TỔNG HỢP ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC VÀ ĐỀ XUẤT KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XVII, NĂM 2023 MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10, 11.pdf

TỔNG HỢP ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC VÀ ĐỀ
XUẤT KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI
HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG L
ẦN THỨ XVII, NĂM
2023 MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10, 11
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1
ĐIỂM BÀI THI
GIÁM KHẢO
(Ký và ghi rõ họ tên)
SỐ PHÁCH
Bằng số Bằng chữ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2
 Thí sinh KHÔNG được sử dụng tài liệu.
 Cán bộ coi thi KHÔNG giải thích gì thêm.
SECTION I. LISTENING (50 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc
mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1. You will hear a conversation about a patient’s temporary injury. For questions 1-7, complete the
notes below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Temporary Patient Record Form
Name: Example
Peter Smith
Street address:
Suburb:
Phone number:
(1) ______________
(2) ______________
4689 5324
Details of injury
Sport:
Type of injury:
Date of injury:
Tennis
Sprained (3) ______________
(4) ______________
Previous treatment and current problems
The patient’s private doctor suggested treatment with (5) ______________.
The patient is unable to go upstairs, and he is experiencing some pain in
his (6)______________ at night.
Advice given
Stop using the (7) ______________
Do regular exercise at home
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7.
TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG
LẦN THỨ XVII–VĨNH PHÚC 2023
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
LẦN THỨ XVII, NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 04 tháng 08 năm 2023
Đề thi gồm 12 trang
(Học sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
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Part 2. You will hear a psychologist speaking on British radio on the subject of astrology. For
questions 8-15, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
 Over 60% of (8) ______________ admit to being interested in astrology.
 Less than 3% of people would consult the stars before making (9) ______________.
 Psychologists now believe that time of birth can affect a person’s (10) ______________ development.
 To test his idea, the speaker decided to compare people’s (11) ______________ and zodiac sign.
 An amazing number of (12) ______________ were born around mid-July to mid-August.
 Other connections found by the study were (13) ______________.
 A fair number of serious sports players were born in the (14) ______________ months.
 The speaker thinks that the lack of professions dominated by mostly one sign is a little (15)______________.
Your answers:
8. 9. 10. 11.
12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 3. You will hear a woman talking about caffeine. For questions 16-20, decide whether the following
sentences are true (T) or false (F).
16. The desired effects of caffeine are brought by its role in enabling the proper function of specific
receptors in the brain.
17. Daily consumption of caffeine products has a long history, only at irregular intervals.
18. The local popularity Chinese tea enjoyed was preceded by its global reputation.
19. Caffeine consumption has become a part of the US beverage culture.
20. Caffeine has a risk warning, which led to a ban on the bulk sale of caffeine-infused beverages by the
US government.
Your answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 4. You will hear a psychologist called Sheena Smith talking about studying human behavior. For
questions 21-25, choose the answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear.
21. When Sheena talks about her father’s ‘telephone voice’, she remembers ______.
A. the excitement she felt about a discovery
B. the pride she felt in the way her father spoke
C. the amusement she felt at her mother’s reaction
D. the terror of being in trouble
22. When Sheena took part in an experiment in a lift, she felt ______.
A. uneased because of the lack of space
B. disappointed by how awkwardly others behaved
C. concerned about doing the wrong thing
D. surprised by people’s lack of interest in conversation
23. What does Sheena think about the work she is currently doing?
A. It isn’t as interesting as her previous projects.
B. It isn’t as useful as she thought it might be.
C. It isn’t as easy to do as she had assumed.
D. It isn’t as unprovable as scientists reasoned.
24. The project Sheena has most enjoyed working on ______.
A. had an unexpected outcome
B. helped her to progress in her career
C. changed her opinion about the value of research
D. provided insights in the mechanism of satisfaction
25. Sheena says that what she’d like to study in the future will be ______.
A. unlike anything she’s tried before B. rewarding for the participants
C. difficult to achieve D. challenging to find suitable participants
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
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SECTION II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
Part 1. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.
26. ________, early approaches for coping with workplace stress dealt with the problem only after its
symptoms had appeared.
A. Although well-intending B. Although it is a good intention
C. Although a good intention D. Although well-intentioned
27. Who need more than the ________ necessities of life?
A. bare B. naked C. pure D. sole
28. I ________ while I had the chance; now I’m starving.
A. ought to have eaten B. would have been better to eat
C. was eating D. could not have eaten
29. He promised me an Oxford dictionary and to my great joy, he ________ his word.
A. stood by B. stuck at C. went back on D. held onto
30. His happy–go–lucky attitude means that on the field he exhibits a ________ disregard for the rules.
A. required B. glaring C. permissible D. flagrant
31. Were you on the ________ when you said you had resigned from work?
A. wagon B. level C. flat D. town
32. Take the doctor's advice into consideration. He's in ________ earnest about the epidemic.
A. deadly B. fatally C. gravely D. mortally
33. Parents often have to ________ large amounts of money so that their children can take part in
extracurricular sports activities.
A. mark down B. ring up C. shell out D. stock up
34. On the way to Cambridge yesterday, the road was blocked by a fallen tree, so we had to make a ________.
A. deviation B. digression C. departure D. detour
35. We are aware that he has tried his best; ________, his work is just not good enough.
A. let alone B. albeit C. be that as it may D. come what may
36. The flights are full at the moment, so you'll have to ________.
A. run a stroke of luck B. get a better luck
C. be down on your luck D. take pot luck
37. The study adds to a growing ________ of evidence that links a lack of sleep with weight gain.
A. body B. form C. hulk D. soul
38. “Are there any cookies left?” – “No, ________.”
A. not anything B. nothing at all C. nothing whatever D. none whatsoever
39. Several items of goods ________ during the pandemic of Covid-19.
A. are under one roof B. hit the roof C. raise the roof D. go through the roof
40. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to ________ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
41. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ________ wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
42. He ________ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
43. Tim’s extremely punctual. He turns up every day at nine o’clock on the ________.
A. dot B. spur C. spot D. day
44. A: You should never have agreed to help mend her car!
B: “__________________”
A. Famous last words. B. Well, you live and learn.
C. It’s a small word. D. You can’t win them all.
45. The agricultural project suffered a major ________ when winter arrived three weeks earlier than expected.
A. distortion B. downfall C. contraction D. setback
Your answers:
26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
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Part 2. Use the most suitable form of the words in brackets.
46. After Romeo and Juliet died, their families, who had been _______________ (RECONCILE) enemies,
became friends.
47. Workers have voted for a two-hour _______________ (STOP) in protest over wage cuts.
48. Jerry is a _______________ (COMPEL) liar; you can’t believe a word he says.
49. The meeting has been _______________ (PROVIDE) arranged for 3pm next Friday.
50. The doctor gave him an injection to _______________ (DIE) the pain.
51. The unresponsive audience made the lecturer somewhat _______________ (HEART). What a shame!
52. Before printing processes developed, books took an incredibly long time to make as they had to be
_______________ (PAIN) written by hand.
53. The court ordered the firm to pay for the cost of the legal _______________ (PROCEED).
54. I was a bit _______________ (MORAL) by my performance in the first exam, but I decided to make
an extra effort in the ones left.
55. My brother’s a comedian who specializes in doing _______________ (PERSON) of famous people.
Your answers:
46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (60 points)
Part I. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D for each blank.
The poetry of Gwendolyn Brooks has been praised for deepening the significance of personal and
social experiences so that these experiences become universal in their (56) _________. She has also been
praised for her "sense of form, which is basic and remarkable". Many of her poems are (57) _________
with a Black community named Bronzeville, on the south side of Chicago. Her literary (58) _________
makes Bronzeville more than just a place on a map. This community, like all important literary places
(Robinson's Tilbury Town and Masters' Spoon River, for example), becomes a testing ground of
personality, a place where the raw (59) _________ of experience is (60) _________ by imagination and
where the joys and trials of being human are both sung and judged. The qualities for which Brooks's poetry
is not are (as one critic has (61) _________ out) "boldness, invention, a daring to experiment, and a
naturalness that does not scorn literature but absorbs it".
Her love (62) _________ poetry began early. At the age of seven, she "began to put rhymes
together", and when she was thirteen, one of her poems was published in a children' s magazine. During
her teens, she (63) _________ more than seventy-five poems to a Chicago newspaper. In 1941, she began
to attend a class in writing poetry at the South Side Community Art Center, and several years later, her
poems began to appear in Poetry and other magazines. Her first collection of poems, A Street in Bronzeville,
was published in 1945. Four years later, Annie Allen, her second collection of poems, appeared. In 1950,
Annie Allen was (64) _________ a Pulitzer prize for poetry. The novel Maud Martha, about a young black
girl growing up in Chicago, published in 1953, was praised for its warmth and (65) _________. In 1963,
her Selected Poems appeared.
56. A. knowledge B. implication C. indication D. potential
57. A. involved B. connected C. related D. concerned
58. A. skill B. quality C. capacity D. manner
59. A. substance B. components C. material D. elements
60. A. formed B. shaped C. decided D. caused
61. A. pointed B. made C. cleared D. showed
62. A. to B. with C. for D. on
63. A. devoted B. dedicated C. attributed D. contributed
64. A. presented B. rewarded C. awarded D. honored
65. A. concerns B. considerations C. insights D. awareness
Your answers:
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
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Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space.
In the modern world, there is a wealth of leisure activities to (66) __________ from. Entertainment
industries compete for your leisure time. You can watch TV, listen to music, go to an art gallery or concert
or, of (67) __________, read a book. Sometimes it seems that reading is neglected because, even if you are
a fast reader, it can take a considerable (68) __________ of time to finish a novel, for example. But in the
modern world, time is something that can be in (69) __________ supply. Book publishers have not been
slow to realize this and are now selling a product which needn't take up as much of your time but still tells
you an excellent story. The new product is the audio-book-cassette recording (70) __________ shortened
novels often read by well-known personalities or the author themselves. Audiobooks are relatively new,
but people are becoming more (71) __________ of them and sales are increasing all the time. One of the
attractions of audiobooks is that they are (72) __________ listening to the radio, only better. You can
listen to what you want, when you want, and you won't ever (73) __________ anything. Much of their
appeals lies in their flexibility. They allow you to do other things (74) __________ you are listening, such
as driving or doing the housework. For some people, audiobooks can be a much more enjoyable
(75) __________ of gaining knowledge than reading.
Your answers:
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each question.
One of the primary ways of approaching the Greek theatre is through archeology, the systematic
study of material remains such as architecture, inscriptions, sculpture, vase painting, and other forms of
decorative art. [A] Serious on-site excavations began in Greece around 1870, but W. Dorpfeld did not begin
the first extensive study of the Theatre of Dionysus until 1886. [B] Since that time, more than 167 other
Greek theatres have been identified and many of them have been excavated. [C] Nevertheless, they still do
not permit us to describe the precise appearance of the skene (illustrations printed in books are conjectural
reconstructions), since many pieces are irrevocably lost because the buildings in later periods became
sources of stone for other projects and what remains is usually broken and scattered. [D] That most of the
buildings were remodeled many times has created great problems for those seeking to date both the parts
and the successive versions. Despite these drawbacks, archeology provides the most concrete evidence we
have about the theatre structures of ancient Greece. But, if they have told us much, archeologists have not
completed their work, and many sites have scarcely been touched.
Perhaps the most controversial use of archeological evidence in theatre history is vase paintings,
thousands of which have survived from ancient Greece. (Most of those used by theatre scholars are
reproduced in Margarete Bieber’s The History of the Greek and Roman Theatre.) Depicting scenes from
mythology and daily life, the vases are the most graphic pictorial evidence we have. But they are also easy
to misinterpret. Some scholars have considered any vase that depicts a subject treated in a surviving drama
or any scene showing masks, flute players, or ceremonials to be valid evidence of theatrical practice. This
is a highly questionable assumption, since the Greeks made widespread use of masks, dances, and music
outside the theatre and since the myths on which dramatists drew were known to everyone, including vase
painters, who might well depict the same subjects as dramatists without being indebted to them. Those
vases showing scenes unquestionably theatrical are few in number.
Written evidence about ancient Greek theatre is often treated as less reliable than archeological
evidence because most written accounts are separated so far in time from the events they describe and
because they provide no information about their own sources. Of the written evidence, the surviving plays
are usually treated as the most reliable. But the oldest surviving manuscripts of Greek plays date from
around the tenth century, i.e. some 1500 years after they were first performed. Since printing did not exist
during this time span, copies of plays had to be made by hand, and therefore the possibility of textual errors
creeping in was magnified. Nevertheless, the scripts offer us our readiest access to the cultural and theatrical
conditions out of which they came. But these scripts, like other kinds of evidence, are subject to varying
interpretations. Certainly performances embodied a male perspective, for example, since the plays were
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written, selected, staged, and acted by men. Yet the existing plays feature numerous choruses of women
and many feature strong female characters. Because these characters often seem victims of their own
powerlessness and appear to be governed, especially in the comedies, by sexual desire, some critics have
seen these plays as rationalizations by the male-dominated culture for keeping women segregated and
cloistered. Other critics, however, have seen in these same plays an attempt by male authors to force their
male audiences to examine and call into question this segregation and cloistering of Athenian women.
By far the majority of written references to Greek theatre date from several hundred years after the
events they report. The writers seldom mention their sources of evidence, and thus we do not know what
credence to give them. In the absence of material nearer in time to the events, however, historians have
used the accounts and have been grateful to have them. Overall, historical treatment of the Greek theatre is
something like assembling a jigsaw puzzle from which many pieces are missing: historians arrange what
they have and imagine (with the aid of the remaining evidence and logic) what has been lost. As a result,
though the broad outlines of Greek theatre history are reasonably clear, many of the details remain open to
doubt.
76. According to paragraph 1, why is it impossible to identify the time period for theatres in Greece?
A. It is confusing because stones from early sites were used to build later structures.
B. There are too few sites that have been excavated and very little data collected about them.
C. The archeologists from earlier periods were not careful, and many artifacts were broken.
D. Because it is very difficult to date the concrete that was used in construction during early periods.
77. What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about the skene in theatre history?
A. Drawings in books are the only accurate visual records.
B. Archaeologists have excavated a large number of them.
C. It was not identified or studied until the early 1800s.
D. Not enough evidence is available to make a precise model.
78. The word “primary” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. important B. reliable C. unusual D. accepted
79. In paragraph 2, the author explains that all vases with paintings of masks or musicians may not be
evidence of theatrical subjects by _________.
A. identifying some of the vases as reproductions that were painted years after the originals
B. casting doubt on the qualifications of the scholars who produced the vases as evidence
C. arguing that the subjects could have been used by artists without reference to a drama
D. pointing out that there are very few vases that have survived from the time of early dramas
80. In paragraph 3, the author states that female characters in Greek theatre _________.
A. had no featured parts in plays B. frequently played the part of victims
C. were mostly ignored by critics D. did not participate in the chorus
81. According to paragraph 3, scripts of plays may not be accurate because _________.
A. copies by hand may contain many errors B. the sources cited are not well known
C. they are written in very old language D. the printing is difficult to read
82. The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _________.
A. events B. writers C. sources D. references
83. Why does the author mention a jigsaw puzzle in paragraph 4?
A. To compare the written references for plays to the paintings on vases
B. To justify using accounts and records that historians have located
C. To introduce the topic for the next reading passage in the textbook
D. To demonstrate the difficulty in drawing conclusions from partial evidence
84. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author’s opinion about vase paintings?
A. Evidence from written documents is older than evidence from vase paintings.
B. There is disagreement among scholars regarding vase paintings.
C. The sources for vase paintings are clear because of the images on them.
D. The details in vase paintings are not obvious because of their age.
85. Look at the four squares [_] in paragraph 1 that indicate where the following sentence can be added to
the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
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These excavations have revealed much that was previously unknown, especially about the dimensions and
layout of theatres.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Your answers:
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.
Part 4. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow.
A.
Besides the earth’s oceans, glacier ice is the largest source of water on earth. A glacier is a massive stream
or sheet of ice that moves underneath itself under the influence of gravity. Some glaciers travel down
mountains or valleys, while others spread across a large expanse of land. Heavily glaciated regions such as
Greenland and Antarctica are called continental glaciers. These two ice sheets encompass more than 95%
of the earth’s glacial ice. The Greenland ice sheet is almost 10,000 feet thick in some areas, and the weight
of this glacier is so heavy that much of the region has been depressed below sea level. Smaller glaciers that
occur at higher elevations are called alpine or valley glaciers. Another way of classifying glaciers is in terms
of their internal temperature. In temperate glaciers, the ice within the glacier is near its melting point. Polar
glaciers, in contrast, always maintain temperatures far below melting.
B.
The majority of the earth’s glaciers are located near the poles, though glaciers exist on all continents,
including Africa and Oceania. The reason glaciers are generally formed in high alpine regions is that they
require cold temperature throughout the year. In these areas where there is little opportunity for summer
ablation (loss of mass), snow changes to compacted firm and then crystallized ice. During periods in which
melting and evaporation exceed the amount of snowfall, glaciers will retreat rather than progress. While
glaciers rely heavily on snowfall, other climatic conditions including freezing rain, avalanches and wind,
contribute to their growth. One year of below average precipitation can stunt the growth of a glacier
tremendously. With the rare 7 exception of surging glaciers, a common glacier flows about 10 inches per
day in the summer and 5 inches per day in the winter. The fastest glacial surge on record occurred in 1953,
when the Kutiah Glacier in Pakistan grew more than 12 kilometers in three months.
C.
The weight and pressure of ice accumulation causes glacier movement. Glaciers move out from under
themselves, via plastic deformation and basal slippage. First, the internal flow of ice crystals begins to
spread outward and downward from the thickened snow pack also known as the zone of accumulation.
Next, the ice along the ground surface begins to slip in the same direction. Seasonal thawing at the base of
the glacier helps to facilitate this slippage. The middle of a glacier moves faster than the sides and bottom
because there is no rock to cause friction. The upper part of a glacier rides on the ice below. As a glacier
moves it carves out a U-shaped valley to a riverbed, but with much steeper walls and flatter bottom.
D.
Besides the extraordinary rivers of ice, glacial erosion creates other unique physical features in the such
as horns, fjords, hanging valleys, and cirques. Most of these landforms do not become visible until after
glaciers have receded. Many are created by moraines, which occur at the sides and front of a glacier.
Moraines are formed when material is picked up along the way and deposited in a new location. When
many alpine glaciers occur on the same mountain, these moraines can create a horn. The matter horn, in the
Swiss Alps is one of the most famous horns. Fjords, which are very common in Norway, are coastal valleys
that fill with ocean water during a glacial retreat. Hanging valleys occur when two or more glacial valleys
intersect at varying elevations. It is common for waterfalls to connect the higher and lower hanging valleys,
such as in Yosemite National Park. A cirque is a large bowl-shaped valley that forms at the front of a
glacier. Cirques often have a lip on their down slope that is deep enough to hold small lakes when the ice
melts away.
E.
Glacier movement and shape shifting typically occur over hundreds of years. While presently about
10% of the earth land is covered with glaciers, it is believed that during the last Ice Age glaciers covered
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approximately 32% of the earth’s surface. In the past century, most glaciers have been retreating rather
flowing forward. It is unknown whether this glacial activity is due to human impact or natural causes, but
by studying glacier movement and comparing climate and agricultural profiles over hundreds of years,
glaciologists can begin to understand environmental issues such as global warming.
Questions 86-90
The passage has five paragraphs, A-E. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of
headings below. There are three headings you do not need.
List of headings
i. Glacial Continents
ii. Formation and Growth of Glaciers
iii. Glacial Movement
iv. Glaciers in the Last Ice Age
v. Glaciers through the Years
vi. Types of Glaciers
vii. Glacial Effects on Landscape
viii. Glaciers in National Parks
86. Paragraph A ______________
87. Paragraph B ______________
88. Paragraph C ______________
89. Paragraph D ______________
90. Paragraph E ______________
Questions 91-95
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
91. Glaciers exist only near the north and south poles.
92. Glaciers are formed by a combination of snow and other weather conditions.
93. Glaciers normally move at a rate of about 5 to 10 inches a day.
94. All parts of the glacier move at the same speed.
95. During the last Ice Age, average temperatures were much lower than they are now.
Your answers:
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.
Part 5. The passage below consists of five sections marked A-E. Read the passage and do the task that
follows. Each section can be chosen more than once.
A MODERN HEALTH PROBLEM
A. There is growing concern about the way we view food, which goes beyond the ‘do we live to eat or eat
to live?’ debate. More and more children are leading inactive lifestyles and are suffering from obesity.
In the 1990s and early years of this century, tobacco-related diseases were the main problem, but
aggressive anti-smoking campaigns caused the focus of concern to shift. In this decade, obesity appears
to be the major health concern with far-reaching repercussions. Obese children suffer taunts and
bullying from their peers and this, instead of causing them to rethink their eating habits, may perpetuate
the vicious circle; in other words, these children turn to ‘comfort thinking’ which adds to their weight
problem. Researchers have noted that some children are doing less than one or two minutes of ‘moderate
activity’ in an hour, which is an alarming reduction on the results of previous studies. The problem
seems to be worse in teenage girls than in their male counterparts, with older children getting much less
exercise than younger ones.
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B. Many parents realise that their children are overweight, but do not know enough about nutrition to give
their offspring the support they need in order to help them change their lifestyles. Given time pressures
from work and family, a growing number of people rely on pre-cooked convenience foods or quick fry-
ups, thus exacerbating the problem. In general, there is some recognition of the situation. For example,
at 'Weight Loss Camps', obese children, along with their slightly less overweight peers, learn to read
food labels and understand the nutritional content of food, or lack of it, eat healthily and exercise. This
experience can also increase their confidence in themselves, as they are surrounded by youngsters who
are in the same boat. But, by and large, not enough is being done.
C. Schools are partly to blame, as they have marginalised physical education due to time limitations. Also,
in many cases, they have bowed to financial pressure and sold off playing fields, often in order to buy
more up-to-date computers, which in turn encourage sedentary lifestyles. The food industry must also
shoulder some of the responsibility, as their advertising campaigns promote foodstuffs which are high
in fat and sugar. Advertisements frequently feature such products as fizzy drinks, king-size chocolate
bars and ever larger packets of crisps. These are attractive to families on low incomes because you now
get more for the same price as the original, smaller portions. However, children who have large bags of
crisps or bars of chocolate in their school lunch-boxes don't save half for the next day; they eat the
whole thing. It would appear that fast-food marketing people have seized upon children as being brand-
loyal from cradle to grave. They therefore target small children with free toys, a worrying trend which,
some believe, warrants government action.
D. Some campaigners want governments to treat the fast-food industry as they do the tobacco industry,
insisting that foods with a high fat or sugar content should carry an official health warning. They would
also like a ban on vending machines in schools, as it is estimated that one fifth of children get more than
20 percent of their energy from sugar, with 5 percent of that coming from the consumption of fizzy
drinks. Of course, children are not the only ones to suffer from obesity. In one survey, only 40 per cent
of adults claim to regularly sit down for a meal, which means that the majority are eating on the hoof.
Only around 30 per cent say that they cook all their own meals. It becomes reasonably obvious that this
is so when you look around you in the street or in an underground station. Walking and talking are
interspersed with eating and drinking; people carry a can to swig from, and clutch food to scoff.
E. We live in a culture which actively promotes fast food while simultaneously showing images of the
ultimate in ‘beauty’. The majority of us could never achieve this perfect look, given our lifestyle and
diet. This fact, in turn, gives rise to both overeating and its extreme opposite, anorexia. It is obviously
time for us to take a close look at our relationship to food. The recommended daily diet, at least
according to some experts, consists of at least five portions of fruit and vegetables, some protein (but
not too much) and only a few carbohydrates. No one would deny, however, that the occasional lapse
would be acceptable. Remember the old adage: a little of what you fancy does you good!
In which section is each of these views expressed?
96. In the past, other public health issues were seen as more significant than obesity. ____
97. Children may have access to fewer areas where they can play sports than they did in the past. ____
98. Mistreatment of youngsters who are overweight can often result in the problem becoming worse. ____
99. Irregular self-indulgence should not be dissuaded when it comes to diet. ____
100. Hasty eating routines while being on the move are common among adults. ____
101. The world is flourishing two polars of physical care that should not coexist. ____
102. More action from the authorities is being demanded to tackle the problem of obesity. ____
103. A lack of information limits the assistance that some people can give to others. ____
104. Marketing strategies of some companies are wreaking havoc on children's development to ____
the extent that official intervention is proposed.
105. The connection of those who have the same health issues has the potential to relieve their ____
inferiority complex.
Your answers:
96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
101. 102. 103. 104. 105.
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SECTION IV. WRITING (60 points)
Part 1. The bar chart shows the percentage of people who ate five portions of fruits and vegetables per
day in the UK from 2001 to 2008.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where
relevant. Write at least 150 words.
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Part 2. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic:
Society is based on rules and laws. It could not function if individuals were free to do whatever they want.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
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----------------------THE END -----------------------
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SECTION I. LISTENING (50/200 points: 2 points/each correct answer)
Part 1. (14 points: 2 points/each correct answer)
1. 95 Cross Street 2. Walkley 3. knees 4. June 18th
5. ice pack 6. back 7. stick
8. British adults 9. business decisions 10. character 11. choice of career
12. artists and entertainers 13. less obvious 14. winter 15. disappointing
16. F 17. T 18. F 19. T 20. F
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. C
SECTION II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30/200 points: 1 point/each correct answer)
Part 1. (20 points: 1 point/each correct answer)
26. D 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. C
36. D 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. C 41. D 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. D
46. irreconcilable 47. stoppage 48. compulsive 49. provisionally 50. deaden
51. disheartened 52. painstakingly 53. proceedings 54. demoralised/
demoralized
55.
impersonation(s)
SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (60/200 points)
56. B 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. B
61. A 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. C
66. choose 67. course 68. amount 69. short 70. of
71. aware 72. like 73. miss 74. while 75. way
76. A 77. D 78. A 79. C 80. B
81. A 82. C 83. D 84. B 85. C
86. vi 87. ii 88. iii 89. vii 90. v
91. FALSE 92. TRUE 93. TRUE 94. FALSE 95. NOT GIVEN
96. A 97. C 98. A 99. E 100. D
101. E 102. D 103. B 104. C 105. B
LẦN THỨ XVII–VĨNH PHÚC 2023
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
LẦN THỨ XVII, NĂM 2023
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
(02 trang)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
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SECTION IV. WRITING: 60/200
Part 1: 20 pts
The mark given to part 1 is based on the following criteria:
1. Contents (10 points)
o The report MUST cover the following points:
 Introduce the chart (2 points) and state the striking features (2 points)
 Describe main features with relevant data from the charts and make relevant comparisons (6
points)
o The report MUST NOT contain personal opinions. (A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to
personal opinions found in the answer.)
2. Language use (10 points)
The report should:
o demonstrate a wide variety of lexical and grammatical structures,
o have correct use of words (verb tenses, word forms, voice, ...); and mechanics (spelling,
punctuations, ...).
Part 2: 40 pts
The mark given to part 2 is based on the following criteria:
1. Task achievement (10 points)
o All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
o Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples,
evidence, personal experience, etc.
2. Organization (10 points)
o Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity.
o The essay is well-structured:
 Introduction is presented with a clear thesis statement introducing the points to be developed.
 Body paragraphs develop the points introduced with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body
paragraph must have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples when necessary.
 Conclusion summarizes the main points and offers personal opinions (prediction,
recommendation, consideration, ...) on the issue.
3. Language use (15 points)
o Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
o Excellent use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (5.0 points)
o Correct punctuation, no spelling mistakes, and legible handwriting.
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LISTENING TAPE SCRIPT:
Part 1:
Girl: Good morning, what can I do for you'?
Peter: Uh, yes, I am currently visiting this area, but I injured myself when I was doing sports a while
ago, and I still feel painful, so I wondered whether 1 could go for a doctor here.
Girl: Sure sir, we can take you on as a temporary patient. I'll just take down some personal details of
you. May I have your name, please?
Peter: Yes, it's Peter Smith.
Girl: All right, Peter. And where are you currently staying here?
Peter: At 95 Cross Street.
Girl: And the county?
Peter: Walkley. That's W-a-l-k-l-e-y.
Girl: OK, and can I have a contact number?
Peter: Uh, it's 4689 5324.
Girl: OK, thanks. May you just wait down there! The doctor will see you in a minute.
Doctor: Now, how can I help you? It's Peter Smith, isn't it?
Peter: Yes, I had a sporting accident, and a doctor at home treated me, but I'm still getting some pain.
Doctor: Hum, right. Uh, first of all, I want to ask you a few questions.
Peter: Okay.
Doctor: Well, what sport were you doing when you got injured?
Peter: Playing tennis with my friends.
Doctor: Now, I see. Did you hurt your elbow or wrist?
Peter: Oh, no. I had my knees sprained, which was the original problem.
Doctor: Right, and when did this happen?
Peter: Uh, that was three weeks ago now, so it was about June 18th.
Doctor: Hum. And, you said you had medical treatment at home?
Peter: Uh, yeah. The doctor said I didn't need an X-ray or things alike, and he just told me to use an ice
pack.
Doctor: Fine, anything else?
Peter: Yes, and I've been using a walking stick to help me get around.
Doctor: Right, now what problems are you having during walking?
Peter: Well, actually I can walk, yet I still can't go upstairs, so I've been sleeping downstairs.
Doctor: Hum, now you said your knee still gets hurt'?
Peter: Well, no. Actually, it's getting better. It's my back that's hurting me now. It really aches at night,
and I cannot sleep well.
Doctor: Hum, I have several suggestions for that.
Peter: Great.
Doctor: First you should put the stick away as that's probably the source of the problem.
Peter: Oh, really? I wish I'd know.
Doctor: After that, I can prescribe you something to relax the muscles in your back.
Peter: Oh, sorry to be difficult, but I've had something like that in the past, and there were many side
effects, and I don't want to take it. Would you recommend anything else?
Doctor: Well, yes. We do have a leaflet showing some exercises you can do yourself at home. If you do
them every day, they'll soon be effective.
Peter: Great. I'll do that.
PART 2
Tapescript
Host: We have with us today the psychologist Simon Calvin who has recently created quite a stir with
some rather unlikely claims about Astrology. Simon, are you indeed claiming that our lives are ruled by
the stars?
Simon: No, not at all. I would not for one minute say that all of our lives are affected by the movements
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of stars in the heavens. My research really concerns things that are far more down to earth. But, before
I start, I should just say that by no means do the majority of people in general totally disbelieve the
value of astrology. An incredible 62% of British adults say that their stars are of some interest to
them [1] although only 3.5% would use them to choose a husband or wife, and only 2.9% of people
would refer to them in making business decisions [2]. But anyway, coming back to what I said before,
I’m not so interested in the stars themselves, as I am in the time of year somebody is
born. Psychologists now widely agree that both early life experiences and time of birth are a great
influence on the development of a person’s character. [3] Of course, this does not make the whole of a
person’s character, but rather the foundation or base on which later changes are made. However, these
later changes in character are not connected with the person’s time of birth. So the question is, then,
after all these personality changes have happened, can we look at an adult and see any of this
foundation or base as part of their psychological make-up? The technique I have been using to do just
this is a very simple one, but I believe, very effective. I have simply made a statistical comparison
between people’s choice of career and their zodiac sign. [4] Where somebody has made a strong choice
in favour of a particular kind of career, I believe that this indicates something very important in their
character. If you look at a particular profession, say entertainers for example, and find that more than
15% of them were born in a certain short period of the year, it suggests that their choice of that
profession is in some way connected with their birth at that particular time of the year. And this is, in
fact, the case. An astonishing 20% of artists and entertainers were born in the period between the 12th
of July and the 20th of August. [5] This, in fact, is the most positive connection we have found so
far. But there have been others although they have been less obvious.[6] We looked at keen sports
players participating more than five times a week and found a sizable number were born in the winter
months of January and February[7]. Another group of people we looked at were frequent travellers,
who we discovered were more likely to have been born in early spring while accountants, bankers,
executives and people generally in financial professions more frequently have birthdays in the late
spring.
Now, so far, we haven’t found any professions containing large percentages of one particular star sign,
which is a little disappointing [8], but this is, no doubt, because our modern technological world has
removed us further and further from the effects of nature . If, as was the case in the past, many people
lived closer to nature, we could be seeing percentages as high as 40 or 50 or even more. This of course
would mean that we would have…
Part 3:
Source: National Geographic: https://youtu.be/o0W_0MuvlwQ
For morning coffee to afternoon tea, caffeine is so thoroughly entrenched in our daily routines and has
become the worlds most widely used psychoactive substance.
Caffeine is a chemical compound that stimulate the central nervous system. It accomplishes this by
attaching itself to adenosine receptors in the brain. In doing so, it blocks adenosine molecules, which
are responsible for slowing down the central nervous system before we sleep. The result? Adenosine
cannot regulate and neurons start firing. This results in a person's reduced fatigue and increased
alertness and cognitive performance. Side effects many seek by consuming caffeine.
Caffeine occurs naturally in coffee beans, tea leaves, cacao beans and some tree nuts. People have been
consuming it for centuries. But daily consumption took off sporadically at different times in different
places around the world. Coffee became popular in the 15th and 16 centuries. But Cacao was used
among early Mesoamerican civilizations hundreds of years earlier. Tea became popular by the 14th
century in China during the Ming dynasty, but didn't catch on in Britain until almost 400 years later.
Today, caffeine can be found nearly everywhere and more and more caffeine-infused products are
hitting the shelves everyday. In the United States, nearly 90% of the population has at least one
caffeinated beverage everyday.
Up to 400 milligrams of caffeine per day or about four cups of coffee is considered safe for an adult.
Too much caffeine for any one person can cause side effects, such as migraines, insomnia, nervousness
and muscle tremors. One tablespoon of pure caffeine equivalent to drinking 75 cups of coffee at once
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can have lethal consequences. Due to this risk of caffeine overdoses, in 2018, the United States Food
and Drug Administration banned the bulk sale of products containing pure or highly concentrated
caffeine.
While caffeine may provide great benefits, such as increased focus, alertness and energy, it comes with
considerable risks just like any other substance.
PART 4:
Interviewer: Sheena, you’re a behavioural psychologist, which means you study the way people
behave. What’s so interesting about human behaviour for you?
Sheena Smith: Everyone’s a psychologist really, aren’t they? I mean, we’re all fascinated by what other
people do, especially when it isn’t what we do ourselves. I guess that’s the heart of the matter for me
these days. I’ve always been pretty good at reading people’s faces and understanding how they really
feel and that’s what first got me interested in psychology.
Interviewer: One of your earliest experiences of observing behaviour was seeing what your father did
when he answered the phone. Tell us about that.
Sheena Smith: Well, he had quite a strong local accent but whenever he picked up the phone he’d speak
in what I used to call his ‘telephone voice’ – he sort of became a bit more posh. My mum and I would
exchange secret smiles when we heard him. What sticks in my mind is the thrill of realising that once he
knew who was calling he’d either carry on with the posh voice or relax into his normal way of speaking,
if he felt comfortable with them.
Interviewer: What kind of things did you study during your psychology degree?
Sheena Smith: I enjoyed writing about how we’re affected by social norms. We like to think we’re
complex and individual – and yet we all tend to behave in similar ways when faced with the same
situation! It isn’t that we couldn’t do something differently if we felt like it, but we do what’s expected
of us – people rarely challenge fixed ideas, even if they like to think of themselves as different. Sooner
or later, we realise it’s easier to go with the crowd.
Interviewer: One of your first projects was studying how people behave in lifts, wasn’t it?
Sheena Smith: Yes! At the beginning of the project I assumed that if I started a conversation in a lift,
people would join in. But they just nodded politely and went back to staring at their phones – I couldn’t
believe it! It’s the lack of space in lefts that makes people worry about appearing strange or threatening.
So people do nothing at all!
Interviewer: What are you working on at the moment?
Sheena Smith: I’m looking at behaviour that seems irrational – that appears to make little sense – like
waiting in a long queue, because we think there must be something worth waiting for. But if we see an
empty restaurant we won’t go in! It’s not difficult to understand why. I thought I could put an original
slant on the work, but I’ve realised this research isn’t going to change the world of psychology – that
doesn’t make it any less interesting than other research, though.
Interviewer: What’s been your favourite project so far?
Sheena Smith: I did some research about the psychology of giving gifts. People are as happy to receive
small gifts as larger ones – except when they learn the cost of the item. Then they start judging it. That
was news to me – I’d imagined people wouldn’t be bothered. That was the first article I had published in
my professional career, so it was a very satisfying piece of research.
Interviewer: What would you like to study that you haven’t yet?
Sheena Smith: I’m interested in people’s behaviour ‘behind closed doors’. The way we behave publicly
and in private can be enormously different. You can’t observe people without their knowledge, so studies
like this require careful setting up. It isn’t that it can’t be done – you have to observe people for long
enough until they forget they’re being observed – video cameras are the best way to do this. It’s easy to
find participants for this kind of study – though people don’t always like what they see of themselves!
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LISTENING (50 pts)
Part 1. (14pts)
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Agriculture and environment
 1………………………… production = biggest problem in today’s world
 Agriculture is important for jobs, exports, and foreign exchange.
 ‘Agriculture’ means:
 growing crops
 raising animals
 fishing
 2. ……………………….
 Agriculture must be sustainable: old method& new, chemical methods are all unsustainable
3. ………………………. of biodiversity
 Biotechnology bioprospecting (biopiracy), i.e. large companies steal samples of native
plants to use the 4. ………………………. For their own crop improvement
 Climate change is responsible for less food and higher prices.
 Farmers need to be educated, but governments also need to pay attention to 5. ……………… in
order to protect the environment and re-nourish the soil.
 Experts from around the world could come together to form a 6. ……………………to observe
farm systems aiming to prevent pollution and erosion and encourage safe procedures that are also
Cost-effective
 Creating the project’s 7. ………………………. would be very expensive, and more money would
be needed for the monitoring system, but it could solve the problem of food shortages.
Part 2: Listen to an interview about the effect of family on personality and complete the sentences.
(16pts)
1. Researchers believe that a person's __________ in a family can affect their life.
2. Research supports the idea that __________ children are more likely to do well in life.
3. Oldest children often help younger siblings learn to __________.
4. However, the oldest child will often __________ more than necessary.
5. Oldest children can also feel that they are not their parents' __________ child.
6. It seems that the youngest child will often __________ things more and is more artistic.
7. Some people think that birth order is important even when choosing a __________.
8. __________ relationships can have just as much impact as family ones.
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BĂC
GIANG
Đề thi đề xuất
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI 2023
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH- KHỐI:10
Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 11 trang)
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Part 3: For questions 16-20, you will hear a talk about an experiment on sleep. Listen to the talk carefully
and decide whether the statements are true (T), false (F), or not given (NG). Tick the correct box.
Statements T F NG
16. Randy Gardner was a university student when he did his experiment.
17. During the experiment, Gardner slept for several hours every night.
18. During the experiment, Gardner had no trouble speaking clearly.
19. During the experiment, Gardner saw things that weren’t really there.
20. Gardner stayed awake for eleven days by watching television.
(adapted from Select Readings – Pre-intermediate by Linda Lee & Erik Gundersen © Oxford, Chapter 1)
Part 4: Circle the correct letter A – C (10 points)
1. According to Nick the first Australian immigrants were:
A. The ancestors of aborigines
B. Petty criminals
C. Sailors
2. What was the name of the first British colony in Australia?
A. Victoria
B. New South Wales
C. New London
3. When was the White Australia Policy started?
A. Just after the first colony expanded
B. After Australian Federation
C. After World War II
4. Why was there bad feeling towards many Chinese immigrants in the 1850s?
A. They opened restaurants
B. They were searching for gold
C. They would work for less money than the local Australians
5. When were Asian students first allowed to study at Australian universities?
A. 1950
B. 1957
C. 1973
LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1 Choose the best answer. (20 points)
1. His English was roughly ______ with my Greek, so communication was rather difficult!
A. levelled B. on a par C. equal D. in tune
2. Well, I’m sorry, that’s all I can offer you. ______ .
A. Take it or forget it B. Get it or forget it
C. Take it or leave it D. Leave it or take it
3. He promised me an Oxford dictionary and to my great joy, he ______ his word.
A. stood by B. stuck at C. went back on D. held onto
4. The police are ______ certain who the culprit is.
A. in some ways B. more or less
C. here and there D. by and by
5. Employees who have a ______ are encouraged to discuss it with the management.
A. hindrance B. grievance C. disadvantage D. disturbance
6. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no ______ improvement in her condition.
A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible
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7. The prospect of picking up any survivors are now______
A. thin B. narrow C. slim D. restricted
8. His happy–go–lucky attitude means that on the field he exhibits a ______ disregard for the rules.
A. required B. glaring C. permissible D. flagrant
9. He was selected to play despite a string of ______ performances.
A. satisfactory B. reasonable C. outstanding D. mediocre
10. Even the best medicines are not ______ .
A. infallible B. unfailing C. fail-proof D. falsified
11. I’m in a bit of a ______ as to what to wear to the party.
A. loss B. quandary C. problem D. trouble
12. His new play is not only interesting but also unique. It is really off the beaten ______ .
A. track B. road C. path D. route
13. Without written evidence, we don’t have a ______ on.
A. leg to stand B. foot to stand C. leg to lean D. foot to lean
14. Now’s a ______ time to tell me you’re going out this evening - I’ve spent the whole day preparing
supper for you.
A. suitable B. reasonable C. right D. fine
15. She hasn’t had an accident yet but she’s had a number of ______ shaves.
A. narrow B. near C. close D. tiny
16. As you are the strongest in the group, you can take the ______ .
A. lead B. head C. part D. way
17. Although she had never used a word-proceesor before, she soon got the ______ of it.
A. feel B. touch C. move D. hang
18. I overslept this morning and caught the last bus to school by the skin of my ______ .
A. mouth B. leg C. neck D. teeth
19. The sky got very dark and soon it began to ______ down.
A. roar B. bath C. bucket D. soar
20. If you want a flat in the center of the city, you have to pay through the ______ for it.
A. teeth B. back of your head C. nose D. arm
Part 2: Supply the correct forms of the words given in the brackets to complete the following sentences. (10 pts)
1 ______ is a growing problem in rich countries as well as poor. HOME
2 Jerry is a ______ liar; you can’t believe a word he says. COMPEL
3 It has been ______ proven that cloning is possible. SCIENCE
4 I was ______ a the supermarket by ten pounds, but I didn’t notice until I got home and looked at the
receipt. CHARGE
5 If you want to make a complaint, you’ll have to follow the complaints ______. PROCEED
6 If you are ______ with this product in any way, please return it to the manufaccurers within 40 days.
7 Customers are entitled to a full ______ if the clothing has not been worn. FUND
8 Workers have voted for a two-hour ______ in protest over wage cuts. STOP
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9 The road is said to be ______ due to flooding. PASS
10 They all cheered_______ as their team came out. (ENTHUSIASM)
READING
Part 1. Choose the best answer to complete the passage below. (10 pts)
SCOTLAND
People come to this small northern country for many reasons, lured, perhaps, by the promise of
spectacular (1) ______, friendly natives, and a vibrant arts scene. Some are searching for their
family (2) ______ or others just want to get away from it all and, digging (3) ______ old memories from
their English Lit class of gallant heroes engaging in larger-than-life struggles, their (4) ______ wander to
faraway lands, to somehow familiar yet different destinations. Why not go to Scotland? But what kind of
country are they coming to and what should they expect once they get there? Scotland (5) ______ of an
area of 30, 418 square miles - so it's a fairly compact and "doable" country - with a population of about five
million people - not too small, not too big. It is one of three countries that form the political (6) ______
called Great Britain, the other two being, of course, England and Wales, which, along with their fourth
partner, Northern Ireland, becomes the United Kingdom. Scotland is bordered on three sides by water and
on its fourth by England, (7) ______ has had both its advantages and disadvantages. (8) ______ speaking,
the country can be divided into three broad areas, the Southern Uplands, the Central Lowlands, and the
Highlands. Although the rugged Highlands (9) ______ about two-thirds of the land area, the (10) ______
majority of the population lives in the Central Belt between Glasgow, Scotland's largest city, and
Edinburgh, Scotland's capital.
1. A. scene B. scenery C. view D panorama
2. A. roots B. race C. basis D. source
3. A. off B. down C. on D. up
4. A. head B. brains C. spirits D. minds
5. A. consists B. includes C. embraces D. comprises
6. A. entirely B. entitle C. entity D. entry
7. A. which B. where C. that D. what
8. A. Geographic B. Literally C. Graphically D. Geographically
9. A. take out B. take in C. take up D. take off
10. A. expansive B. vast C. expanding D. spacious
Part 2: Fill in each blank with one suitable word (10 pts)
MEMMORY LAPSE OR DEMENTIA?
It's a horribly disconcerting experience - groping to (1)…………………… your best friend's name,
forgetting an arrangement that you made only yesterday or realizing that your PIN number has vanished
into a memory black hole. These 'senior moments' affect us all at times, but when do brief memory lapses
or moments of confusion become something you (2)…………………… to worry about? The fear that
you might, literally, be losing your mind, is one that can be very real, (3)…………………… if you've
seen a parent or relative develop Alzheimer's. Dementia affects around 750,000 people in the UK, and
although there are 100 different forms of it, Alzheimer's is the most common. This disease destroys brain
cells and as the structure and chemistry of the brain become increasingly damaged, the person's ability to
remember, understand and communicate gradually declines. lt's a particularly cruel disease because it
(4)………………….. us of the memories that make us who we are, define our experience and provide us
with the (5)…………………… to communicate with other people.
Although lots of us experience memory problems at some time, in most (6)…………………… these have
nothing to do with dementia. It's important to put the risk (7)…………………… perspective. The reality
is that, although it does happen, dementia is unusual under the age of 65. For the majority of people
memory lapses will be nothing (8)……………………… than occasional blips. lt is important to realize
that your memory slows down a bit (9)………………………you age, but this is a very gradual decline,
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quite different from the more dramatic deterioration that happens with Alzheimer's. The most common
early sign of a problem is forgetting recently learned information.
(10)…………………… it's normal to forget appointments and telephone numbers occasionally, people
with early dementia tend to forget more frequently and they also forget the same information again later.
Part 3: Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions (10 pts)
MASS CULTURE
In recent decades, the development and spread of new information technologies such as satellite
television have engendered many debates about the consequences of their use. One of the first writers to
see the possibilities of these changes was the American writer Marshall McLuhan, who argued in the
1960’s that communications technology would have two effects: first, it would create a global village
where everyone and everything were accessible to the television camera and secondly, that it would
become the case that “the medium is the message”, that is, how the message is transmitted would outgrow
in importance what the message is.
Other theorists have gone further in arguing that the explosion of, and increasing dependence on,
information technology have brought about profound changes in the way society is organised. Some, for
example believe that we can now describe a “post-modern society”, characterised partly by an
information-based international division of labour that allows increasing freedom of movement. At the
cultural level, distinctions between “high” and “low” culture have disappeared as new technology
transmits across class boundaries, while stylistically, form has become more important than substance,
and the ubiquity of television means that everything is seen in television codes. McLuhan’s global
television-led culture is now with us.
The accuracy of such a description, however, has been questioned. At one level, many people are
reluctant to accept any argument that technology can lead to social and economic changes, arguing
instead that the relationship is exactly the other way round. In other words, they are critical of any
tendency to technological determinism. Furthermore, evidence can be cited that queries the notion that
information technology has spread evenly throughout the world or even throughout Britain. This has been
described as the uneven development of the information economy. Many areas of Great Britain, for
example, are not yet equipped with the on-line communications systems necessary to receive technologies
such as cable and interactive television, and the take-up of these technologies varies according to socio-
economic factors. We are still a long way from the full-scale and comprehensive implementation of the
information super-highway.
What does seem to be the case, however, is that the stereotypical image of the nuclear family sitting
together in the front room cheerfully choosing their evening’s viewing from a limited range of television
station is disappearing. This is partly due to the increased number of set per household as well as the rapid
growth in the number of channels, a development mirrored by the niche marketing of magazines to a
multiplicity of interest groups. The amount of time spent watching television per head has stabilised in
recent years to around 27 hours a week. Women watch on average four more hours of television per week
than men and all statistics show a relationship between social class and viewing.
This is not to say that diversity and choice have necessarily been achieved. It remains the case that
satellite television caters for mass-appeal interests such as music, sport, news, children’s programmes and
American films and light entertainment, ignoring many disadvantaged social groups. New media
technologies have not empowered people in the sense that there are increased numbers of community-
based television networks. In Britain, it is no less valid today to describe a mass culture based on a
centrally directed mass media.
Doubts have also been raised about the ability of satellite stations to succeed in creating a global
television culture. Rupert Murdoch is widely known to own substantial parts of the global media industry.
A few years ago, he added a controlling share of Star TV to his collection, meaning that he gained access
to 2.5 billion people in 50 countries, or forty percent of the world’s television sets, in a region stretching
from Jordan to Japan. Capturing the market in India, however, and hooking the population onto hit talk
shows and American mega-series such as Baywatch and LA Law, has not been as straightforward as first
imagined. Cultural differences are complicated in a nation of 18 official languages and further
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compounded when you consider the staggering figure of 1, 700 dialects. Hindi films transmitted by the
state broadcasting network still rank a coveted first in the ratings table. Murdoch’s response to this
realisation was to immediately buy into a local TV station as well. Indian culture, for the present at least,
remains resistant to western broadcasting and highlights that the creation of a global mass culture will not
be solely induced by technology.
1. According to the writer, Marshall McLuhan envisaged a world where
A. everyone would use a TV camera.
B. TV would lessen the impact of information.
C. less serious content would be shown on TV.
D. TV would create greater understanding between peoples.
2. The word “ubiquity” is closest in meaning to
A. ambivalence B. pervasiveness C. diversity D. receptivity
3. Theorists describing society as “post-modern” claim information technology has
A. meant more people doing identical jobs around the world.
B. enabled “high” and “low” culture to share a common audience.
C. benefited artistic creativity.
D. resulted in other technologies challenging the dominance of TV.
4. Why does the author mention “cable and interactive television” in paragraph 3?
A. to give examples of modern technologies.
B. to identify factors affecting the popularity of television.
C. to show the difference among regional cultures.
D. to explain why the development of economy in Britain is uneven.
5. The writer raises doubts about “technological determinism” because it
A. argues that cultural change determines economic change
B. has exaggerated the importance of the Internet
C. underestimates people’s resistance to change
D. assumes technology will impact on everyone in a similar way.
6. TV viewing within household has changed because
A. viewing habits are more stable than in the past
B. different family members will watch TV at different times
C. TV stations can now target specific audiences
D. typical nuclear family are less common.
7. The spread of TV culture through an increasing number of networks has
A. limited centralised control of the media. B. been of little benefit to minorities.
C. enabled local community television to emerge. D. increased diversity in mass culture.
8. The popularity of films in Hindi in India
A. has caused TV companies to change strategy.
B. indicates less cultural and language diversity in India than people imagine.
C. resulted from screening programmes unpopular in their home markets.
D. is a result of the state TV monopoly.
9. The phrase “buy into” in paragraph 6 is closest meaning to
A. depend on B. criticise C. believe in D. conceal
10. The writer general view of “technology” is that it
A. has the power to drive social change.
B. can liberate the economically disadvantaged.
C. is not the most important factor in cultural change. D. hasn’t really changed our cultural habits.
Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follows. Write your answer in the space
provided. (10 pts)
(SOURCE: http://ieltsmaterial.com/ielts-reading-practice-test-57-with-answer-key-2/)
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A. A constellation is a group of stars which when viewed collectively appear to have a physical proximity’
in the sky. Constellation boundaries and definitions as used today in Western culture, and as defined by the
International Astronomical Union (IAU), were formalised in 1930 by Eugene Delporte. There are 88
official constellations as recognised by the IAU, those visible in the northern hemisphere being based upon
those established by the ancient Greeks, the constellations of the southern hemisphere – since invisible to
the Greeks due to geographical location – were not defined until later in the early modem era.
B. Arguably, the twelve constellations through which the sun passes – as used to represent the signs of the
zodiac to define birth characteristics – are the most culturally significant and well known of those
established by the ancient Greeks. Cultural differences in Interpretation and definition of star constellations
mainly relate to these zodiac interpretations, Chinese constellations, for example, which are different to
those defined in the western world due to the independent development of ancient Chinese astronomy,
includes 28 ‘Xiu’ or ‘mansions’ instead of the 12 western zodiac counterparts. In Hindu/Vedic astronomy,
in which constellations are known as ‘rashis’, 12 rashi corresponding directly to the twelve western star
signs are acknowledged; these are however, divided again into 27 ‘Nakshatras’ or ’lunar houses’. Many
cultures have an intricate mythology behind the stars and their constellations. In Greek mythology, for
example Pegasus, the winged horse, is said to have sprung from the decapitated head of Medusa, and later
was used by the God King Zeus to carry thunder and lightning to Earth, before being put into a constellation.
C. In Western astronomy, all modern constellation names derive from Latin, some stars within the
constellations are named using the genitive form of the Latin word by using the usual rules of Latin
grammar. For example, the zodiac sign for the Fish constellation Pisces relates to Piscium. In addition, all
constellation names have a standard three-letter abbreviation as assigned by the IAU, under which, for
example, Pisces becomes PSC.
D. Some star patterns often wrongly considered constellations by laymen are actually ‘asterisms’ – a group
of stars that appear to form patterns in the sky -and are not in fact one of the 88 officially divided areas truly
defined as a constellation. A famous example of an asterism oft mistaken for a constellation is the Big
Dipper’ (as it is termed in North America) or the ‘Plough’ as it is known in the UK. In astronomical terms,
this famous star formation is in fact considered only part of the larger constellation known as Ursa Major.
E. In order to identify the position of stars relative to the Earth, there are a number of different celestial
coordinate systems that cart provide a detailed reference point in space. There are many different systems,
all of which are largely similar with the exception of a difference in the position of the fundamental plane
– the division between northern and southern hemispheres. The five most common celestial systems are the
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Horizontal system, the Equatorial system, the Ecliptical system, the Galactic system and the Supergalactic
system.
F. The launch of the Hubble space telescope in April 1990 changed the way that astronomers saw the
universe, providing detailed digital images of constellations, planets and gas- clouds that had never been
seen before. Compared to ground-based telescopes, Hubble is not particularly large. With a primary mirror
diameter of 2.4 meters (94.5 inches). Hubble would be considered a medium-size telescope on the ground.
However, the combination of its precision optics, state-of-the-art instrumentation, and unprecedented
pointing stability and control, allows Hubble to more than make up for its lack of size, giving it a range of
well over 12 billion light years.
G. The telescope’s location above the Earth’s atmosphere also has a number of significant advantages over
land based telescopes. The atmosphere bends light due to a phenomenon known as diffraction (this is what
causes starlight to appear to twinkle and leads to the often blurred images seen through ground-based
telescopes). The Hubble Space Telescope can also observe infrared light that would otherwise be blocked
by the atmosphere as the wavelength (distance between successive wave crests) of ultraviolet light is shorter
than that of visible light.
H. Despite early setbacks – one of the reflective mirrors had to be replaced after finding that it had been
ground incorrectly and did not produce the images expected – the telescope has reignited interest in space
amongst the general public – a requirement, given that taxpayer funding paid for the research, deployment
and maintenance of the telescope.
Questions 1-5. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.
List of Headings
i. Different methods of locating and identifying
ii. A better view of the constellations
iii. Technological advances in research and development
iv. Atmospheric weaknesses of telescopes in orbit
v. Different interpretations of star groupings
vi. Common misconceptions
vii. Bypassing terrestrial limitations
viii. Renewed interest in the stars
ix. Ethnic differences in celestial mapping
x. Formal marking of constellations
xi. Universal myths of constellations
xii. Historical and modern reference
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
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4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph F
Questions 6-10. Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
Despite an initial flaw in a 6_______________, the Hubble space telescope is superior to telescopes on
land as it can identify 7_________________ which would not normally reach the Earth’s surface. This is
all the more impressive given that Hubble is only classified as a 8______________ telescope. Being above
the atmosphere, it also has the advantages of not being affected by 9 _____________, which would
otherwise lead to 10 ______________ images.
Part 5: Read the text below and answer questions (10 pts).
(SOURCE: SUCCEED IN CPE)
Creole Language in Jamaica
A. Language in Jamaica today reflects the history of the country’s interaction with a variety of cultures
and languages from many ethnic, linguistic, and social backgrounds. Aside from the Arawaks, the
original inhabitants of Jamaica, all its people were exiles or children of exiles. Over 90 of the 2.5
million people living in Jamaica today are descendants of slaves brought from western Africa by
the British. The local Jamaican language is a reflection of a history of contact with a variety of
speakers, but the official language remains Standard English. The most influential speakers were
immigrants from Africa and Europe. Kwa, Manding, and Kru are amongst the variety of prominent
African languages apparent in Jamaican history. Early Modern English was brought to the
Caribbean by sailors, soldiers, indentured servants, convicts, and lower-class settlers in the form of
regional and non-standard dialects.
B. Today the Jamaican creole language, called Jamaican Patois, falls at one extreme of the linguistic
spectrum while Standard English lies at the other end of the spectrum. The majority of the
population speaks a language which falls in between the two. At one end there is the educated model
spoken by the elite, which follows the “London Standard”. At the other extreme is what linguists
call “creolized’ English, fragmented English speech and syntax with African influences developed
during the days of slavery. This is the speech of the peasant or laborer with little education. In the
middle of the language scale there is the inclusion of Jamaican rhythm and intonation of words,
which evolved within the country, as well as the presence of other uniquely Jamaican traits including
retention in common speech of English words now rare or poetic as well as new formations such as
alterations of existing words.
C. Jamaican history and the formation of Patois are based on the experience of exile. In the early 16th
century Spanish settlement began in Jamaica with the Arawaks as their first slave labour force.
Within 100 years very few Arawaks survived due to a deadly epidemic. The only evidence of the
Arawak dialect in Jamaica today is a few loan words, place names, foods, natural objects, and
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events. Xaymaca is actually an Arawak word meaning ‘island of springs”, which is where the name
Jamaica is derived from. It is possible that the first contact of the Arawaks and the Spaniards may
have led to an early pidgin or bilingualism among the first generation of mixed blood. Age in
Jamaica have led to an early pidgin or bilingualism among the first generation of mixed blood.
Throughout Spanish rule, the Arawaks had contact with Spanish colonists, Portuguese, Amerindians
brought in as slaves from other parts of the Caribbean, and West Africans. Then, in 1655, the English
attacked the Spanish colony bringing with them new influences. Arriving with the invaders were
soldiers recruited from England, Barbados, and Montserrat; settlers from Surinam, Barbados,
Bermuda, New England, and Virginia; Jews from Brazil; indentured servants from Bristol; midland
and northern lower-class English speakers; convicts from large prisons in England; Romany
speakers; and a variety of African speakers. The birth of population centers, such as Port Royal,
Passage Fort, and Kingston. Served as a mixing pot of many different speakers.
D. Today linguists agree that East Indians, Spanish, and Arawaks have contributed a little vocabulary
to the Jamaican dialect, but the majority of non-English terms, grammar and phonology is African.
Africans came to acquire forms of English because of the domination of the English dialects of their
plantation-owning masters. The heyday of sugar. Between 1700-1834. Is the period thought to be
most responsible for the forming of Patois? At this time, increasing numbers of Africans were
imported to work on the Large plantations. By the end of the century Africans made up a quarter of
the slave population and Creole took precedence over the African past. Increases in written records
of Jamaican Creole were seen at the time of the abolitionist movement from 1770 to 1838, but
English continued to influence Jamaican Creole in the form of biblical and prayer-book language.
E. The perception that English-lexicon Creole languages are a form of “bad English” still persists today
in Jamaica. Jamaican Patois continues to be considered an unacceptable official language and an
informal language not to be used for any formal purpose. Creole speakers are often compared to
those speakers of Standard English. The similarity of Creole to English has led Creole speakers to
be labelled as socially and linguistically inferior, although Jamaica Creole is increasingly showing
up in newspapers once known for their old-fashioned Standard English, on the radio, and in songs.
Indeed, in the past 30 or 40 years linguists have final begun to recognize Creole as a language in
itself.
In which section are the following mentioned?
1. The reason why Jamaican Creole is looked down upon
2. A source by which Jamaicans were exposed to English after Patois developed
3. How most people speak in Jamaica?
4. The name of the legally recognized language of Jamaica
5. Why there are not many Arawak’s in Jamaica today
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6. The part of society that speaks the London Standard of English
7. The places where most Jamaican people live
8. A significant development during the years when growing sugar was important
9. African languages that were particularly important in the development of Patois
10. The characteristics that make Jamaican Patois unique
WRITING
Part 1: The table below gives information about the problems faced by children in two primary schools
in 2005 and 2015. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words (20 pts)
Part 2 Write an essay of 350 words on the necessity of balacing emotions in a person (30 pts)
THE END!
Người ra đề: Trần Thị Minh
Đt:
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LISTENING (50 pts)
I. Questions 1-10. (20pts) (IELTS silmulation test 3 – page 82)
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
1. Food 2. forestry 3.(the)
destruction
4. genetic
material
5. policy
development/environmental
policies
6. global
network
7. (online)
infrastructure
Tapescript
Welcome to this lecture on Agriculture and the Environment. I hope it is enough to make some of you
decide on a career in the field of agricultural science. As you all know, food is a basic human need and
producing enough of it is the single greatest challenge facing the modem world.
Developing nations have rapidly expanding populations so agriculture should be central to any
development agenda for those countries. What’s more, 75% of people in the developing world are
dependent, directly or indirectly, on agriculture for their livelihood. And, for many low-income countries,
it’s the most important sector of the economy accounting for 50% of GDP and sometimes it’s the primary',
if not only, source of foreign currency.
Now, of course, when 1 talk about ‘agriculture’, I am using the term to encompass more than just growing
food crops. Of course, livestock farming, fishing and forestry are included.
In order to combat wide-scale food shortages agricultural research programmes are underway in many
areas. Using science is one way to increase productivity; but, a word of warning: agriculture must also be
sustainable. Let’s look at approaches that are not sustainable. Firstly, overgrazing and intensive cropping
are two ancient but destructive practices that lead to loss of soil fertility. Secondly, the modem idea of
liberal application of chemical pesticides and herbicides has had disastrous consequences for the health
of the land, ranging from the pollution of water sources to the destruction of wildlife.
These practices have ignored the mechanisms that sustain ecological communities. Ignorance has led to
the destruction of the very biodiversity that is essential for sustainable food production. However,
introducing new agricultural techniques, especially things like genetic engineering, can be difficult
because many people remain suspicious of the fact that plants have had their genetic material modified
by scientists.
Biotechnology has also led to the dubious practice of bio-prospecting, or as some prefer to call it, bio-
piracy. Foreign multinational companies have been accused of illegally obtaining samples of indigenous
plants of other countries in order to get their hands on genetic material to improve the quality or yield of
their own crops.
We must put aside the controversy surrounding the field of agricultural biotechnology in order to
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BĂC
GIANG
Đáp án-Đề thi đề xuất
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI 2023
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH- KHỐI:10
Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 11 trang)
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concentrate on the biggest threat to food production on this planet...which is...? Yes, climate change. The
effects of global warming so far have been to shrink the food supply thereby pushing up prices and
making, even the most basic necessities, unaffordable.
As I see it, the international community must address this, and other challenges to agricultural production,
with urgency. Concrete scientific and technological achievements need to be presented for farmers to
evaluate and learn to use but, apart from that, governments need to address the complex issues of policy
development if the world’s hungry are to be fed.
Environmental policies need to be put in place to protect ecosystems and correct soil degradation where
possible. Countries cannot continue to exploit natural resources whilst ignoring the consequences. In fact.
I’d like to see teams of agriculture and environment experts making up a global network which would
monitor the world's farming systems. Different farming systems should be studied not only with a view
to analyzing the environmental effects, but the social and economic effects as well. The studies would be
carried out with a view to stemming pollution and erosion and promoting safe, cost-effective practices
that will guarantee a secure food supply in the future.
Monitoring sites would need to be set up all across the world and data collected in a systematic way. Of
course, building the online infrastructure for such a project would cost millions of dollars and there
would be ongoing costs involved with the monitoring system but the information gathered would go a
long way towards solving the problem of feeding the masses and ensuring millions of people don’t face a
hungry future.
Part 2: Listen to an interview about the effect of family on personality and complete the sentences.
(16pts)
1 position 2 middle 3 read 4 worry
5 favourite 6 question 7 marriage partner 8 Outside
Part 3: (10 points )
1. FALSE 2. FALSE
3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. NOT GIVEN
Part 4 : (10 points)
1A, 2B, 3B, 4C, 5A
LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1 Choose the best answer. (20 points)
1B, 2C, 3A, 4B, 5B, 6C, 7C, 8D, 9D, 10A,
11B, 12A, 13A, 14D, 15C, 16A, 17D, 18D, 19C, 20C
Part 2: Supply the correct forms of the words given in the brackets to complete the following sentences. (10
pts)
D
Ạ
Y
K
È
M
Q
U
Y
N
H
Ơ
N
O
F
F
I
C
I
A
L

TỔNG HỢP ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC VÀ ĐỀ XUẤT KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XVII, NĂM 2023 MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10, 11.pdf

TỔNG HỢP ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC VÀ ĐỀ XUẤT KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XVII, NĂM 2023 MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10, 11.pdf

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