This document contains 50 multiple choice questions testing medical terminology knowledge. The questions cover topics such as anatomy, disease processes, medical specialties, procedures, and spelling. Correct answers are provided for each question.
Respiratory Diseases management Course consists of topics of Pulmonary Medicine for Family Physicians. This MCQ Session is targeted to revisit topics and revise it through questionnaire
Respiratory Diseases management Course consists of topics of Pulmonary Medicine for Family Physicians. This MCQ Session is targeted to revisit topics and revise it through questionnaire
Please note, the MCQs(Multiple choice questions) on this ppt are according to the specifications and syllabus of Specialty Certificate Examination (SCE) in Gastroenterology and the European Section and Board of Gastroenterology and Hepatology Examination (ESBGHE). However, they provide useful knowledge in the relevant subject area in general. Hence, it is recommended you to go through these videos and gather some information to gain success in future medical and surgical field examinations.
Please note, the MCQs(Multiple choice questions) on this ppt are according to the specifications and syllabus of Specialty Certificate Examination (SCE) in Gastroenterology and the European Section and Board of Gastroenterology and Hepatology Examination (ESBGHE). However, they provide useful knowledge in the relevant subject area in general. Hence, it is recommended you to go through these videos and gather some information to gain success in future medical and surgical field examinations.
Abdomen MCQs with Answers Key (below)
(Anterior Abdominal Wall)
NOTE: For each of the following multiple choice questions select the one most appropriate answer:
1. Rectus Abdominus Muscle is divided in bellies by tendinous intersections. What is by far the most common configuration of the muscle bellies of the rectus Abdominus.
(A) 2 Bellies and symmetric
(B) 2 Bellies and asymmetric
(C) 4 Bellies and asymmetric
(D) 6 Bellies and symmetric
(E) 8 Bellies and symmetric
2. A person was stung by a bee in the left lumbar region. The nerves supplying the region accompany the branches of
(A) Musculophrenic Artery
(B) Anterior Intercostal Arteries
(C) Posterior Intercostal Arteries
(D) Superior Epigastric Artery
(E) Inferior Epigastric Artery
3. A patient comes to your clinic whom you operated for obstructed irreducible indirect Left Inguinal hernia one month ago. He says “It has been over four weeks from the surgery and I still have much discomfort. Inside of my thigh is numb, burns or simply hurts when touched. When I move in certain ways I get a stabbing pain in that area accompanied with a sensation of being bit by a bunch of wasps (Bees).” Which nerve is most likely damaged?
(A) Genital branch of Genitofemoral nerve
(B) Illioinguinal Nerve
(C) Cremasteric Nerve
(D) Illiohypogastric Nerve
(E) Subcoastal Nerve
4. This patient has more chances of developing which type of hernia in future
(A) Right Direct Inguinal Hernia
(B) Left Direct Inguinal Hernia
(C) Right Indirect Inguinal Hernia
(D) Left Indirect Inguinal Hernia
(E) Umbilical Hernia
5. During Laproscopic repair of Direct inguinal Hernia, the site of hernia will be located in
(A) Median Umbilical fold
(B) Medial Umbilical fold
(C) Medial Inguinal Fossa
(D) Lateral Inguinal Fossa
(E) Lateral umbilical Fold
6. Median Umbilical Fold
(A) Is a remnant of Urachus
(B) Is a remnant of Umbilical Artery
(C) Contains Inferior Epigastric Artery
(D) Is a remnant Umbilical Vein
(E) Contains Ductus Venosus
7. While operating for Indirect Inguinal Hernia there started an unusual rapid oozing of blood, which filled the site with blood. The Surgeon had to stop to control the bleed. Which artery is most likely injured?
(A) Inferior Epigastric
(B) Cremasteric
(C) Testicular
(D) External Illiac
(E) Internal iliac
8. You are examining a patient for Hernia during exam. The examiner asks you to differentiate between inguinal and Femoral Hernia. Your best response will be
(A) Femoral Hernia is above and medial to Pubic tubercle
(B) Femoral Hernia is below and medial to Pubic tubercle
(C) Femoral Hernia is above and Lateral to Pubic tubercle
(D) Femoral Hernia is below and Lateral to Pubic tubercle
(E) None of Above
9. A patient was diagnosed with Testicular Carcinoma (Seminoma). He comes to you and asks what stage is his cancer i
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31) The rosterene abdominal A) fusiorm, parallel musle, wilsthe rons fenenu is a muxle B) paraliel;
binenente C) coovergeng unipemate D) bipcriute, paralld E) multipennste; convergent A) troperivis
andicratis antrice B) portoralis misor and sernatue a a aice C) leraos icapulac and romoimbides D)
teptesus and rbomboideas b) trperias and tarisinns deen. 34) Which cranial sere innerites the
sermolodenatiof and topensa? A) Absares (i) Facial C) Varan D) Asceiscy E) Tngereinal A)
Daphiragm. i) Lixicmal intereotah C) iniernal intercoitalk D) Imermoun ielecentals in Reckeralis
major. away from the altar? A) Depresor anpuliania (i) Orpicularis anin C) Zevular latai apporiscis
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Ischiocavemona E) Levator ani 39) A bascball pitcher who injures onc of his STS mucio mant
cimmonly watain tears to the teadan ef which musid? A) Suprapinatus B) Infrespinahis C) Teres
minor D) Subscapularis: E) Delioud 40) Which of the following as true regarding the levatur
sapulae? A) It is innervated by the plarenic nerve: B) It elevates the seapala if the scapola is faed.
C) It rotates the scapuly and depresses the aper of the sboulder-D) It fleves the neck if the vcapula
is fixed. B). It peotracts the scapula if the humerus is fiaed. 41) Which of the following is an intrisis
maicle of the lasd? A) Extenser carpi radialis becvis B) Adductor pollicis C) Exensor pollicis longas
D) Extensor indicis E) Abdocter pollicts longus 42) The sertatus anterior is inservated by which
nerve? A) Accessory B) Dorsal scapular (2) Long thoracie D) Lateral pectoinl E) Axillary 43) Which
munle actieg on the arm asksss in deep inipiranemt A) Pcctoralis major (is) Tragerius C) Terem
thioor D) Diaphasm (i) Dehnud 44) A butber wha cuts the dival poitise of his fingers may eat the
lendere. A) flewer pollicis lorpis ii) fexor eapi utnaris C) peimaris looptus b) adastor pollicis E)
Fexer atigitorum profandes A) Pronator quadratus B) Strimentranoven C) Proatie leris D)
Buccinatot Ei) Supinatur: 46) The antagonis to the tricupi brachit in the A) deliaid B) anconcus C)
biecps brachil D) supirator E) teres misor 47) Which of the following ben describes the inuetion of
ilse estinad digeseum? A) It iadinectly inserts on all digits of the hand B) It indirtedly ininerts ee all
digits of the hand corpr the dinim. C) It ditecely ineertr ee all digits of the hand. D) It directly ieserts
on all Eigits of the hand ccoept the thamb. B) It directly ieverts on the isder finger only. A) Exicnsor
hallocii longus B) Pronstor ciadritus C) Extensor cagpe radialis longus D) Suhscepularis 49) An
injury that resules in complete fioctiosal los of the utar nerve will affics which of the followiag
mustes? D) Flexor digatorum profundus A) Abductee digits miaimi B) Abductar pollicis brevis C)
Flesor carpi ratialis D) Briehioradialis 50) Carpal.
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2. What are the opportunities and challenges for Louis Vuitton in Japan?
3. What are the specifics of the Japanese fashion luxury market?
4. How did Louis Vuitton enter into the Japanese market originally? What were the other entry strategies it adopted later to strengthen its presence?
5. Will Louis Vuitton have any new challenges arise due to the global financial crisis? How does it overcome the new challenges?Assignment 3
1. What has made Louis Vuitton's business model successful in the Japanese luxury market?
2. What are the opportunities and challenges for Louis Vuitton in Japan?
3. What are the specifics of the Japanese fashion luxury market?
4. How did Louis Vuitton enter into the Japanese market originally? What were the other entry strategies it adopted later to strengthen its presence?
5. Will Louis Vuitton have any new challenges arise due to the global financial crisis? How does it overcome the new challenges?
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A&P..50 mcqs-Answers.docx
1. 1) The general meaning of "corpus" is best described by which of the following?
(A) Abdomen
(B) Body
(C) Chest
(D) Head
(E) Trunk
2) Which of the following is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count?
(A) Anemia
(B) Leukemia
(C) Leukocytosis
(D) Leukopenia
(E) Leukoplakia
3) An area of dead myocardial tissue is best described by which of the following?
(A) Angina pectoris
(B) Hypertrophy
(C) An induration
(D) An infarct
(E) Stenosis
4) The term "lithiasis" is best described by which of the following?
(A) Constriction of tissue
(B) Dissolving
(C) Abnormal condition of stones
(D) Penetrating a cavity
(E) Stretching of tissue
5) Menarche refers to which of the following?
(A) Beginning of menstruation
(B) Development of female characteristics
(C) End of childhood
(D) End of pregnancy
(E) Primary infertility
6) Adipose tissue is made of which of the following?
2. (A) Fat cells
(B) Lymph nodes
(C) Muscles
(D) Skin
(E) Tendons
7) Which of the following terms refers to the ability to breathe comfortably only when in an upright
position?
(A) Apnea
(B) Dyspnea
(C) Eupnea
(D) Hypercapnia
(E) Orthopnea
8) Which of the following is the term for abnormally large breasts in men?
(A) Gynander
(B) Gynecomania
(C) Gynecomastia
(D) Gynephobia
(E) Gynoplastics
9) Which of the following terms means drainage from the nose?
(A) Rhinolalia
(B) Rhinomycosis
(C) Rhinophyma
(D) Rhinorrhaphy
(E) Rhinorrhea
10) The combining form "cephal/o" refers to which of the following?
(A) Abdomen
(B) Head
(C) Neck
(D) Ribs
(E) Spine
11) The prefix pertaining to fingernail is which of the following terms?
(A) Odont-
(B) Olfact-
3. (C) Omphal-
(D) Onco-
(E) Onych-
12) Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as which of the following terms?
(A) Colitis
(B) Fasciitis
(C) Hidradenitis
(D) Pimelitis
(E) Rhinitis
13) The prefix meaning outside or outer is which of the following?
(A) Ana-
(B) Dia-
(C) Epi-
(D) Exo-
(E) Peri-
14) The prefix "brady-" means which of the following?
(A) Away from
(B) Downward
(C) Irregular
(D) Slow
(E) Without
15) The patient's complaint of painful menstrual periods will be documented in the medical record as
which of the following?
(A) Amenorrhea
(B) Dysmenorrhea
(C) Menorrhagia
(D) Menorrhea
(E) Metrorrhagia
16) Which of the following suffixes refers to eating?
(A) "phagia"
(B) "phasia"
4. (C) "phonia"
(D) "plegia"
(E) "praxia"
17) Which of the following terms refers to pain?
(A) Arthralgia
(B) Diplopia
(C) Dysplasia
(D) Hemiplegia
(E) Urticaria
18) Which of the following is the definition for aphagia?
(A) Extreme thirst
(B) Inability to hear
(C) Inability to swallow
(D) Loss of hair
(E) Pain free
19) Which of the following suffixes means "cutting operation"?
(A) -ectomy
(B) -plasty
(C) -scopy
(D) -stomy
(E) -tomy
20) Which of the following is the CORRECT spelling for the plural of bronchus?
(A) Bronchuses
(B) Bronchii
(C) Bronchi
(D) Bronchae
(E) Broncha
21) Which of the following is the plural form of the medical term that means chest?
(A) Alveoli
(B) Apices
(C) Calyces
(D) Pleurae
(E) Thoraces
5. 22) Which of the following is the medical term for hair loss?
(A) Folliculitis
(B) Eczema
(C) Pediculosis
(D) Alopecia
(E) Impetigo
23) Which of the following terms is used to describe a lateral curvature of the spine?
(A) Kyphosis
(B) Scoliosis
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Lordosis
(E) Stenosis
24) Which of the following terms is used to describe a condition in which the body produces too
much cortisol?
(A) Gigantism
(B) Myxedema
(C) Cushing's syndrome
(D) Diabetes insipidus
(E) Grave's Disease
25) "K" is the chemical symbol for which of the following substances?
(A) Barium
(B) Calcium
(C) Iron
(D) Hydrogen
(E) Potassium
26. Which of the following is the chemical symbol for iron?
(A) F
(B) Fe
(C) Fr
(D) I
(E) Ir
27) Which of the following is the term for reconstruction of the eardrum?
6. (A) Myringotomy
(B) Otoplasty
(C) Stapedectomy
(D) Tympanocentesis
(E) Tympanoplasty
28) Colporrhaphy is the repair of which of the following?
(A) Bladder
(B) Intestines
(C) Spleen
(D) Uterus
(E) Vagina
29) Which of the following terms describes surgical fixation of the uterus in a suspended position?
(A) Hysterectomy
(B) Hysterodesis
(C) Hysteropexy
(D) Hysteroscopy
(E) Hysterotripsy
30) A pyloromyotomy is performed in which of the following body systems?
(A) Cardiovascular
(B) Gastrointestinal
(C) Musculoskeletal
(D) Nervous
(E) Reproductive
31) Which of the following is a surgical procedure in which a pendulous breast is lifted and fixed to
the chest wall?
(A) Mastostomy
(B) Mastotomy
(C) Mastectomy
(D) Mastopexy
(E) Mesopexy
32) Which of the following is an incision made to enlarge the opening of the external urethra?
(A) Cystotomy
(B) Meatotomy
7. (C) Nephrostomy
(D) Pyelostomy
(E) Ureterotomy
33) Korotkoff sounds are evaluated by which of the following procedures?
(A) Counting the apical heartbeat
(B) Determining the blood pressure
(C) Performing ultrasonography
(D) Counting the respirations
(E) Evaluating the pulse
34) Which of the following is a nonsterile procedure?
(A) Amniocentesis
(B) Cystoscopy
(C) Peritoneal dialysis
(D) Proctosigmoidoscopy
(E) Renal biopsy
35) Which of the following is a procedure in which synovial fluid is removed for analysis?
(A) Apheresis
(B) Arthrocentesis
(C) Arthrography
(D) Arthroscopy
(E) Articulation
36) Which of the following procedures is indicated when an abnormal growth is identified on barium
enema X-ray study?
(A) Arthroscopy
(B) Bronchoscopy
(C) Colonoscopy
(D) Cystoscopy
(E) Colposcopy
37) A patient scheduled for echoencephalography will undergo a study of which of the following?
(A) Abdomen
(B) Brain
(C) Heart
8. (D) Lungs
(E) Spine
38) Which of the following physicians specializes in treating patients with diseases of the liver?
(A) Hematologist
(B) Hepatologist
(C) Nephrologist
(D) Oncologist
(E) Rheumatologist
39) Which of the following branches of medicine specializes in the study of the musculoskeletal
system?
(A) Gynecology
(B) Nephrology
(C) Orthopedics
(D) Pediatrics
(E) Urology
40) A patient with encephalitis is most likely to be treated by which of the following specialists?
(A) Endocrinologist
(B) Hematologist
(C) Neurologist
(D) Oncologist
(E) Radiologist
41) A cystoscope is an instrument used most commonly by a specialist in which of the following?
(A) Endocrinology
(B) Gastroenterology
(C) Gynecology
(D) Radiology
(E) Urology
42) A patient who has hypergonadism, prolactinoma, and hirsutism will most likely be referred to
which of the following specialists?
(A) Immunologist
(B) Pathologist
(C) Rheumatologist
9. (D) Endocrinologist
(E) Gerontologist
43) Polydipsia, polyuria, good appetite with weight loss, and blurred vision are signs and symptoms
of which of the following conditions?
(A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) Gout
(C) Hypothyroidism
(D) Marasmus
(E) Polyposis coli
44) Dysphonia is a common symptom of which of the following conditions?
(A) Iritis
(B) Laryngitis
(C) Pneumonitis
(D) Rhinitis
(E) Stomatitis
45) Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the eye that is known to be hereditary?
(A) Glioblastoma
(B) Neuroblastoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Pheochromocytoma
(E) Retinoblastoma
46) Which of the following are round bacteria that grow in pairs?
(A) Streptococci
(B) Diplococci
(C) Bacilli
(D) Spirilla
(E) Staphylococci
47) Which of the following words is MISSPELLED?
(A) Adenopathy
(B) Basaphil
(C) Edematous
(D) Hemopoiesis
(E) Myeloid
10. 48) Which of the following medical terms is spelled CORRECTLY?
(A) Albumine
(B) Hemorrhoid
(C) Larinx
(D) Opthalmology
(E) Amenorrhia
49) Which of the following spellings is CORRECT?
(A) Abecess
(B) Abces
(C) Abscess
(D) Abscus
(E) Absess
50) Which of the following is the CORRECT spelling for the focusing ability of the eye?
(A) Accomedation
(B) Accommodation
(C) Acomodation
(D) Acommodation
(E) Acommedation
Answers
1) B
2) D
3) D
4) C
5) A
6) A
7) E
8) C
11. 9) E
10) B
11) E
12) C
13) D
14) D
15) B
16) A
17) A
18) C
19) E
20) C
21) E
22) D
23) B
24) C
25) E
26) B
27) E
28) E
29) C
30) B
31) D
12. 32) B
33) B
34) D
35) B
36) C
37) B
38) B
39) C
40) C
41) E
42) D
43) A
44) B
45) E
46) B
47) B
48) B
49) C
50) B