emergency-nursing

Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 6/20

1. The nurse is teaching a class on biological warfare. Which information should the nurse
include in the presentation?
a. Contaminated water is the only source of transmission of biological agents.
b. Vaccines are available and being prepared to counteract biological agents.
c. Biological weapons are less of a threat than chemical agents.
d. Biological weapons are easily obtained and result in significant mortality.

2. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse assess in the client who has been exposed to the
anthrax bacillus via the skin?
a. A scabby, clear fluid±filled vesicle.
b. Edema, pruritus, and a 2-mm ulcerated vesicle.
c. Irregular brownish-pink spots around the hairline.
d. Tiny purple spots flush with the surface of the skin.

3. The client has expired secondary to smallpox. Which information about funeral arrangements
is most important for the nurse to provide to the client¶s family?
a. The client must be cremated.
b. Suggest an open casket funeral.
c. Bury the client within 24 hours.
d. Notify the public health department.

4. A chemical exposure has just occurred at an airport. An off-duty nurse, knowledgeable about
biochemical agents, is giving directions to the travelers. Which direction should the nurse
provide to the travelers?
a. Hold their breath as much as possible.
b. Stand up to avoid heavy exposure.
c. Lie down to stay under the exposure.
d. Attempt to breathe through their clothing.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in the prodromal phase of radiation exposure. Which
signs/symptoms would the nurse assess in the client?
a. Anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.
b. Sudden fever, chills, and enlarged lymph nodes.
c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
d. Flaccid paralysis, diplopia, and dysphagia.

6. The off-duty nurse hears on the television of a bioterrorism act in the community.
Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Immediately report to the hospital emergency room.
b. Call the American Red Cross to find out where to go.
c. Pack a bag and prepare to stay at the hospital.
d. Follow the nurse¶s hospital policy for responding.

7. Which situation would warrant the nurse obtaining information from a material safety data
sheet (MSDS)?
a. The custodian spilled a chemical solvent in the hallway.
b. A visitor slipped and fell on the floor that had just been mopped.
c. A bottle of antineoplastic agent broke on the client¶s floor.
d. The nurse was stuck with a contaminated needle in the client¶s room.

8. The triage nurse is working in the emergency department. Which client should be assessed
first?
a. The 10-year-old child whose dad thinks the child¶s leg is broken.
b. The 45-year-old male who is diaphoretic and clutching his chest.
c. The 58-year-old female complaining of a headache and seeing spots.
d. The 25-year-old male who cut his hand with a hunting knife.

9. According to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) triage system, which situation
would be considered a level red (Priority 1)?
a. Injuries are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely.
b. Injuries are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
c. Injuries are significant but can wait hours without threat to life or limb.
d. Injuries are life threatening but survivable with minimal interventions.

10. Which statement best describes the role of the medical-surgical nurse during a disaster?
a. The nurse may be assigned to ride in the ambulance.
b. The nurse may be assigned as a first assistant in the operating room.
c. The nurse may be assigned to crowd control.
d. The nurse may be assigned to the emergency department.

(ANSWER KEY)

1. Answer: D
Rationale: Because of the variety of agents, the means of transmission, and lethality of the
agents, biological weapons, including anthrax, smallpox, and plague, is especially dangerous.

2. Answer: B
Rationale: Exposure to anthrax bacilli via the skin results in skin lesions, which cause edema
with pruritus and the formation of macules or papules that ulcerate, forming a 1-3 mm vesicle.
Then a painless eschar develops, which falls off in one (1) to 2 weeks.

3. Answer: A
Rationale: Cremation is recommended because the virus can stay alive in the scabs of the body
for 13 years.

4. Answer: B
Rationale: Standing up will avoid heavy exposure the chemical will sink toward the floor or
ground.

5. Answer: C
Rationale: The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs 48±72
hours after exposure and the signs/symptoms are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, and
fatigue. Higher exposures of radiation signs/symptoms include fever, respiratory distress, and
excitability.

6. Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should follow the hospital¶s policy. Many times nurses will stay at home
until decisions are made as to where the employees should report.

7. Answer: A
Rationale: The MSDS provides chemical information regarding specific agents, health
information, and spill information for a variety of chemicals. It is required for every chemical
that is found in the hospital.

8. Answer: B
Rationale: The triage nurse should see this client first because these are symptoms of a myocar-
dial infarction, which potentially life is threatening.

9. Answer: D
Rationale: This is called the immediate category. Individuals in this group can progress rapidly
to expectant if treatment is delayed.

10. Answer: D
Rationale: New settings and atypical roles for nurses may be required during disasters; medical-
surgical nurses can provide first aid and be required to work in unfamiliar settings.


1. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement when performing mouth-
to-mouth resuscitation on a client who has pulseless ventricular fibrillation?
a. Perform the jaw thrust maneuver to open the airway.
b. Use the mouth to cover the client¶s mouth and nose.
c. Insert an oral airway prior to performing mouth to mouth.
d. Use a pocket mouth shield to cover client¶s mouth.

2. The nurse is teaching CPR to a class. Which statement best explains the definition of sudden
cardiac death?
a. Cardiac death occurs after being removed from a mechanical ventilator.
b. Cardiac death is the time that the physician officially declares the client dead.
c. Cardiac death occurs within one (1) hour of the onset of cardiovascular symptoms.
d. The death is caused by myocardial ischemia resulting from coronary artery disease.

3. Which statement explains the scientific rationale for having emergency suction equipment
available during resuscitation efforts?
a. Gastric distention can occur as a result of ventilation.
b. It is needed to assist when intubating the client.
c. This equipment will ensure a patent airway.
d. It keeps the vomitus away from the health-care provider.

4. Which equipment must be immediately brought to the client¶s bedside when a code is called
for a client who has experienced a cardiac arrest?
a. A ventilator.
b. A crash cart.
c. A gurney.
d. Portable oxygen.

5. The nursing administrator responds to a code situation. When assessing the situation, which
role must the administrator ensure is performed for legal purposes and continuity of care of the
client?
a. A person is ventilating with an ambu bag.
b. A person is performing chest compressions correctly.
c. A person is administering medications as ordered.
d. A person is keeping an accurate record of the code.

6. The nurse in the emergency department has admitted five (5) clients in the last two (2) hours
with complaints of fever and gastrointestinal distress. Which question would be most appropriate
for the nurse to ask each client to determine if there is a bioterrorism threat?
a. ³Do you work or live near any large power lines?´
b. ³Where were you immediately before you got sick?´
c. ³Can you write down everything you ate today?´
d. ³What other health problems do you have?´

7. The health-care facility has been notified that an alleged inhalation anthrax exposure has
occurred at the local post office. Which category of personal protective equipment (PPE) would
the response team wear?
a. Level A
b. Level B
c. Level C
d. Level D

8. The nurse is teaching a class on bioterrorism and is discussing personal protective equipment
(PPE). Which statement is the most important fact that must be shared with the participants?
a. Health-care facilities should keep masks at entry doors.
b. The respondent should be trained in the proper use of PPE.
c. No single combination of PPE protects against all hazards.
d. The EPA has divided PPE into four levels of protection

9. The nurse is teaching a class on bioterrorism. What is the scientific rationale for designating a
specific area for decontamination?
a. Showers and privacy can be provided to the client in this area.
b. This area isolates the clients who have been exposed to the agent.
c. It provides a centralized area for stocking the needed supplies.
d. It prevents secondary contamination to the health-care providers.

10. The triage nurse in a large trauma center has been notified of an explosion in a major
chemical manufacturing plant. Which action should the nurse implement first when the clients
arrive at the emergency department?
a. Triage the clients and send them to the appropriate areas.
b. Thoroughly wash the clients with soap and water and then rinse.
c. Remove the clients¶ clothing and have them shower.
d. Assume the clients have been decontaminated at the plant.

(ANSWER KEY)

1. Answer: D
Rationale: Nurses should protect themselves against possible communicable disease, such as
HIV, hepatitis, or any types of sexually transmitted disease.

2. Answer: C
Rationale: Unexpected death occurring within1 hour of the onset of cardiovascular symptoms is
the definition of sudden cardiac death.

3. Answer: A
Rationale: Gastric distention occurs from overventilating clients. When compressions are
performed, the pressure will cause vomiting that could be aspirated into the lungs.

4. Answer: B
Rationale: The crash cart is the mobile unit that has the defibrillator and all the medications and
supplies needed to conduct a code.

5. Answer: D
Rationale: The chart is a legal document and the code must be documented in the chart and
provide information that may be needed in the intensive care unit.

6. Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should take note of any unusual illness for the time of year or clusters of
clients coming from a single geographical location who all exhibit signs/symptoms of possible
biological terrorism.

7. Answer: A
Rationale: Level A protection is worn when the highest level of respiratory, skin, eye, and

mucous membrane protection is required.
In this situation of possible inhalation of anthrax, such protection is required.

8. Answer: C
Rationale: The health-care providers are not guaranteed absolute protects. The nurse should take
note of any unusual illness for the time of year or clusters of clients coming from a single
geographical location who all exhibit signs/symptoms of possible biological terrorism.ion, even
with all the training and protective equipment.

9. Answer: D
Rationale: Avoiding cross contamination is a priority for personnel and equipment²the fewer
number of people exposed, the safer the community and area.

10. Answer: C
Rationale: This is the first step. Depending on the type of exposure, this step alone can remove a
large portion of exposure.


1. The nurse is planning a program for clients at a health fair regarding the prevention and early
detection of cancer of the pancreas. Which self-care activity should the nurse teach that is an
example of primary nursing care?
a. Monitor for elevated blood glucose at random intervals.
b. Inspect the skin and sclera of the eyes for a yellow tint.
c. Limit meat in the diet and eat a diet that is low in fats.
d. Instruct the client with hyperglycemia about insulin injections.

2. The client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas is being discharged to start chemotherapy in
the HCP¶s office. Which statement made by the client indicates the client understands the
discharge instructions?
a. ³I will have to see the HCP every day for six (6) weeks for my treatments.´
b. ³I should write down all my questions so I can ask them when I see the HCP.´
c. ³I am sure that this is not going to be a serious problem for me to deal with.´
d. ³The nurse will give me an injection in my leg and I will get to go home.´

3. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the collaborative
problem of ³altered nutrition.´ Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Continuous feedings via PEG tube.
b. Have the family bring in foods from home.
c. Assess for food preferences.
d. Refer to the dietitian.

4. The client is taken to the emergency department with an injury to the left arm. Which action
should the nurse take first?
a. Assess the nail beds for capillary refill time.
b. Remove the client¶s clothing from the arm.

c. Call radiology for a STAT x-ray of the extremity.
d. Prepare the client for the application of a cast.

5. The nurse finds the client unresponsive on the floor of the bathroom. Which action should the
nurse implement first?
a. Check the client for breathing.
b. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse.
c. Shake the client and shout.
d. Call a code via the bathroom call light.

6. Which behavior by the unlicensed assistive personnel who is performing cardiac compressions
on an adult client during a code warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
a. Has one hand on the lower half of the sternum above the xiphoid process.
b. Performs cardiac compressions and allows for rescue breathing.
c. Depresses the sternum 0.5 to one (1) inch during compressions.
d. Requests to be relieved from performing compressions because of exhaustion.

7. Which is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement when participating in a
code?
a. Elevate the arm after administering medication.
b. Maintain sterile technique throughout the code.
c. Treat the client¶s signs/symptoms; do not watch the monitor.
d. Be sure to provide accurate documentation of what happened in the code.

8. The CPR instructor is explaining what an automated external defibrillator (AED) does to
students in a CPR class. Which statement best describes an AED?
a. It analyzes the rhythm and shocks the client in ventricular fibrillation.
b. The client will be able to have synchronized cardioversion with the AED.
c. It will keep the health-care provider informed of the client¶s oxygen level.
d. The AED will perform cardiac compressions on the client.

9. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client is most likely to experience
sudden cardiac death?
a. The 84-year-old client exhibiting uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.
b. The 60-year-old client exhibiting asymptomatic sinus bradycardia.
c. The 53-year-old client exhibiting ventricular fibrillation.
d. The 65-year-old client exhibiting supraventricular tachycardia.

10. Which health-care team member referral should be made when a code is being conducted on
a client in a community hospital?
a. The hospital chaplain.
b. The social worker.
c. The respiratory therapist.
d. The director of nurses.

(ANSWER KEY)

1. Answer: C
Rationale: Limiting the intake of meat and fats in the diet would be an example of primary
interventions. Risk factors for the development of cancer of the pancreas are cigarette smoking
and eating a high-fat diet that is high in animal protein. By changing these behaviors the client
could possibly prevent the development of cancer of the pancreas. Other risk factors include
genetic predisposition and exposure to industrial chemicals.

2. Answer: B
Rationale: The most important person in the treatment of the cancer is the client. Research has
proved that the more involved a client becomes in his or her care, the better the prognosis.
Clients should have a chance to ask all the questions that they have.

3. Answer: D
Rationale: A collaborative intervention would be to refer to the nutrition expert, the dietitian.

4. Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the nail beds for the capillary refill time. A prolonged time
(greater than three seconds) indicates impaired circulation to the extremity.

5. Answer: C
Rationale: This is the first intervention the nurse should implement after finding the client
unresponsive on the floor.

6. Answer: C
Rationale: The sternum should be depressed 1.5 to 2 inches during compressions to ensure
adequate circulation of blood to the body; therefore, the nurse needs to correct the assistant.

7. Answer: C
Rationale: This is the most important intervention.
The nurse should always treat the client based on the nurse¶s assessment and data from the
monitors; an intervention should not be based on data from the monitors without the nurse¶s
assessment.

8. Answer: A
Rationale: This is the correct statement explaining what an AED does when used in a code.

9. Answer: C
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is the most common dysrhythmia associated with sudden
cardiac death; ventricular fibrillation is responsible for 65% to 85% of sudden cardiac deaths.

10. Answer: A
Rationale: The chaplain should be called to help address the client¶s family or significant others.
A small community hospital would not have a 24-hour on-duty pastoral service.

Nursing Board Sample Review Questions in
Emergency
22 Jul, 2010 | Written by Nursingbuzz_editor | under Emergency Nursing Review Questions,
Emergency Questions


1. A client with multiple injury following a vehicular accident is transferred to the critical care
unit. He begins to complain of increased abdominal pain in the left upper quadrant. A ruptured
spleen is diagnosed and he is scheduled for emergency splenectomy. In preparing the client for
surgery, the nurse should emphasize in his teaching plan the:
a. Complete safety of the procedure
b. Expectation of postoperative bleeding
c. Risk of the procedure with his other injuries
d. Presence of abdominal drains for several days after surgery

2. After you managed to stabilize the respiratory function of your burn patient, your next goal is
to prevent this you have to replace the lost fluid and electrolytes. In starting fluid replacement
therapy, the total volume and rate of IV fluid repalcement are gauged by the patient¶s response
and by the patient¶s response and by the resuscitation formula. In determining the adequacy of
fluid resuscitation, it is essential for you to monitor the:
a. urine output
b. blood pressure
c. intracranial pressure
d. cardiac output

3. You are a nurse in the emergency department and it is during the shift that Mr. CT is admitted
in the area due to a fractured skull from a motor accident. You scheduled him for surgery under
which classification?
a. Urgent
b. Emergent
c. Required
d. Elective

4. Lucky was in a vehicular acccident where he sustained injury to his left ankle. In the
Emergency room, you noticed anxious he looks. You establish rapport with him and to reduce
his anxiety, you initially:
a. Identify yourself and state your purpose in being with the client
b. Take him to the radiology section for x-ray of affected extremity
c. Talk to the physician for an order of valium
d. Do inspection and palpation to check extent of his injuries

5. The client diagnosed with a mild concussion is being discharged from the emergency
department. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the client¶s significant other?
a. Awaken the client every two hours.
b. Monitor for increased intracranial pressure.
c. Observe frequently for hypervigilance.
d. Offer the client food every three to four hours.

6. The client diagnosed with Addison¶s disease is admitted to the emergency department after a
day at the lake. The client is lethargic, forgetful, and weak. Which intervention should be the
emergency department nurse¶s first action?
a. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle and infuse NS rapidly.
b. Have the client wait in the waiting room until a bed is available.
c. Perform a complete head-to-toe assessment.
d. Collect urinalysis and blood samples for a CBC and calcium level.

7. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the nursing
diagnosis of ³risk for altered skin integrity related to pruritus.´ Which interventions should the
nurse implement?
a. Assess tissue turgor.
b. Apply antifungal creams.
c. Monitor bony prominences for breakdown.
d. Have the client keep the fingernails short.

8. The client diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas is two (2) days
postpancreatoduodenectomy (Whipple¶s procedure). Which nursing problem has the highest
priority?
a. Anticipatory grieving.
b. Fluid volume imbalance.
c. Acute incisional pain.
d. Altered nutrition.

9. The client is diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas. When assessing the patient,
which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find?
a. Clay-colored stools and dark urine.
b. Night sweats and fever.
c. Left lower abdominal cramps and tenesmus.
d. Nausea and coffee-ground emesis.

10. The client admitted to rule out pancreatic islet tumors complains of feeling weak, shaky, and
sweaty. Which should be the first intervention implemented by the nurse?
a. Start an IV with D5W.
b. Notify the health-care provider.
c. Perform a bedside glucose check.
d. Give the client some orange juice.

(ANSWER KEY)

1. Answer: D
Rationale: Presence of abdominal drains for several days after surgery
Drains are usually inserted into the splenic bed to facilitate removal of fluid in the area that could
lead to abscess formation.

2. Answer: A
Rationale: to establish the sufficiency of fluid resuscitation, urine output totals an index of renal
perfusion. Urine output totals an index of renal perfusion, urine output totals of 30-50 ml/hour
have been used as resuscitation goals. Other indicators of adequate fluid replacement are systolic
blood pressure exceeding 100 mmHg, a pulse rate less than110 beats/min or both.

3. Answer: B
Rationale: Emergent surgery is performed, immediately without delay to maintain life, limb or
organ, remove damage and stop bleeding. Urgent surgery requires prompt attention and is done
few hours but within 24 to 48 hours. Required surgery is done within a few weeks as surgery is
important. Elective surgery is scheduled and done at the convenience of client as failure to have
surgery is not catastrophic. Optional surgeries are done by preference only.

4. Answer: A
Rationale: Introducing self initiates the nurse-patient interaction, relationship and the purpose of
being with the client. This prevents confusion and let the client know what to expect, thereby
reducing anxiety.

5. Answer: A
Rationale: Awakening the client every 2 hours allows the identification of headache, dizziness,
lethargy, irritability, and anxiety²all signs of post-concussion syndrome²that would warrant
the significant other¶s taking the client back to the emergency department.

6. Answer: A
Rationale: This client has been exposed to wind and sun at the lake during the hours prior to
being admitted to the emergency department. This predisposes the client to dehydration and an
Addisonian crisis. Rapid IV fluid replacement is necessary.

7. Answer: D
Rationale: Keeping the fingernails short will reduce the chance of breaks in the skin from
scratching.

8. Answer: B
Rationale: This is a major abdominal surgery, and there are massive fluid volume shifts that
occur when this type of trauma is experienced by the body. Maintaining the circulatory system
without overloading it requires extremely close monitoring.

9. Answer: A
Rationale: The client will have jaundice, clay-colored stools, and tea-colored urine resulting from
blockage of the bile drainage.

10. Answer: C
Rationale: These are symptoms of an insulin reaction (hypoglycemia). A bedside glucose check
should be done. Pancreatic islet tumors can produce hyperinsulinemia or hypoglycemia.


1 Which nursing intervention would be appropriate when caring for a client who has sustained an
electrical burn?
a. Applying ice to the burned area
b. Flushing the burn area with large amounts of water
c. Monitoring the client with cardiac telemetry
d. Preparing to administer the chemical antidote

2. Eddie, 40 years old, is brought to the emergency room after the crash of his private plane. He
has suffered multiple crushing wounds of the chest, abdomen and legs. It is feared his leg may
have to be amputated.
When Eddie arrives in the emergency room, the assessment that assume the greatest priority are:
a. Level of consciousness and pupil size
b. Abdominal contusions and other wounds
c. Pain, Respiratory rate and blood pressure
d. Quality of respirations and presence of pulses.

3. An emergency treatment for an acute asthmatic attack is Adrenaline 1:1000 given
hypodermically. This is given to:
a. increase BP
b. decrease mucosal swelling
c. relax the bronchial smooth muscle
d. decrease bronchial secretions

4. Intervention for a pt. who has swallowed a Muriatic Acid includes all of the following except
a. administering an irritant that will stimulate vomiting
b. aspirating secretions from the pharynx if respirations are affected
c. neutralizing the chemical
d. washing the esophagus with large volumes of water via gastric lavage

5. John, 16 years old, is brought to the ER after a vehicular accident. He is pronounced dead on
arrival. When his parents arrive at the hospital, the nurse should:
a. ask them to stay in the waiting area until she can spend time alone with them
b. speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their
emotions freely
c. Speak to one parent at a time so that each can ventilate feelings of loss without upsetting the

other
d. ask the MD to medicate the parents so they can stay calm to deal with their son¶s death.

6. A nurse is eating in the hospital cafeteria when a toddler at a nearby table chokes on a piece of
food and appears slightly blue. The appropriate initial action should be to
a. Begin mouth to mouth resuscitation
b. Give the child water to help in swallowing
c. Perform 5 abdominal thrusts
d. Call for the emergency response team

7. A client is admitted from the emergency department with severe-pain and edema in the right
foot. His diagnosis is gouty arthritis. When developing a plan of care, which action would have
the highest priority?
a. Apply hot compresses to the affected joints.
b. Stress the importance of maintaining good posture to prevent deformities.
c. Administer salicylates to minimize the inflammatory reaction.
d. Ensure an intake of at least 3000 ml of fluid per day.

8. The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust), for acute airway obstruction, attempts to:
a. Force air out of the lungs
b. Increase systemic circulation
c. Induce emptying of the stomach
d. Put pressure on the apex of the heart

9. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult patient. When performing chest compressions, the
nurse understands the correct hand placement is located over the
a. upper half of the sternum
b. upper third of the sternum
c. lower half of the sternum
d. lower third of the sternum

10. John, 16 years old, is brought to the ER after a vehicular accident. He is pronounced dead on
arrival. When his parents arrive at the hospital, the nurse should:
a. ask them to stay in the waiting area until she can spend time alone with them
b. speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their
emotions freely
c. Speak to one parent at a time so that each can ventilate feelings of loss without upsetting the
other
d. ask the MD to medicate the parents so they can stay calm to deal with their son¶s death.

(ANSWER KEY)

1. Answer: C
Rationale: Because of the effects of the electrical current on the cardiovascular system, all clients
experiencing electrical burns should be placed on a cardiac monitor. Applying ice is

inappropriate for any type of burn. Only chemical burns should be flushed with large amounts of
water. Chemical antidotes may be used for chemical burns for which an antidote has been
identified.

2. Answer: D
Rationale: Respiratory and cardiovascular functions are essential for oxygenation. These are top
priorities to trauma management. Basic life functions must be maintained or reestablished

3. Answer: C
Rationale: Acute asthmatic attack is characterized by severe bronchospasm which can be
relieved by the immediate administration of bronchodilators. Adrenaline or Epinephrine is an
adrenergic agent that causes bronchial dilation by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles.

4. Answer: A
Rationale: Swallowing of corrosive substances causes severe irritation and tissue destruction of
the mucous membrane of the GI tract. Measures are taken to immediately remove the toxin or
reduce its absorption. For corrosive poison ingestion, such as in muriatic acid where burn or
perforation of the mucosa may occur, gastric emptying procedure is immediately instituted, This
includes gastric lavage and the administration of activated charcoal to absorb the poison.
Administering an irritant with the concomitant vomiting to remove the swallowed poison will
further cause irritation and damage to the mucosal lining of the digestive tract. Vomiting is only
indicated when non-corrosive poison is swallowed.

5. Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden death of a family member creates a state of shock on the family. They go into
a stage of denial and anger in their grieving. Assisting them with information they need to know,
answering their questions and listening to them will provide the needed support for them to move
on and be of support to one another.

6. Answer: C
Rationale: Perform 5 abdominal thrusts. At this age, the most effective way to clear the airway of
food is to perform abdominal thrusts.

7. Answer: D
Rationale: Ensure an intake of at least 3000 ml of fluid per day. Gouty arthritis is a metabolic
disease marked by urate deposits that cause painful arthritic joints. The patient should be urged
to increase his fluid intake to prevent the development of urinary uric acid stones.

8. Answer: A
Rationale: The Heimlich maneuver is used to assist a person choking on a foreign object. The
pressure from the thrusts lifts the diaphragm, forces air out of the lungs and creates an artificial
cough that expels the aspirated material.

9. Answer: C
Rationale: The exact and safe location to do cardiac compression is the lower half of the

sternum. Doing it at the lower third of the sternum may cause gastric compression which can
lead to a possible aspiration.

10. Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden death of a family member creates a state of shock on the family. They go into
a stage of denial and anger in their grieving. Assisting them with information they need to know,
answering their questions and listening to them will provide the needed support for them to move
on and be of support to one another.

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