This document contains a 50 question multiple choice exam for medical laboratory technician trainees. The exam covers topics in parasitology, hematology, microbiology, virology, histopathology and includes questions related to laboratory procedures and techniques. The exam is for a competitive written test for the fifth level of the Nepal Health Service Commission. Calculators and mobile phones are not allowed. The exam key is [B] and trainees must write the key on their answer sheet or it will be invalidated.

1. BHARATPUR MEDICAL INSTITUTE (BMI)
Bharatpur, Chitwan , Nepal
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1. Point of care testing (POCT) means
(A) Bed-site testing (B) Laboratory testing
(C) Rain side testing (D) Simultaneous site testing
2. Dark ground microscopy is used for detection of?
(A) Chlamydia (B) Fungi
(C) Virus (C) Spirochates
3. The serological test used to the efficiency of treatment of syphilis is..
(A) FTA abs (B) RPR
(C) TPHA (D) TPI
4. Fried egg colonies is seen ….
(A) S. aureus (B) Streptococcus pyogens
(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (D) Mycoplasma pneumonia
5. Which of the following markers is associated with normal mature B cell expression
(A) CD 19 (B) CD 8
(C)CD 42 (D) CD 14
6. Madura foot is caused by all except
(A) Nocardia brasiliensis (B)Alescheria body
(C) Madurella (D) Candida albicans
7. Fungal meningitis is caused by..
(A) Cryptococcus (B) Aspergillus
(C) Histoplasma (D) Coccidioidomycosis
8. All are dimorphic fungi except
(A) Histoplasma (B) Sporothrix
(C) Aspergillus (D Coccodiodes
9. Red cell distribution width (RDW) measures:
(A) Variability of RBC size (B) Variability of RBC shape
(C) Concentration of Hb in RBC (D) Average volume of RBCs

2. 10. Acute myeloblastic leukemia with maturation is which FAB classification..
(A) Mo (B) M1
(C) M2 (D) M4
11. Acute lymphoblastic leukemias, Burkitt’s type lymphoma is designated as,
(A) M2 (B) L2
(C) M3 (D) L3
12. Visible light range .....nm
(A) < 320 (B) 380-760
(C) 250-700 (D) >700
13. Which of the following is ionizing radiation?
(A) UV rays B) IR
(C) Gamma rays (D) None of these
14. Alkaline phosphates is the important enzyme to detect function in :
(A) Liver (B) Heart
(C) Bone (D) Liver and bone
15. Entero test is useful for..
(A) E. histolytica (B) Giardia
(C) Echinococcus (D) kala azar
16. Harmful cholesterol is carried on:
(A) HDL (B) LDL
(C) VLDL (D) HDL/LDL
17. Which of the following organisms is an anaerobic bacterium :-
(A) Clostridium (B) Haemophilus
(C) E. Coli (D) Yersinia enterocolitica
18. A semen specimen, contain sugar source of the spermatozoa energy is:
(A) Mannose (B) Galactose
(C) Sucrose (D) Fructose
19. Aplastic anemia is characterized by
(A) Diacytopenia (B) Government body
(C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Pancytopenia
20. Hemophillia B is caused due to deficeincy of
(A) Factor VIII (B) Factor IX
(C) Factor X (D) Factor XI
21. Brunner glands are found in
(A) Stomach (B) Illum
(C) Duodenum (D) Jejunum

3. 22. Which is not oncogenic virus
(A) Herpes (B) Adeno
(C) Rabies virus (D) Hepatitis B virus
23. Which is the acidic dye
(A) Azure II (B) Toluidine blue
(C) Eosin (D) Methylene blue
24. The gametocytes shape of P. vivaex is.....
(A) Barrel shaped (B) Oval shaped
(C) Spherical shaped (D) Suausage shaped
25. In PAP stain, keratinized cells are stained to pink red by the stain…
(A) Eosin azure (B) Eosin Y
(C) Haematoxylin (D) Orange G
26. Mordant used in H and E stain
(A) Phenol (B) KMNO4
(C) Iodine (D) Alum
27. Infective stage of Taenia solium for man is..
(A) Egg (B) Larvae
(C) Both (D) Adult
28. Usual cutting thickness for tissue section is
(A) 1-2 µm (B) 3-4 µm
(C) 5-6 µm (D) 7-8 µm
29. Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct for coagulation procedures?
A. 1:4 B. 1:5
C. 1:9 D. 1:10
30. Which test would be abnormal in a patient with factor X deficiency?
A. PT only B. APTT only
C. PT and APTT D. Thrombin time
31. SARS is caused by…virus
(A) CMV (B) Influenza
(C) HSV (D) Corona
32. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and APTT tests?
A. Factor VIII B. Factor IX
C. Factor V D. Factor XIII
33. The secretory immunoglobulin is .
(A) IgG (B) IgA
(C) IgM (D) Ig E
34. Which of the following is not blood parasite?
(A) Trypanosoma (B) Plasmodium
(C) Balantidium ( d) Leishmania

4. 35. Uric acid is estimation by… method
(A) PTA (B) BCG
(C) DAM (D) Vanden
36. Eosinophillia is seen in
(A) Allergy (B) CML
(C) Helminth (D) All
37. Chemical used in Sahil’s method of HB estimation…
(A) N/10 Acetic acid (B) N/10 Sulphuric acid
(C) N/10 Hydrochloric acid (D) N/10 Benzoicacid
38. Father of Antiseptic surgery
(A) Louis (B) Robert
(C) Antony (D) Joseph
39. Father of Virology
(A) Ivanovosky (B) Robert
(C) Antony (D) Joseph
40. Plasmid is
(A) Extra chromosomal particles (B) Capsid
(C) Capsule (D) Outermost layer
41. Transduction is ..
(A) Transferred from plasmid (B)Transfer Naked DNA
(C) R-factor (D) L- factor
42. Slim disease is
(A) TB (B) Cancer
(C) Leprosy (D) AIDS
43. Amastigote form of Leishmania is seen in
(A) Men (B) NNN
(C) Sand fly (D) Both B and C
44. Aldehyde test is used for
(A) Filaria (B) Leishmania
(C) Malaria (D) Giardia
45. Which virus is DNA virus
(A) Influenza virus (B) Hepatitis C virus
(C) Rabies (D) Rotavirus
46. Flask shaped ulcer is seen in....
(A) Round worm (B) Hook worm
(C) Seat worm (D) E. histolytica
47. Mucin is stain by
(A) H and E (B) Von Kossa
(C) Alcian (D) Von Gieson’s
48. S 100 marker test for…
(A) Nerve sheath tumours (B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Bone tumor (D) Overian tumour

5. 49. Cytokeratin is diagnosis application for
(A) Epitheloid tumour (B) Yolksac tumour
(C) Lymphoid tumour (D) Prostate tumour
50. Pyknotic nucleus is seen:
(A) Superficial cell (B) Intermediate cell
(C) Parabasal (D) Basal cell
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