1st & 2nd Semester 2018 CBCS scheme P cycle model question paper
1. Model Question Paper-1 with effect from 2018-19
(CBCS Scheme)
First/Second Semester B.E.Degree Examination
Elements of Civil Engineering and Mechanics (Common to all Branches) 18CIV14/24
Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks: 100
Note: Answer FIVE full questions, choosing one full question from each module
Module – 1 Marks
1a Define force and state its characteristics. 4m
b Explain briefly the scope of Civil Engineering in:
a) Structural Engineering. b) Transportation Engineering.
8m
c Write a note on the role of Civil Engineers in the infrastructure development of
country.
8m
OR
2a Find the moment of force F = 600N about ‘A’ as shown in Fig.Q.2(a)
Fig. Q.2 (a)
4m
b To move a boat uniformly along the river at a given speed, a resultant force R=520N
is required. Two men pulling with forces P and Q by means of ropes with angle
ɵ1and ɵ2 respectively. If
a. ɵ1 = 30o
and ɵ2 = 40o
find P and Q,
b. ɵ1 = 30o
and P=400 N find Q and ɵ2
8m
c State and prove Varignon’s theorem of moments 8m
Module –2
3a State and prove Lami’s theorem. 4m
b Determine the Magnitude and Y-Intercept of the resultant force system acting on the
lamina as shown in Fig. Q.3(b).
Fig. Q.3. (b). Fig. Q. 3. (c).
8m
c Two Spheres each of radius 100mm and weight 5kN is in a rectangular box as
shown in Fig. Q. 3 (c). Calculate the reactions at all the points of contact.
8m
OR
4a Distinguish between Static friction and kinetic friction. 4m
b A block Weighing 4000 N is resting on horizontal surface supports another block of
2000 N as shown in Fig. Q.4 (b), Find the horizontal force F just to move the block
to the left. Take coefficient of friction for all contact surfaces as 0.2.
Fig. Q.4 (b)
8m
USN
2. c A uniform ladder of length 15 m rests against a vertical wall making an angle 60o
with the horizontal. Coefficient of friction between wall and the ladder is 0.30 and
between ground and ladder is 0.25. A man weighing 500N ascends the ladder. How
long will he able to go before the ladder slips? Find the weight that is necessary to
be put at the bottom of the ladder so as to be just sufficient to permit the man to go
to the top. Assume weight of the ladder to be 850 N.
8m
Module –3
5a What is meant by equilibrium of a rigid body? State the conditions of static
equilibrium for coplanar non-concurrent force system?
6m
b Solve for the distance X such that the reaction RA an RB is equal for the beam
shown in Fig. Q.5 (b).
Fig. Q.5(b)
14m
OR
6a List the steps followed in the analysis of truss by method of Joints 6m
b Find the support reactions and member forces for pin jointed plane truss shown in
Fig. Q. 6 (b).
Fig. Q. 6 (b).
14m
Module –4
7a Derivation of expression for centroid of Triangle. 6m
b Locate the Centroid of geometrical Fig.Q.7 (b). Shown with respect to horizontal
axis.
Fig.Q.7 (b).
14m
OR
8a State and prove Parallel axis theorem 6m
b Obtain the Moment of Inertia and the radius of gyration of the shaded area shown in
Fig. Q. 8. (b) With respect to X and Y axis. 14m
3. Fig. Q. 8. (b)
Module –5
9a Define displacement, Velocity, Distance Travelled, Speed and Acceleration. 4 m
b A vehicle is moving with variable acceleration and its motion is given by the
equation s= 25t +4t2
-6t3
, where‘s’ is in m and‘t’ is in seconds. Determine (i) the
velocity and acceleration at start (ii) the time, when the vehicle reaches its
maximum velocity (iii) the max velocity of the vehicle.
8m
c An aircraft moving horizontally at 120 kms/hr speed at an elevation of 1200m
targets a point on the ground and releases a bomb which hits it. Determine the
horizontal distance of the aircraft (position when it releases the bomb) from the
target. Also calculate the velocity and direction with which bomb hits the target.
8m
OR
10a State Newton’s Laws of Motion 4m
b State D'Alembert's principle and mention its applications in Plane Motion. 8m
c A particle is projected in air with a velocity of 120 m/sec at an angle of 300
with the
horizontal. Determine (i) the horizontal range (ii) the max height by the particle (iii)
the time of flight.
8m
4. Model Question Paper-1 with effect from 2018-19
(CBCS Scheme)
First/Second Semester B.E.Degree Examination
Elements of Civil Engineering and Mechanics (Common to all Branches) 18CIV14/24
Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks: 100
Note: Answer FIVE full questions, choosing one full question from each module
Module – 1 Marks
1a Briefly explain the role of Civil Engineers in the infrastructure developmentof
country.
8m
b Explain briefly the scope of Civil Engineering in:
a) Water resources engineering b) Geotechnical Engineering.
8m
c State and explain principle of resolved parts. 4m
OR
2a Determine the resultant of the four forces acting on a body as shown in Fig. Q.2 (a)
with respect to point “O”.
Fig. Q.2 (a)
8m
b A truck is to be pulled along a straight road as shown in Fig. Q.2 (b). i) if the force
applied along rope A is 5kN inclined at 30°, what should be the force in the rope B,
which is inclined at 20°, so that vehicle moves along the road. ii) if force of 4kN is
applied in rope B at what angle rope B should be inclined so that the vehicle is
pulled along the road?
Fig. Q.2 (b)
8m
c What is the moment of a force? What are the various moments encountered in
practice? Explain them.
4 m
Module –2
3a What is meant by equilibrium of a rigid body? State the conditions of static
equilibrium for coplanar non-concurrent force system?
4m
b Find the reaction at the contact surface for two identical cylinders weighing 1000N
each as shown in Fig. Q.3. (b)
Fig. Q.3. (b). Fig. Q. 3. (c).
8m
USN
5. c In the Fig. Q. 3 (c). The portion BC of the string is horizontal and pulley is
frictionless. Determine tension in different parts of the string. Also find W1 and W2.
8m
OR
4a Explain briefly: 1) angle of repose 2) Cone of friction. 4m
b What is the value of `P` in the system shown in Fig. Q.4 (b) to cause the motion to
impend? Assume the Pulley is smooth and the coefficient of friction between the
other contact surfaces is 0.2.
Fig. Q.4 (b)
8m
c A uniform ladder of length 20m rests against a vertical wall with which it makes an
angle of 45°, the coefficient of friction between the ladder and the wall and ground
respectively being 1/3 and 1/2. If a man, whose weight is one half that of the ladder
ascends the ladder, how high will he be, when the ladder slips?
8m
Module –3
5a With sketch explain different types of supports and mark reaction line. 6m
b A simply supported beam AB of length 10m carries the uniformly distributed load
of intensity 20 kN/m over a length of 4m at a distance 2m from left support and two
point loads 50kN and 60kN a distance 2mand 6m from left support respectively
calculate the reaction RA and RB.
14m
OR
6a List the steps followed in the analysis of truss by method of sections. 6m
b Find the support reactions and member forces for pin jointed plane truss shown in
Fig. Q. 6 (b).By method of joints.
Fig. Q. 6 (b).
14m
Module –4
7a Derivation of expression for centroid of Rectangle. 6m
b Locate the centroid of the shaded area shown in the Fig.Q.7 (b).with respect to OX
and OY
Fig.Q.7 (b).
14m
OR
8a State and prove Parallel axis theorem 6m
6. b Determine the second moment of the area about the horizontal centroidal axis as
shown inFig. Q. 8. (b). Also find radius of gyration.
Fig. Q. 8. (b)
14m
Module –5
9a Define Acceleration, Uniform acceleration, Variable acceleration andAcceleration
due to gravity
4 m
b A particle, starting from rest, moves in a straight line, whose equation of motion is
given by s=5t3
-3t2
+6. Find the displacement, velocity and acceleration of the particle
after 5 seconds.
8m
c A stone is dropped into well and the splash of sound is heard after 9 seconds.
Determine the height of drop from the water surface. Assume velocity of sound to
be 330m/sec.
8m
OR
10a Explain briefly Rectilinear motion and Curvilinear motion. 4m
b State D'Alembert's principle and mention its applications in Plane Motion. 8m
c A particle is projected with a velocity of 20m/s in air at angle ‘a’ with the horizontal.
The x and y co-ordinates of a point lying on the trajectory of the particle with
respect to point of projection are 20m and 8m respectively. Find the angle of
projection of the particle.
8m
7. USN 18EG15/25
First Semester B.E. Degree Examination - 2018
ENGINEERING GRAPHICS
Time: 3 Hours (COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES) Max. Marks: 100
Note: 1. Answer three full questions 2. Use A4 sheets supplied.
3. Draw to actual scale 4. Missing data, if any, may be assumed suitably.
1. A line AB measuring 70 mm has its end A 15 mm in front of VP
and 20 mm above HP and the other end B is 60 mm in front of VP
and 50 mm above HP. Draw the projections of the line and find the
inclination of the line with both the reference planes of projection.
25 Marks
OR
1. A rectangular lamina of sides 20mm X 30mm rests on HP on one of
its longer edges. The lamina is tilted about the edge on which it rests
till its plane surface is inclined to HP at 450
. The edge on which it
rests is inclined at 300
to VP. Draw the projections of the lamina.
25 Marks
2. A Square pyramid 25 mm sides of base and 60 mm axis length rests
on HP on one its corners of the base such that two base edges
containing the corner on which it rests make equal inclinations with
HP. Draw the projections of the pyramid when the axis is inclined
to HP at 400
and to VP at 300
.
45 Marks
3. A rectangular prism of base 30mm x 20 mm and height 60 mm rests
on HP on its base with the longer base side inclined at 400
to VP. It
is cut by a plane inclined at 450
to HP, perpendicular to VP and
bisects the axis. Draw the development of the lateral surface of the
prism.
30 Marks
OR
3. A triangular prism base side 30mm and length 70 mm is resting on
rectangular face on top of a square slab of side 70mm and 25 mm
thickness .Draw the isometric projections.
30 Marks
* * * * *
8. USN 18EG15/25
First Semester B.E. Degree Examination - 2018
ENGINEERING GRAPHICS
Time: 3 Hours (COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES) Max. Marks: 100
Note: 1. Answer three full questions 2. Use A4 sheets supplied.
3. Draw to actual scale 4. Missing data, if any, may be assumed suitably.
1. A line PQ 85mm long has its end P10mm above HP and 15mm in
front of the VP. The top view and front view of line PQ are 75 mm
and 80mm respectively. Draw the projections. Also determine the
true and apparent inclinations of the line.
25 Marks
OR
1. A square plate of 40mm side rests on HP such that one of the
diagonals is inclined at 300
to HP and 450
to VP. Draw its
projections.
25 Marks
2. A hexagonal prism 25 mm sides of base and 50 mm axis length
rests on HP on one of its edges. Draw the projections of the prism
when the axis is inclined to HP at 450
and appears to be inclined to
VP at 450
.
45 Marks
3. A square pyramid of 25 mm base edge and 50 mm height rests with
its base on HP with all of its base edges equally inclined to VP. It is
cut by a plane perpendicular to VP and inclined to HP at 600
,
passing through the extreme right corner of the base. Draw the
development of the lateral surface of the pyramid.
30 Marks
OR
3. A sphere of diameter 50 mm rests centrally on top of a cube of sides
50 mm. Draw the isometric projections of the combinations of
solids.
30 Marks
* * * * *
9. Page 1 of 2
Model Question Paper-1 with effect from 2018-19
(CBCS Scheme)
18MAT11USN
First Semester B.E. Degree Examination
Calculus and Linear Algebra
(Common to all Branches)
Time: 3 Hrs Max.Marks: 100
Note: Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least ONE question from each module.
Module-1
1. (a) With usual notation, prove that 2422
111 ddrrrp . (06 Marks)
(b) For the cardiod : cos1 ar , show that r2
is constant. (06 Marks)
(c) Show that the evolute of the parabola axy 42
is 32
2427 axay . (08 Marks)
OR
2. (a) Find the pedal equation of the curve : )sin(cos mmar mm
. (06 Marks)
(b) Show that the radius of curvature for the catenary cxcy cosh at any point yx, varies
as square of the ordinate at that point. (06 Marks)
(c) Show that the angle between the pair of curves: log&log arar is .tan2 1
e
(08 Marks)
Module-2
3. (a) Using Maclaurin’s series, prove that ...
2432
12sin1
432
xxx
xx (06 Marks)
(b) Evaluate (i) xxxx
x
cba
1
0
3lim
(ii) x
x
x
2
2
coslim
. (07 Marks)
(c) Examine the function 20123, 33
yxyxyxf for its extreme values. (07 Marks)
OR
4. (a) Find dtdu at ,0t if
222
zyx
eu
and tzttytx sin,cos,12
. (06 Marks)
(b) If zxywyzxvxyzu ,, , then show that 4,,,, zyxwvu . (07 Marks)
(c) Find the maximum and minimum distances of the point 3,2,1 from the sphere .56222
zyx (07 Marks)
Module-3
5. (a) Evaluate : dydxdzzyx
z zx
zx
1
1 0
(b) Find by double integration the area lying between the circle 222
ayx and the line
ayx in the first quadrant. (06 Marks)
(c) Show that
2
0
2
0
sin
sin
d
d
(07 Marks)
OR
10. Page 2 of 2
6. (a) Change the order of integration and hence evaluate
1
0
2
2
x
x
dxdyxy . (06 Marks)
(b) A pyramid is bounded by three coordinate planes and the plane 632 zyx .
Compute the volume by double integration. (07 Marks)
(c) Evaluate: dxxx
21
1
0
23
1 , by expressing in terms beta & gamma functions. (07 Marks)
Module-4
7. (a) If the temperature of the air is C0
30 and a metal ball cools from C0
100 to C0
70 in 15
minutes, find how long will it take for the metal ball to reach a temperature of .400
C (06 Marks)
(b) Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves ,122222
dybydxax
where is a parameter. (07 Marks)
(c) Solve : .0422 434
dyxyxydxyy (07 Marks)
OR
8. (a) The current i in an electrical circuit containing an inductance L anda resistance R in series
and, acted upon an e.m.f. tE sin satisfies the differential equation .sin tERidtdiL
Find the value of the current at any time t, if initially there is no current in the circuit. (06 Marks)
(b) Solve: 0cos2sin 23
dxyxyxdy (07 Marks)
(c) Find the general and singular solution of ,2ppyxypx by using the substitution
vyux 22
& (07 Marks)
Module-5
9. (a) Find the rank of the matrix
5114
1352
35110
2131
by applying elementary row operations. (06 Marks)
(b) Using Rayleigh’s power method, find largest eigen value and eigen vector of the matrix:
402
031
2125
by taking 0
X = T
0,0,1 as initial eigen vector.(Perform 7 iterations) (07 Marks)
(c) Use Gauss-Jordan method solve the system of equations:
43;126;54 zyxzyxzyx (07 Marks)
OR
10. (a) For what values and the system of equations zyxzyxzyx 52;953;632 ,
has (a) no solution (b) a unique solution and (iii) infinite number of solutions. (06 Marks)
(b) Reduce the matrix
1642
719
A into the diagonal form. (07 Marks)
(c) Solve the system of equations 9541183;712983;10413527 zyxzyxzyx ,
using Gauss-Seidel method. (Carry out 4 iterations). (07 Marks)
*****
11. Page 1 of 2
Model Question Paper-2 with effect from 2018-19
(CBCS Scheme)
18MAT11USN
First Semester B.E. Degree Examination
Calculus and Linear Algebra
(Common to all Branches)
Time: 3 Hrs Max.Marks: 100
Note: Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least ONE question from each module.
Module-1
1. (a) With usual notation, prove that drdr tan . (06 Marks)
(b) Find the radius of curvature at the point aa 3,3 on the curve axyyx 333
. (06 Marks)
(c) Show that the evolute of the ellipse: 12222
byax is 32223232
babyax (08 Marks)
OR
2. (a) Find the pedal equation of the curve : .cos1 erl (06 Marks)
(b) Find the radius of curvature for the curve raaar 122
cos
at any point on it. (06 Marks)
(c) Show that the angle between the pair of curves: 2sin16&42sin 22
rr is .3 (08 Marks)
Module-2
3. (a) Using Maclaurin’s series, prove that ...
246
tanseclog
53
xx
xxx (06 Marks)
(b) Evaluate (i)
a
x
ax
ax 2
tan
2lim
(ii) x
x
x
sin2
0
1lim
(07 Marks)
(c) Examine the function 4422
2, yxyxyxf for its extreme values. (07 Marks)
OR
4. (a) If xzzyyxfu 24,43,32 , show that 0413121 zyx uuu (06 Marks)
(b) If cos,sinsin,cossin rzryrx , show that .sin,,,, 2
rrzyxJ (07 Marks)
(c) A rectangular box, open at the top, is to have a volume of 32 cubic ft. Find the dimension of
the box requiring least material for its construction. (07 Marks)
Module-3
5. (a) Evaluate dxdye yx
0 0
22
by changing into polar coordinates. (06 Marks)
(b) Find the volume the tetrahedron bounded by the plane 1
c
z
b
y
a
x
and the coordinate planes,
using double integration. (07 Marks)
(c) Show that
2200
2
2
dxex
x
dxe x
x
(07 Marks)
12. Page 2 of 2
OR
6. (a) Evaluate:
1
0
1
0
1
0
222
2 22
1
x yx
zyx
dxdydz
(06 Marks)
(b) Find by double integration, the centre of gravity of the area of the cardioid: .cos1 ar (07 Marks)
(c) With usual notations, show that
.,
1
1
0
11
nmdx
x
xx
nm
nm
(07 Marks)
Module-4
7. (a) A copper ball originally at C0
80 cools down to C0
60 in 20 minutes, if the temperature of the
air being .400
C What will be the temperature of the ball after 40 minutes from the original? (06 Marks)
(b) Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves nn
anr cos ,where a is a parameter. (07 Marks)
(c) Solve : .0223 23342
dyxyxdxxyyx (07 Marks)
OR
8. (a) Solve the differential equation ,300sin200 tRidtdiL when 05.0L & 100R and
find the value of the current i at any time t, if initially there is no current in the circuit. What
value does i approach after a long time. (06 Marks)
(b) Solve : .0cossin 2
drdrr (07 Marks)
(c) Solve: 022212 234
xyppxyyxpyxp , where .dxdyp (07 Marks)
Module-5
9. (a) For what values and the system of equations zyxzyxzyx 2;1032;6 ,
has (a) no solution (b) a unique solution and (iii) infinite number of solutions. (06 Marks)
(b) Using Rayleigh’s power method, find largest eigen value and eigen vector of the matrix:
512
132
114
by taking 0
X = T
0,0,1 as initial eigen vector.(Perform 7 iterations) (07 Marks)
(c) Use Gauss-Jordan method solve the system of equations:
712983;10413527;9541183 zyxzyxzyx (07 Marks)
OR
10. (a) Find the rank of the matrix
512
132
114
by applying elementary row operations. (06 Marks)
(b) Reduce the matrix
12
21
A into the diagonal form. (06 Marks)
(c) Solve the system of equations 18203;17220;252032 zyxzyxzyx , (07 Marks)
using Gauss-Seidel method. (Carry out 4 iterations).
*****
13. Page 1 of 2
Model Question Paper-2 with effect from 2018-19
(CBCS Scheme)
18PHY12/22USN
First/Second Semester B.E.Degree Examination
Engineering Physics
(Common to all Branches)
Time : 3 hrs Max. Marks: 100
Note: 1. Answer FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.
2. Physical constants: Speed of light c = 3 108
m/s; h = 6.625 10 -34
JS; k = 1.38 10 -23
J/K;
NA = 6.02 10 63
/Kmole; me = 9.1 10-31
kg; e = 1.6 10-19
C.
Module – 1
1 a. Starting form Hookes’ law derive the differential equation for SHM. Explain the
Characteristics of SHM. (7 marks)
b. With a neat diagram explain the construction and working of Reddy tube. Mention any four
applications of Shock waves (10 marks)
c. A mass of 4.3gm is attached to a spring of force constant 17N/m. This mass spring system is
executing SHM. Find the frequency of the external force which excites resonance in the
system. Ignore the mass of the spring. (3 marks)
OR
2 a. State and explain laws of conservation of mass, energy and momentum. (6 marks)
b. What are damped oscillations? Derive the expression for decaying amplitude and hence discuss
the case of critical damping (10 marks)
c. A 20 gm oscillator with a natural frequency 10rad/s is vibrating in damping medium. The
damping force is proportional to the velocity of the vibrator. If the damping coefficient is 0.17
how does the oscillation decays? (4 marks)
Module-2
3. a. Explain tensile stress and compressive stress. What are the engineering importances of elastic
materials? (6 marks)
b. Define lateral strain, linear strain and Poisson’s ratio. Obtain the expression for Poisson’s ratio
(10 marks)
c. What are torsional oscillations? Give the expression for time period of torsional oscillations.
Mention the applications of torsional oscillations (5 marks)
d. A wire of length 2m and radius 2mm is fixed to the center of a wheel. A torque of magnitude
0.0395Nm is applied to twist the wire. Find the rigidity modulus of the wire if the angular
twist is 0.038rad (4 marks)
OR
4. a. Define bending moment. Derive the expression for bending moment in terms moment of
inertia. (8 marks)
b. Derive the relation between bulk modulus (K), Young’s modulus (Y) and Poisson’s ratio.
What are the limiting values of Poisson’s ratio? (8 marks)
c. A brass bar of length 1m, area of cross section 0.01m2
is clamped horizontally at one end. A
weight of 1kg is applied at the other end. What is the depression produced (Young’s’ modulus
is 9.78 x 10 10
Nm2
(4 marks)
14. Page 2 of 2
Module-3
5. a. Describe the concept of divergence. What is its physical significance? Derive Gauss divergence
theorem (9 marks)
b. With neat diagrams explain different types of optical fiber. Define V number (7marks)
c. A coil of mean radius 8cm and having 100 turns carries current of 10A. Calculate the magnetic
field produced at the center of the coil and at a point on the axis at a distance 4cm from the
center (4marks)
OR
6. a. With the help of Block diagram, explain point to point communication using optical fiber.
Mention the merits and de merits of optical fiber communications (10marks)
b. What is displacement current?. Derive the expression for displacement current (6marks)
c. An optical fiber has core refractive index 1.5 and clad refractive index 3% less than that of core.
Calculate NA, angle of acceptance, and internal critical angle (4marks)
Module – 4
7. a. Staring from Schrodinger’s time independent wave equation, derive the expression for energy eigen
value and eigen function for an electron present in 1-d potential well of infinite depth. (10 marks)
b. What is a laser range finder? Give the qualitative explanation of construction and working of laser
range finder (6 marks)
c. An electron is trapped in a 1-D potential well of infinite height and width of 0.1nm. Calculate the
energy required to excite it from its ground state to fifth excited state (4 marks)
OR
8. a. Explain the terms (a) spontaneous emission, (b) stimulated emission (c) population inversion (d)
active medium and (e) resonance cavity (10 marks)
b. What are the properties of a wave function? Give the qualitative explanation of Max Born’s
interpretation of wave function (6 marks)
c. A laser operating at 632.8nm emits 3.182 x 1016
photons per second. Calculate the output power of
the laser if the input power is 100 watt. Also find the percentage power converted into coherent light
energy (4 marks)
Module – 5
9. a. Give the assumptions of quantum free electron theory. Discuss two success of quantum
free electron theory (8 marks)
b. What are dielectrics? Give the relation between dielectric constant and polarization. Discuss
solid, liquid and gaseous dielectrics with one example for each. (8 marks)
c. Define Fermi temperature. Calculate Fermi temperature for a metal whose Fermi energy is
7eV (4 marks)
OR
10. a. Describe Fermi level in intrinsic semiconductor and hence obtain the expression for
Fermi energy in terms of energy gap of intrinsic semiconductor (8marks)
b. Give a brief account for Fermi-Dirac distribution theory. Obtain the expression for Fermi
energy at 0 K (8marks)
c. The conductivity and Hall coefficient of an n-type semiconductor are 112/m and
1.25 x 10 -3
m3
/C respectively. Calculate the charge carrier concentration and electron mobility
(4 marks)
15. Model Question Paper-1 with effect from 2018-19
(CBCS Scheme)
18PHY12/22USN
First/Second Semester B.E.Degree Examination
Engineering Physics
(Common to all Branches)
Time : 3 hrs Max. Marks: 100
Note: 1. Answer FIVE full questions, choosing one full question from each module.
2. Physical constants: Velocity of light c = 3 108
m/s; h = 6.625 10 -34
JS; k = 1.38 10 -23
J/K;
NA = 6.02 10 26
/Kmole; me = 9.1 10-31
kg; e = 1.6 10-19
C
Module – 1
1 a. What are shock waves? Mention the characteristics of shock waves (6 marks)
b. What are damped oscillations? Give the theory of damped oscillations and hence discuss
the case of under damping. (10 marks)
c. A spring undergoes an extension of 5 cm for a load of 50 g. Find its force constant, angular frequency
and frequency of oscillation, if it is set for vertical oscillations with a load of 200 g attached to its
bottom. Ignore the mass of the spring. (4 marks)
OR
2 a. Define simple harmonic motion. Derive the equation for simple harmonic motion using Hooke’s law.
(6 marks)
b. Discuss the theory of forced vibrations and hence obtain the expression for amplitude.
(10 marks)
c. A free particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a straight line with a period of 25 seconds.
5 seconds after it has crossed the equilibrium point, the velocity is found to be 0.7 m/s. Calculate the
displacement at the end of 10 seconds, and also the amplitude of oscillation.
(4 marks)
Module-2
3. a. Explain in brief the factors affecting elastic property of a body. (4 marks)
b. Derive the relation between Y, and where the symbols have their usual meaning
(7 marks)
c. What are torsional oscillations? Give the expression for time period of torsional oscillations. Mention the
applications of torsional oscillations (5 marks)
d. A rod of cross sectional area 1cm2
is rigidly planted into the earth vertically. A string which can
withstand a maximum tension of 2kg is tied to the upper end of the rod and pulled horizontally. If the
length of the rod from the ground level is 2m calculate the distance through which its upper end is
displaced just before the string snaps (4 marks)
OR
4. a. State and explain Hookes’ law. Define elastic and plastic limit. (6 marks)
b. Define Poisson’s ratio. Mention its limiting values. Obtain the relation between shear strain, elongation
strain and compression strain. (10 marks)
c. Calculate the twisting couple on a solid cylindrical rod of length 1.5m and radius 80mm when it is
twisted through an angle 0.60
. Rigidity modulus of the material of rod is 93x109
Nm-2
.
(4 marks)
16. Module-3 18PHY12/22
5. a. Explain the terms gradient of a scalar, divergence and curl of a vector. Derive Gauss
divergence theorem (7 marks)
b. What is displacement current? Obtain the expression for displacement current (6marks)
c. Mention the conditions for three types of polarization of electric vector (3marks)
d. Consider a slab waveguide made of AlGaAs having RI for core and clad 3.6 and 3.55 respectively.
Find how many modes can propagate in this waveguide if d = 5 (4marks)
OR
6. a. Give the four Maxwell’s equations in differential form in vacuum and hence derive the EM wave
equation in terms of electric field using Maxwell’s equations (8marks)
b. Name the three types of attenuation in optical fiber. Obtain the expression for attenuation coefficient
(8marks)
c. A plane EM wave propagating along the x-direction has a wavelength 5mm. The magnitude of the
electric field in y-direction is 38V/m. Find the magnitude of the magnetic field. Also write the time
varying equations for both the fields (4marks)
Module – 4
7. a. Setup 1-dimensional time independent Schrodinger wave equation. Explain Born’s approximation
(8 marks)
b. Mention the three different vibrational modes of CO2 molecule. With a neat energy level diagram explain the
construction and working of CO2 laser (8 marks)
c. An electron is trapped in a 1-D potential well of infinite height and of width of 0.1 nm. Calculate the
energy required to excite it from its ground state to fifth excited state (4 marks)
OR
8. a. With a proper energy level diagram explain the working of Semiconductor laser. Explain the working of
laser range finder (10 marks)
b. State and explain Heisenberg Uncertainty principle. Show that the electron emitted during -decay does
not pre-exist inside the nucleus using uncertainty principle (6 marks)
c. Calculate the wavelength of laser emitted from an extrinsic semiconductor laser if the band gap is 0.02eV.
To which region of EM spectrum does it belong? (4 marks)
Module – 5
9. a. Explain the failures of classical free electron theory. (4 marks)
b. What is Hall Effect? Obtain the expression for Hall voltage in terms of Hall co-efficient
(6 marks).
c. Define Fermi factor. Explain the variation of Fermi factor with temperature.
(6 marks)
d. The charge carrier density of intrinsic germanium is 2.372 x 10-19
/m3
. Assuming electron and hole
mobilities as 3.38 m2
V-1
s-1
and 0.18 m2
V-1
s-1
respectively, calculate the resistivity of intrinsic
germanium at 27o
C. (4 marks)
OR
10. a. Give the assumptions of quantum free electron theory and hence obtain the expression for Fermi energy
at 0 K (8marks)
b. Define internal field in case of solid dielectrics. Derive Clausius-Mossotti equation
(8marks)
c. Calculate the Fermi energy and Fermi velocity of a metal at 0 K whose density is 10500kg/m3
, atomic
weight is 107.9 and has one free electron per atom (4 marks)
*****
17. First/Second Semester B.E Degree Examination
Basic Electrical Engineering “18ELE13”
Time: 3 Hours Max.Marks:100
Note:Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing one full question from each module.
Module 1
1. a) State and explain Kirchhoff’s laws with example.(7 Marks)
b)Find the current in all the branches of the network shown. (7 Marks)
c) Define Average value of alternating current and derive an expression for it in terms
of maximum value. (6 Marks)
OR
2. a) Explain the phasor representation of alternating quantities with suitable diagrams.
(6 Marks)
b) What is the potential between the point x and y in the network shown below?
(6 Marks)
c) If the total power dissipated in the circuit shown below is 18W, find the value of R
and its current. (8 Marks)
18. Module 2
3. a) Obtain expression for the current through the pure inductor and show that power
consumed is zero. (6 Marks )
b) Obtain the relationship between line and phase voltages and currents in threephase
balanced delta connected system (8
Marks)
c) Two impedances z1= (6-8i) Ω and z2= (16+12i) Ωare connected in parallel. If the
total current of the combination is (20+10i) amperes, find (i) Voltage across the
combination (ii) Currents in the two branches. (6 Marks)
OR
4. a) List out the advantages of three phase system as compared to single phase system (
6 Marks)
b) What is meant by power factor in AC circuit? What is its significance in AC
Circuits? (6 Marks)
c) A balanced star connected load of (8+6i)Ω/phase is connected to 3phase 230V
supply. Find the line current, power factor, power reactive volt-ampere.(8 Marks)
Module 3
5. a) Derive the condition for which the efficiency of a transformer is maximum.
(6 Marks)
b) Define earthing. List the different type of earthing and explain anyone with a neat
diagram. (7 Marks)
c)A single phase 20KVA transformer has 1000turns and 2500 secondary turns. The
net cross section area of the core is 100cm2
. When the primary winding is connected
to 550V, 50Hz supply, calculate (i) the maximum value of the flux density in the core,
(ii) the voltage induced in the secondary winding and (iii) the primary and secondary
full load currents. (7
Marks)
OR
6. a) Derive emf equation of a transformer. (6 Marks)
b) Write a short note (i) MCB. (ii) Precautions against electric shock. (8 Marks)
c) With a neat sketch and truth table explain 2 way and 3 way control of lamp.
(6 Marks)
Module 4
7. a) With a neat sketch explain the construction of the various parts of DC Generator
(8 Marks)
b) Derive the torque equation of DC motor with usual notations. (6 Marks)
c) A 200V,4 Pole , lap wound DC shunt motor has 800 conductors on its armature .
The resistance of the armature winding is 0.5Ω and that of the shunt field winding is
200Ω. The motor takes 21A and flux /pole is 30mWb. Find speed and gross torque
developed in the motor.
(6 Marks)
OR
8. a) Derive emf equation of a DC Generator. (6 Marks)
19. b) Discuss about various characteristics of a DC series motor with neat diagrams.
(6 Marks)
c) A 30 kW, 300V DC shunt generator has armature and field resistances of 0.05Ω
and 100Ω respectively. Calculate the power developed by the armature when it
delivers full output power. (8 Marks)
Module 5
9. a) Describe the constructional features of synchronous generator with suitable
diagram.
(6 Marks)
b) Define slip and slip speed. Derive an expression for frequency of rotor current with
suitable considerations. (6 Marks)
c) A 12pole 500rpm star connected alternator has 48slots with 15 conductors per slot.
Flux per pole is 0.02Wb. The winding factor is 0.97 and pitch factor is 0.98. Calculate
the phase emf and line emf.
OR
10. a) Derive the emf equation of Synchronous Generator. (6 Marks)
b) With a circuit diagram explain the working of a star delta starter for a three
phase induction motor. (7 Marks)
c) A three phase 6 pole 50Hz induction motor has a slip of 1% at no load and 3% at
full load. Determine: i) Synchronous speed, ii) No load speed iii) Full load speed,iv)
frequency of rotor current at stand still. v) Frequency of rotor current at full load.
(7 Marks)
20. FirstSemester B.E. Degree Examination, Jan 2019
18ELE 15/25BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Time: 3 hrs. MODEL PAPER Max. Marks: 100
Note: Answer FIVE full questions, choosing one full question from each module
Module – 1
1 a
.
A resistance of 10Ω is connected in series with two resistances each of
15Ω arranged in parallel. What resistance must be shunted across this
parallel combination so that the total current taken shall be 1.5A with 20V
applied?
6 marks
b
.
For the given circuit calculate the value of the current in either branch and
the value of the unknown resistance R when the total current taken by the
network is 2.25 A.
6 marks
c
.
Define the following with respect to sinusoidal alternating quantity: (i)
Average Value, (ii) RMS value, iii) Form factor and (iv) peak factor
8 marks
OR
2 a
.
Define RMS value of a sinusoidal alternating quantity and derive an
expression for it.
6 marks
b
.
Two resistors are connected in parallel and a voltage of 200V is applied to
the terminals. The total current taken is 25A and the power dissipated in
one of the resistors is 1500W. What is the resistance of each element?
6 marks
c
.
Find current in the battery, the current in each branch and p.d. across AB
in the network shown in fig.2(c)
8 marks
Module – 2
3 a Show that in a pure inductor the current lag behind the voltage by 90ᵒ.
Also draw the voltage and current waveforms.
6marks
b A series RLC circuit is composed of 100 Ohms resistance,1.0 H inductance and8 marks
21. 5µF capacitance. A voltage,V(t)=141.4 Cos377t volts is applied to the
circuit.Determine the current and vlotages VR , VL and VC
c With the help of a phasor diagram show that in a three phase star
connected system the line to line voltage is √3 Ɵmes the phase to neutral
voltage
6 marks
OR
4 a Derive an expression for power in a single phase R-L series circuit in terms
of voltage, current and power factor of the circuit.
6marks
b Given v=200 sin 377t volts and i=8 sin(377t-30°) amps for an a.c. circuit,
determine :a)Power factor b)True power c)Apparent power d)Reactive
power indicate the unit of power calculated
8 marks
c Three identical coils.each having a resistance of 10 and a reactanece of
10 are connected in delta,across 400 V,3-phase supply.Find the line
current and the reading on the two Wattmeters conneted to measure the
power.
6 marks
Module – 3
5 a Derive the equation for the induced emf in a single phase transformer 6 marks
b With a neat connection diagram explain three way control of lamp. Also
develop the truth table indicating the state of the lamp for different
positions of the switches.
6 marks
c A transformer is rated at 100KVA. At full load its copper loss is 1200 W and
its iron loss is 960 W. Calculate (a) the efficiency at full load, unity power
factor (b) efficiency at half full load, 0.8 power factor (c) the load KVA at
which maximum efficiency will occur and (d) Maximum efficiency at 0.85
power factor
8 marks
OR
6 a Explain the principle of transformer and compare the core and shell type
transformer.
6 marks
b A single phase 50 Hz core type transformer has a square core of 20 cm
side. The permissible maximum density is 1 Wb / m2. Calculate the
number of turns per limb on the high and low voltage sides for a 3000 /
220 V ratio
6 marks
c What is earthing? Why earthing is required? With the help of sketch
explain plate earthing.
8 marks
Module – 4
7 a 8 marks
b 6 marks
c 6 marks
OR
8 a 6 marks
b 6 marks
c 8 marks
Module – 5
22. 9 a 8marks
b 6 marks
c 6 marks
OR
10 a 8 marks
b 4 marks
c 8 marks
23. First/Second Semester B.E Degree Examination
Basic Electrical Engineering “18ELE13”
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks:100
Note:Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing one full question from each module.
Module-1
1. a) State and explain Ohm’s law and mention its limitations. (6 Marks)
b) Explain the generation of single phase A.C induced EMF with suitable diagrams. (6 Marks)
c Two 12 V batteries with internal resistance 0.5 and and 1 respectively are joined in parallel
and a resistance of 2 is placed across the terminals. Find the current supplied by each battery.
(8 Marks)
OR
2. a) State and explain Kirchoff’s laws. (6 Marks)
b)Define RMS value of alternating current ,show that its value is proportional to maximum
value. (6 Marks)
c)Calculate currents in each resistors, total power and power dissipated in each resistors for below
shown circuit diagram. (8 Marks)
Module-2
3. a) Show that current ‘i’ lags the applied voltage ‘v’ by 900
for a pure inductance A.C circuit and
also power consumed is zero (6 Marks)
b)Derive the voltage and current relations in a balanced 3 phase star connected load with suitable
circuit and vector diagrams. (7 Marks)
c) A series RLC circuit with 100 , 25µF and 0.15H is connected across 415V,50Hz AC supply. Calculate
i) impedance ii) current iii) power factor iv) voltage drop across inductor and capacitor.
(7 Marks)
OR
4. a) Show that two wattmeters measure three phase power with suitable circuit diagram and vector diagrams.
(8 Marks)
Page(1 of 2)
24. b) A 318 µF capacitor is connected across a 230 volts, 50 Hz system. Determine i) capacitive reactance ii)
RMS value of current iii) voltage and current expressions. (6 Marks)
c) Three arms of a 3 phase, delta connected load, each comprises of a coil having 25 resistance and 0.15
inductance in series with a capacitor of 120µF across 415V, 50 Hz supply. Calculate i) line current ii)
power factor iii) power consumed. (6 Marks)
Module-3
5. a) Explain the working principle of transformer and list the applications of transformer. (6 Marks)
b) A 40KVA, single phase transformer has core loss of 450 Watts and full load copper loss 850 Watts. If
the power factor of the load is 0.8. Calculate i) Full load efficiency ii) Maximum efficiency at UPF iii)
Load for maximum efficiency. (8 Marks)
c) Explain 2 way control and 3 way control of lamp with suitable circuit diagrams and working table.
(6 Marks)
OR
6. a) Derive an EMF equation of transformer with usual notations. (6 Marks)
b)List different types of loss in transformer and explain each one in brief. (8 Marks)
c) Explain the term equipment earthing and explain any one type earthing with a neat diagram.
(6 Marks)
Module-4
7. a) Explain the working principle of D.C motor with suitable diagrams. (6 Marks)
b) Derive an EMF equation for D.C generator with usual notations. (6 Marks)
c) A 4 pole, DC shunt motor takes 22.5 A from a 250 V supply . The armature resistance is 0.5 Ohms and
field resistance is 125 Ohms. The armature is wave wound with 300 conductors. If the flux pet pole is
0.02 Wb. Calculate i) Speed ii) Torque developed iii) Power developed. (8 Marks)
OR
8.a) Discuss the following characteristics for i) series motor ii) shunt motor with relevant plots.
i) Ta v/s Ia ii) N v/s Ia (6 Marks)
b) Explain the function of following parts of D.C machine. (6 Marks)
i) Yoke ii) Field winding iii) Commutator iv) Pole shoe v) Pole core vi) Brush
c) A 4 pole, lap wound DC shunt generator delivers 200 A at terminal voltage of 250 Volts. It has a field
and armature resistance of 50 Ohms and 0.05 Ohms respectively. Neglecting brush drop determine i)
Armature current ii) Current per parallel path iii) EMF generated iv) Power developed. (8 Marks)
Module-5
9.a) Explain the working principle of 3 phase synchronous generator. (6 Marks)
b) A 6 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz, alternator has 12 slots per pole and 4 conductors per slot. A flux of 25mWb is
sinusoidally distributed along the air gap. Determine the i) phase EMF ii) Line EMF . Assume coils are
full pitched and winding factor as 0.96. (6 Marks)
c) Explain the concept of rotating magnetic field and show that resultant EMF remains same at different
instants of time. (8 Marks)
OR
10. a) Derive an EMF equation for 3 phase synchronous generator with suitable considerations.
(6 Marks)
b) Describe the constructional features of 3 phase induction motor with suitable diagrams.
(8 Marks)
c) An 8 pole 3 phase alternator runs at 750RPM and supplies power to 6 pole 3 phase induction motor
which runs at 970 RPM. What is the slip of the induction motor? (6 Marks)
Page(2 of 2)
25. VISVESVARAYA TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
First Semester BE/B.Tech
Technical English - 1
[Common to all Programmes] Course Code: 18EGH18
Model Question Paper
Examination: Three Hour Maximum Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates
i)Answer all the 100 questions, each question carries one mark.
ii) Marking two answers for the same question makes the answer invalid.
Choose the correct option from those given in each of the sentences below.
1. The direction in which the formal communication flows is always______________.
A. Upward B. Downward C. Horizontal D. All of the Above
2. Communiction in an organization should ideally flow________________________
A. From top to bottom B. From bottom to top C. Both ways D. None of these
3. Which one of the following cannot become a type of written communication________________
A. Pictures and visual aids B. Meetings and conferences
C. Letters and suggestions D. Rules and Instructions
4. Consider the following statements about communication,
1. It is a process of interaction with people and environment
2. Two or more individuals interact and influence the ideas, beliefs and attitudes of
each other.
3. They can exchange information through words, gestures, signs and symbols,
expressions etc.
Answer using the following codes: A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
5. Which of the following is/are not included in the tools of verbal communication?
A. Listening B. Reading C. Writing D. Graphics
6. Which of the following statements explain Interpersonal skills?
A. The skills that a person uses to interact with other people.
B. People skills or communication skills
C. It explains how people relate to one another D. All the above.
7. Which of the following is not a way to improve interpersonal skills?
A. Think positively, and enter the mindset to work well with others and maintain
good relationships. B. Criticise others or yourself. B. Do not criticize others or yourself.
C. Be patient. D. Be clear
8. Consider the following:
A. Common frame of reference B. Mutual Interest
C. Common Language D. Common environment
Which of the above is/are features of effective communication? Answer using codes:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 and 3
9. In communication, when people do not talk much, question even less, and actually do
very little it is called,
A. Assertive style B. Passive style C. Passive – aggressive style D. Aggressive style
26. 10. Which of the following are the key elements of communication?
A. Communication is a two way process B. There has to be a message
C. Commonness of understanding D. All the above
Choose the correct option from those given in each of the sentences below.
11. Interpersonal communication is the process by which people exchange information,
feelings, and meaning through verbal and non-verbal messages.
A.True B. False C. possible D. may be
12. Communicating the right way is not equally important in every walk of like, be it in
personal, professional or social life.
A. True B. False C. possible D. may be
13. The success of any business lies as much in networking and building sound professional relationships as it
does in individual tact and business acumen. Communication is a crucial decisive factor in business relations.
A. True B. False C. possible D. may be
14. Maintaining professional etiquette in oral and written business communication is of utmost importance and
must not be taken lightly.
A. True B. False C. possible D. may be
15. Communication is not indeed, the very lubricant that makes the machinery of human relations function
smoothly.
A. True B. False C. possible D. may be
Choose the best word to describe the PARTS OF SPEECH from those given in each of the sentences
below as underlined.
16. I always go to the park on the weekends. A. Noun B. Adjective C. Verb D. Adverb
17. On cold winter days, I love to have a cup of hot chocolate.
A. Adverb B. Adjective C. Verb D. Pronoun
18. Dinosaurs were very large, and they lived millions of years ago.
A. Noun B. Verb C. Adjective D. Preposition
19. Those flowers are very beautiful. How much do they cost?
A. Adjective B. Verb C. Conjuction D. Preposiion
20. Stewart can speak Arabic very well because he lived in Egypt for a year.
A. Verb B. Adjective C. Adverb D. Conjuction
Choose the correct option from those given in each of the sentences below.
21. According to phonetic method, the unit of a word is : A. Sentence B. Word C. Sound D. Letter
22. Total number of sounds in English language is : A. 12 B. 8 C. 20 D. 44
23. Which of the following has /i: / sound : A. Car B. Seat C. fit D. Books
24. The word “Doctor” has : A. Two syllables with stress on one B. Two syllables with stress on both
C. Two syllables with stress on first D. Two syllables with stress on second
25. According to phonetic method, the unit of a word is : A. Sentence B. Word C. Letter D. Sound
26. Majority of staff members were not satisfied with the new director. (Which word is a compound
noun?) A. director B. staff members C. new D. majority
27. I want see justice served. (Which word is an abstract noun?)
A. i B. seen C. want D. justice
28. Alice's father is a surgeon, he mostly does not have time to spend with his family. (Which word
is a singular possessive noun?) A. surgeon B. time C. family D. Alice's
27. 29. Australian government will bring together anti-terror laws. (Which word is a nominative noun?)
A. bring B. Australian C. anti-terror D. government
30. They discussed the problems, but could not find the solution. (Which word is a uncountable noun?)
A. could not B. find C. solution D. discussed
choose the whether the underlined nouns are common, proper, collective or abstract.
31. Honesty is the best policy. A. Common B. Proper C. Collective D. Abstract
32. Solomon was famous for his wisdom. A. Common B. Proper C. Collective D. Abstract
33. James is a bright student . A. Common B. Proper C. Collective D. Abstract
34. My family lives in that house. A. Common B. Proper C. Collective D. Abstract
35. A committee of five was appointed. A. Common B. Proper C. Collective D. Abstract
Silent and non Silent Letters
Select the missing silent letters from the options given. Check the spelling carefully.
36. I ___now London very well. A. w B. k C. w D. k
37. Reading is easier than __riting. A. ing B. r C.w D. ng
38. I always __rap up warm in winter. A. a B. s C. g D. w
39. Did you see the mangled __eck? A. wr B. ek C. s D. n
40. People read __salms and sing hymns in church. A. p B. psa C. ssl D. pis
Choose the most suitable answer that identifies the homophones in the sentence.
41. India ________the cricket match by 26 runs. A) One B) Won C) Ones D) Owned
42. The fisherman ________ a big fish. A) Court B) Caught C) Catch D) Collect
43. The doctor took blood from my _____. A) Vein B) Vain C) Vaien D) Vyine
44. It was good to be back in _______. A) Sink B) Sync C) synchronic D) Sinken
45. She ________after standing for two hours in a queue. A) Fainted B) Feinted C) Faint D) Feint
Questions (46-50) test your ability to use articles. Select the correct option in the series.
46. Travelling by flight is really ______ experience to be remembered. (A) an (B) a (C) the (D) no article
47. The sun rises in ______ east. (A) an (B) a (C) the (D) no article
48. I go to ______ school every morning. (A) no article (B) the (C) a (D) an
49. I carried ______ umbrella with me while going to school. (A) the (B) an (C) a (D) no article
50. Ravi is ______ tallest boy among his friends. (A) an (B) the (C) no article (D) a
Speech Sounds
51. Which of the following has / ə / sound : (A) but (B) am (C) about (D) aunt
52. Diphthong is a : (A) Pure vowel sound (B) Pure consonant sound
(C) Vowel glides or mixed vowel sounds (D) none of the above
Preposition : Choose the suitable prepositions and darken correct option in the series (1) (2) (3) & (4) from
the options given.
53. My parents live_____ New Zealand now. (A) in (B) to (C) live (D) now
54. We slept _____ the open sky. (A) under (B) below (C) in (D) on
55. Our friends in the apartment ___ us are really noisy. (A) over (B) below (C) above (D) inside
56. I am planning to meet all my friends ______ these holidays. (A) on (B) within (C) during (D) over
57. I was waiting ___ the bus stop. (A) on (B) at (C) in (D) for
58. There are two students ________ the class. (A) next (B) in (C) on (D) front
28. 59. The oranges are not in the basket. They are _______ the table. (A) in (B) between (C) on (D) next
60. My pencil is ____the books and the notebooks. (A) between (B) inside (C) outside (D) above
Word Stress : Select the correctly spelt/ stressed word
61. I want to be a photographer.
(A) PHO-to-graPH-er (B) PHO-to-graph-er (C) pho-TO-graph-er (D) pho-TO-Graph-er
62. How do you pronounce this word?
(A) PRO-nOUnce (B) pro-NOUnce (C) pro-NOUNCE (D) PRO-nounce
63. We had a really interesting conversation.
(A) con-ver-SA-tion (B) con-VER-SA-tion (C) con-VER-sa-tion (D) con-VeR-sa-tion
Tag Questions : Choose the correct question tag to complete each sentence.
64. Nobody called, ____ (A) do they? (B) didn't they? (C) did they? (D) do not they?
65. They will wash the car, _____ (A) will it? (B) won't they? (C) wouldn't they? (D) do not they?
66. We must lock the doors, _____ (A) mustn't they? (B) shouldn't we? (C) mustn't we? (D) do they?
67. I'm right, ________ (A) amn't I? (B) am not I? (C) aren't I? (D) do I ?
68 . So you bought a car, ________ (A) did you? (B) haven't you? (C) weren't you? (D) don’t I ?
69. You wouldn't like to invite my Dad, _____ (A) did you? (B) would you? (C) won't you? (D) don’t you ?
70. We won't be late, _____ (A)won't we? (B) will we? (C) are we? D) don’t we ?
Synonyms: Choose the word that is closest in meaning.
71. Mendacity : (A)Insolence (B) Risk taking nature or recklessness
(C) Untruthfulness (D) Susceptibility
72. Juxtaposing : (A) Posting (B) Placing side by side (C) Contrasting (D) Combining
73. Obscure : (A) Block (B) Obstruct (C) Constrain (D) Vague
74. Altercation : (A) Adjustment (B) Option (C) Row (D) Modification
75. Massive : (A) Lump sum (B) Strong (C)Little (D) Huge
76. Difer : (A) Indiferent (B) Defy (C) Differ (D) Postpone
77. Animosity : (A) Agony (B) Hostility (C) Wrath (D) Displeasure
78. Boisterous : (A) Ultimate (B) Suave (C) Noisy (D) Childish
79. Effluent : (A) Abundant (B) Costly (C) Full (D) Waste
80. Decadence : (A) Destroy (B) Declining (C) Sick (D) Go weak
Antonyms: Choose the word that is opposite in meaning.
81. Absence : (A) untidy (B) wise (C) presence (D) above
82. Abundant : (A) wrong, left (B) scarce (C) accidental (D) wide
83. Accept : (A) wet, left (B) aid, help (C) worst (D) refuse
Prefixes and suffixes :Choose the correct prefix or suffix from the options given to complete the gap.
84. In many countries it is …..legal to keep a gun in your house (A) ill (B) un (C) il (D) el
85. Which of the following is the suffix of ‘Suit….’? (A) Ary (B) Able (C) Ness (D) un
86. Which of the following is the prefix of ‘….Polite’? (A) im (B) dis (C) in (D) il
87. The assignment is …complete. (not finished). (A) not (B) un (C) in (D) on
88. I just can't believe it! The story is ___believable! (A) un (B) in (C) not (D) unn
89. I had a sleep__ night last night (I did not sleep). (A) less (B) able (C) ing (D) ept
29. Select the correct or preferred spelling for each of these commonly misspelled words.
Which of the following spellings is correct?
90. (A) accommodate (B) accomodate (C) acommodate (D) accommodate
91. (A) argument (B) arguments (C) arguemint (D) arguemintes
92. (A) acknowledgment (B) acknowledgement (C) acknowlegment (D) acknowlegement
Choose the correct verb/ tense form from the options given to complete the gap.
93.Our Holy Books tell us that man ------------------ mortal. (A) is (B) was (C) will be (D) are
94. The teacher asked the boys whether they ------------------ the problems.
(A) solve (B) have solved (C) had solved (D) solves
Choose the pairs of word/ phrases from the options given that best expresses a similar relationship to
that of the given pair.
95. Patient : Hospital, (A) Teacher : School (B) Pilot : Aeroplane (C) Litigant : Court (D) Priest : Church
96. Truck : Cargo, (A) Ship : Water (B) Aircraft : Fuel (C) Bus : Passengers (D) Theatre : Movie
97. Entomology : Insects (A) Oncology : Cancer (B) Gerontology : Germs
(C) Tantology : Tortoises (D) Phonology : Telephones
98. See : Invisible (A) Sell : Insoluble (B) Alien : Inalienable
(C) Satisfy : Insatiable (D) Differ : Indifferent
99. Duck : Drake (A) Bull : Cow (B) Dog : Kennel
(C) Deer : Fawn (D) Goose : Gander
100. Gemini : Zodiac (A) Star : Galaxy (B) Ministry : Government
(C) May : Year (D) Channels : Television