This document contains a 53 question exam on surgery from the FCPS Part 1 past papers. The questions cover topics like anatomy, physiology, pharmacology and clinical presentations. Some example questions are about the blood supply of the scalp, location of the sinoatrial node, mechanism of action of propylthiouracil, and embryological structure responsible for heart septation.
This document contains 100 multiple choice questions related to medicine. It covers topics like:
- Diagnosis of Sjogren's syndrome based on dry eyes and mouth.
- Smooth and coordinated movement controlled by the basal ganglia.
- Giant cell arteritis as a cause of elderly patient presenting with diplopia, granuloma, and raised blood pressure.
- Zinc being required for cellular oxidation.
- The maxillary artery forming from the first arch.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions and answers related to an MD entrance exam paper. Some key points covered include:
- Question 1 asks about Thromboxane A2 and the correct answer is that it is not secreted by WBC.
- Question 2 presents a scenario of a car accident survivor developing post-traumatic stress disorder.
- Question 3 indicates that neurocysticercosis usually presents with seizure resistant to antiepileptic drugs.
- Question 4 states that free radicals in the brain are detoxified by superoxide dismutase.
- Question 5 suggests atherosclerosis as the likely cause for fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta in an
This document provides answers and explanations for the AIIMS November 2004 exam. It discusses 24 answers provided for the exam, with 2-4 answers noted as either not marked or doubtful. Readers are encouraged to discuss the answers on online forums. Some answers are still pending updates. The document then provides answers for 33 multiple choice questions related to topics in microbiology, pathology, and other medical subjects, with brief explanations for each answer.
1. Octaplas is plasma derived from pooling donations which undergoes pathogen inactivation, filtration, and pooling. This decreases the risk of transfusion complications compared to single donor fresh frozen plasma.
2. Studies show Octaplas causes less damage to the endothelial glycocalyx and reduces bleeding and transfusion requirements compared to fresh frozen plasma in emergency surgeries.
3. Octaplas provides more consistent coagulation factor levels than single donor plasma and its use may decrease the need for additional coagulation factor concentrates like fibrinogen and prothrombin complex concentrate.
This document provides the questions and answers from the AIIMS May 11 paper along with some explanations. It contains 43 multiple choice questions from various subject areas related to medicine. For some questions, the document indicates the answer may be doubtful or missing. It also provides additional context and details for some questions to explain the reasoning behind the correct answers.
This document contains 57 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of various topics in human anatomy, physiology, immunology, microbiology and related medical sciences. The questions cover topics such as cytokines, the adrenal gland in pregnancy, the umbilical cord, vaccines, the urinary system, blood clotting factors, fetal circulation, viruses, prostaglandins, mycobacteria, the vagina, rubella, glucose metabolism, oestrogens, infections, anaesthesia, the adrenal glands, carbon dioxide transport, vitamins, the thyroid, and the anterior pituitary hormones.
Cardiomyopathies are heart diseases caused by primary abnormalities in the myocardium. The main types are dilated, hypertrophic, and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common type and involves the progressive dilation of the heart and systolic dysfunction. Causes can include genetic factors, myocarditis, alcohol toxicity, chemotherapy agents, and pregnancy. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic disease characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle. Restrictive cardiomyopathy impairs diastolic heart function and causes the ventricles to become stiff.
This document contains 26 multiple choice questions about physiology from an exam. It includes questions about the visual pathway, lateral geniculate nucleus, endothelial cells, pacemaker cells of the heart, temperature regulation, blood flow regulation, oxygen levels during exercise, nerve injury, motor neuron lesions, medical terms, hormone functions, alcohol withdrawal symptoms, thiamine deficiency, and more. The questions are from a review of physiology textbook and include the answers and brief explanations.
This document contains 100 multiple choice questions related to medicine. It covers topics like:
- Diagnosis of Sjogren's syndrome based on dry eyes and mouth.
- Smooth and coordinated movement controlled by the basal ganglia.
- Giant cell arteritis as a cause of elderly patient presenting with diplopia, granuloma, and raised blood pressure.
- Zinc being required for cellular oxidation.
- The maxillary artery forming from the first arch.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions and answers related to an MD entrance exam paper. Some key points covered include:
- Question 1 asks about Thromboxane A2 and the correct answer is that it is not secreted by WBC.
- Question 2 presents a scenario of a car accident survivor developing post-traumatic stress disorder.
- Question 3 indicates that neurocysticercosis usually presents with seizure resistant to antiepileptic drugs.
- Question 4 states that free radicals in the brain are detoxified by superoxide dismutase.
- Question 5 suggests atherosclerosis as the likely cause for fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta in an
This document provides answers and explanations for the AIIMS November 2004 exam. It discusses 24 answers provided for the exam, with 2-4 answers noted as either not marked or doubtful. Readers are encouraged to discuss the answers on online forums. Some answers are still pending updates. The document then provides answers for 33 multiple choice questions related to topics in microbiology, pathology, and other medical subjects, with brief explanations for each answer.
1. Octaplas is plasma derived from pooling donations which undergoes pathogen inactivation, filtration, and pooling. This decreases the risk of transfusion complications compared to single donor fresh frozen plasma.
2. Studies show Octaplas causes less damage to the endothelial glycocalyx and reduces bleeding and transfusion requirements compared to fresh frozen plasma in emergency surgeries.
3. Octaplas provides more consistent coagulation factor levels than single donor plasma and its use may decrease the need for additional coagulation factor concentrates like fibrinogen and prothrombin complex concentrate.
This document provides the questions and answers from the AIIMS May 11 paper along with some explanations. It contains 43 multiple choice questions from various subject areas related to medicine. For some questions, the document indicates the answer may be doubtful or missing. It also provides additional context and details for some questions to explain the reasoning behind the correct answers.
This document contains 57 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of various topics in human anatomy, physiology, immunology, microbiology and related medical sciences. The questions cover topics such as cytokines, the adrenal gland in pregnancy, the umbilical cord, vaccines, the urinary system, blood clotting factors, fetal circulation, viruses, prostaglandins, mycobacteria, the vagina, rubella, glucose metabolism, oestrogens, infections, anaesthesia, the adrenal glands, carbon dioxide transport, vitamins, the thyroid, and the anterior pituitary hormones.
Cardiomyopathies are heart diseases caused by primary abnormalities in the myocardium. The main types are dilated, hypertrophic, and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common type and involves the progressive dilation of the heart and systolic dysfunction. Causes can include genetic factors, myocarditis, alcohol toxicity, chemotherapy agents, and pregnancy. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic disease characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle. Restrictive cardiomyopathy impairs diastolic heart function and causes the ventricles to become stiff.
This document contains 26 multiple choice questions about physiology from an exam. It includes questions about the visual pathway, lateral geniculate nucleus, endothelial cells, pacemaker cells of the heart, temperature regulation, blood flow regulation, oxygen levels during exercise, nerve injury, motor neuron lesions, medical terms, hormone functions, alcohol withdrawal symptoms, thiamine deficiency, and more. The questions are from a review of physiology textbook and include the answers and brief explanations.
This document appears to be notes from past papers for an FCPS Part 1 Medicine exam taken by Dr. Faiza Khan in 2012. It contains 125 multiple choice questions from past exams in 2007 and October 2007 related to various topics in medicine including anatomy, physiology, pathology, pharmacology and clinical presentations. The questions cover a wide range of organ systems and diseases.
This document provides definitions for over 140 medical eponyms, or diseases, syndromes, and conditions named after physicians or researchers. It lists the eponym, a brief definition, and in some cases relevant clinical details. Medical students may experience amnesia during exams that prevents remembering these historically named conditions and their discoverers.
This document provides information about a book titled "500 Single Best Answers in Medicine". It lists the authors and their credentials. It also acknowledges the editorial advisor and provides brief information about the publisher and date of publication.
1. The document provides a set of 50 multiple choice questions related to various topics in dentistry. The questions cover subjects like dental anatomy, operative dentistry, endodontics, oral pathology, oral surgery and more.
2. The questions are based on people's memories of past exams and cannot be relied on 100% but provide an idea of topics that may be covered.
3. Answers are not provided for the questions.
High-Yield Internal Medicine Board Review PearlsKnowmedge
This book contains chapters covering High-Yield pearls for all major categories seen on the Internal Medicine Board Exam / Shelf Exam. The chapters were created using the ABIM Internal Medicine Board Exam Blueprint. It is relevant for anyone interested in Internal Medicine information, including those preparing for the NBME Internal Medicine Shelf Exam and the USMLE Step 3 exam.
Topics covered include Cardiovascular Disease, Endocrinology & Metabolism, Gastroenterology, General Internal Medicine, Hematology, Infectious Disease, Nephrology / Urology, Oncology, Neurology, Dermatology, Pulmonary Disease & Critical Care, Rheumatology / Orthopedics
The book also contains 2 bonus chapters on how to study for the ABIM Internal Medicine Exam and the NBME Internal Medicine Shelf Exam.
Internal Medicine Practice Questions for ABIM Exam / NBME Internal Medicine S...Knowmedge
This free study guide contains 50 internal medicine practice questions to help you prepare for the ABIM exam / NBME internal medicine shelf exam.
Topics covered include Cardiovascular Disease, Endocrinology & Metabolism, Gastroenterology, General Internal Medicine, Hematology, Infectious Disease, Nephrology / Urology, Oncology, Neurology, Dermatology, Pulmonary Disease & Critical Care, Rheumatology / Orthopedics
To learn more, visit www.knowmedge.com
The document provides an overview of the endocrine system, including the major endocrine glands and hormones. It discusses the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, adrenal gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes, thymus gland, pineal gland, heart, placenta, and blood. It also reviews the lymphatic system and immune system, including immune cells, antigens, antibodies, and complement. The document covers the structure and function of these systems at a high level through multiple choice questions.
This document provides information about medical exam success, including anatomy questions related to the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis. It begins with an introduction and dedication to the author's mother. It then provides a disclaimer and lists anatomy questions with multiple choice answers. The questions cover topics like digestion, the circulatory system, respiration, and the urinary system. It concludes by noting the booklet can be used to study for various medical exams and competitions.
This document contains 50 multiple choice medical terminology questions covering topics such as anatomy, physiology, pathology, laboratory tests, and medical procedures. The answer key is provided at the end.
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions testing medical terminology knowledge. The questions cover topics such as anatomy, disease processes, medical specialties, procedures, and spelling. Correct answers are provided for each question.
The document contains 90 multiple choice questions about biology. The questions cover topics like cell biology, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, plants, fungi, bacteria and viruses. For each question there are 4 answer options and the correct answers are provided after every 10 questions. The questions test fundamental knowledge of biological concepts and terms.
Download free papers and solutions at www.misostudy.com. NEET 2018 Sample Paper of Biology. For appearing in the competitive exam of the country students need to practice more sample papers and previous papers.
This document contains an anatomy and physiology final exam with multiple choice and matching questions covering topics like blood composition, heart anatomy, kidney function, immune system cells, reproductive system structures and hormones, and the menstrual cycle. It also includes short answer questions requiring calculations and diagrams related to gas exchange, blood pressure regulation, hormone effects, and graphing hormone levels and the menstrual cycle.
endocrine pharmacology. Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones. Thyroid hormones and ant thyroid drugs, Parathormone, Calcitonin and vitamin-D. Insulin, oral hypoglycemic agents and glucagon. ACTH and corticosteroids. Androgens and anabolic steroids. Estrogens, progesterone and oral contraceptives. Drugs acting on the uterus.
Grade 10 multiple choice end of term 2022PhysicsSquad
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of biology topics like cell organelles, energy production in cells, sexual reproduction, plant reproduction, parts of flowers, the menstrual cycle, contraception methods, pregnancy, and hormones. The questions cover definitions and functions of key biological structures and processes.
This document contains a biology test with multiple choice and short answer questions covering various topics related to genetics and heredity.
The multiple choice questions assess knowledge of concepts like dominance, co-dominance, linkage, and types of color blindness. The short answer questions require defining key genetic terms and calculating recombination frequency.
One long answer question asks to describe the developmental process towards maleness and another asks about the risk of color blindness in a family where the father is color-blind and mother is normal.
This 3 sentence summary provides the essential information about the document:
The document is a biology test paper for NEET XI and XII 2019-20 that contains 45 multiple choice questions about botany. Students are instructed to answer all questions within 120 minutes, with each correct answer earning 4 marks and incorrect answers receiving 1 negative mark. The test covers topics like plant reproduction, taxonomy, cell biology, ecology and genetics.
This document contains a final exam for Anatomy and Physiology with multiple choice questions covering various topics from different chapters in the textbook Memmler's - The Human Body in Health and Disease. The exam covers levels of organization in the body, chemistry and cells, tissues, disease, the skin, skeleton, muscles, nervous system, senses, endocrine system, blood, heart, circulation, lymphatic system, respiration, digestion, and metabolism. There are 73 multiple choice questions in total testing knowledge of these body systems and related topics.
The document discusses various aspects of body fluids and circulation in humans. It provides details on the composition of blood and lymph, blood groups, the process of blood clotting, structure and functioning of the heart, and double circulation in humans. Diseases like hypertension can occur due to abnormalities in blood circulation. The heart has four chambers with valves to regulate blood flow. Blood flows separately oxygenated and deoxygenated in humans through pulmonary and systemic circulation.
This document contains a 35 question quiz on anatomy and physiology. It covers topics like the respiratory system, cardiovascular system, nervous system, endocrine system, and reproductive system. For each question, there are 4 multiple choice answer options to choose from. The questions test knowledge of topics such as the parts of the nose, lungs, heart, brain, and male and female reproductive systems.
The document discusses endocrine histology and physiology. It contains multiple choice questions about the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, adrenal glands, pancreas, and pineal gland. Key points covered include the roles of the hypothalamus and pituitary in regulating other endocrine glands via releasing hormones, the development and functions of endocrine organs, and hormone production and actions.
This document appears to be notes from past papers for an FCPS Part 1 Medicine exam taken by Dr. Faiza Khan in 2012. It contains 125 multiple choice questions from past exams in 2007 and October 2007 related to various topics in medicine including anatomy, physiology, pathology, pharmacology and clinical presentations. The questions cover a wide range of organ systems and diseases.
This document provides definitions for over 140 medical eponyms, or diseases, syndromes, and conditions named after physicians or researchers. It lists the eponym, a brief definition, and in some cases relevant clinical details. Medical students may experience amnesia during exams that prevents remembering these historically named conditions and their discoverers.
This document provides information about a book titled "500 Single Best Answers in Medicine". It lists the authors and their credentials. It also acknowledges the editorial advisor and provides brief information about the publisher and date of publication.
1. The document provides a set of 50 multiple choice questions related to various topics in dentistry. The questions cover subjects like dental anatomy, operative dentistry, endodontics, oral pathology, oral surgery and more.
2. The questions are based on people's memories of past exams and cannot be relied on 100% but provide an idea of topics that may be covered.
3. Answers are not provided for the questions.
High-Yield Internal Medicine Board Review PearlsKnowmedge
This book contains chapters covering High-Yield pearls for all major categories seen on the Internal Medicine Board Exam / Shelf Exam. The chapters were created using the ABIM Internal Medicine Board Exam Blueprint. It is relevant for anyone interested in Internal Medicine information, including those preparing for the NBME Internal Medicine Shelf Exam and the USMLE Step 3 exam.
Topics covered include Cardiovascular Disease, Endocrinology & Metabolism, Gastroenterology, General Internal Medicine, Hematology, Infectious Disease, Nephrology / Urology, Oncology, Neurology, Dermatology, Pulmonary Disease & Critical Care, Rheumatology / Orthopedics
The book also contains 2 bonus chapters on how to study for the ABIM Internal Medicine Exam and the NBME Internal Medicine Shelf Exam.
Internal Medicine Practice Questions for ABIM Exam / NBME Internal Medicine S...Knowmedge
This free study guide contains 50 internal medicine practice questions to help you prepare for the ABIM exam / NBME internal medicine shelf exam.
Topics covered include Cardiovascular Disease, Endocrinology & Metabolism, Gastroenterology, General Internal Medicine, Hematology, Infectious Disease, Nephrology / Urology, Oncology, Neurology, Dermatology, Pulmonary Disease & Critical Care, Rheumatology / Orthopedics
To learn more, visit www.knowmedge.com
The document provides an overview of the endocrine system, including the major endocrine glands and hormones. It discusses the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, adrenal gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes, thymus gland, pineal gland, heart, placenta, and blood. It also reviews the lymphatic system and immune system, including immune cells, antigens, antibodies, and complement. The document covers the structure and function of these systems at a high level through multiple choice questions.
This document provides information about medical exam success, including anatomy questions related to the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis. It begins with an introduction and dedication to the author's mother. It then provides a disclaimer and lists anatomy questions with multiple choice answers. The questions cover topics like digestion, the circulatory system, respiration, and the urinary system. It concludes by noting the booklet can be used to study for various medical exams and competitions.
This document contains 50 multiple choice medical terminology questions covering topics such as anatomy, physiology, pathology, laboratory tests, and medical procedures. The answer key is provided at the end.
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions testing medical terminology knowledge. The questions cover topics such as anatomy, disease processes, medical specialties, procedures, and spelling. Correct answers are provided for each question.
The document contains 90 multiple choice questions about biology. The questions cover topics like cell biology, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, plants, fungi, bacteria and viruses. For each question there are 4 answer options and the correct answers are provided after every 10 questions. The questions test fundamental knowledge of biological concepts and terms.
Download free papers and solutions at www.misostudy.com. NEET 2018 Sample Paper of Biology. For appearing in the competitive exam of the country students need to practice more sample papers and previous papers.
This document contains an anatomy and physiology final exam with multiple choice and matching questions covering topics like blood composition, heart anatomy, kidney function, immune system cells, reproductive system structures and hormones, and the menstrual cycle. It also includes short answer questions requiring calculations and diagrams related to gas exchange, blood pressure regulation, hormone effects, and graphing hormone levels and the menstrual cycle.
endocrine pharmacology. Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones. Thyroid hormones and ant thyroid drugs, Parathormone, Calcitonin and vitamin-D. Insulin, oral hypoglycemic agents and glucagon. ACTH and corticosteroids. Androgens and anabolic steroids. Estrogens, progesterone and oral contraceptives. Drugs acting on the uterus.
Grade 10 multiple choice end of term 2022PhysicsSquad
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of biology topics like cell organelles, energy production in cells, sexual reproduction, plant reproduction, parts of flowers, the menstrual cycle, contraception methods, pregnancy, and hormones. The questions cover definitions and functions of key biological structures and processes.
This document contains a biology test with multiple choice and short answer questions covering various topics related to genetics and heredity.
The multiple choice questions assess knowledge of concepts like dominance, co-dominance, linkage, and types of color blindness. The short answer questions require defining key genetic terms and calculating recombination frequency.
One long answer question asks to describe the developmental process towards maleness and another asks about the risk of color blindness in a family where the father is color-blind and mother is normal.
This 3 sentence summary provides the essential information about the document:
The document is a biology test paper for NEET XI and XII 2019-20 that contains 45 multiple choice questions about botany. Students are instructed to answer all questions within 120 minutes, with each correct answer earning 4 marks and incorrect answers receiving 1 negative mark. The test covers topics like plant reproduction, taxonomy, cell biology, ecology and genetics.
This document contains a final exam for Anatomy and Physiology with multiple choice questions covering various topics from different chapters in the textbook Memmler's - The Human Body in Health and Disease. The exam covers levels of organization in the body, chemistry and cells, tissues, disease, the skin, skeleton, muscles, nervous system, senses, endocrine system, blood, heart, circulation, lymphatic system, respiration, digestion, and metabolism. There are 73 multiple choice questions in total testing knowledge of these body systems and related topics.
The document discusses various aspects of body fluids and circulation in humans. It provides details on the composition of blood and lymph, blood groups, the process of blood clotting, structure and functioning of the heart, and double circulation in humans. Diseases like hypertension can occur due to abnormalities in blood circulation. The heart has four chambers with valves to regulate blood flow. Blood flows separately oxygenated and deoxygenated in humans through pulmonary and systemic circulation.
This document contains a 35 question quiz on anatomy and physiology. It covers topics like the respiratory system, cardiovascular system, nervous system, endocrine system, and reproductive system. For each question, there are 4 multiple choice answer options to choose from. The questions test knowledge of topics such as the parts of the nose, lungs, heart, brain, and male and female reproductive systems.
The document discusses endocrine histology and physiology. It contains multiple choice questions about the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, adrenal glands, pancreas, and pineal gland. Key points covered include the roles of the hypothalamus and pituitary in regulating other endocrine glands via releasing hormones, the development and functions of endocrine organs, and hormone production and actions.
The document contains 90 multiple choice questions related to human anatomy and physiology. It covers topics like growth hormone, the female reproductive system, thyroid gland, pancreas, adrenal glands, male reproductive system, and more. Each question has 4 answer options to choose from.
Biochemistry Questions pool with Answer Key.docxjazzytaowtaow420
This document contains 90 multiple choice questions related to biochemistry. The questions cover topics like: enzymes and metabolic pathways, carbohydrate structure and classification, properties of sugars and polysaccharides, and carbohydrate tests. The questions are designed to assess understanding of key biochemical concepts and reactions involving carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, and minerals.
This document contains a 50 question multiple choice quiz on various topics in pathophysiology. The questions cover reactive oxygen species, leukocyte migration, enzymes in different immune cells, hormones like erythropoietin and glucagon, vitamin deficiencies like B12 and intrinsic factor, increases in cell numbers, microvascular complications of diabetes, thyroid hormone levels, lipid contents, infectious diseases, gastrointestinal conditions, blood pressure regulation, cardiac output, bone and calcium disorders, blood vessel locations, kidney function tests, and features of heart failure. The student, Ishika Choudhary, appears to be studying for an exam or assessment on general pathophysiology.
This document contains 41 multiple choice questions about endocrinology and animal behavior. The questions cover topics like types of animal behaviors (instinct, learning, etc.), concepts in endocrinology like hormones and glands, and behaviors in animals like communication, parental care, and foraging. The questions are designed to test understanding of key concepts and terminology in endocrinology and how hormones influence animal behaviors.
Pondicherry university 2010 m.sc. applied psychology entrance exam question p...LAKSHMANAN S
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This document provides an overview of key terminology and concepts in pathology and pathophysiology. It defines pathology as the study of changes in tissues and organs caused by disease. The main types of pathology are anatomical, clinical, and molecular. Pathophysiology refers to abnormal physiological processes associated with disease. Key concepts discussed include etiology, pathogenesis, prognosis, diagnosis, acute vs. chronic conditions, infectious vs. non-infectious causes, and the signs and symptoms of disease. The document also covers topics such as cell injury, adaptation, and necrosis, as well as the vascular and cellular events of acute inflammation.
General medicine health assistant syllabus 2010sarosem
The curriculum document outlines the course structure and requirements for a Certificate in General Medicine program over three years. The second year includes courses in Medicine I, Surgery I, Clinical Pathology, Obstetrics/Gynecology, Pharmacology, Environmental Health, and other subjects. For Medicine I specifically, the document details that the course involves an in-depth presentation on diagnostic processes, history taking, and physical examination. It then covers selected conditions and disorders of internal systems as well as common communicable diseases in Nepal. The course objectives are to enable students to perform examinations and analyses, identify conditions, describe management and counseling, and identify opportunities for prevention and referral.
The document provides information on basic human anatomy:
1. It discusses the structure of the human body and defines anatomy as the study of the body's structure.
2. It explains that the body is organized from cells to tissues to organs to organ systems to the overall organism.
3. It lists 11 major human organ systems including the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, circulatory, lymphatic, and respiratory systems.
This document discusses drugs that act on the skin. It begins by providing facts about the skin, noting it is the largest organ and has important protective and regulatory functions. It describes the three layers of the skin and routes of administration for topical drugs. It then discusses various topical drug formulations like ointments, creams, lotions, pastes, powders, and sunscreens. It provides examples of common topical antibacterial, antifungal, and antiviral drugs. It also discusses the mechanisms and uses of various antiseptics and disinfectants used on the skin.
1) Bone and joint infections are difficult to treat due to bacterial adhesion and biofilm formation on implants which impairs the host immune response. Clindamycin inhibits bacterial adhesion and penetrates biofilms.
2) Clindamycin is effective against common orthopedic pathogens like Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species. It remains active against antibiotic-resistant strains like MRSA.
3) Clindamycin reduces osteolysis and is bactericidal against intracellular bacteria that evade other antibiotics, helping treat chronic and relapsing infections.
Drugs for Gout and RA can be categorized into drugs for acute or chronic conditions. For acute gout, NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids are used. For chronic gout, uricosurics like probenecid or allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, are used. RA is treated with DMARDs including methotrexate and sulfasalazine which are immunosuppressants; hydroxychloroquine; leflunomide; or TNF-α inhibitors like etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab. The goals of RA treatment are to reduce pain, swelling, and joint damage while preserving function.
This document discusses drugs used to treat intestinal infections caused by protozoa and helminths. It describes anti-giardiasis and anti-amebiasis drugs like metronidazole and tinidazole that kill protozoa. It also discusses antihelmintic drugs that kill or expel parasitic worms, including albendazole for nematodes, praziquantel for trematodes, and albendazole or niclosamide for cestodes. The document provides details on the mechanisms of action, dosages, side effects and cautions for these drugs used to treat protozoal and helminthic infections.
1. The document discusses various drugs used in musculoskeletal system including prostaglandins, NSAIDs, and paracetamol.
2. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds derived from arachidonic acid that have hormone-like effects. NSAIDs like aspirin, ibuprofen, and diclofenac work by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
3. The document describes the mechanisms of action, uses, doses, side effects and toxicity of common NSAIDs and paracetamol. NSAIDs are used for their anti-inflammatory, analgesic and antipyretic effects while paracetamol is primarily used for its analgesic and antipyretic properties.
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, an acid-fast bacillus. Treatment involves multidrug therapy with first-line drugs like isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol over 6-24 months to prevent drug resistance. Second-line drugs are used in special cases but have higher toxicity. Standard WHO treatment schedules involve an intensive initial phase with multiple drugs followed by a continuation phase with fewer drugs to fully treat both intracellular and extracellular bacteria. Adverse effects from these anti-tubercular drugs require monitoring.
The document discusses drugs used to treat cardiovascular conditions. It covers antihypertensive drugs including diuretics, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, and ARBs. It also discusses drugs for angina pectoris and myocardial infarction, including antiplatelets, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, nitroglycerin, and ACE inhibitors. Finally, it addresses antiarrhythmic drugs and the mechanisms of different types of arrhythmias.
This document discusses drugs used for treating shock. It describes different types of shock including hypovolemic, septic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic shock. It then discusses three categories of drugs used to treat shock: vasoconstrictors like epinephrine and norepinephrine which increase blood pressure, cardio tonic drugs like digoxin, dobutamine, and dopamine which increase heart function, and fluid replacement agents like blood, colloids, and crystalloids which replace lost fluids. Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction, increases heart rate and output, and dilates airways. Norepinephrine also causes vasoconstriction. Digoxin increases heart contraction force while
Drugs used in gastrointestinal system for PCLsarosem
This document discusses drugs used in the gastrointestinal system including antiemetics, antidiarrheals, laxatives, and drugs that reduce gastric acid. It provides details on common drugs in each category such as metoclopramide and ondansetron for antiemetics, loperamide for antidiarrheals, and proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole for gastric acid reduction. Nursing considerations are also outlined for the administration and monitoring of these gastrointestinal drugs.
Introduction to pharmacology for PCL Nursingsarosem
This document provides an introduction to pharmacology. It discusses key topics including branches of pharmacology such as pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and pharmacotherapeutics. Pharmacokinetics refers to what the body does to drugs and includes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Pharmacodynamics is what drugs do to the body and how they produce their effects. Pharmacotherapeutics is the use of drugs to treat diseases. The document also covers drug terminology, sources and names of drugs, routes of drug administration, factors affecting drug response, and common pharmaceutical dosage forms.
The document discusses drugs used in the gastrointestinal system. It covers antiemetics, antidiarrheal drugs, laxatives, gastric acid reducers like antacids, PPIs, and H2 antagonists. It describes the physiology of gastric acid secretion and factors that stimulate or inhibit it. Conditions like hyperacidity, gastritis, and GERD are discussed along with their treatment approaches. The roles of H. pylori and various drug classes in peptic ulcer disease are also summarized.
1. Chemotherapy involves using chemicals to treat diseases by killing cells or microorganisms like cancer cells or bacteria. Antibiotics are a type of chemotherapy used to treat infections caused by microorganisms.
2. When selecting antimicrobial drugs, factors considered include the cost, safety, toxicity, and targeting the specific microorganism. The dose, duration, and route of administration are chosen to achieve the minimum inhibitory concentration needed.
3. Adverse effects of antimicrobial agents include toxicity, hypersensitivity reactions, drug resistance, superinfections, and nutritional deficiencies. Proper use and completing treatment helps prevent these issues.
This document provides information about palliative care including:
- Palliative care aims to improve quality of life for patients with serious illnesses through relief of symptoms like pain and psychosocial support.
- It originated in the United States in 1985 and was introduced in Nepal in 1991, growing to include several hospitals and organizations by the 2000s.
- Palliative care focuses on whole person care from diagnosis until end of life, while hospice care specifically serves patients with less than 6 months to live.
- An interdisciplinary team approach is used to address physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs of patients and their families.
The document discusses inflammation and repair. It defines inflammation as a protective vascular connective tissue reaction called to injurious stimuli. There are five cardinal signs of acute inflammation: redness, swelling, heat, pain, and loss of function. Acute inflammation is characterized by fluid and protein accumulation and neutrophil infiltration, while chronic inflammation involves lymphocytes and macrophages. The vascular and cellular events of acute inflammation include increased blood flow, vascular permeability, exudation of fluid and cells, and chemotaxis of leukocytes toward the site of injury or infection.
This document discusses the various medico-legal duties and responsibilities of doctors. It covers obtaining consent, duties in cases of suspected poisoning, criminal abortion, negligence, and postmortem examinations. It also discusses legal issues around medical practice, including civil tort law and medical council regulations. The document provides guidance on protocols for police cases, rape examinations, and forms for medical examinations of victims and accused persons.
How to Setup Warehouse & Location in Odoo 17 InventoryCeline George
In this slide, we'll explore how to set up warehouses and locations in Odoo 17 Inventory. This will help us manage our stock effectively, track inventory levels, and streamline warehouse operations.
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
The simplified electron and muon model, Oscillating Spacetime: The Foundation...RitikBhardwaj56
Discover the Simplified Electron and Muon Model: A New Wave-Based Approach to Understanding Particles delves into a groundbreaking theory that presents electrons and muons as rotating soliton waves within oscillating spacetime. Geared towards students, researchers, and science buffs, this book breaks down complex ideas into simple explanations. It covers topics such as electron waves, temporal dynamics, and the implications of this model on particle physics. With clear illustrations and easy-to-follow explanations, readers will gain a new outlook on the universe's fundamental nature.
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdfTechSoup
"Learn about all the ways Walmart supports nonprofit organizations.
You will hear from Liz Willett, the Head of Nonprofits, and hear about what Walmart is doing to help nonprofits, including Walmart Business and Spark Good. Walmart Business+ is a new offer for nonprofits that offers discounts and also streamlines nonprofits order and expense tracking, saving time and money.
The webinar may also give some examples on how nonprofits can best leverage Walmart Business+.
The event will cover the following::
Walmart Business + (https://business.walmart.com/plus) is a new shopping experience for nonprofits, schools, and local business customers that connects an exclusive online shopping experience to stores. Benefits include free delivery and shipping, a 'Spend Analytics” feature, special discounts, deals and tax-exempt shopping.
Special TechSoup offer for a free 180 days membership, and up to $150 in discounts on eligible orders.
Spark Good (walmart.com/sparkgood) is a charitable platform that enables nonprofits to receive donations directly from customers and associates.
Answers about how you can do more with Walmart!"
ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 42001, and GDPR: Best Practices for Implementation and...PECB
Denis is a dynamic and results-driven Chief Information Officer (CIO) with a distinguished career spanning information systems analysis and technical project management. With a proven track record of spearheading the design and delivery of cutting-edge Information Management solutions, he has consistently elevated business operations, streamlined reporting functions, and maximized process efficiency.
Certified as an ISO/IEC 27001: Information Security Management Systems (ISMS) Lead Implementer, Data Protection Officer, and Cyber Risks Analyst, Denis brings a heightened focus on data security, privacy, and cyber resilience to every endeavor.
His expertise extends across a diverse spectrum of reporting, database, and web development applications, underpinned by an exceptional grasp of data storage and virtualization technologies. His proficiency in application testing, database administration, and data cleansing ensures seamless execution of complex projects.
What sets Denis apart is his comprehensive understanding of Business and Systems Analysis technologies, honed through involvement in all phases of the Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC). From meticulous requirements gathering to precise analysis, innovative design, rigorous development, thorough testing, and successful implementation, he has consistently delivered exceptional results.
Throughout his career, he has taken on multifaceted roles, from leading technical project management teams to owning solutions that drive operational excellence. His conscientious and proactive approach is unwavering, whether he is working independently or collaboratively within a team. His ability to connect with colleagues on a personal level underscores his commitment to fostering a harmonious and productive workplace environment.
Date: May 29, 2024
Tags: Information Security, ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 42001, Artificial Intelligence, GDPR
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Find out more about ISO training and certification services
Training: ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management System - EN | PECB
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বাংলাদেশের অর্থনৈতিক সমীক্ষা ২০২৪ [Bangladesh Economic Review 2024 Bangla.pdf] কম্পিউটার , ট্যাব ও স্মার্ট ফোন ভার্সন সহ সম্পূর্ণ বাংলা ই-বুক বা pdf বই " সুচিপত্র ...বুকমার্ক মেনু 🔖 ও হাইপার লিংক মেনু 📝👆 যুক্ত ..
আমাদের সবার জন্য খুব খুব গুরুত্বপূর্ণ একটি বই ..বিসিএস, ব্যাংক, ইউনিভার্সিটি ভর্তি ও যে কোন প্রতিযোগিতা মূলক পরীক্ষার জন্য এর খুব ইম্পরট্যান্ট একটি বিষয় ...তাছাড়া বাংলাদেশের সাম্প্রতিক যে কোন ডাটা বা তথ্য এই বইতে পাবেন ...
তাই একজন নাগরিক হিসাবে এই তথ্য গুলো আপনার জানা প্রয়োজন ...।
বিসিএস ও ব্যাংক এর লিখিত পরীক্ষা ...+এছাড়া মাধ্যমিক ও উচ্চমাধ্যমিকের স্টুডেন্টদের জন্য অনেক কাজে আসবে ...
How to Add Chatter in the odoo 17 ERP ModuleCeline George
In Odoo, the chatter is like a chat tool that helps you work together on records. You can leave notes and track things, making it easier to talk with your team and partners. Inside chatter, all communication history, activity, and changes will be displayed.
This presentation includes basic of PCOS their pathology and treatment and also Ayurveda correlation of PCOS and Ayurvedic line of treatment mentioned in classics.
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1. Which artery does not form the blood supply of SCAPL
(A) Maxillary
(B) Superficial Temporal
(C) Occipital
(D) Supratrochlear
(E) Supraorbital
2. Location of Sinoatrial node
(A) Auricle
(B) Superior portion of sulcus terminalis
(C) Inferior part of crista terminalis
(D) Interatrial septum
(E) Tricuspid valve
3. Mechanism of action of Propyl Thio Uracil (PTU), antithyroid drug
(A) Inhibits iodide pump
(B) Blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormone
(C) Blocks the synthesis of thyroglobulin
(D) Inhibits hormone release
(E) Controls hypothalamic temperature set point
4. The most important embryological structure regarding the formation of heart, responsible for
separating the aorta and pulmonary artery and also for the division of various heart chambers is,
(A) Conus septum
(B) Endocardial cushion
(C) Aorticopulmonary septum
(D) Bulbous cordis
(E) Aortic vestibule
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5. A person after the thorn prick presents in the emergency with the localized abscess of left leg. The
organism responsible for abscess most likely is
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) E. coli
(D) Streptococcus pyogenes
(E) Staphylococcus epidermidis
6. A person has weakness in adduction and medial rotation of arm. Muscle which can perform these
actions is most likely
(A) Teres major
(B) Teres minor
(C) Supraspinatous
(D) Subscapularis
(E) Latissimus dorsi
7. Pre-ganglionic autonomic neurons contain which type of fibers
(A) A alpha
(B) A beta
(C) A delta
(D) Beta
(E) C fibers
8. Which statement regarding medulla oblongata is correct
(A) Olives are situated most medially
(B) Upper portion of medulla has relation with fourth ventricle posteriorly
(C) Located between pons and cerebellum
(D) Pyramids cross above medulla
(E) None of them is correct
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9. Zinc is important as essential element in
(A) Carbonic anhydrase
(B) Cellular oxidation
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Glycogenolysis
(E) Ketogenesis
10. Drug of choice for Gas gangrene
(A) Ciprofloxacin
(B) Penicillin
(C) Aminoglycosides
(D) Cefhalosporins
(E) Macrolides
11. Which of the following is nucleotide
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Adenosine
(D) Ribose 5 Phosphate
(E) Inosine
12. The slowest developing carcinoma of thyroid is
(A) Papillary
(B) Follicular
(C) Anaplastic
(D) Medullary
(E) Lymphoma
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13. The structure most likely to be damaged while making incision on Mc Burney point
(A) Ilioinguinal nerve
(B) Genitofemoral nerve
(C) Iliohypogastric nerve
(D) Deep circumflex femoral artery
(E) None of them
14. Diphtheria toxin has most serious effect on
(A) Nerves
(B) Heart
(C) Vessels
(D) Throat
(E) None
15. Which one of the following tissues is not found in teratoma
(A) Muscle
(B) Salivary gland
(C) Fat
(D) Teeth
(E) Hair
16. A 32 year old man presents in the emergency with the bleeding from the left lower lip. At which site
you will compress the face to stop bleeding
(A) Angle of left side of mouth
(B) Angles of both sides of mouth
(C) Below the left lower lip
(D) Over the left chin
(E) None of the above
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17. After amputation, a patient presents to you with a painful firm nodule over his left leg. On biopsy
nerve cells are seen to be arranged in haphazard manner. Your diagnosis is
(A) Ganglion
(B) Neuroma
(C) Ganglioneuroma
(D) Ganglioma
(E) Neurofibroma
18. During forced expiration, the most likely statement regarding the physiology of respiratory system
(A) Bronchi collapse during expiration
(B) There is dynamic collapse of respiratory bronchioles due to thin walls
(C) The volume after forced expiration is called tidal volume
(D) Vital capacity is the sum of inspiratory plus expiratory reserve volumes
(E) None of the above is correct
19. Radiations usually cause cancer after
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 5- 10 years
(E) More than 10 years
20. During the late stages of pregnancy the maternal blood passes to the fetus via the following
(A) Syncytiotrophoblasts only
(B) Cyto trophoblasts only
(C) Fetal endothelium
(D) Fetal endothelium + Cyto trophoblasts
(E) Syncytiotrophoblasts and Cyto trophoblasts
21. Earthquake is
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(A) Social crisis
(B) Situational crisis
(C) Emotional crisis
(D) Developmental crisis
(E) None of them
22. The hormone responsible for the brain development in fetal life
(A) Thyroid hormone
(B) Growth hormone
(C) ACTH
(D) Prolactin
(E) TSH
23. The differentiating feature of Kwashiorkor from Marasmus
(A) Muscle wasting is not present
(B) Pitting edema
(C) Fat loss
(D) None of them
24. Which is true regarding Resting Membrane Potential
(A) Depends upon equilibrium potential of K+
(B) Depends upon equilibrium potential of Na+
(C) Is achieved after thresh hold potential
(D) Is zero in most cases
(E) None of them is correct
25. Lipoproteins synthesized by the liver are poured first into which structure
(A) Biliary canaliculi
(B) Space of Diss
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(C) Portan vein
(D) Hepatic sinusoids
(E) Hepatocytes
26. Urorectal septum divides cloaca into
(A) Anus and urinary bladder
(B) Anorectal canal and urogenital sinus
(C) Urachus and bladder
(D) Cloaca and bladder
(E) Rectum and anal canal
27. During the first minute of apnea the PCO2 raises up to
(A) 10 mmHg
(B) 12 mmHg
(C) 8 mmHg
(D) 4 mmHg
(E) 2 mmHg
28. Total number of vascular segments of kidney
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
29. A vessel is called arteriole when its size approaches
(A) 0.3 mm and just visible with the naked eye
(B) 0.5- 1.0 mm
(C) 1.0-2.0 mm
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(D) 3.0-5.0 mm
(E) None of them
30. Which substance is released from sympathetic pre-synaptic neurons mainly
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Nor epinephrine
(D) Dopamine
31. Post ganglionic sympathetic neurons are present in
(A) Thoracic spinal nerves
(B) Lumbar spinal nerves
(C) Cervical spinal nerves
(D) Lumbar spinal nerves
(E) Every spinal nerve
32. Which statement regarding CSF is correct
(A) Has cushion like effect
(B) Produced in blood brain barrier
(C) Absorbed in ventricles
(D) Derived from lymph
(E) None is correct
33. Which cell is not present in CNS
(A) Astrocyte
(B) Oligodandrocyte
(C) Schwann cell
(D) Neuroglial cell
(E) Microglia
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34. The lymphatic drainage from the upper and outer most quadrant is first to
(A) Central axillary
(B) Lateral axillary
(C) Medial axillary
(D) Apical axillary
(E) Posterior axillary
35. The substance which will cross blood brain barrier first
(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) O2
(D) Blood
(E) None of them
36. Actinomycosis does not produce infection in
(A) Brain
(B) Bone
(C) Skin
(D) Sinus
(E) Soft tissue
37. Most common site of Anthrax infection
(A) Lung
(B) Skin
(C) Liver
(D) Intestine
(E) Nose
38. Buerger’s disease has the most important feature of
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(A) Occurs in old age
(B) Common is smokers
(C) Associated with flaccid paralysis
(D) Also called thrombophlebitis obliterans
(E) A and B
39. The most common vascular mediator of acute inflammation
(A) Prostaglandin (PGI2)
(B) serotonin
(C) Substance P
(D) Lipoxins
(E) None of them
40. Correct statement regarding Frequency distribution
(A) Gives percentages of values
(B) Has importance only in demography
(C) Mean can be expressed with this
(D) Limited to a specific value
(E) All are true
41. The most sensitive indicator of diabetic nephropathy
(A) Albuminuria
(B) Raised BUN
(C) Glycosuria
(D) Hematuria
(E) Kenoneuria
42. Source of creatinine
(A) Fat
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(B) Muscle
(C) Spleen
(D) Liver
(E) kidney
43. The most important clinical feature of pure water intoxication
(A) Edema
(B) Engorged neck vein
(C) Thirst
(D) Alert behavior
(E) Slow pulse
44. In a patient of pure water depletion , the fluid most likely to be administered
(A) Normal saline
(B) 5% Dextrose water
(C) Hypotonic saline
(D) Hypertonic saline
(E) 5% Dextrose saline
45. Slow pain is not transmitted via
(A) Lateral laminiscus
(B) Dorsal column
(C) Spinal cord fibers
(D) Substance P
(E) Any of them
46. A lady after surgery presents in the ward with the swollen legs bilaterally. DVT is suspected. The
pathology is
(A) Endothelial injury
(B) Endothelial injury + Blood stasis
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(C) Blood stasis
(D) Coagulopathy + Blood stasis
(E) Coagulopathy
47. The muscle forming the inferior relation with hip joint
(A) Piriformis
(B) Obturator exturnus
(C) Obturator internus
(D) Gemmilus inferior
(E) Quadratous femoris
48. Triglycerides are maximum in
(A) VLDL
(B) LDL
(C) Chylomicron
(D) HDL
(E) IDL
49. Anterior choroidal artery is branch of
(A) External carotid artery
(B) Internal carotid artery
(C) Anterior cerebral artery
(D) Middle cerebral artery
(E) Anterior communicating artery
50. Standard deviation means
(A) Difference of mean
(B) Difference of each value from mean
(C) Percentage of each value
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(D) Standard error minus mean
(E) Standard error minus median
51. The structure pass just posterior to the medial mellolus
(A) Posterior tibial artery
(B) Tibial nerve
(C) Tibialis posterior
(D) Flexor hallucis longus
52. Which part of brachial plexus is found on the borders of axilla
(A) Roots
(B) Divisions
(C) Cords
(D) Trunks
(E) Suprascapular nerve
53. Which is correct regarding parathyroid gland
(A) Superior parathyroid gland is supplied via superior thyroid artery
(B) Inferior parathyroid gland is supplied via superior thyroid artery
(C) Thymus develops with superior parathyroid gland
(D) Thymus develops with inferior parathyroid gland
(E) A and D
54. Parathyroid hormone may increase during pregnancy. Pick the correct mechanism
(A) Low levels of free serum calcium level
(B) Effect of estrogen in pregnancy
(C) Hypomagnesaemia
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
(E) May be any of them
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55. Patient presents with hematuria and hemoptysis, the likelt diagnosis is
(A) Good pasture syndrome
(B) Lung abscess
(C) Nephrotic syndrome
(D) Wegener granuloma
(E) None of them
56. Regarding stomach the correct statement is
(A) It’s the most dilated part of GIT
(B) Its volume is 1 liter
(C) Is a retroperitoneal organ
(D) Supplied mainly via superior pancreaticoduodinal artery
(E) All of them are correct
57. Least likely statement regarding cardiogenic shock
(A) Hypovolemia
(B) Decreased cardiac contractility
(C) Decrease stroke volume
(D) Increase in HR
(E) Decrease BP
58. If the movement of glucose molecule across a membrane is dependent on concentration gradient,
it’s an example of
(A) Facilitated diffusion
(B) Primary active transport
(C) Secondary active transport
(D) Simple diffusion
59. A child comes in the emergency with cough and respiratory obstruction. Emergency tracheostomy is
planned. You will confirm the diagnosis with
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(A) Blood culture
(B) Throat culture
(C) Urine culture
(D) Complete blood count
(E) All of them
60. Mechanism of action of aspirin
(A) Aggravates thromboxanes
(B) Activates platelets
(C) Stabilizes the vascular endothelium
(D) Irreversibly blocks COX
(E) All of them
61. Which is correct statement regarding the anaesthetic agents
(A) Thiopental decreases heart rate
(B) Ketamine is bronchodilator
(C) Thiopental increases heart rate
(D) Halothane is safe in CLD
(E) None of the iscorrect
62. Dependence does not develop to which one of the followings effects of opoids
(A) Pupillary constriction
(B) Pupillary dilatation
(C) Effect on CVS
(D) Respiratory depression
(E) Both C and D
63. Which is true regarding esophageal opening in diaphragm
(A) Located at T8 vertebral level
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(B) Present in the left crus of diaphragm with a sling from right sided crus
(C) Transmits right phrenic nerve
(D) Present in right crus
(E) Can act as a sphincter
64. Which is example of secondary cartilaginous joint
(A) Inferior tibio fibular joint
(B) Costochondral joint
(C) Radio ulnar joint
(D) Pubic symphysis
(E) None of them
65. Lumbar puncture is done at which level
(A) L2- L3
(B) L4-L5
(C) S1-S2
(D) L5-S1
66. Which is correct statement regarding CSF picture in bacterial meningitis
(A) Protein count remains near normal
(B) Sugar is elevated
(C) Sugar count remains normal
(D) Neutrophils are the main cells visible
(E) None of them
67. GFR decreases as the result of
(A) Constriction of efferent arteriole
(B) Constriction of afferent arteriole
(C) Dilatation of afferent arteriole
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(D) All of them
(E) None of them
68. Which structure doesn’t form the anterior relation of left kidney
(A) Stomach
(B) Spleen
(C) Rib
(D) Pancrease
(E) Colic flexure
69. Correct statement regarding Oogenesis
(A) First meiotic division starts during fetal life
(B) Graffian follicle contains primary oocyte
(C) Secondary meiotic division completes just before fertilization
(D) Adult ovary has columnar epithelium
(E) None of them is true
70. Vitamin K deficiency increases
(A) PT
(B) APTT
(C) Both
(D) None
(E) Platelet counr
71. Prothrombin times increases in all except
(A) Aspirin toxicity
(B) Functional platelets defect
(C) HS purpura
(D) None of them
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(E) All of them
72. An old lady presents to your office with three month history of pallor, increased respiratory rate,
mild to moderate edema. On investigations, creatinine is 3.8 mg/dl, urea is 180 mg/dl and Hb is 7.3 g/dl.
The most likely cause in your opinion
(A) Acute renal failure
(B) CCF
(C) Erythropoietin deficiency
(D) Nephritic syndrome
(E) None of them
73. A child after valvular surgery presents with mucosal bleeding. His Hb is 6.8 mg/dl. The most likely
diagnosis is
(A) Idiopathic
(B) Trauma
(C) Purpura
(D) Thrombocytopenia
(E) Hypersensitivity
74. Most important diagnostic feature of ileum on biopsy
(A) Brunners glands
(B) Langerhans cells
(C) Paneths cells
(D) Lymphoid tissue in submucosa
(E) Lymphoid tissue in mucosa
75. Mechanism of diarrhea after jejunostomy
(A) Increased CCK
(B) Secretory diarrhea
(C) Osmotic diarrhea
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(D) Secretory + Osmotic both
(E) Increased Secretin
76. Upper GI endoscopy taking up to 28cm distance. The most likely type of cancer is
(A) Adenocarcinoma esophagus
(B) Squamous cell carcinoma esophagus
(C) Adenocarcinoma stomach
(D) Small cell carcinoma
(E) None of them
77. Damage to mandibular foramen causes injury to which structure
(A) Inferior alveolar nerve
(B) Mandibular nerve
(C) Nerve to mylohyoid
(D) Facial nerve
(E) None of them
78. Broder classification of tumor is based on
(A) Degree of mitosis
(B) Structure of stroma
(C) Tissue of origin
(D) Grading on histopathology
(E) Total number of mitosis and grading
79. Correct statement regarding inguinal canal
(A) Absent in infants
(B) Conjoint tendon makes superior border
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(C) Inguinal ligament forms superior boundary
(D) Lacunar ligament do form a border
(E) None of them is correct
80. Injury to the neck of fibula cause damage to
(A) Common fibular nerve
(B) Deep fibular nerve
(C) Tibial nerve
(D) All of them
(E) None of them
81. A patient presents in the emergency with loss of sensations over the fingertips of lateral 2 fingers.
The most likely nerve to be damaged is
(A) Ulnar nerve
(B) Radial nerve
(C) Median nerve
(D) Deep branch of radial nerve
(E) Palmer cutaneous nerve
82. At which level spinal cord injury does not affect respiration
(A) At C5
(B) Above C5
(C) Below C5
(D) Above C3
(E) Below C3
83. Extravasation of urine in case of rupture of penile urethra
(A) Deep perineal pouch
(B) Superficial perineal pouch
(C) Thigh
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(D) Scrotum
(E) None of them
84. Which statement is correct
(A) Lower limit of rectum is defined by mucosal folds
(B) Anal canal starts from levator ani level and ends into anus
(C) Upper part anal canal is drained to systemic veins
(D) All are correct
85. Regarding pudendal canal
(A) Anal sphincter forms medial relation
(B) Is same as obturator canal
(C) Fat here is richly supplied with blood
(D) Obturator internus forms posterior relation
(E) All above are correct
86. In which portion of bladder/urethra maximum number of alpha receptors are present
(A) Neck
(B) Trigone
(C) External urethral sphincter
(D) Membranous urethra
(E) prostate
87. Gastric lymphoma is most strongly associated with
(A) H. pylori
(B) Peptic ulcer disesse
(C) Curling ulcers
(D) Gastritis
(E) None of them
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88. Natural anticoagulant in body
(A) Warfarin
(B) Heparin
(C) Herudin
(D) Heparin and Warfarin
(E) All of them
89. Diagnostic feature of Measles
(A) Maculopapular rash
(B) Koplicks spots
(C) Coryza
(D) Post auricular lymphadenopathy
(E) None of them
90. Basophilia is due to which cellular organelle
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Lysosomes
(E) Chromatids
91. Which of the followings is Autosomal recessive
(A) Achondroplasia
(B) Marfan syndrome
(C) Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
(D) Neurofibromatosis
(E) None of them
92. Structure found with nuclear membrane
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(A) Mitochondria
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Ribosomes
(E) All of them
93. The structure which prevents muscle from tearing under a constant pressure
(A) Ruffinis endings
(B) Golgi tendon organ
(C) Merkle cells
(D) Muscle spindle
(E) Pacinians corpuscles
94. Which is not a direct effect of cushing syndrome
(A) Thin limbs
(B) Buffalo hump
(C) Muscular weakness
(D) Facial hair growth
(E) None of them
95. The drug used most likely in acute pulmonary which has also some effect on smooth muscles
(A) Thiazide diuretic
(B) Spironolactone
(C) Loop diuretics
(D) Triamtrine
(E) Acetazolamide
96. A virus can cause cancer with the underlying mechanism of
(A) Having oncogenes
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(B) Having proto oncogenes
(C) Proteins particles
(D) Nuclear integration
(E) All of them
97. Which of the following does not drain into internal jugular vein
(A) Lingual vein
(B) Facial vein
(C) External jugular vein
(D) Thyroid veins
(E) None of them
98. An unconscious patient brought to hospital after 1 hour of severe hemorrhage. His BP
is 50 mmHg, pulse is rapid, cool and clammy skin, which mechanism is most active at this stage
(A) Chemoreceptor reflex
(B) Baroreceptor reflex
(C) Both of them simultaneously
(D) Both of them at different times
99. Hand muscles are supplied by
(A) C1
(B) T1
(C) T2
(D) T1 and T2
(E) T1, T2 and T3
100. The structure arches over the root of left lung
(A) Azygous vein
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(B) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
(C) Phrenic nerve
(D) Arch of aorta
(E) None of them
101. Maxillary artery is the artery of
(A) Ist brachial arch
(B) Second brachial arch
(C) Third brachial arch
(D) Fourth brachial arch
(E) Sixth arch
102. Aneurysm of the arch of aorta does not compress
(A) Phrenic nerve
(B) Azygous vein
(C) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
(D) Subclavian artery
(E) None of them
103. Foreign body in supine position will go in respiratory segment
(A) Left lower lobe
(B) Right lower lobe
(C) Left upper lobe
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(D) Right upper lobe
(E) None of them
104. Which statement is correct about cyanosis
(A) When deoxygenated hemoglobin exceeds 2 mg %
(B) When deoxygenated hemoglobin exceeds 5 mg %
(C) When deoxygenated hemoglobin exceeds 10 mg %
(D) When carboxyhemoglobin is present in blood
(E) None of them is correct
105. ADH acts on
(A) PCT
(B) DCT
(C) Macula densa
(D) Medullary collecting tubule
(E) Cortical collecting tubule
106. Inside nephron tube , least concentrated urine is found at
(A) PCT
(B) DCT
(C) Macula densa
(D) Medullary collecting tubule
107. The most effective mechanism of prevention of heat loss
(A) Shivering
(B) Vasoconstriction
(C) Vasodilatation
(D) Conduction
(E) Vaporization
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108. Patient presenting with enlarged tongue, joint problems and impaired glucose tolerance.
The problem in pituitary is in
(A) Acidophils
(B) Basophils
(C) Both of them
(D) Panhyper pituitarism
(E) None of them
109. Nerve accompanies with superior thyroid artery is
(A) External laryngeal nerve
(B) Internal laryngeal nerve
(C) Superior laryngeal nerve
(D) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
(E) None of them
110. Pseudogout has following one type of crystals
(A) Needle shapes
(B) Sodium pyro phosphate
(C) Calcium pyrophosphate
(D) Calcium hydroxyappatite
(E) None of them
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111. Which is best as skin antiseptic
(A) Soap
(B) Alcohol
(C) Pyodine
(D) Chloehexidine
(E) None of them v
112. In second degree heart block, which statement is correct
(A) Stroke volume is decreased
(B) Ventricular rate is greater than atrial rate
(C) Atrium has greater rate than ventricle
(D) Cardiac contractility is increased
(E) None of them is correct
113. The last thing to be returned to normal on hemorrhagic shock
(A) Heart rate
(B) Blood pressure
(C) Cardiac contractility
(D) RBCs in peripheral smear
(E) Pulse pressure
114. Internal spermatic fascia is derived from
(A) Cremasteric fascia
(B) External oblique
(C) Internal oblique
(D) Fascia transversalis
115. 8 years old child presents to you with recurrent opportunistic infection with Klebsiella.
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Most likely immune deficiency state is
(A) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
(B) A gammaglobulinemia
(C) Chronic granulomatous disease
(D) Pseudohypoparathyroidism
(E) None of them
116. The structure which connects pons with cerebellum
(A) Middle cerebellar peduncle
(B) Superior cerebellar peduncle
(C) Inferior cerebellar peduncle
(D) Crerbral pedencle
(E) None of them
117. In which one of the followings , confidentiality of the patient can be breeched
(A) Patient allows you
(B) Insurance claim
(C) Serious disease like cancer
(D) Patient is psychotic
(E) Non organic disease
118. Smooth muscle are characterized by having
(A) Outer circular layer
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(B) Multiple nuclei
(C) Inner circular and outer longitudinal
(D) All of them
(E) None of them
119. Which is correct for the time of appearance of ossification centre in elbow
(A) Capitulum -11 years
(B) Radius - 9 years
(C) Medial epicondyle - 5 years
(D) Trochlea - 2 years
(E) Olecranon – 1 year