Test bank for clinical procedures for medical assistants 10th edition by bonewit west.pdf

Test Bank for Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants
11th Edition by Bonewit-West
| Verified Chapter's 1 - 23 | Complete

Test Bank for Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 11th
Edition by Bonewit-West

Chapter 01: The Medical Record
Bonewit-West: Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants, 11th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What information is contained in the medical record?
a. Health history report
b. Results of the physical examination
c. Laboratory reports
d. Progress notes
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 2
2. Which of the following is not a function of the medical record?
a. To provide information for making decisions regarding the patient’s care
b. To document the patient’s progress
c. To serve as a legal document
d. To share information between members of the patient’s family
ANS: D REF: p. 2| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 1
3. The purpose of the HIPAA Privacy Rule is to
a. reduce exposure of patients to bloodborne pathogens.
b. providepatients withbetterN
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health information.
c. prevent the patient’s records from being copied.
d. encourage the patient to become more involved in preventive health care.
ANS: B REF: p. 4 | CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.3
OBJ: 2
4. All of the following are characteristics of the Notice of Privacy Practices except:
a. Was developed by the American Medical Association
b. Must explain how a patient’s health information will be used and protected by the
medical office
c. Must be provided to each patient
d. Must obtain a signed acknowledgment from the patient that he/she has received an
NPP
ANS: A REF: p. 4| CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.3
OBJ: 2
5. Health information in any form that contains patient identifiable information is known as
a. PHI.
b. NPP.
c. OSHA.

ANS: A REF: p. 4| CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.3
OBJ: 2
6. In which of the following situations does HIPAA not require written consent for the use or
disclosure of protected health information?
a. Patient referral to a specialist
b. Emergency care provided at a hospital
c. Determination of eligibility for insurance benefits
d. Training of health care students
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: p. 4| CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.3
OBJ: 2
7. Which of the following is not an example of a medical office clinical document?
a. Patient registration record
b. Physical examination report
c. Medication record
d. Health history report
ANS: A REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 2
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a laboratory report?
a. It relays results of laboratory tests to the provider
b. It consists of a report of the analysis or examination of body specimens
c. It assists in diagnosing and treating disease
d. It is a request for laboratory
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ANS: D REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 2
9. Which of the following is an example of a diagnostic procedure report?
a. Electrocardiogram report
b. Physical therapy report
c. Urinalysis report
d. Pathology report
ANS: A REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 2
10. What is the name of the type of report that documents the assessments and treatments
designed to restore a patient’s ability to function?
a. Consultation report
b. Diagnostic procedure report
c. Pathology report
d. Therapeutic service report
ANS: D REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 2
11. Which of the following is not an example of a hospital report?
a. Operative report

b. Cytology report
c. Discharge summary report
d. Emergency department report
ANS: B REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 2
12. Which of the following is an example of a consent document?
a. Patient registration record
b. Notice of Privacy Practices form
c. Release of medical information form
d. Patient instruction sheet
ANS: C REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 2
13. Which of the following can be performed by an electronic medical record software program?
a. Creation of a medical record
b. Storage of a medical record
c. Editing of a medical record
d. Retrieval of a medical record
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: p. 3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.8
OBJ: 3
14. All of the following are advantages of an electronic medical record (EMR) except
a. an EMR does not have to be filed.
b. documents in an EMR can
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c. more than one person can view an EMR at the same time.
d. EMRs are exempt from the HIPAA regulations.
ANS: D REF: pp. 3, 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.12
OBJ: 5
15. Which of the following are used to enter data into an electronic medical record?
a. Free-text entry
b. Drop-down menus
c. Radio buttons
d. All of the above
ANS: D REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.8
OBJ: 8
16. How are paper documents entered into a patient’s electronic medical record?
a. By scanning them into the computer
b. By retyping them on the computer
c. By photocopying them
d. By transmitting them through a modem
ANS: A REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 8

17. What is the name of a program that converts typed text into text that can be manipulated by
the computer (once it has been scanned into the computer)?
a. POMR
b. OCR
c. Word processing program
d. Practice management program
ANS: B REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.12
OBJ: 4
18. All of the following assist in the collection of data for a health history except
a. a quiet, comfortable room.
b. showing interest in the patient.
c. showing concern for the patient.
d. calling the patient “honey.”
ANS: D REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.3.
OBJ: 8
19. Which of the following can be used to enter a health history into an electronic medical record?
a. The patient completes a paper form and the medical assistant scans it into the
computer.
b. The medical assistant enters information into the computer while asking the patient
questions.
c. The patient completes a health history questionnaire on a computer.
d. All of the above
ANS: D REF: p. 6|N
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20. What is a health history?
a. A legal document required to perform certain procedures on a patient
b. Documentation of the results of the physical examination
c. A collection of subjective data about the patient
d. A narrative description and interpretation of a diagnostic procedure
ANS: C REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10
OBJ: 6
21. The health history is taken
a. after the provider performs the physical examination.
b. after laboratory test results are reviewed.
c. before the provider performs the physical examination.
d. after the provider makes a diagnosis of the patient’s condition.
ANS: C REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 6
22. What is the chief complaint?
a. The probable outcome of the patient’s condition
b. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble
c. A detailed description of the patient’s illness using medical terms

d. A tentative diagnosis of the patient’s condition
ANS: B REF: p. 7| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10
OBJ: 7
23. Which of the following questions should be used to elicit the chief complaint from a patient?
a. Where does it hurt?
b. Are you sick?
c. How long have you been ill?
d. What seems to be the problem?
e. All of the above
OBJ: 7
24. Which of the following is a correct example for documenting the chief complaint?
a. “Complains of pain in the left shoulder.”
b. “The patient does not feel well today.”
c. “Burning in the chest and coughing for the past 2 days.”
d. “Otitis media that began following a cold.”
OBJ: 7
25. An expansion of the chief complaint is known as the
a. review of systems.
b. present illness.
c. progress report.
d. provisional diagnosis. NURSINGTB.COM
OBJ: 7
26. What is the past medical history?
a. The patient’s previous diseases, injuries, and operations
c. Information about the patient’s lifestyle
d. The hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives
ANS: A REF: pp. 7, 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10
OBJ: 6
27. All of the following are included in the past medical history except
a. accidents and injuries.
b. immunizations.
c. hospitalizations and operations.
d. current medications.
e. occupation.
ANS: E REF: pp. 7, 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 6
28. A review of the health status of blood relatives is known as

a. family history.
b. review of systems.
c. genetic review.
d. chronological history.
OBJ: 6
29. Which of the following is an example of a familial disease?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Pneumonia
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Emphysema
OBJ: 6
30. The social history focuses on which of the following that may affect the patient’s condition?
a. Patient’s lifestyle
b. Familial diseases
c. Past injuries
d. Medications being taken by the patient
OBJ: 6
31. All of the following are included in the social history except
a. dietary history.
b. health habits.
c. occupation.
d. chronic illnesses.
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ANS: D REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 6
32. What is the ROS?
a. A history of the patient’s previous diseases, injuries, and operations
c. A systematic review of each body system
d. A review of the hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives
OBJ: 6
33. What term is used to describe the process of recording information about a patient in the
medical record?
a. Documenting
b. Registration
c. Scribbling
d. Classifying
ANS: A REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10
OBJ: 8

34. All of the following must be performed when documenting in the medical record except:
a. Check the name on the medical record before making an entry.
b. Include the patient’s name at the beginning of each entry.
c. Begin each phrase with a capital letter and end with a period.
d. Never document for someone else.
ANS: B REF: pp. 11-12 | CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.7
OBJ: 8
35. A procedure should be documented immediately after being performed to
a. avoid documenting the procedure out of sequence.
b. avoid performing the wrong procedure on a patient.
c. avoid forgetting certain aspects of the procedure.
d. prevent another staff member from documenting the procedure.
ANS: C REF: pp. 11-12| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 8
36. Black ink should be used when documenting in the PPR to
a. provide a permanent record.
b. ensure legible handwriting.
c. avoid spelling errors.
d. reduce documentation errors.
ANS: A REF: pp. 11-12| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 8
37. Which of the following is the cN
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ocumentation entry?
a. D.B., CMA (AAMA)
b. Dawn C. Bennett, CMA (AAMA)
c. D. Bennett, CMA (AAMA)
d. Bennett, CMA (AAMA)
ANS: C REF: pp. 11-12| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.4
OBJ: 8
38. Why should a documentation error in a PPR never be erased or obliterated?
a. It makes it harder to read the medical record.
b. The patient may not receive the proper care.
c. Credibility is reduced if the provider is involved in litigation.
d. It indicates the procedure was performed incorrectly.
OBJ: 8
39. The purpose of progress notes is to
a. provide a review of each body system.
b. update the medical record with new patient information.
c. prevent the patient’s condition from getting worse.
d. ensure that the patient returns for follow-up care.

OBJ: 9
40. What is a symptom?
a. Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data
b. Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease
c. The probable outcome of a disease
d. The scientific method of identifying a patient’s condition
OBJ: 10
41. What is an objective symptom?
a. A symptom that can be observed by another person
b. A symptom that precedes a disease
c. A symptom that is felt bythe patient and cannot be observed by another
d. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble
OBJ: 10
42. Which of the following is an example of a subjective symptom?
a. Rash
b. Pain
c. Dyspnea
d. Bleeding
OBJ: 10
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43. Which of the following should be included when documenting the administration of
medication?
a. Name of the medication
b. Route of administration
c. Dosage administered
d. Injection site
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: p. 13| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 8
44. Laboratorytests ordered on a patient at an outside laboratory should be documented in the
event which of the following occurs?
a. The patient does not undergo the test.
b. The test results are abnormal.
c. The patient’s condition gets worse.
d. The test results are negative.
ANS: A REF: p. 14, 16| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 8
45. Why is it important to document instructions provided to the patient?
a. To ensure that the patient understands the instructions provided
b. To protect the provider legally if the patient is harmed by not following the

TEST BANK FOR CLINICAL PROCEDURES FOR MEDICAL ASSISTANTS 10TH EDITION BY BONEWIT-WEST
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instructions
c. To ensure that the patient follows the instructions
d. To provide a record for the insurance company
ANS: B REF: p. 16| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 8
46. Flushed skin usually indicates the patient
a. is experiencing pain.
b. has an elevated temperature.
c. has chills.
d. has a rash.
OBJ: 11
47. A yellow color of the skin that is first observed in the whites of the eyes is called
a. cyanosis.
b. hepatitis.
c. pallor.
d. jaundice.
OBJ: 11
48. A decrease in the amount of water in the body is known as
a. edema.
b. acidosis.
c. epistaxis.
d. dehydration.
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OBJ: 11
49. What term is used to describe excessive perspiration?
a. Dehydration
b. Diaphoresis
c. Edema
d. Hyperemesis
OBJ: 11
50. What term is used to describe dizziness?
a. Epistaxis
b. Vertigo
c. Urticaria
d. Pruritus
OBJ: 11

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Chapter 02: Medical Asepsis and the OSHA Standard
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the name given to a tiny living plant or animal that cannot be seen with the naked
eye?
a. Pathogen
b. Microorganism
c. Nonpathogen
d. Microbiology
OBJ: 1
2. What term is used to describe a microorganism that produces disease?
a. Nonpathogen
b. Pathogen
c. Bacteria
d. Infection
OBJ: 2
3. Which of the following is not an example of a microorganism?
a. Pinworms
b. Bacteria
c. Virus
d. Protozoa
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ANS: A REF: p. 26| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.1
OBJ: 1
4. What term is used to describe a microorganism that does not produce disease?
a. Sterile
b. Aseptic
c. Nonpathogen
d. Pathogen
OBJ: 2
5. What may remain on an object that is medically aseptic?
a. Nonpathogens
b. Pathogens
c. Droplet infection
d. Anaerobes
OBJ: 3

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6. All of the following are growth requirements for microorganisms except:
a. Darkness
b. Moisture
c. Nutrition
d. Acidic environment
ANS: D REF: pp. 22-23| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4
OBJ: 4
7. What is the name given to a microorganism that can exist only in the presence of oxygen?
a. Anaerobe
b. Oxygenophile
c. Aerobe
d. Heterotroph
ANS: C REF: pp. 22-23| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10
OBJ: 4
8. The optimal growth temperature is
a. 98.6° F (37° C), or body temperature.
b. the temperature at which a microorganism grows best.
c. room temperature.
d. the temperature that kills pathogens.
ANS: B REF: pp. 22-23| CAAHEP Competency (2015): 1V.10
OBJ: 4
9. Microorganisms can be transmitted through
a. droplet infection.
b. insects.
c. contaminated food.
d. contaminated equipment.
e. All of the above
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ANS: E REF: p. 27| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.d
OBJ: 5
10. What is the name given to a person who cannot fight off a pathogen that has entered his or her
body?
a. Reservoir host
b. Resistant host
c. Contagious
d. Susceptible host
ANS: D REF: p. 27| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.c
OBJ: 5
11. All of the following makes a person less resistant to a pathogen except:
a. Poor nutrition
b. Immunizations
c. Poor hygiene
d. Stress

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ANS: B REF: p. 27| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.c
OBJ: 6
12. Which of the following help prevent the entrance of microorganisms into the body?
a. Coughing and sneezing
b. Acidic nature of urine
c. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
d. Mucus in the nose and respiratory tract
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: pp. 27-28| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.d
OBJ: 6
13. Cilia remove pathogens from the body by
a. providing an acidic environment.
b. engulfing pathogens.
c. trapping microorganisms.
d. constantly beating toward the outside.
e. All of the above
OBJ: 6
14. What term is used to describe practices that help to keep an object or area clean and free from
infection?
a. Medicalasepsis
b. Surgical asepsis
c. Disinfection
d. Sterilization
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ANS: A REF: p. 28| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.3.a
OBJ: 3
15. Which of the following are picked up in the course of daily activities, are attached loosely to the
skin, and are often pathogenic?
a. Transient flora
b. Normal flora
c. Opportunistic infections
d. Resident flora
OBJ: 7
16. Which of the following is the MOST important means of preventing the spread of
microorganisms in the medical office?
a. Disinfecting examining tables
b. Gloving
c. Hand hygiene
d. Immunizations
ANS: C REF: pp. 28-29| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4
OBJ: 8

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17. The CDC recommends that washing the hands with soap and water be performed
a. after eating.
b. when the hands are visibly soiled.
c. before using the restroom.
d. after taking a patient’s blood pressure.
ANS: B REF: pp. 28-29| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.6
OBJ: 10
18. All of the following are advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs except:
a. They do not require rinsing.
b. Less time is required to perform hand hygiene.
c. They remove all resident flora from the skin.
d. They contain emollients to prevent drying of the hands.
ANS: C REF: p. 29| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4
OBJ: 8
19. All of the following are good aseptic practices in the medical office except:
a. Keeping the medical office free of dirt and dust
b. Wearing jewelry
c. Avoiding coughs and sneezes of patients
d. Carefully disposing of wastes
OBJ: 9
20. Which of the following is not a symptom of a mild allergy to latex gloves?
a. Shortness of breath
b. Redness of the skin
c. Itching
d. Urticaria
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ANS: A REF: pp. 30, 25| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8
OBJ: 11
21. All of the following are guidelines for working with gloves except:
a. Wearing the correct size gloves
b. Keeping the fingernails short
c. Storing gloves away from extremes of temperature
d. Applying an oil-based hand lotion before gloving
ANS: D REF: p. 30| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 11
22. The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to
a. improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States.
b. protect public health and the environment outside of the workplace.
c. reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases.
d. prevent exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens.
OBJ: 12

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23. Which of the following employees would be least likely to have occupational exposure?
a. Medical laboratory technician
b. Dental hygienist
c. Electrician
d. Law enforcement officer
OBJ: 12
24. All of the following are examples of bloodborne pathogens except:
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. HIV
c. Hepatitis C
d. White blood cells
OBJ: 12
25. Which of the following is not an example of a sharp?
a. Needle
b. Cotton-tipped applicator
c. Lancet
d. Glass capillary tube
ANS: B REF: p. 36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.5
OBJ: 13
26. Whichofthe following is not c
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tentiallyinfectious material(OPIM)?
a. Any body fluid visibly contaminated with blood
b. Vaginal secretions
c. Tears and sweat
d. Semen
OBJ: 12
27. Which of the following is not an example of nonintact skin?
a. Skin with dermatitis
b. Burned skin
c. Bruised skin
d. Chapped skin
OBJ: 12
28. Which of the following is an example of an exposure incident?
a. Spilling blood on a laboratory worktable
b. Sticking yourself with the needle after drawing up an injectable medication
c. Getting blood onto your bare hands
d. Splashing blood into your eyes
e. All of the above

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ANS: D REF: p. 36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.5
OBJ: 14
29. How often does OSHA require employers to review and update their Exposure Control Plan?
a. Every 6 months
b. Once each year
c. Every 2 years
d. Only when a new procedure is instituted
OBJ: 14
30. A biohazard warning label must be attached to all of the following except:
a. Container of regulated waste
b. Refrigerator used to store blood
c. Cabinet used to store laboratory testing supplies
d. Plastic bag used to transport blood to the lab
OBJ: 15
31. What term is used to describe all measures and devices that isolate or remove the bloodborne
pathogens hazard from the workplace?
a. Engineering control
b. Work practice control
c. Personal protective equipment
d. Universal precaution
ANS: A REF: pp. 3
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32. What term describes a device that makes an exposure incident involving a contaminated sharp
less likely to occur?
a. Postexposure prophylaxis
b. Decontamination
c. Personal protective equipment
d. Safer medical device
ANS: D REF: pp. 38-40 |CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.5
OBJ: 16
33. All of the following are examples of work practice controls except:
a. Sanitizing the hands after removing gloves
b. Placing a lancet in a biohazard sharps container
c. Picking up broken glassware with gloved hands
d. Bandaging a cut on the hands before gloving
OBJ: 16
34. Which of the following is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
a. Clean disposable gloves
b. Biohazard sharps container

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c. Scrubs
d. Prescription eyeglasses
OBJ: 16
35. All of the following are guidelines that should be followed when using PPE except:
a. Decontaminate and reuse disposable gloves.
b. Remove all PPE before leaving the medical office.
c. Replace gloves that become torn or contaminated as soon as possible.
d. Remove a garment penetrated by blood as soon as possible.
ANS: A REF: pp. 40-41| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.6
OBJ: 17
36. Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard?
a. Eating in the office laboratory
b. Storing the Exposure Control Plan on the computer
c. Recapping a needle after withdrawing medication from a vial
d. Refusing to get the hepatitis B vaccination
e. All of the above
OBJ: 12
37. What is the first thing you should do if a cut on your bare hand accidentally comes in contact
with a patient’s blood?
a. Report the incident to the provider
b. Immediately wash your han
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c. Apply gloves
d. Obtain a hepatitis B vaccination
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38. Personal protective equipment must be used to
a. draw blood.
b. label a specimen container.
c. measure oral temperature.
d. perform a vision screening test.
e. All of the above
OBJ: 17
39. Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard with respect to biohazard sharps
containers?
a. Locate the sharps container as close as possible to the area of use.
b. Maintain sharps containers in an upright position.
c. Only reach into a sharps container with a gloved hand.
d. Replace sharps containers when they are 3/4 full.
ANS: C REF: pp. 41-42| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.6

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OBJ: 13
40. The hepatitis B vaccine must be offered to a new medical office employee except when
a. the individual has previously received the vaccine.
b. antibody testing has revealed that the individual is immune to hepatitis B.
c. the vaccine is contraindicated for medical reasons.
d. All of the above
OBJ: 20
41. What must a medical office employee do if he or she declines the hepatitis B vaccine?
a. Perform ten push-ups.
b. Sign a hepatitis B waiver form.
c. Be tested for hepatitis B antibodies.
d. Double-glove when administering injections.
OBJ: 20
42. Which of the following used items is not an example of regulated medical waste?
a. Suture needle
b. Microbiological collection device
c. Gauze saturated with blood
d. Urine testing strip
OBJ: 18
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43. Which of the following represents an error in technique when preparing and storing regulated
medical waste for disposal by an infectious waste service?
a. Closing the lid of a full sharps container in the examining room
b. Double-bagging regulated medical waste
c. Placing a biohazard bag in a cardboard box and sealing it
d. Storing a biohazard box in the front office for pickup by the medical waste service
ANS: D REF: pp. 43-45| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.6
OBJ: 19
44. What information is included on a regulated waste tracking form?
a. The type of waste
b. The quantity of waste in pounds
c. Where the waste is being sent
d. All of the above
ANS: D REF: pp. 43-45| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.6
OBJ: 19
45. The most likely means of contracting hepatitis B in the health care setting is through
a. contaminated food and water.
b. needlesticks and blood splashes.
c. handling contaminated equipment.
d. touching a patient infected with hepatitis B.

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ANS: B REF: pp. 45-46| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8
OBJ: 20
46. What is the immunization schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?
a. 0, 1 month, 2 months
b. 0, 2 months, 4 months
c. 0, 6 months, 12 months
d. 0, 1 month, 6 months
OBJ: 20
47. The most common side effect of the hepatitis B vaccine is
a. nausea.
b. hives.
c. irritability.
d. soreness at the injection site.
OBJ: 20
48. Patients with chronic hepatitis B face an increased risk of developing
a. liver cancer.
b. pancreatitis.
c. rheumatic heart disease.
d. gallstones.
ANS: A REF: p. 46
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49. What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?
a. Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
b. Coughs and sneezes from an infected person
c. Sexual intercourse
d. Mosquitoes
ANS: A REF: p. 46| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8
OBJ: 20
50. What is the term for an infection that results from a defective immune system that cannot
defend itself from pathogens normally found in the environment?
a. Autoimmunity
b. Opportunistic
c. Contagious
d. Seropositive
ANS: B REF: pp. 46, 48| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8
OBJ: 22
51. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by a
a. bacteria.
b. fungus.

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c. parasite.
d. virus.
ANS: D REF: pp. 46, 48| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8
OBJ: 22
52. Treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the
disease is known as
a. immunization.
b. postexposure prophylaxis.
c. first aid measures.
d. antiviral drug therapy.
OBJ: 21
53. AIDS cannot be transmitted through
a. casual contact.
b. blood splashes.
c. sexual intercourse.
d. needlestick injuries.
OBJ: 22
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. When should clean disposableN
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a. When administering an injection
b. When performing a venipuncture
c. When performing a finger stick
d. When performing urinalysis
ANS: A, B, C, D REF: pp. 30, 35| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.6
OBJ: 11
MATCHING
Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part.
a. Aer/o
b. An-
c. Anti-
d. Enter/o
e. -gen
f. Micro-
g. Natal
h. Non-
i. Path/o
j. Peri-
k. Post-
l. Septic

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1. After
2. Against
3. Air
4. Disease
5. Infection
6. Not
7. Pertaining to Birth
8. Producing
9. Small
10. Without
11. Intestine
1. ANS:
OBJ:
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REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
2. ANS: C REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
3. ANS: A REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
4. ANS: I REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
5. ANS: L REF: p. 316| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
6. ANS: H REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
7. ANS:
OBJ:
8. ANS:
G
N/
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REF:
REF:
p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
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p. 316| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
9. ANS: F REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
10. ANS: B REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9
OBJ: N/A
11. ANS:
OBJ:
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REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9

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Chapter 03: Sterilization and Disinfection
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is used most often to sterilize articles in the medical office?
a. Dry heat oven
b. Ethylene oxide sterilizer
c. Autoclave
d. Chemical agents
OBJ: 11
2. The agent used to destroy microorganisms on an article depends on the
a. size of the article.
b. intended use of the article.
c. number of microorganisms present on the article.
d. weight of the article.
OBJ: 8
3. What is the term for an agent that kills disease-producing microorganisms and that usually is
applied to inanimate objects?
a. Disinfectant
b. Antiseptic
c. Fungicide
d. Detergent
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OBJ: 7
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?
a. They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule.
b. They represent a resting and protective stage.
c. They are more resistant to heat.
d. They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants.
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: p. 52| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.1
OBJ: 7 | 11
5. Something that is sterile is free of
a. pathogens.
b. all living microorganisms.
c. all living microorganisms and spores.
d. nonpathogens.
ANS: C REF: pp. 52-53| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10
OBJ: 11

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6. Which of the following is accomplished through sanitization?
a. Organic matter is removed from the article.
b. All microorganisms are removed from the article.
c. The article is sterilized.
d. Spores are killed.
OBJ: 4
7. The purpose of the Hazard Communications Standard (HCS) is to ensure that employees
a. do not come in contact with hazardous chemicals.
b. are protected from bloodborne pathogens in the workplace.
c. practice quality control when performing laboratory tests.
d. are informed of the hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace.
ANS: D REF: p. 53| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.6
OBJ: 1
8. According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included
on the label of a hazardous chemical?
a. Product identifier
b. Supplier identification
c. GHS signal word
d. GHS hazard statement
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: pp. 5
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9. Which of the following is true regarding the GHS?
a. It provides consistency in the classification and labeling of chemicals.
b. It classifies chemicals according to their health and physical hazards.
c. It enables employees to quickly obtain information regarding hazardous chemicals.
d. It is an international standard.
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: p. 54| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.5
OBJ: 2
10. All of the following are characteristics of GHS pictograms except:
a. They are standardized graphic symbols.
b. They allow for quick identification of hazards associated with chemicals.
c. They consist of eight different pictograms.
d. They identify the proper handling and storage of chemicals.
ANS: D REF: p. 54| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.1.b
OBJ: 2
11. What is the term for a phrase that describes the recommended measures to be taken to
minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to a hazardous chemical?
a. GHS hazard classification

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b. GHS hazard statement
c. GHS precautionary statement
d. GHS signal word
ANS: C REF: p. 54| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.5
OBJ: 2
12. Which of the following is true regarding an SDS?
a. It provides information regarding hazardous chemicals.
b. It must be kept on file for each hazardous chemical stored in the workplace.
c. It must be readily available to employees.
d. It is available from the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical.
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: pp. 55-59| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.5
OBJ: 3
13. Utility gloves over clean disposable gloves should be worn during the sanitization procedure to
protect the hands from
a. bloodborne pathogens.
b. infectious materials.
c. irritating chemicals.
d. All of the above
OBJ: 6
14. Which of the following represents an error in technique during the sanitization procedure?
a. Usinga low-sudsingdeterg
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b. Cleansing the grooves of hinged instruments using a wire brush
c. Using steel wool to remove stains from instruments
d. Checking instruments for proper working condition
OBJ: 6
15. Why should a chemical not be used past its expiration date?
a. It may cause stains on an instrument.
b. It may lose its potency.
c. It may cause an instrument to malfunction
d. It may leave residue on an instrument
OBJ: 6
16. What should be used when cleaning the surface of an instrument?
a. Antiseptic wipe
b. Nylon brush
c. Stainless-steel wire brush
d. Soft cloth
OBJ: 6

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17. What is the purpose of lubricating an instrument?
a. It makes the instrument last longer and function better.
b. It prevents rusting of the instrument.
c. It assists in killing pathogens on the instrument.
d. It reduces the time needed to sterilize the instrument.
OBJ: 6
18. High-level disinfection is a process that
a. destroys all pathogenic microorganisms.
b. destroys all microorganisms and spores.
c. destroys all microorganisms except tubercle bacilli.
d. destroys all microorganisms, but not spores.
OBJ: 7
19. Which of the following items requires high-level disinfection?
a. Stethoscope
b. Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope
c. Surgical instruments
d. Examining table
OBJ: 7
20. Intermediate level disinfectionN
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a. Tubercle bacilli
b. All vegetative bacteria
c. Bacterial spores
d. Most viruses
OBJ: 7
21. All of the following are examples of noncritical items except:
a. Percussion hammer
b. Nasal speculum
c. Stethoscope
d. Crutches
OBJ: 8
22. All of the following are guidelines for working with glutaraldehyde (Cidex) except:
a. When working in a well-ventilated area
b. When wearing safety goggles
c. When wearing utility gloves
d. When storing the glutaraldehyde container in a warm, dry area

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OBJ: 9
23. Which of the following concentrations of alcohol is the most effective disinfectant?
a. 50% isopropyl alcohol
b. 60% isopropyl alcohol
c. 70% isopropyl alcohol
d. 100% isopropyl alcohol
OBJ: 10
24. Which of the following does OSHA recommend for the decontamination of a blood spill?
a. 70% isopropyl alcohol
b. 10% household bleach in water
c. 2% glutaraldehyde
d. Lysol
ANS: B REF: pp. 66-67| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.2.a
OBJ: 9
25. Low-level disinfection cannot be used to disinfect which of the following?
a. Examining tables
b. Countertops
c. Floors
d. Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope
ANS: D REF: p. 67| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.3.a
OBJ: 7
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26. Which of the following represents an error in technique during the chemical disinfection
procedure?
a. Sanitizing articles before disinfecting them
b. Opening hinged instruments before placing them in the disinfectant
c. Completely immersing articles in the chemical disinfectant
d. Making sure articles are wet before immersing them in the disinfectant
OBJ: 9
27. Why should all organic matter be removed from an article before it is disinfected?
a. To prevent the article from rusting
b. To prevent stains on the article
c. To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the article
d. To ensure the proper working condition of the article
OBJ: 9
28. Which of the following should be used to disinfect a laboratory work surface?
a. Soap
b. Phenol
c. Glutaraldehyde
d. Iodine

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OBJ: 10
29. The period of time that a disinfecting solution is effective after it has been activated is known as
its
a. reuse life.
b. shelf life.
c. use life.
d. expiration date.
OBJ: 9
30. Which of the following is an example of a critical item?
a. Percussion hammer
b. Stethoscope
c. Surgical instrument
d. Tongue blade
OBJ: 8
31. The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is
a. 320° F (160° C) at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch.
b. 145° F (62.8° C) at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch.
c. 212° F (100° C) at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch.
d. 250° F (121° C) at 15 pounN
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32. Autoclave tape
a. ensures whether sterilization has occurred.
b. indicates whether the article was in the autoclave.
c. can be used only to close the pack.
d. plays “Jingle Bells” when it has been exposed to steam.
OBJ: 12
33. Sterilization strips should be positioned
a. on the bottom tray of the autoclave.
b. on the top tray of the autoclave.
c. in the center of the wrapped pack.
d. on the outside of the pack.
OBJ: 13
34. What should be done if a sterilization indicator does not change properly?
a. Check for a problem with the sterilization technique.
b. Check the working order of the autoclave.

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c. Review the manufacturer’s guidelines for proper operation of the autoclave.
d. Resterilize the article.
e. All of the above
OBJ: 13
35. How should sterilization indicators be stored?
a. In a cool, dry area
b. In the refrigerator
c. In a warm, moist area
d. In an airtight container
OBJ: 13
36. Which of the following is the best means of determining the effectiveness of the sterilization
process?
a. The temperature gauge on the autoclave
b. Biological indicators
c. Sterilization strips
d. Autoclave tape
OBJ: 13
37. The purpose of wrapping articles before they are sterilized in the autoclave is to
a. permit better steam penetration during autoclaving.
b. protect the articles from rec
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autoclaving.
c. ensure complete destruction of all pathogens.
d. protect the articles from damage.
e. All of the above
OBJ: 14
38. The wrapper used to autoclave articles should
a. prevent contaminants from getting in during handling and storage.
b. be made of a substance that does not tear or puncture easily.
c. be made of a substance not affected by the sterilization process.
d. allow steam to penetrate it.
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF: pp. 74-75| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4
OBJ: 14
39. All of the following are characteristics of sterilization pouches except:
a. They provide good visibility of the contents.
b. A sterilization indicator is usually present on the pouch.
c. They can be labeled.
d. They are reusable.

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OBJ: 14
40. What type of water should be used in the autoclave?
a. Salt water
b. Tap water
c. Distilled water
d. Mineral water
ANS: C REF: pp. 78-79 | CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4
OBJ: 15
41. Which of the following represents an error in technique when loading the autoclave?
a. Placing small packs {1/2} inch apart
b. Placing glassware on their sides
c. Placing a dressing pack in a vertical position
d. Positioning sterilization pouches on their sides
OBJ: 15
42. The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave depends on
a. the type of autoclave being used.
b. what is being sterilized.
c. the type of sterilization indicator being used.
d. the intended use of the article.
OBJ: 16
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43. Removing a wet pack from the autoclave results in
a. rusting of metal instruments.
b. dulling of sharp instruments.
c. contamination of the pack.
d. invalid results on the sterilization indicator.
e. All of the above
OBJ: 15
44. Which of the following must be resterilized?
a. A pack that has been dropped
b. A pack that has opened up
c. A pack that has been crushed
d. A pack that is torn
e. All of the above
OBJ: 15
45. How should sterilized packs be stored?
a. In a clean dry area
b. In an area free from dust and insects
c. With the most recently sterilized article placed in the back

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d. All of the above
OBJ: 17
46. The inside of the autoclave should be wiped every day with
a. a damp cloth.
b. a disinfectant.
c. a low-sudsing detergent.
d. a scouring pad.
OBJ: 18
47. Dry heat is preferred for sterilizing
a. disposable syringes.
b. vaginal specula.
c. flexible sigmoidoscopes.
d. instruments with sharp cutting edges.
OBJ: 19
48. The recommended exposure time and temperature for a dry heat oven is
a. 250° F (121° C) for 1 hour.
b. 320° F (160° C) for 1–2 hours.
c. 320° F (160° C) for 15–20 minutes.
d. 212° F (100° C) for 20–30 N
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OBJ: 19
49. Which of the following sterilization methods is often used by medical manufacturers to
sterilize disposable items?
a. Cold sterilization
b. Dry heat oven
c. Ethylene oxide gas
d. Autoclave
OBJ: 19
50. Which of the following statements is not true regarding cold sterilization with a chemical
agent?
a. The chemical must be designated as a sterilant by the EPA.
b. Items must be submerged in the chemical for 6–24 hours.
c. Each time a new item is added to the chemical, the clock must be reset for the
entire amount of time.
d. It is the preferred method for sterilizing instruments with sharp cutting edges.
OBJ: 19

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Chapter 04: Vital Signs
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What name is given to the heat-regulating center of the body?
a. Medulla
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Olfactory lobe
OBJ: 3
2. Most of the heat produced in the body is through
a. shivering.
b. perspiration.
c. voluntary muscle contractions.
d. digestion.
ANS: C REF: p. 88| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.7
OBJ: 4
3. The transfer of heat from one object to another is known as
a. conduction.
b. radiation.
c. convection.
d. microwaves.
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OBJ: 5
4. What is the normal range for body temperature?
a. 96° F to 98° F (35.5° C to 36.7° C)
b. 97° F to 99° F (36.1° C to 37.2° C)
c. 98° F to 99° F (36.7° C to 37.2° C)
d. 97° F to 100.4° F (36.1° C to 38° C)
OBJ: 6
5. Which of the following represents the average normal body temperature? a.
100.4° F (37.8° C)
b. 96.8° F (36° C)
c. 98.6° F (37° C)
d. 99.6° F (37.6° C)
OBJ: 6

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6. A temperature of 100° F (37.8° C) is classified as
a. normal.
b. hyperpyrexia.
c. hypothermia.
d. low-grade fever.
ANS: D REF: p. 89| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8.b
OBJ: 8
7. A temperature of 103° F (39.4° C) is classified as
a. hyperpyrexia.
b. pyrexia.
c. hypopyrexia.
d. low-grade fever.
ANS: B REF: p. 89| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8.b
OBJ: 8
8. A temperature of 97.6° F (36.4° C) is classified as
a. normal.
b. hypothermia.
c. subnormal.
d. low-grade fever.
ANS: A REF: p. 89| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8.b
OBJ: 6
9. Which of the following terms
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a. Hypothermia
b. Febrile
c. Dehydration
d. Afebrile
OBJ: 8
10. Which of the following does not tend to increase body temperature?
a. Crying
b. Vigorous physical exercise
c. Pregnancy
d. Cold weather
OBJ: 7
11. You take Mrs. Main’s temperature at 7:00 a.m.; it reads 97.8° F (36.6° C). At 3:00 p.m., you
take her temperature again; it reads 99° F (37.2° C). How do you account for the difference?
a. During sleep, body metabolism slows down.
b. Mrs. Main normally runs a low body temperature.
c. During sleep, muscle activity increases.
d. Women normally run a higher body temperature than men.

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OBJ: 7
12. Which of the following symptoms are experienced by a patient when his or her temperature
begins to rise?
a. Coldness and chills
b. Perspiration
c. Bradycardia
d. Hyperventilation
e. All of the above
OBJ: 8
13. What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature
fluctuations occurs, all of which are above normal?
a. Crisis
b. Remittent
c. Intermittent
d. Continuous
ANS: B REF: pp. 90-91| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.8.b
OBJ: 8
14. What is the name given to the type of fever in which the temperature fluctuates minimally
but always remains elevated?
a. Stadium
b. Remittent
c. Intermittent
d. Continuous
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ANS: D REF: pp. 90-91| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.9
OBJ: 8
15. Which of the following are symptoms that may occur during the course of a fever?
a. Headache
b. Increased pulse and respirations
c. Increased thirst
d. Loss of appetite
e. All of the above
OBJ: 8
16. A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness, and fatigue is known as
a. the blahs.
b. malaise.
c. crisis.
d. adventitious.

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OBJ: 8
17. Before taking body temperature with an electronic thermometer, what must happen?
a. The probe must be covered with a disposable cover.
b. The thermometer must be shaken down to 96° F (35.6° C).
c. The thermometer must be calibrated.
d. The ear canal must be straightened.
OBJ: 9
18. The axilla is recommended as the preferred site for taking the temperature of
a. an infant.
b. a preschooler.
c. an adult.
d. an uncooperative patient.
OBJ: 9
19. When taking axillary body temperature, the arm should be held close to the body to
a. allow for proper placement of the thermometer.
b. prevent irritation to the skin.
c. prevent the transfer of pathogens.
d. prevent air currents from affecting the reading.
OBJ: 9 NURSINGTB.COM
20. If an axillary temperature of 100° F (37.8° C) was taken orally, it would register as a.
98° F (36.7° C).
b. 99° F (37.2° C).
c. 100° F (37.8° C).
d. 101° F (38.3° C).
OBJ: 9
21. The rectal site should not be used to take the temperature of
a. a newborn.
b. an unconscious patient.
c. an infant.
d. a mouth-breathing patient.
OBJ: 9
22. If a rectal temperature of 99° F (37.2° C) was taken orally, it would register as a.
97° F (36.1° C).
b. 98° F. (36.7° C).
c. 99° F (37.2° C).

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d. 100° F (37.8° C).
OBJ: 9
23. Which of the following probes should be selected to measure rectal body temperature with
an electronic thermometer?
a. Blue-collared probe
b. Red-collared probe
c. Pink-collared probe
d. Green-collared probe
OBJ: 9
24. A rectal thermometer must be lubricated before insertion to prevent
a. the transfer of pathogens.
b. an inaccurate temperature reading.
c. the thermometer from breaking.
d. irritation of the rectal mucosa.
OBJ: 9
25. How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant?
a. {1/2} inch
b. {1/4} inch
c. 1 inch
d. 1{1/2} inches
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OBJ: 9
26. After measurement of rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, the probe cover
should be ejected into
a. the regular trash.
b. a biohazard sharps container.
c. a biohazard waste container.
d. a chemical disinfectant.
ANS: A REF: pp. 91-92| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.6
OBJ: 9
27. Which of the following may occur if the lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer is dirty?
a. The lens may break.
b. The reading may be falsely low.
c. The tympanic membrane may become irritated.
d. The reading may be falsely high.
OBJ: 9

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28. The lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer should be cleaned with
a. a mild detergent.
b. an abrasive cleanser.
c. an antiseptic (alcohol) wipe.
d. a soft tissue.
OBJ: 9
29. What should be done with a used probe cover for a tympanic membrane thermometer?
a. It should be ejected into a regular waste container.
b. It should be ejected into a biohazard waste container.
c. It should be cleaned with an antiseptic and reused.
d. It should be left on the thermometer and used on the next patient.
ANS: A REF: p. 93| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.6
OBJ: 9
30. Why is the temporal artery a good site for measuring body temperature?
a. It is easily accessible.
b. It has a constant, steady flow of blood.
c. It is located close to the surface of the skin.
d. All of the above
OBJ: 9
31. The temporal artery site can b
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a. infants.
b. children.
c. adults.
d. elderly.
e. All of the above
OBJ: 9
32. How does a temporal artery temperature reading compare with an oral body temperature
reading?
a. Approximately 1° F (–17.2° C) higher than an oral reading.
b. Approximately 1° F (–17.2° C) lower than an oral reading.
c. Approximately 2° F (–16.7° C) higher than an oral reading.
d. It is the same as an oral reading.
OBJ: 9
33. Which of the following could result in an inaccurate temporal artery temperature reading?
a. Having the patient remove his SpongeBob hat
b. Using a probe with a shiny lens
c. Quickly scanning the forehead

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d. Keeping the button continually depressed while scanning
OBJ: 9
34. When the patient’s forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate
temporal artery temperature reading?
a. Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe
b. Brushing the patient’s hair to the side
c. Applying a probe cover
d. Taking the temperature behind the earlobe
OBJ: 9
35. Chemical thermometers must be stored in
a. the freezer.
b. a dry heat oven.
c. a watertight container.
d. a cool area.
OBJ: 9
36. The purpose of measuring pulse includes all of the following except:
a. To assess pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart functioning
b. To determine if the patient is developing hypertension
c. To assess pulse rate afterN
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d. To establish the patient’s baseline pulse rate
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37. Excessive pressure should not be applied when measuring radial pulse because
a. the pulse may increase.
b. the pulse may decrease.
c. it could close off the radial artery, and the pulse may not be felt.
d. it could affect the rhythm of the pulse.
OBJ: 10
38. Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate?
a. Infant
b. School-age child
c. Adolescent
d. Adult
OBJ: 13

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39. How does physical exercise temporarily affect the pulse?
a. Increases the pulse rate
b. Decreases the pulse rate
c. Has no effect
d. Results in a dysrhythmia
OBJ: 11
40. For an artery to be considered as a pulse site, it must be
a. located in a closed cavity.
b. located away from major nerves.
c. located over a firm tissue such as bone.
d. located close to the heart.
OBJ: 12
41. Where is the radial pulse located?
a. On the thumb side of the wrist
b. In the center of the antecubital space
c. On the little finger side of the wrist
d. On the anterior side of the neck
OBJ: 12
42. The apical pulse is located NURSINGTB.COM
a. in the fourth intercostal space, at the left margin of the sternum.
b. in the fifth intercostal space, at the junction of the left midclavicular line.
c. on the anterior side of the neck, slightly to one side of the midline.
d. on the fourth rib, at the junction of the right margin of the sternum.
OBJ: 12
43. Where is the popliteal pulse located?
a. In front of the ear, just above eye level
b. In the middle of the groin
c. On the anterior side of the neck
d. In the back of the knee
OBJ: 12
44. Where is the femoral pulse located?
a. In the posterior hip region
b. In the back of the knee
c. In the middle of the groin
d. On the anterior side of the neck

NURSINGTB.COM
OBJ: 12
45. Which of the following pulse sites can be used to assess circulation to the foot?
a. Posterior tibial
b. Ulnar
c. Femoral
d. Popliteal
OBJ: 12
46. Which of the following pulse sites is often used to monitor pulse during exercise?
a. Temporal
b. Carotid
c. Ulnar
d. Dorsalis pedis
OBJ: 12
47. What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult?
a. 60–100 beats/min
b. 60–80 beats/min
c. 70–90 beats/min
d. 80–100 beats/min
OBJ: 13 NURSINGTB.COM
48. Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast pulse rate?
a. Tachypnea
b. Bounding
c. Tachycardia
d. Bradycardia
OBJ: 13
49. You are measuring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you
record this?
a. Dysrhythmia and regular
b. Bounding and strong
c. Regular and strong
d. Thready and regular
OBJ: 14
50. You are measuring the pulse and find it feels weak and rapid. How would you record this?
a. Bounding
b. Thready

NURSINGTB.COM
c. Tachycardia
d. Bradycardia
OBJ: 14
51. You are taking the pulse and find it feels extremely strong and full. How would you record
this?
a. Bounding
b. Thready
c. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
OBJ: 14
52. Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
a. A trained athlete
b. An infant
c. An elderly person
d. A diabetic patient
OBJ: 11
53. What term is used to describe an irregularity in the heart’s rhythm?
a. Fibrillation
b. Ectopic beat
c. Bradycardia
d. Dysrhythmia
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OBJ: 11
54. Which of the following is used to describe the condition in which the radial pulse rate is less
than the apical pulse?
a. Apical-radial pulse
b. Pulse pressure
c. Pulse deficit
d. Atrial fibrillation
OBJ: 11
55. Which of the following tests might be ordered for a patient with a dysrhythmia?
a. MRI
b. Heart catheterization
c. ECG
d. Blood gas analysis
ANS: C REF: p. 109| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.9.a
OBJ: 11

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56. One respiration consists of
a. One inhalation
b. One exhalation
c. One inhalation and one exhalation
d. The opening and closing of the valves of the heart
OBJ: 15
57. During exhalation
a. oxygen is taken into the lungs.
b. the diaphragm descends.
c. the lungs expand.
d. carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs.
OBJ: 16
58. Internal respiration is the
a. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood.
b. removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs.
c. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells.
d. measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood.
OBJ: 16
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M
59. The control center for involuntary respiration is the
a. medulla.
b. thalamus.
c. hypothalamus.
d. olfactory lobe.
OBJ: 16
60. The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from
a. 8–16 respirations per minute.
b. 10–18 respirations per minute.
c. 12–20 respirations per minute.
d. 16–22 respirations per minute.
OBJ: 17
61. Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate?
a. Newborn
b. Infant
c. Preschool child
d. Adult

NURSINGTB.COM
OBJ: 17
62. What term is used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of respiration?
a. Tachypnea
b. Hypopnea
c. Orthopnea
d. Bradycardia
OBJ: 19
63. What term is used to describe breathing that is easier in a sitting position?
a. Orthopnea
b. Dyspnea
c. Bradypnea
d. Eupnea
OBJ: 19
64. What type of breathing may occur with a panic attack?
a. Wheezing
b. Bradypnea
c. Hyperventilation
d. Hypoxia
ANS: C REF:
OBJ: 19
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65. What term is used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypopnea
c. Apnea
d. Anoxia
OBJ: 19
66. What term is used to describe a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of oxygen?
a. Cyanosis
b. Hypoxia
c. Apnea
d. Ischemia
OBJ: 19
67. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to have dyspnea?
a. A patient with chronic bronchitis
b. A patient with arthritis

NURSINGTB.COM
c. A patient with emphysema
d. A patient with asthma
OBJ: 20
68. Which of the following conditions is often characterized by hypopnea?
a. Sleep disorders
b. Dehydration
c. Fever
d. Chills
OBJ: 19
69. If a patient’s pulse rate is 80 beats/min, the patient’s respirations would most likely be
a. 14 respirations per minute.
b. 16 respirations per minute.
c. 18 respirations per minute.
d. 20 respirations per minute.
OBJ: 19
70. Pulse oximetry provides the provider with information on
a. the rate and depth of respiration.
b. cardiac dysrhythmias.
c. the amount of oxygen bei
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d. circulation to the extremities.
OBJ: 21
71. The function of hemoglobin is to
a. transport oxygen in the body.
b. defend the body against infection.
c. assist in blood clotting.
d. transport nutrients to the cells.
ANS: A REF: pp. 112-113| I.5| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.7
OBJ: 21
72. The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is
a. SaO2.
b. PCO2.
c. PO2.
d. SpO2.
ANS: D REF: p. 114 | CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10
OBJ: 21
73. The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is

NURSINGTB.COM
a. 95–99%.
b. 90–95%.
c. 85–90%.
d. 75–85%.
OBJ: 22
74. What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood?
a. Apnea
b. Hypoxemia
c. Hypopnea
d. Hypoxia
OBJ: 22
75. Which of the following will not cause a decrease in the SpO2 reading?
a. Pneumonia
b. Asthma
c. Emphysema
d. Gastritis
OBJ: 22
76. The purpose of the power-on self-test (POST) performed by a pulse oximeter is to
a. determine if the battery is
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b. check the internal systems of the oximeter.
c. calculate the patient’s oxygen saturation level.
d. search for the patient’s pulse.
OBJ: 23
77. Proper care of the pulse oximeter includes
a. cleaning the probe with a disinfectant cleaner.
b. autoclaving the probe for 20 minutes.
c. lifting the monitor by the cable.
d. cleaning the monitor with an abrasive cleaner.
e. All of the above
ANS: A REF: p.117| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 24
78. Which of the following does not affect the SpO2 reading?
a. Dark fingernail polish
b. Darkly pigmented skin
c. Bruises
d. Artificial fingernails

NURSINGTB.COM
OBJ: 25
79. Which of the following prevents ambient light from interfering with the SpO2 reading?
a. Cleansing the placement site with an alcohol wipe
b. Warming the probe placement site
c. Covering the probe with a washcloth
d. Proper alignment of the probe on the patient’s finger
OBJ: 25
80. What effect can patient movement have on the pulse oximetry procedure?
a. Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal
b. Causes a decrease in blood flow to the finger
c. Prevents the probe from being aligned properly
d. Causes the photodetector to absorb too much light
OBJ: 25
81. If the patient’s fingers are cold when performing pulse oximetry, the medical assistant
should
a. take the reading on another finger.
b. use a disposable probe to take the reading.
c. cleanse the probe with an antiseptic wipe.
d. ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together.
ANS: D REF:
OBJ: 25
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82. Which of the following is not used as a probe placement site?
a. Toe
b. Earlobe
c. Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied
d. Index finger
OBJ: 25
83. Blood pressure measures
a. the contraction and relaxation of the heart.
b. the number of times the heart beats per minute.
c. the force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood.
d. the expansion and recoiling of the aorta.
OBJ: 26
84. The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the heart relaxes between contractions is known as
a. diastole.
b. systole.

NURSINGTB.COM
c. pulse pressure.
d. baseline recording.
OBJ: 26
85. The systolic blood pressure represents the
a. pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract.
b. pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes.
c. pressure in the arteries when the atria contract.
d. expansion and recoiling of the aorta.
OBJ: 26
86. What term is used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when
assessing blood pressure?
a. Systolic pressure
b. Diastolic pressure
c. Diastole
d. Hypotension
e. Pulse pressure
OBJ: 26
87. Normal blood pressure for an adult is
a. 120/80 mm Hg or higher.NURSINGTB.COM
b. Less than 120/80 mm Hg.
c. 110–140 over 60–90 mm Hg.
d. 70–80 beats/min.
OBJ: 27
88. Blood pressure is measured in
a. units.
b. degrees.
c. beats/min.
d. millimeters of mercury.
OBJ: 27
89. Which of the following BP readings can be classified as hypertension, stage 1?
a. 116/78 mm Hg
b. 120/80 mm Hg
c. 130/88 mm Hg
d. 144/92 mm Hg
e. All of the above

NURSINGTB.COM
OBJ: 28
90. Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing hypertension?
a. Obesity
b. Smoking
c. Sleep apnea
d. Alcohol consumption
OBJ: 28
91. If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient’s pulse pressure would be a.
45.
b. 85.
c. 130.
d. 215.
OBJ: 28
92. Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure?
a. Pain
b. Bladder distention
c. Body position
d. Smoking
e. All of the above
ANS: E REF:
OBJ: 28
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93. What type of cuff would probably be needed to measure blood pressure on an overweight
adult weighing 250 pounds?
a. Small adult
b. Adult
c. Child
d. Thigh
ANS: D REF: pp. 124, 126| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 29
94. Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure?
a. Radial
b. Brachial
c. Apical
d. Carotid
OBJ: 29
95. When measuring blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be positioned
a. above heart level.

NURSINGTB.COM
b. at heart level.
c. across the chest.
d. with the palm facing downward.
ANS: B REF: pp. 123-124, 126| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 29
96. Which of the following indicates that the proper cuff size has been selected?
a. The cuff fits snugly.
b. The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% of the circumference of the arm.
c. The cuff is at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow.
d. The bladder is centered over the antecubital space.
ANS: B REF: pp. 124, 126| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12
OBJ: 29
97. All of the following are advantages of using an automated blood pressure monitor except:
a. The cuff does not have to be manually inflated.
b. The blood pressure measurement is easy to read.
c. Can be used to measure blood pressure in a patient with a dysrhythmia.
d. The brachial artery does not need to be located.
OBJ: 31
98. Which of the following represents an error in (manual) blood pressure technique?
a. Directing the earpieces of the stethoscope slightly forward in the ear
b. Placing the cuff 2 inchesN
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c. Positioning the manometer at a viewing distance of 2 feet
d. Releasing the air in the cuff as slowly as possible
OBJ: 32
99. When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents
a. the systolic pressure.
b. phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.
c. the diastolic pressure.
d. the palpatory blood pressure reading.
ANS: A REF: pp. 126, 130-131| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.7
OBJ: 30
100. When measuring blood pressure, the Korotkoff phase in which the sounds disappear is
a. phase I.
b. phase III.
c. phase IV.
d. phase V.
ANS: D REF: pp. 126, 130-131| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.7
OBJ: 30

NURSINGTB.COM
IF YOU WANT THIS TEST BANK OR SOLUTION
MANUAL EMAIL ME kevinkariuki227@gmail.com TO
RECEIVE ALL CHAPTERS IN PDF FORMAT
IF YOU WANT THIS TEST BANK OR SOLUTION
MANUAL EMAIL ME kevinkariuki227@gmail.com TO
RECEIVE ALL CHAPTERS IN PDF FORMAT

Test bank for clinical procedures for medical assistants 10th edition by bonewit west.pdf

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Test bank for clinical procedures for medical assistants 10th edition by bonewit west.pdf