Pre-Test 3rd Quarter Science 10 Biology part

1. Pre-Test 3rd Quarter

2. 1. What is the primary function of the male
reproductive system?
a)Menstruation
b)Ovulation
c)Sperm production
d)Egg fertilization

3. 2. Which female reproductive organ is responsible
for the monthly release of an egg?
a)Uterus
b)Ovary
c)Fallopian tube
d)Vagina

4. 3. What is the tube that carries sperm from
the testes to the urethra in males?
a) Vas deferens
b) Epididymis
c) Prostate gland
d) Seminal vesicle

5. 4. How does the menstrual cycle relate to the
female reproductive system?
a) It involves sperm production
b) It is the process of egg
fertilization
c) It is the monthly shedding of
the uterine lining
d) It occurs in the fallopian tubes

6. 5. What role do the testes play in the male
reproductive system?
a) Producing eggs
b) Producing hormones like
estrogen
c) Producing and storing sperm
d) Nurturing the developing fetus

7. 6. How does contraception work to prevent
pregnancy, and which systems does it target?
a) By inhibiting sperm production; male
reproductive system
b) By preventing ovulation; female
reproductive system
c) By enhancing fertilization; both male and
female systems
d) By promoting embryo implantation; female
reproductive system

8. 7. Describe a situation where knowledge of the
male reproductive system is essential for solving a
real-world problem.
a) Family planning decisions
b) Choosing makeup products
c) Gardening techniques
d) Car maintenance

9. 8. Compare and contrast the structures and
functions of the male and female reproductive
systems.
a) Identify similarities and
differences
b) List components of each system
c) Describe the menstrual cycle in
detail
d) Explain the process of sperm
production

10. 9. If a couple is having difficulty conceiving, what
aspects of the reproductive systems might be
analyzed, and why?
a) Hormonal levels; to determine fertility
b) Hair growth patterns; for genetic
compatibility
c) Eye color; predicting future offspring
traits
d) Shoe size; indicating reproductive
health

11. 10. Evaluate the impact of lifestyle choices, such
as smoking and alcohol consumption, on the
reproductive systems of both males and females.
a) Discuss potential effects on fertility and
overall reproductive health
b) List benefits of smoking during pregnancy
c) Analyze the impact of alcohol on hair
growth
d) Examine the role of caffeine in sperm
production

12. 11. Which of the following is the role of education
in promoting reproductive health awareness?
a) Discuss the importance of comprehensive
sex education
b) Evaluate the impact of video games on
fertility
c) Analyze the role of sports in reproductive
health
d) Examine the connection between music
preferences and ovulation

13. 12. What is the basic building block
of DNA?
a) Amino acids
b) Nucleotides
c) Proteins
d) Carbohydrates

14. 13. What does DNA stand for?
a) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
b) Ribonucleic Acid
c) Deoxyribose Nucleotide
Assembly
d) Ribose Nucleotide
Arrangement

15. 14. What is the shape of the DNA molecule?
a) Circular
b) Square
c) Double helix
d) Linear

16. 15. Explain the complementary base pairing
in DNA.
a) Matching of identical bases
b) Alignment of opposite charges
c) Binding of different nucleotide
types
d) Pairing of sugars and
phosphates

17. 16. Describe the role of DNA in encoding
genetic information.
a) DNA provides energy for cells
b) DNA serves as a structural
component of cells
c) DNA stores and transmits genetic
information
d) DNA facilitates cell communication

18. 17. Describe a scenario where understanding DNA
replication is crucial for medical research or
treatment.
a) Cancer treatment
b) Antibiotic development
c) Organ transplantation
d) Vaccination

19. 18. Compare and contrast DNA replication
and transcription processes.
a) Both involve RNA synthesis
b) Replication occurs in the nucleus, while
transcription occurs in the cytoplasm
c) Replication produces two identical DNA
molecules, while transcription produces
RNA
d) Transcription requires DNA polymerase,
while replication does not

20. 19. Which of the following is the role of DNA
evidence in criminal investigations compared to
other types of evidence?
a) DNA evidence is less reliable than
eyewitness accounts
b) DNA evidence is the most reliable form of
evidence
c) DNA evidence is irrelevant in criminal
investigations
d) DNA evidence is only useful in civil cases

21. 20. What is the primary function of DNA?
a) Protein synthesis
b) Energy production
c) Cell division
d) Lipid synthesis

22. 21. What is the basic building block of
proteins?
a) Nucleotide
b) Amino acid
c) Fatty acid
d) Monosaccharide

23. 22. How does DNA replication ensure the
accuracy of genetic information transfer?
a) Proofreading by RNA
b) DNA polymerase activity
c) Ribosomal decoding
d) Transcription initiation

24. 23. What is the role of transfer RNA (tRNA) in
translation?
a) Carries amino acids to the
ribosome
b) Transcribes DNA to RNA
c) Synthesizes proteins
d) Forms the double helix
structure of DNA

25. 24. In a eukaryotic cell, where does mRNA
processing take place before it leaves the nucleus?
a) Golgi apparatus
b) Ribosome
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Nucleus

26. 25. How does the complementary base-pairing
rule contribute to the specificity of DNA
replication?
a) Ensures the accuracy of protein
synthesis
b) Guides the binding of specific
nucleotides during replication
c) Controls the rate of transcription
d) Facilitates the synthesis of tRNA

27. 26. Given a DNA sequence (ATG-CGT-TAA), analyze
the impact of a deletion mutation in the
sequence.
a) Frameshift mutation
b) Silent mutation
c) Nonsense mutation
d) Missense mutation

28. 27. Which of the following is the role of DNA
repair mechanisms in maintaining genetic
integrity?
a) They accelerate mutation rates.
b) They are irrelevant to genetic
stability.
c) They prevent the accumulation of
mutations.
d) They induce intentional DNA
damage.

29. 28. What term refers to the variety of species
within a particular ecosystem?
a) Genetic diversity
b) Species diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity
d) Population diversity

30. 29. Which factor primarily contributes to the
loss of species diversity?
a) Climate change
b) Habitat destruction
c) Genetic mutation
d) Natural selection

31. 30. What does the term "biodiversity"
encompass?
a) Only the number of species in an
ecosystem
b) The variety of life on Earth, including
genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity
c) The abundance of a single species in a
given area
d) The interaction between two species

32. 31. How does habitat fragmentation
contribute to a decline in species diversity?
a) It increases the overall habitat
area.
b) It promotes speciation.
c) It isolates populations, reducing
gene flow.
d) It has no impact on species
diversity.

33. 32. In what ways can human activities
positively impact species diversity?
a) Introducing invasive species
b) Deforestation
c) Sustainable land
management practices
d) Pollution

34. 33. Suppose a region experiences a sudden
increase in temperature. Apply your knowledge to
predict how this environmental change might
affect the distribution of plant and animal species
in that area.
a) It will have no impact on species
distribution.
b) All species will migrate to cooler regions.
c) Some species may thrive, while others may
struggle or migrate to more suitable
habitats.
d) Only animal species will be affected.

35. 34. Consider a scenario where a new species is
introduced to an ecosystem. Predict how this
introduction might impact the existing species and
their interactions.
a) It will have no impact on the existing
species.
b) It may lead to competition for resources
and alter existing ecological relationships.
c) The new species will always benefit existing
species.
d) It will result in immediate extinction of the
existing species.

36. 35. Which of the following are the ecological
consequences of introducing a non-native species
to an ecosystem? Consider both positive and
negative impacts on the existing biodiversity.
a) Introducing non-native species has no impact on the
existing biodiversity.
b) Positive impacts include enhanced biodiversity, while
negative impacts may involve competition and predation.
c) Non-native species only have negative impacts on
existing biodiversity.
d) Ecological consequences of introducing non-native
species are unpredictable and cannot be analyzed.

37. 36. Analyze the potential consequences of a loss
of biodiversity on the stability and resilience of an
ecosystem.
a) Loss of biodiversity has no impact on ecosystem
stability.
b) Decreased stability and resilience, making the
ecosystem more vulnerable to disturbances.
c) Increased stability due to a simplified ecosystem
structure.
d) Loss of biodiversity only affects individual species,
not the entire ecosystem.

38. 37. Examine the role of keystone species in
maintaining ecosystem stability. Provide examples
to illustrate your analysis.
a) Keystone species have no impact on ecosystem
stability.
b) Keystone species contribute to stability by
increasing competition among other species.
c) Keystone species play a crucial role in
maintaining ecosystem structure and function.
d) Ecosystem stability is solely determined by the
abundance of individual species.

39. 38. What are the ethical implications of human activities that
contribute to the decline in species diversity? Consider issues
such as habitat destruction, pollution, and overharvesting.
a) Human activities have no ethical implications on
species diversity.
b) Ethical concerns arise only when species directly
impact human well-being.
c) Human activities contributing to species decline
raise ethical questions about responsible
stewardship of the environment.
d) Ethical concerns are irrelevant in the context of
species diversity.

40. 39. Which of the following is the impact of climate
change on species diversity, taking into account factors
such as shifts in habitats, altered migration patterns,
and increased extinction risks?
a) Climate change has no impact on species diversity.
b) Climate change positively influences species
diversity.
c) Altered migration patterns and increased
extinction risks are consequences of climate
change negatively affecting species diversity.
d) Climate change only affects terrestrial species, not
aquatic

41. 40. Which term refers to the maximum population
size that an environment can support sustainably?
a) Ecological niche
b) Population density
c) Carrying capacity
d) Habitat degradation

42. 41. In demographic studies, what does the
term "demography" refer to?
a) The study of individual organisms in a
population
b) The study of populations and their
characteristics
c) The study of ecosystems and their
interactions
d) The study of the Earth's climate and
weather patterns

43. 42. What is the term for the total number of live
births in a population over a specific period?
a) Mortality rate
b) Birth rate
c) Fertility rate
d) Immigration rate

44. 43. How does the concept of density-dependent
regulation relate to population growth?
a) It describes factors that limit population
growth regardless of population density.
b) It explains how population growth is
influenced by the density of individuals in a
given area.
c) It refers to the role of abiotic factors in
regulating population size.
d) It outlines the impact of random events on
population growth.

45. 44. In the context of population growth, what is
meant by the term "demographic transition"?
a) The shift from a high birth rate and high
death rate to low birth and death rates.
b) The movement of individuals from one
population to another.
c) The process of natural selection in a
population.
d) The adaptation of a population to a
changing environment.

46. 45. As a policy maker, how might you apply your
knowledge of population growth to address issues
related to urbanization?
a) By promoting policies that encourage higher birth
rates in urban areas.
b) By implementing measures to control population
density in urban environments.
c) By focusing on decreasing the availability of
resources to limit population growth.
d) By advocating for unrestricted migration to urban
centers.

47. 46. Consider a scenario where a wildlife reserve is facing
challenges related to overpopulation of a certain species. How
could ecological principles be applied to manage the
population effectively?
a) By introducing new predators to control
the species' population.
b) By implementing controlled hunting to
reduce population numbers.
c) By restricting immigration of the species
into the reserve.
d) By promoting higher birth rates to balance
the population.

48. 47. What factors that might contribute to a
sudden decline in a population's growth rate?
a) Increased immigration
b) Improved healthcare
c) Environmental pollution
d) Resource abundance

49. 48. Consider two populations with similar birth
rates but different death rates. Analyze the
potential long-term effects on their population
sizes.
a) The population with the higher death rate will
likely experience faster growth.
b) Both populations will grow at the same rate over
the long term.
c) The population with the lower death rate will
likely experience faster growth.
d) Birth and death rates have no impact on
population growth.

50. 49. Which of the following is the role of
technological innovations in addressing the
challenges posed by overpopulation?
a) Technological innovations always exacerbate
overpopulation challenges.
b) The success of technological innovations
depends on their sustainability and equitable
distribution.
c) Overpopulation challenges can only be addressed
through traditional methods, not technological
solutions.
d) Technological innovations are irrelevant to
addressing overpopulation.

51. 50. Evaluate the role of government policies in
addressing population growth and its
environmental consequences.
a) Government policies are ineffective in
addressing population growth.
b) The success of government policies
depends on public awareness and support.
c) Population growth is solely a natural
process, and government policies have no
impact.
d) Government policies always lead to
negative environmental consequences.

53. 1. C
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. A
10.A
11.A
12.B
13.A
14.C
15.A
16.C
17.A
18.C
19.B
20.A
21.B
22.B
23.A
24.D
25.B
26.A
27.C
28.B
29.B
30.B
31.C
32.C
33.C
34.B
35.B
36.B
37.C
38.C
39.C
40.C
41.B
42.B
43.B
44.A
45.B
46.B
47.C
48.C
49.B
50.B