EV 551 Hazardous Materials Assessment – Summer2020 Homework 1 – 40 points 1. Which of the following is not a part of the HAZWOPER process: a. Recognition of hazards b. Evaluation of hazards c. Control of hazards d. Information gathering e. Safety from hazards f. All are part of the process 2. Hazardous waste site workers must: a. Receive 40-hour OSHA 1910.120 training plus 24 hours of field supervision if exposed over the PEL b. Receive 40-hour training plus 8 hours field supervision if exposed below the PEL and when respirators are not required c. 8-hour annual refresher training d. All of the above 3. First Responder Operations level training allows persons to: a. Witness or discover a release b. Perform defensive actions c. Stop the release d. A and B are true e. All of the above 4. Recognition of hazards includes: a. Identifying the materials involved in the release b. Identifying the degree of hazards present c. Provide the level of protection needed for site workers d. A and B are correct e. All of the above 5. The most important response activity at a hazardous waste work site is: a. Evaluation of hazards b. Control of hazards c. Recognition of hazards d. Safety precautions 6. Frequent hazard types found at response sites include: a. Physical hazards b. Biological hazards c. Chemical hazards d. Mechanical hazards e. All of the above 7. The purpose of initial control activities is to: a. Immediately assess clean up alternatives b. Provide time to responders to address long-term hazards c. Slowly size up response activities d. Both A and B are correct e. None of the above 8. Spill reporting is covered by which of these federal regulations: a. Superfund b. DOT c. RCRA d. Clean Water Act e. A, B, and D are correct 9. The effects of toxic materials on the human body are determined by: a. Routes of exposure b. Dose c. Duration and frequency of exposure d. All of the above 10. What are the four major pathways that chemical substances can enter the body? a. ___________________________________________________ b. ___________________________________________________ c. ___________________________________________________ d. ___________________________________________________ 11. What is the primary route of exposure to hazardous waste site workers or incident responders? a. Ingestion b. Dermal absorption c. Inhalation d. Both a and b are correct 12. Dermal absorption may occur with which form(s) of a chemical: a. Solid b. Liquid c. Aerosol d. Mist e. All of the above 13. The dose-response curve illustrates: a. The indirect relationship between dose and response b. The direct relationship between dose and response c. The average number of affected individuals d. None of the above 14. For most chemicals, a low dose does that does not show an appreciable hazard to exposed individuals is called the: a. LOAEL .

1. EV 551 Hazardous Materials Assessment – Summer2020
Homework 1 – 40 points
1. Which of the following is not a part of the HAZWOPER
process:
a.
Recognition of hazards
b.
Evaluation of hazards
c.
Control of hazards
d.
Information gathering
e.
Safety from hazards
f.
All are part of the process
2.
Hazardous waste site workers must:
a.

2. Receive 40-hour OSHA 1910.120 training plus 24 hours of field
supervision if exposed over the PEL
b.
Receive 40-hour training plus 8 hours field supervision if
exposed below the PEL and when respirators are not required
c.
8-hour annual refresher training
d.
All of the above
3.
First Responder Operations level training allows persons to:
a.
Witness or discover a release
b.
Perform defensive actions
c.
Stop the release
d.
A and B are true

3. e.
All of the above
4.
Recognition of hazards includes:
a.
Identifying the materials involved in the release
b.
Identifying the degree of hazards present
c.
Provide the level of protection needed for site workers
d.
A and B are correct
e.
All of the above
5.
The most important response activity at a hazardous waste work
site is:
a.
Evaluation of hazards
b.

4. Control of hazards
c.
Recognition of hazards
d.
Safety precautions
6.
Frequent hazard types found at response sites include:
a.
Physical hazards
b.
Biological hazards
c.
Chemical hazards
d.
Mechanical hazards
e.
All of the above
7.
The purpose of initial control activities is to:

5. a.
Immediately assess clean up alternatives
b.
Provide time to responders to address long-term hazards
c.
Slowly size up response activities
d.
Both A and B are correct
e.
None of the above
8.
Spill reporting is covered by which of these federal regulations:
a.
Superfund
b.
DOT
c.
RCRA

6. d.
Clean Water Act
e.
A, B, and D are correct
9.
The effects of toxic materials on the human body are determined
by:
a.
Routes of exposure
b.
Dose
c.
Duration and frequency of exposure
d.
All of the above
10.
What are the four major pathways that chemical substances can
enter the body?
a.
___________________________________________________

7. b.
___________________________________________________
c.
___________________________________________________
d.
___________________________________________________
11.
What is the primary route of exposure to hazardous waste site
workers or incident
responders?
a.
Ingestion
b.
Dermal absorption
c.
Inhalation
d.
Both a and b are correct
12.

8. Dermal absorption may occur with which form(s) of a chemical:
a.
Solid
b.
Liquid
c.
Aerosol
d.
Mist
e.
All of the above
13.
The dose-response curve illustrates:
a.
The indirect relationship between dose and response
b.
The direct relationship between dose and response
c.
The average number of affected individuals

9. d.
None of the above
14.
For most chemicals, a low dose does that does not show an
appreciable hazard to exposed individuals is called the:
a.
LOAEL
b.
NOAEL
c.
IDLH
d.
Sensitivity
15.
If multiple chemicals are present in a work zone, the threshold
level:
a.
Is based on the most hazardous chemical present
b.
Is based on the susceptibility of the exposed population

10. c.
Can not be accurately determined
d.
Is based on laboratory experiments
16.
Potentiation effects is defined as:
a.
The combined effects of two chemicals equals the effects of
each acting alone
b.
The combined effect of two chemicals has an effect greater than
the sum of the two individual chemicals
c.
One chemical is usually not toxic by itself, but it increases the
toxicity of the second chemical
d.
None of the above
17.
A PEL is:
a.
Permitted educational limits

11. b.
Permissible exposure limits
c.
Without regulatory authority
d.
A toxicity rating based on the concentration needed to cause
death in 50% of exposed persons
e.
B and C are correct
18.
The federal agency responsible for determining PEL values is:
a.
ACGIH
b.
NIOSH
c.
OSHA
d.
EPA

12. 19.
The OSHA PEL-C value defines a limit that:
a.
May be exceeded for a 15-minute exposure time
b.
Requires a one-hour interval with no exposure
c.
May be used as a peak exposure limit over an 8-hour workday
d.
May never be exceeded during the workday
20.
Ionizing radiation consists of the following:
a.
Alpha particles
b.
Beta particles
c.
Gamma rays

13. d.
Microwaves
e.
Only A, B, and C are correct
21.
Gamma radiation can:
a.
Pass through PPE
b.
Easily penetrate the body and be scattered and absorbed
c.
Travel long distances
d.
All of the above
e.
Only A and C are correct
22.
The greatest allies an individual has available for protection
against ionizing radiation
include:

14. a.
Time
b.
Distance
c.
Shielding
d.
All of the above
23.
For a chemical to be flammable, it must:
a.
Be in a concentration above the UFL
b.
Have a proper fuel-to-air ratio for combustion
c.
Be found at a concentration below the LFL

15. d.
All of the above
24.
A reactive hazard that undergoes reaction may cause:
a.
An increase in pressure
b.
An increase in heat production
c.
An increase in chemical vapor production
d.
All of the above
e.
Only A and C are correct
25.
Corrosive hazards are difficult to control because they:
a.
Cause structural damage to skin and containers
b.
Only act as irritants

16. c.
Act as oxidizers
d.
All of the above
e.
Both A and C are correct
26.
Irritants are solids, liquids or gases that:
a.
Must have direct contact with tissues to cause an effect
b.
Impair judgment processes in exposed individuals
c.
Increases fluid levels within affected tissues
d.
None of the above
27.
The physical and chemical properties of a hazardous material
determine:

17. a.
Environmental movement
b.
Environmental behavior
c.
Degree of hazard
d.
All of the above
e.
Both B and C are correct
28.
A material with a specific gravity greater than 1 will:
a.
Float on water
b.
Dissolve in water
c.
Sink in water

18. d.
Not enter groundwater
29.
A material, such as chlorine, has a vapor density greater than 1.
This material will:
a.
Rise into the air
b.
Rapidly disperse in ambient air
c.
Settle in low points of the topography
d.
Increase the pressure of the atmosphere
30.
Physical hazards are of concern to response workers because
they:
a.
Encounter conditions that are out of their control
b.
Increase the potential for accidents

19. c.
Decrease the need for PPE
d.
Both A and B are correct
e.
All of the above
31.
Personal protective equipment decreases accident potential by:
a.
Increasing movement
b.
Increasing visibility
c.
Reducing heat stress
d.
Both A and B are correct
e.
None of the above
32.
Excavation and trenching operations offer special problems to

20. hazardous site
workers. Safety requirements for these operations include:
a.
Shoring and sloping activities
b.
Placement of tools within 2 feet of the edge for accountability
and access
c.
Covering materials to keep rain out
d.
All of the above
33.
Heat stress hazards result in an alteration in internal body
temperature. Cooling
mechanisms include:
a.
Blood flow changes
b.
Perspiration

21. c.
PPE
d.
Both A and B are correct
e.
None of the above
34.
Noise hazards may cause injury by:
a.
Interfering with communication
b.
Increasing stress levels
c.
Causing short-term, long-term or permanent hearing loss
d.
All of the above
e.
None of the above

22. 35.
Basic types of noise exposure that can be found at a hazardous
work site include:
a.
Impact noise
b.
Intermittent noise
c.
Continuous noise
d.
Both A and B are correct
e.
All of the above
36.
If A ____ dBA level is exceeded, a Hearing Conservation
Program must be
established.
a.
80
b.

23. 85
c.
90
d.
140
37.
No individual at a work or response site may be exposed to a
sound level above ____
dBA without ear protection.
a.
120
b.
100
c.
140
d.
130
38.
Individuals are exposed to various sound levels during the
workday, therefore, a

24. combined exposure level must be calculated for site personnel.
If the Total Exposure
value exceeds ____, the allowable daily noise level has been
exceeded.
a.
.1
b.
1
c.
10
d.
None of the above
39.
Biological hazards at a hazardous waste site do not include:
a.
Viral contaminants
b.
Fungal growths

25. c.
Allergic reactions
d.
Snake bites
e.
None of the above
40.
NIOSH determines exposure limit values for:
a.
Inorganic contaminants only
b.
10-hour workdays, 50-hour work weeks
c.
10-hour workdays, 80-hour work weeks
d.
IDLH environments
PAGE
8
Grade Component (Weight)

26. Unacceptable (<50%)
Well Below Expectations (50-59%)
Developing Twd. Expectations
(60-69%)
Meets Expectations (70-80%)
Exceeds Expectations (81%+)
Notes
Academic Honesty and Format
-Essay follows APA format guidelines as reflected in the text
and discussed in class
-Proper APA References list
-APA in-text citations are sufficient, properly formatted
Use and Integration of Evidence
-All claims are supported with evidence from the text
-Evidence is relevant, concrete, and sufficiently detailed to
support the claim
-Evidence is smoothly integrated into the text, using a variety
of techniques and approaches
-Evidence is accurate/correct
Analysis
-All evidence analyzed/explained thoroughly; analysis displays
deep thinking (no superficial discussion)

27. -Links between evidence and claims are clear, strong
-Analysis is accurate, does not misrepresent evidence
Structure and Organization
-Thesis statement is correctly placed, and presents a clear,
compelling argument
-All body paragraphs begin with a clear topic sentence that fully
captures the discussion in the paragraph
-Topic sentences are connected to the overall thesis
-Paragraphs are unified (one topic), coherent (flow logically and
smoothly)
-Conclusion paragraph begins with a re-worded thesis statement
and wraps up in a satisfying way
Style and Clarity
-Free from informal language (slang, colloquialism,
contractions, first-person and second-person pronouns)
-Sentence construction is sound and varied (different lengths,
organizations, parallel structure)
-Transitional words/phrases smoothly connect sentences and/or
indicate relationships to one another
-Writer chooses words accurately and appropriately
-Writing is concise (no wordiness) and precise (no vagueness)

28. Grammar/Mechanics
-Free from fragments, comma splices, fused sentences
-Free from spelling errors
-Nearly free from grammatical errors (eg. Subj.-verb agreement,
pronoun reference, incorrect tense)
-Nearly free from mechanical errors (typing errors, missing
words, capitalization errors)
-Punctuation is used properly (very few minor errors)
ENGL 151 Rhetorical Analysis Assignment
Assignment Details
Value: 15%
Due Date: Friday, May 29
Length: 700-800 words
Instructions
Applying the skills and information you’ve learned to this point
in the class, you will create a 4-6 paragraph analysis of Grant
Mitchell’s argument in “It’s Time to Enshrine the Rights and
Protections of Transgender Canadians.” The basis of your
rhetorical analysis will be your judgment of the effectiveness of

29. Mitchell’s argument, and you will support your judgment by
analyzing some of the rhetorical appeals he makes. I expect
your analysis to be thorough, well-reasoned, and concise. Don’t
waste space with empty words.
Your analysis should have a strong, clear structure. As a guide,
consider the outline shown in the “Structure” section of this
handout.
Preparation
· Begin with a close, critical reading of the article
· Determine the author’s purpose and audience
· Look for various rhetorical appeals (logos, pathos, ethos)
throughout the essay; for each, determine what effect it was
supposed to have on readers and decide whether you think it
would be effective
· Develop an opinion on the overall effectiveness of the essay:
does it achieve its purpose?
· You may have a complex answer to this question; perhaps it
achieves its purpose in some respects but fails in others. As
long as you can articulate your position clearly, a complex
answer is just fine.
· Make a list of 2-4 major reasons that the argument was
effective or ineffective
· You must limit your discussion to rhetorical appeals (logos,
pathos, ethos), but you are not required to discuss all three
types. You might, for example, devote two paragraphs to
Mitchell’s logos appeals and decide that his pathos appeals
aren’t important enough to include in your analysis (don’t
forget: it’s your analysis).
· Before you begin drafting, editing, and revising the essay, you
should create an outline, following the structure below.
Essay Structure
Introduction

30. · Introduces topic in an interesting manner (1-2 sentences)
· Explains the original author’s purpose and audience
· Provides a thesis statement that includes your overall opinion
about the effectiveness of the argument, as well as brief
mention of the major ideas you will discuss to support your
thesis
Body Paragraphs (2-4)
· Begin with a topic sentence (which provides your claim and
reason)
· Then develop your claim with a mixture of textual evidence
and analysis/warrants (see the “CREW Paragraph Development”
lecture video for a sample)
Conclusion
· Begins with a re-worded thesis statement
· Reviews major ideas discussed in the body paragraphs
· Leaves readers with a lasting thought about the reading, the
argument, or the topic
References list
· A list of the texts cited in your analysis (should be only one),
using APA guidelines
Essay Format
Your assignment should be formatted according to APA 7th
edition guidelines, and you must cite both quotations and
paraphrasing in APA style, which includes a References list.
Academic Honesty
You must practice academic honesty by acknowledging when
you use the words and/or the ideas of another author.
· All borrowed material must be cited using APA style
· Paraphrasing must be significantly re-worded from the
original material

31. · All quotation must be under 40 words long
Submission
Submit your completed assignment to the appropriate
Assignments drop box on D2L before 11:59pm on Friday, May
29.
2