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Solution
Week 44 (7/14/03)
Relatively prime numbers
The probability that two random numbers both have a given prime p as a factor is
1/p2. The probability that they do not have p as a common factor is thus 1 − 1/p2.
Therefore, the probability that two numbers have no common prime factors is
P = (1 − 1/22
)(1 − 1/32
)(1 − 1/52
)(1 − 1/72
)(1 − 1/112
) · · · . (1)
Using
1
1 − x
= 1 + x + x2
+ x3
+ · · · , (2)
this can be rewritten as
P = (1 + 1/22
+ 1/24
+ · · ·)(1 + 1/32
+ 1/34
+ · · ·) · · ·
−1
. (3)
By the Unique Factorization Theorem (every positive integer is expressible as the
product of primes in exactly one way), we see that the previous expression is equiv-
alent to
P = (1 + 1/22
+ 1/32
+ 1/42
+ 1/52
+ 1/62
+ · · ·)−1
. (4)
And since the sum of the squares of the reciprocals of all of the positive integers is
known to be π2/6, the desired probability is P = 6/π2 ≈ 61%.
Remarks:
1. The probability that n random numbers all have a given prime p as a factor is 1/pn
.
So the probability that they do not all have p as a common factor is 1 − 1/pn
. In
exactly the same manner as above, we find that the probability, Pn, that n numbers
have no common factor among all of them is
Pn = (1 + 1/2n
+ 1/3n
+ 1/4n
+ 1/5n
+ 1/6n
+ · · ·)−1
. (5)
This is, by definition, the Riemann zeta function, ζ(n). It can be calculated exactly
for even values of n, but only numerically for odd values. For the case of n = 4, we
can use the known value ζ(4) = π4
/90 to see that the probability that four random
numbers do not all have a common factor is P4 = 90/π4
≈ 92%.
2. We can also perform the somewhat silly exercise of applying this result to the case
of n = 1. The question then becomes: What is the probability, P1, that a randomly
chosen positive integer does not have a factor? Well, 1 is the only positive integer
without any factors, so the probability is 1/∞ = 0. And indeed,
P1 = (1 − 1/2)(1 − 1/3)(1 − 1/5)(1 − 1/7) . . .
= (1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 · · ·)−1
= 1/∞, (6)
because the sum of the reciprocals of all of the positive integers diverges.
1
3. Let φ(n) equal the number of integers less than n that are relatively prime to n. Then
φ(n)/n equals the probability that a randomly chosen integer is relatively prime to n.
(This is true because any integer is relatively prime to n if and only if its remainder,
when divided by n, is relatively prime to n.) The result of our original problem
therefore tells us that the average value of φ(n)/n is 6/π2
.
4. To be precise about what we mean by probabilities in this problem, we really should
word the question as: Let N be a very large integer. Pick two random integers less
than or equal to N. What is the probability that these numbers are relatively prime,
in the limit where N goes to infinity?
The solution would then be slightly modified, in that the relevant primes p would be
cut off at N, and “edge effects” due to the finite size of N would have to be considered.
It is fairly easy to see that the answer obtained in this limit is the same as the answer
obtained above.
2

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Sol44

  • 1. Solution Week 44 (7/14/03) Relatively prime numbers The probability that two random numbers both have a given prime p as a factor is 1/p2. The probability that they do not have p as a common factor is thus 1 − 1/p2. Therefore, the probability that two numbers have no common prime factors is P = (1 − 1/22 )(1 − 1/32 )(1 − 1/52 )(1 − 1/72 )(1 − 1/112 ) · · · . (1) Using 1 1 − x = 1 + x + x2 + x3 + · · · , (2) this can be rewritten as P = (1 + 1/22 + 1/24 + · · ·)(1 + 1/32 + 1/34 + · · ·) · · · −1 . (3) By the Unique Factorization Theorem (every positive integer is expressible as the product of primes in exactly one way), we see that the previous expression is equiv- alent to P = (1 + 1/22 + 1/32 + 1/42 + 1/52 + 1/62 + · · ·)−1 . (4) And since the sum of the squares of the reciprocals of all of the positive integers is known to be π2/6, the desired probability is P = 6/π2 ≈ 61%. Remarks: 1. The probability that n random numbers all have a given prime p as a factor is 1/pn . So the probability that they do not all have p as a common factor is 1 − 1/pn . In exactly the same manner as above, we find that the probability, Pn, that n numbers have no common factor among all of them is Pn = (1 + 1/2n + 1/3n + 1/4n + 1/5n + 1/6n + · · ·)−1 . (5) This is, by definition, the Riemann zeta function, ζ(n). It can be calculated exactly for even values of n, but only numerically for odd values. For the case of n = 4, we can use the known value ζ(4) = π4 /90 to see that the probability that four random numbers do not all have a common factor is P4 = 90/π4 ≈ 92%. 2. We can also perform the somewhat silly exercise of applying this result to the case of n = 1. The question then becomes: What is the probability, P1, that a randomly chosen positive integer does not have a factor? Well, 1 is the only positive integer without any factors, so the probability is 1/∞ = 0. And indeed, P1 = (1 − 1/2)(1 − 1/3)(1 − 1/5)(1 − 1/7) . . . = (1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 · · ·)−1 = 1/∞, (6) because the sum of the reciprocals of all of the positive integers diverges. 1
  • 2. 3. Let φ(n) equal the number of integers less than n that are relatively prime to n. Then φ(n)/n equals the probability that a randomly chosen integer is relatively prime to n. (This is true because any integer is relatively prime to n if and only if its remainder, when divided by n, is relatively prime to n.) The result of our original problem therefore tells us that the average value of φ(n)/n is 6/π2 . 4. To be precise about what we mean by probabilities in this problem, we really should word the question as: Let N be a very large integer. Pick two random integers less than or equal to N. What is the probability that these numbers are relatively prime, in the limit where N goes to infinity? The solution would then be slightly modified, in that the relevant primes p would be cut off at N, and “edge effects” due to the finite size of N would have to be considered. It is fairly easy to see that the answer obtained in this limit is the same as the answer obtained above. 2