This document appears to be a sample question paper for a competitive exam for medical laboratory technology in Nepal. It contains 50 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of topics like microbiology, hematology, clinical biochemistry and other areas of medical laboratory science. The questions cover topics such as types of microorganisms, culture media, laboratory tests, blood banking, enzymology and other basic science concepts relevant to medical laboratory technology. The document instructs examinees to write the question paper key (A) on their answer sheet and not to use calculators or electronic devices during the exam.
This presentation defines 5 histological and cytological instruments used in the laboratories which are flow cytometry, cytocentrifuge, microtome, biological microscope, tissue flotation bath.
This presentation defines 5 histological and cytological instruments used in the laboratories which are flow cytometry, cytocentrifuge, microtome, biological microscope, tissue flotation bath.
Samples of Competitive Examination Questions: Part XXXXXXAli I. Al-Mosawi
كتاب (نماذج أسئلة الإمتحان التنافسي/ إعداد علي إبراهيم الموسوي)
الجزء الستون:
ماجستير بستنة قسم البستنة وهندسة الحدائق كلية الزراعة جامعة البصرة ... ماجستير طرائق تدريس التربية الفنية كلية التربية الأساسية الجامعة المستنصرية ... ماجستير أحياء مجهرية كلية الطب جامعة بابل ... دكتوراه أحياء مجهرية كلية الطب جامعة بابل.
Very important multiple choice question on Industrial Microbiology
Subscribe this you tube channel for more videos on Microbiology and MCQs
https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCxqXy8R-dkqodPMXnXvE8pQ
Knee anatomy and clinical tests 2024.pdfvimalpl1234
This includes all relevant anatomy and clinical tests compiled from standard textbooks, Campbell,netter etc..It is comprehensive and best suited for orthopaedicians and orthopaedic residents.
Flu Vaccine Alert in Bangalore Karnatakaaddon Scans
As flu season approaches, health officials in Bangalore, Karnataka, are urging residents to get their flu vaccinations. The seasonal flu, while common, can lead to severe health complications, particularly for vulnerable populations such as young children, the elderly, and those with underlying health conditions.
Dr. Vidisha Kumari, a leading epidemiologist in Bangalore, emphasizes the importance of getting vaccinated. "The flu vaccine is our best defense against the influenza virus. It not only protects individuals but also helps prevent the spread of the virus in our communities," he says.
This year, the flu season is expected to coincide with a potential increase in other respiratory illnesses. The Karnataka Health Department has launched an awareness campaign highlighting the significance of flu vaccinations. They have set up multiple vaccination centers across Bangalore, making it convenient for residents to receive their shots.
To encourage widespread vaccination, the government is also collaborating with local schools, workplaces, and community centers to facilitate vaccination drives. Special attention is being given to ensuring that the vaccine is accessible to all, including marginalized communities who may have limited access to healthcare.
Residents are reminded that the flu vaccine is safe and effective. Common side effects are mild and may include soreness at the injection site, mild fever, or muscle aches. These side effects are generally short-lived and far less severe than the flu itself.
Healthcare providers are also stressing the importance of continuing COVID-19 precautions. Wearing masks, practicing good hand hygiene, and maintaining social distancing are still crucial, especially in crowded places.
Protect yourself and your loved ones by getting vaccinated. Together, we can help keep Bangalore healthy and safe this flu season. For more information on vaccination centers and schedules, residents can visit the Karnataka Health Department’s official website or follow their social media pages.
Stay informed, stay safe, and get your flu shot today!
Recomendações da OMS sobre cuidados maternos e neonatais para uma experiência pós-natal positiva.
Em consonância com os ODS – Objetivos do Desenvolvimento Sustentável e a Estratégia Global para a Saúde das Mulheres, Crianças e Adolescentes, e aplicando uma abordagem baseada nos direitos humanos, os esforços de cuidados pós-natais devem expandir-se para além da cobertura e da simples sobrevivência, de modo a incluir cuidados de qualidade.
Estas diretrizes visam melhorar a qualidade dos cuidados pós-natais essenciais e de rotina prestados às mulheres e aos recém-nascidos, com o objetivo final de melhorar a saúde e o bem-estar materno e neonatal.
Uma “experiência pós-natal positiva” é um resultado importante para todas as mulheres que dão à luz e para os seus recém-nascidos, estabelecendo as bases para a melhoria da saúde e do bem-estar a curto e longo prazo. Uma experiência pós-natal positiva é definida como aquela em que as mulheres, pessoas que gestam, os recém-nascidos, os casais, os pais, os cuidadores e as famílias recebem informação consistente, garantia e apoio de profissionais de saúde motivados; e onde um sistema de saúde flexível e com recursos reconheça as necessidades das mulheres e dos bebês e respeite o seu contexto cultural.
Estas diretrizes consolidadas apresentam algumas recomendações novas e já bem fundamentadas sobre cuidados pós-natais de rotina para mulheres e neonatos que recebem cuidados no pós-parto em unidades de saúde ou na comunidade, independentemente dos recursos disponíveis.
É fornecido um conjunto abrangente de recomendações para cuidados durante o período puerperal, com ênfase nos cuidados essenciais que todas as mulheres e recém-nascidos devem receber, e com a devida atenção à qualidade dos cuidados; isto é, a entrega e a experiência do cuidado recebido. Estas diretrizes atualizam e ampliam as recomendações da OMS de 2014 sobre cuidados pós-natais da mãe e do recém-nascido e complementam as atuais diretrizes da OMS sobre a gestão de complicações pós-natais.
O estabelecimento da amamentação e o manejo das principais intercorrências é contemplada.
Recomendamos muito.
Vamos discutir essas recomendações no nosso curso de pós-graduação em Aleitamento no Instituto Ciclos.
Esta publicação só está disponível em inglês até o momento.
Prof. Marcus Renato de Carvalho
www.agostodourado.com
Acute scrotum is a general term referring to an emergency condition affecting the contents or the wall of the scrotum.
There are a number of conditions that present acutely, predominantly with pain and/or swelling
A careful and detailed history and examination, and in some cases, investigations allow differentiation between these diagnoses. A prompt diagnosis is essential as the patient may require urgent surgical intervention
Testicular torsion refers to twisting of the spermatic cord, causing ischaemia of the testicle.
Testicular torsion results from inadequate fixation of the testis to the tunica vaginalis producing ischemia from reduced arterial inflow and venous outflow obstruction.
The prevalence of testicular torsion in adult patients hospitalized with acute scrotal pain is approximately 25 to 50 percent
micro teaching on communication m.sc nursing.pdfAnurag Sharma
Microteaching is a unique model of practice teaching. It is a viable instrument for the. desired change in the teaching behavior or the behavior potential which, in specified types of real. classroom situations, tends to facilitate the achievement of specified types of objectives.
Ozempic: Preoperative Management of Patients on GLP-1 Receptor Agonists Saeid Safari
Preoperative Management of Patients on GLP-1 Receptor Agonists like Ozempic and Semiglutide
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These lecture slides, by Dr Sidra Arshad, offer a quick overview of physiological basis of a normal electrocardiogram.
Learning objectives:
1. Define an electrocardiogram (ECG) and electrocardiography
2. Describe how dipoles generated by the heart produce the waveforms of the ECG
3. Describe the components of a normal electrocardiogram of a typical bipolar leads (limb II)
4. Differentiate between intervals and segments
5. Enlist some common indications for obtaining an ECG
Study Resources:
1. Chapter 11, Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition
2. Chapter 9, Human Physiology - From Cells to Systems, Lauralee Sherwood, 9th edition
3. Chapter 29, Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 26th edition
4. Electrocardiogram, StatPearls - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK549803/
5. ECG in Medical Practice by ABM Abdullah, 4th edition
6. ECG Basics, http://www.nataliescasebook.com/tag/e-c-g-basics
Title: Sense of Smell
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the primary categories of smells and the concept of odor blindness.
Explain the structure and location of the olfactory membrane and mucosa, including the types and roles of cells involved in olfaction.
Describe the pathway and mechanisms of olfactory signal transmission from the olfactory receptors to the brain.
Illustrate the biochemical cascade triggered by odorant binding to olfactory receptors, including the role of G-proteins and second messengers in generating an action potential.
Identify different types of olfactory disorders such as anosmia, hyposmia, hyperosmia, and dysosmia, including their potential causes.
Key Topics:
Olfactory Genes:
3% of the human genome accounts for olfactory genes.
400 genes for odorant receptors.
Olfactory Membrane:
Located in the superior part of the nasal cavity.
Medially: Folds downward along the superior septum.
Laterally: Folds over the superior turbinate and upper surface of the middle turbinate.
Total surface area: 5-10 square centimeters.
Olfactory Mucosa:
Olfactory Cells: Bipolar nerve cells derived from the CNS (100 million), with 4-25 olfactory cilia per cell.
Sustentacular Cells: Produce mucus and maintain ionic and molecular environment.
Basal Cells: Replace worn-out olfactory cells with an average lifespan of 1-2 months.
Bowman’s Gland: Secretes mucus.
Stimulation of Olfactory Cells:
Odorant dissolves in mucus and attaches to receptors on olfactory cilia.
Involves a cascade effect through G-proteins and second messengers, leading to depolarization and action potential generation in the olfactory nerve.
Quality of a Good Odorant:
Small (3-20 Carbon atoms), volatile, water-soluble, and lipid-soluble.
Facilitated by odorant-binding proteins in mucus.
Membrane Potential and Action Potential:
Resting membrane potential: -55mV.
Action potential frequency in the olfactory nerve increases with odorant strength.
Adaptation Towards the Sense of Smell:
Rapid adaptation within the first second, with further slow adaptation.
Psychological adaptation greater than receptor adaptation, involving feedback inhibition from the central nervous system.
Primary Sensations of Smell:
Camphoraceous, Musky, Floral, Pepperminty, Ethereal, Pungent, Putrid.
Odor Detection Threshold:
Examples: Hydrogen sulfide (0.0005 ppm), Methyl-mercaptan (0.002 ppm).
Some toxic substances are odorless at lethal concentrations.
Characteristics of Smell:
Odor blindness for single substances due to lack of appropriate receptor protein.
Behavioral and emotional influences of smell.
Transmission of Olfactory Signals:
From olfactory cells to glomeruli in the olfactory bulb, involving lateral inhibition.
Primitive, less old, and new olfactory systems with different path
1. 0
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KEY [A] मि ति2075-11-10
समय: ४५ डमनेट डिषयः सेिा सम्वन्धी पूर्ााङ्क : १००
1. Which is an Eukaryote?
a. Mycoplasma b. Bacteria
c. Fungus d. Virus
2. The colour of Gram positive bacteria in Gram stain is ….
a. Pink b. Purple
c. Black d. Colourless
3. Normal value of Thrombin Time (TT) is....
a. 30- 40 seconds b. 11- 15 seconds
c. 200-400 mg/dL d. 200- 400 seconds
4. The viruses can be grown in laboratory in .........
a. Blood agar b. Chocolate agar
c. Nutrient broth containing serum d. Living cells.
5. The selective medium for Vibrio cholerae is …..
a. MacConkey agar b.Mannitol salt agar
c. Cetrimide agar d. Thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose agar
6. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by….
a. Mitosis b. Meiosis
c. Conjugation d. Binary fission
7. Christmas factor is.....
a. VIII b. VII
c. IX d. XIII
8. Tourniquet test is positive in ..........
a. Multiple myeloma b. Polycythemia
c. Hemophilia d. Purpuras
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गररनेछ । पररक्षामा calculator , mobile and electronics devices प्रर्ोग गनय पाइनेछै न ।
2. 1
9. Glass vessels and glass syringes are best sterilised by......
a. Hot air oven b. Autoclaving
c. Irradiation d. Ethylene dioxide.
10. The media used for culture of Myobacterium tuberculosis is.....
a. Lowenstein-Jensen medium b. Ogawa medium
c. Dorsett’s egg medium d. All of the above
11. Cidex is……….
a. 2% gluteraldehyde b. 2% iodine
c. 2% sodium hypochlorite d. None of the above
12. How many nuclei are there in cyst of Giardia lamblia?
a. One b.Two
c. Four d. Eight
13. The best skin antiseptic is…….
a. Methanol b. 100% ethanol
c. Tincture iodine d. Phenol
14. The bacteria showing beta-hemolysis on blood agar is….
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus agalactie d. All of the above
15. Bacteria that require large amount of CO2 is called……..
a. Mesophillic b. Thermophillic
c. Halophillic d. Capnophillic
16. Facultative anaerobic bacteria grow....
a. Only in abasence of oxygen
b. Only in presence of oxygen
c. In absence or presence of oxygen
d. Non of the above
17. CA 15.3 tumor marker is done for....
a. Colon cancer b. Ovar cancer
c. Lung cancer c. Breast cancer
18. Ideal thickness of coverslip commonly used for counting chamber is ......
a. 0.4 mm b. 0.3 mm
c. 0.2 mm d. 0.1 mm
19. Platelet count should be preferably done within.....
a. 30 min b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours d. 3 hours
20. ''Arneth'' count related to......
a. WBC count b. RBC count
c. Platelet count d. Eosinophil count
21. Wright stain is a.........
a. Acidic stain b. Basic stain
c. Neutral stain d. Supravital stain
3. 2
22. .......... is the better to collect the blood sample for Microfilaria.
a. Before having any food b. At any time
c. In the morning d. At mid night
23. Function of platelets is .........
a. Supply the nutrition b. Stop the bleeding
c. Supply the oxygen d. Defense
24. Bleeding from nose is called ......
a. Melena b. Haemoptysis
c. Epistaxis d. Haematemesis
25. The PH of Drabkin's solution is .........
a. 4 to 5.4 b. 7 to 7.4
c. 7.4 to 8.0 d. 8.0 to 8.5
26. Indirect coomb’s test can perform by....
a. 1 tube procedure b. 2tube procedure
c. 3 tube procedure d. Both a and b
27. The anticoagulant Heparin derives its name from the organ.......
a. Kidney b. Heart
c. liver d. Lungs
28. When was ABO group discovered?
a. 1940 b. 1900
c. 1856 d.1800
29. FFP can be preserved utilized till
a. 35 days b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours d. 1 years
30. Father of blood circulation is .....
a. William harvey b. Karl landsteiner
c. Dr. Cohn d. Joseph Lister
31. Storage of blood bag below 2-8 °C (freezing) causes......
a. Increases WBC counts
b. Increases RBC counts
c. Increases Platelets counts
d. Hemolysis occurs
32. Normality is expressed as......
a. Grams/litre b. GM equivalents/litre
c. Moles/100 gm d. Grams/litre
33. What is the function of ATP?
a. Message carrier b. Store and transport energy
c. Make proteins d. Breakdown sugars
34. Fluoride inhibite the ........ enzyme in glycolysis.
a. Enolase b. Cis aconitate
c. Succinate thiokinase d. Aldolase
4. 3
35. Bilirubin is not excreted in urine in ....
a. Obstructive jaundice b. Hepatic jaundice
c. Hemolytic jaundice d. All three
36. Maltose on hydrolysis gives.....
a. Glucose + Galactose b. Glucose + Sucrose
c. Glucose + Glucose d. Glucose + Fructose
37. Which is best stain for reticulocyte count....
a. Alcian blue b. Brilliant cressal blue
c. Toludine blue d. New methylene blue
38. Inulin is....
a. Lipid b. Protein
c. Carbohydrate d. Vitamin
39. The Beta oxiadtion of palmetic acid provides... ATP
a. 8 b. 38
c. 129 d. 146
40. Sideroblastic anaemia is commonly........
a. Macrocytic b. Microcytic
c. Normocytic d. Spherocytic
41. A person can donate blood in ......
a. Every 2 months b. Every 3 months
c. Every 4 months d. Half yearly
42. The culture media commonly used for fungus culture is....
a. Bood agar b. MacConkey agar
c. Saubroud dextrose agar d. Chocolate agar
43. Semen analysis is indicated to detect .........
a. Sterlity b. Fertility
c. Impotence d. Deformity
44. Earliest marker for cardiac profile test..
a. LDH b. Troponin T hs
c. AST d. CK MB
45. All are gram positive bacilli except……
a. Escherichia coli b. Bacillus species
c. Clostridium species d. Listeria monocytogenes
46. All of the followings are enriched medium except .......
a. MacConkey agar b. Blood agar
c. Chocolate agar d. Loeffler serum slope
47. The bacteria which is motile without of flagella is…..
a. Escherichia coli b. Salmonella Typhi
c. Proteus vulgaris d. Treponema pallidum
5. 4
48. Ionizing radiation can be used for sterilization of:
a. Plastic syringe b. Gloves
c. Cathters d. all of the above
49. The important source of nutrition for bacteria to
a. Agar b. Electrolytes
c. Inorganic salts d. Peptones
50. Benedict's test is used to detect ....... in urine
a. Glucose b. Albumin
c. Acetone d. Protein