a. The energy transfer of the radiofrequency pulse to tissue
b. The proton releasing energy to return to its original state
c. The listening time of the MR unit to hear an echo
d. The repetition of the energy signal
ANSWER: B
The protons begin to release, or transfer, their absorbed energy as they move back to a low-energy state.
This process is called relaxation, and it occurs over time.
REF: p. 23
27. By selecting different pulses, sequences, and frequencies, the MR T1-weighted image produces
images with a:
a. High signal intensity (bright) water
b. High signal intensity (bright) fat, subacute hemorrhage, and contrast material
c. Low signal intensity (intermediate to dark) fat
d. Low signal intensity (very dark) bone and air
ANSWER: B
On T1-weighted images, substances causing high signal intensity (that is, appearing bright) include fat,
subacute hemorrhage, highly proteinaceous material (for example, . mucus), slow-flowing blood, and
intravenous contrast material (for example,.g, gadolinium).
REF: pp. 23-24
28.28.
To best increase the exam specificity in MRI, the technologist must:

a. Use contrast enhancement
b. Change relaxation time
c. Change pulse sequences
d. A and C
ANSWER: D
The introduction of intravenous contrast materials and different types of pulse sequences are helping
increase specificity.
REF: p. 24
29. Diffusion imaging relies on aiding in diagnosis of early stroke.
a. Tissue diffused with contrast material
b. Decreased microcirculation demonstrating less blood volume
c. Random movement of water
d. A and C
ANSWER: C
Diffusion imaging relies on the movement of molecules and random thermal motion. (In this
instance, random movement of water is known as diffusion.)
REF: p. 26
30. Motor, sensory, and vision neurons (nervous system) can be demonstrated by:
a. Diffusion imaging
b. Perfusion imaging
c. Fat-suppressed images
d. Functional MR
ANSWER: D

Functional MR (fMR) allows the localization of specific regions of the brain that correspond to
various functions, such as the motor, sensory, memory, vision, and language functions.
REF: p. 26
31. Ionizing radiation, which is emitted from the patient to produce images, is the modality of:
a. Conventional x-ray
b. Ultrasound
c. Nuclear medicine
ANSWER: C
In nuclear medicine, the patient ingests, or is injected with, a radiopharmaceutical that emits radiation,
and an image is created from the signals radiating from the patient.
REF: p. 27
32. The patient is injected or ingests the ionizing radiation through:
a. A radiopharmaceutical
b. An iodinated contrast agent
c. Gadolinium
d. Barium
ANSWER: A
The dose of radiopharmaceutical is calculated on the basis of the specific half-life and decay rate of its
attached radionuclide. The amount of ionizing radiation to the patient in a nuclear medicine study is
similar to that in a plain radiographic examination.
REF: p. 27
33. To detect the ionizing radiation being emitted from the patient to produce an image, a is
used.

a. Geiger counter
b. Gamma camera
c. Pocket dosimeter
d. Dose calibrator
ANSWER: B
A gamma camera with a sodium iodide crystal detects the ionizing radiation emitted from the patient.
REF: p. 27
34. To best demonstrate a physiologic map, the modality of choice is:
a. MRI
b. CT
c. Ultrasound
d. Nuclear medicine
ANSWER: D
The physiologic map produced by some nuclear medicine procedures allows changes to be detected
earlier than plain radiographic images because the functional perspective makes it more sensitive.
REF: p. 28
35. Increased radionuclide uptake produces a on the image.
a. Hot spot
b. Blank spot
c. Cold spot
d. Homogeneous area
ANSWER: A
Abnormal nuclear medicine images demonstrate hot spots produced by an increase in the uptake.

REF: p. 28
36. To enhance the nuclear medicine image, researchers applied the use of to increase accuracy.
a. Computers and movement
b. Multiple gamma cameras and movement
c. Multiple digital cameras
d. A and B
ANSWER: D
SPECT imaging involves the movement of the gamma camera(s) rotating around the patient and the
computer software to perform the reconstruction of the image.
REF: pp. 28-29
37. A collimator in the SPECT imaging system:
a. Is multiple parallel channels allowing rays to pass
b. Provides a lead plate increasing image contrast
c. Is a device to allow rotation of the camera
d. Allows more gamma rays to reach the camera
ANSWER: A
SPECT has a collimator containing multiple parallel channels to allow the rays to pass.
REF: p. 29
38. The greatest difference in PET and SPECT is the type of:
a. Ionizing radiation emitted by radiopharmaceuticals
b. Camera used to detect the ionizing radiation
c. Physiologic map produced

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