LET REVIEW.pptx

LET REVIEW
SCIENCE MAJOR
MAGGEL R. ANCLOTE

1.Which of the following is a part of the
process of chemiosmosis?
A. Protons move along the electron
transport chain.
B. Water molecules are split.
C. Hydrogen ions pass through
membranes.
D. Light is absorbed by chlorophyll.
9/3/20XX Presentation Title 2

2. During mitosis, a double-stranded
chromosome is attached to a spindle
fiber at the.
A. cell plate
B. centromere
C. centrosome
D. centriole

3. Which is the effect of drugs on
cells?
A. Produce toxic substance
B. Discontinuous cell activity
C. Cause damage to their
structure
D. Poison the cell liquid

4. The cell wall of plant is made of .
A. Lipids
B. Cellulose
C. Protein
D. Cell membrane

5. Which is the storage cell of plants?
A. Microtubule
B. Collenchyma
C. Meristem
D. Parenchyma

6. Which results from drinking
saltwater?
A. Poisoning of the cells
B. Dehydration of the cells
C. Increase in cell pressure
D. Bursting of the cells

7. What kind of tissue lines our skin and
what is its important function?
A. Nerve tissue; responsible for reflexes
B. Epithelial; protection from ultraviolet
radiation
C. Nerve tissue; receive stimuli on the
skin
D. Epithelial; produce new cells when
peeled off

8. At metaphase of the first meiotic
division, the chromosomes are attached
to the spindle fibers as _.
A. double chromatids
B. non-homologous pairs
C. single chromatid strand
D. a tetrad of chromatids

9. Which type of cell would probably
provide the best opportunity to study
lysosomes?
A. Leaf
B. Nerve
C. Muscle
D. White blood

10. Which best describes meiosis as another
form of cell division with accompanying
nuclear changes?
A. The nuclear changes follow one another
indefinitely.
B. The new cell has double the amount from
both parents.
C. The nucleoli break up into two parts and
disappear.
D. Each new cell has half the number of
chromosomes.

11. How are mitochondria and
chloroplasts similar to bacteria? They
A. are larger than normal cells.
B. are bounded by a single membrane.
C. lack ribosomes.
D. have a limited amount of genetic
material.

12. Which is the energy storage
compound used to do all forms of work of
the cell?
A. Electron
B. Adenine
C. Nicotinamide
D. Adenosine triphosphate

13. Meiosis reduces genetic make-up by
half. What process brings it back to
diploid state?
A. Menstruation
B. Fertilization
C. Ejaculation
D. Mitosis

14. The bipolar nature of the cell
membrane is due to .
A. presence of carriers
B. presence of glycolipids
C. phospholipid bilayer
D. integral protein

15. When a red blood cell is placed in
distilled water, it .
A. plasmolysis
b. remains the same
C. shrinks
D. swells

16. The “eyes” of potato are actually .
A. internodes
B. nodes
C. leaf scars and buds
D. stems

17. Which of these is NOT a fruit?
A. Cucumber
B. Ampalaya
C. Squash
D. Carrot

18. Which plant has an underground
stem modified for reproduction?
A. Banana
B. Bermuda
C. Tubers
D. Strawberry

19. Which plants formed the vast coal
beds during the carboniferous period?
A. Lycopods
B. Conifers
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms

20. What kind of relationship is exhibited
by an alga and a fungus in lichen?
A. Commensalism
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Competition

21. Chlorophyll appears green because
the green portion of light is .
A. dispersed
B. absorbed
C. refracted
D. reflected

22. The end products of dark reaction
phase of photosynthesis are ADP and .
A. carbon dioxide
B. sugar
C. carbon
D. nitrogen

23. Which gas is needed by the seed
during germination?
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrogen
D. Oxygen

24. Which is the universal energy source
of the cell of all living things?
A. Carbon
B. ATP
C. H2O
D. PGAL

25. When the staminate flower is found in
one plant and the pistillate flower on
another, the plant is described as .
A. complete
B. monoecious
C. robust
D. dioecious

26. Which pigment is dominant in red
algae?
A. Phycocyanin
B. Fucoxanthin
C. Chlorophyll
D. Phycoerythrin

27. Which process during
photosynthesis involves the addition of
hydrogen?
A. Oxidation
B. Hydration
C. Carbonation
D. Reduction

28. The dark reaction phase of
photosynthesis consists of a series of
chemical reactions which end up with the
formation of a 3-carbon sugar called
A. ADP
B. NADPH
C. ATP
D. PGAL

29. Which cell structure regulates the
opening and closing of the stomata?
A. Phloem
B. Xylem
C. Companion
D. Guard

30. Spraying some plants with
combination of auxins and gibberellins will
.
A. promote ripening of fruits
B. result to seed dormancy
C. allow division of cells
D. enlarge fruit growth

31. All flowering plants belong to _.
A. conifers
B. angiospermae
C. filicinae
D. gymnospermae

32. Fruit growers often propagate their
plants by sexual means because the
resulting offspring will .
A. be an improved variety than the parent
B. show little variation from the parent
C. bear larger fruit than the parent
D. show no environmental variation

33. Which of the following is incorrectly
paired?
A. Cnidaria- corals
B. Porifera- sponge
C. Annelida- earthworm
D. Platyhelminthes-Ascaris

34. What process is caused for the
upward movement of water in very tall
trees?
A. Transpiration
B. Osmosis
C. Turgor pressure
D. Air pressure

35. Which popular plant is described as
carnivorous?
A. Water hyacinth
B. Cactus
C. Pitcher plant
D. Kataka-taka

36. What is the purpose of RA 8749?
A. Prevent rather than control air pollution
B. Formulate air pollution management
C. Utilize sustainable development
D. All of the above

37. What do you call the male
gametophyte of an angiosperm?
A. Pollen
B. Ovule
C. Seed
D. Petal

38. Which root system is the best
adapted for anchorage?
A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Taproot
D. Fibrous

39. Egg-laying mammals are called .
A. viviparous
B. primates
C. oviparous
D. marsupials

40. To what order do pouch bearing
mammals?
A. Marsupials
B. Craniata
C. Monotremata
D. Placental mammals

41. Large colonies belonging to class
Anthozoa secrete hard skeletons of lime
which later form reefs.
A. Sea anemone
B. Obelia
C. Coral
D. Jellyfish

42. When body parts are paired on either
side of the body; this type of symmetry is
called .
A. Dorso-ventral
B. Bilateral
C. Radial
D. Dorsal

43. What substance do leeches secrete
which keeps the blood they feed on
liquid?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Ecdysone
C. Anticoagulin
D. Fibrinogen

44. One who specializes in all kinds of
fishes and their characteristics has
expertise on
A. Taxonomy
B. histology
C. entomology
D. ichthyology

45. In protozoans, digestion occurs in the .
A. stomach
B. contractile vacuole
C. ribosome
D. food vacuole

46. What is a distinguishing characteristic
of Homo sapiens over the lower
mammals?
A. Blood vessels
B. Sensitive skin
C. Large brain
D. Endoskeleton

47. What kind of adaptation enables the
walking stick to elude its enemies?
A. Aggressive mimicry
B. Aggressive adaptation
C. Protective mimicry
D. Protective coloration

48. Which stages of incomplete
metamorphosis are undergone by
grasshoppers?
A. Nymph, pupa, adult
B. Egg, larva, pupa, adult
C. Egg, nymph, adult
D. Egg, pupa, adult

49. Which are the hosts of Ascaris
lumbricoides and Ascaris suum?
A. Cow and man
B. Man and dog
C. Cow and pig
D. Man and pig

50. Two organisms can be identified as
belonging to the same species if they can
A. eat the same kind of food
B. breed in a natural setting
C. tolerate one another in nature
D. survive together in nature

51. Which statement about the North-
magnetic pole of the Earth is TRUE?
A. Its location never changes.
B. It corresponds to the N-pole of a bar
magnet.
C. It corresponds to the S-pole of a bar
magnet.
D. It is at the same location as the
geographic north pole of the Earth

52. An iron nail can be turned into a
temporary magnet if it is held in a strong
magnet field. Which method of
magnetization is this?
A. Charging
B. Conduction
C. Introduction
D. Saturation

53. Which of the following factors affect the
size of the induced current in a coil?
I. Number of turns in the coil
II. Size of the inducing field
III.Direction of the winding in the coil
IV. Resistance of the wire in the coil
A. I and II only C. I, II, and III only
B. III and IV only D. I, II, and IV only

54. To use the right hand rule to predict
the direction of n induced current in a
coil, your thumb must point .
A. to the direction of the motion of the
wire
B. to the S-pole of the induced magnetic
field
C. in the direction of the induced current
D. in the direction of the inducing field

55. When a bar magnet is inserted into a
coil, a current of 12.0 A is induced in the
coil. If four magnets of the same type are
inserted into a coil at the same time, what
would be the induced current?
A. 3 A
B. 4 A
C. 12 A
D. 48 A

56. Which of the following involves
adsorption?
A. Plating the copper on a steel object
B. Adherence of paint to wood surfaces
C. Brown color of the eyes of the Filipinos
D. Removal of odor inside a refrigerator
using charcoal

57. Which of the following BEST describes
temperature?
A. Temperature measures the total energy
in something.
B. Temperature measures the kinetic
energy in substance.
C. Temperature measures the total kinetic
energy contained in an object.
D. Temperature measures the average
molecular kinetic energy in substance.

58. What is the direction of a magnetic
field within a magnet?
A. From north to south
B. From south to north
C. Front to back
D. Back to front

59. Which is the induced voltage across
a stationary conductor in a stationary
magnetic field?
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Zero
D. Reversed in polarity

60. What is the magneto motive force
(mmf) of a wire with 8 turns carrying 3 A of
current?
A. 2. 67
B. 24
C. 240
D. 2400

61. A coil of wire is placed in a charging
magnet field. If the number of turns in the
coil is decreased, what will happen to the
voltage induced across the coil?
A. Remain constant
B. Be excessive
C. Decrease
D. Increase

62. Which of the following is TRUE about
the frequency and velocity of
electromagnetic waves?
A. Frequency and wavelength are
interdependent of each other
B. As frequency increases, wavelength
decreases
C. As frequency increases, wavelength
increases
D. Frequency is constant for all
wavelengths

63. Which of the following correctly lists
electromagnetic waves in order form
longest to shortest wavelength?
A. Television, infrared, visible light, X-rays
B. Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared,
microwaves
C. Radio waves, infrared, gamma rays,
ultraviolet
D. Micro waves, ultraviolet, visible light,
gamma rays

64. An electromagnetic wave is radiated by
a straight wire antenna that is oriented
vertically. What should be the orientation of
a straight wire receiving antenna?
A. Diagonally
B. Vertically
C. Horizontally and in a direction parallel to
the wave’s direction of motion
D. Horizontally and in a direction
perpendicular to the wave’s direction of
motion

65. What should a good diode tested with an
ohmmeter indicate?
A. High resistance when forward or reverse
biased
B. Low resistance when forward or reverse
biased
C. High resistance when reverse biased and
low resistance when forward biased
D. High resistance when forward biased and
low resistance when forward biased

66. Vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter
are used to .
A. record programs
B. provide DC supply
C. generate high power radio waves
D. provide lighting inside the studio

67. Which material is the usual component
of an anode?
A. Aluminum
B. Carbon
C. Copper
D. Nickel

68. A metal spoon is placed in a cup filled
with hot coffee. After some time, the
exposed end of the spoon becomes hot
even without direct contact with the liquid.
What explains this phenomenon?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Thermal expansion

69. Which causes the warmth that you
feel when you place your finger at the
side of the flame of a burning candle?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Not enough information given

70. Which process of heat transfer
happens by the movement of mass from
one place to another?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Induction
D. Radiation

71. When work is done by a system,
what happens to its temperature
assuming that no heat is added to it?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

72. Which states that “when two systems
are in thermal equilibrium with a third
system, then they are in thermal
equilibrium with each other?
A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
B. First Law of Thermodynamics
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics
D. Mechanical Equivalent of Heat

73. What happens in an adiabatic
process?
A. No heat enters or leaves the system.
B. The pressure of the system remains
constant.
C. The temperature of the system remains
constant.
D. The system does no work nor work is
done on it.

74. What thermodynamic process is
involved in a closed car inside a hot
garage?
A. Adiabatic
B. Isobaric
C. Isochoric
D. Isothermal

75. Consider the thermal energy transfer
during a chemical process. When heat is
transferred to the system, the process is
said to be and the sign of H is
A. endothermic, positive
B. endothermic, negative
C. exothermic, positive
D. exothermic, negative

76. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Entropy increases with the number of microstates
of the system.
B. Any irreversible process results in an overall
increase in entropy.
C. The total entropy of the universe in any
spontaneous process.
D. The change in entropy in a system depends on
the initial and final states of the system and the path
taken from one state to the order.

77. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is
rejected by the refrigerant in .
A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaporator
D. expansion valve

78. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a
refrigeration system?
A. Rejects energy to a low temperature body.
B. Rejects energy to a high temperature body.
C. Removes heat from a low temperature body and
delivers it to a high temperature body.
D. Removes heat from a high temperature body and
delivers it to a low temperature body.

79. Which of the following refrigerants
has the maximum ozone depletion
potential in the stratosphere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Fluorine
D. Sulfur dioxide

80. Which phenomenon is BEST
explained by the particle nature of light?
A. Doppler effect
B. Interference
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Polarization

81. According to the quantum theory of
light, the energy of light is carried in
discrete unit called .
A. alpha particles
B. photoelectrons
C. photons
D. protons

82. Rutherford observed that most of the alpha
particles directed at a metallic foil appear to pass
through unhindered, with only a few deflected at
large angles. What did he conclude?
A. Atoms can easily absorb and re-emit alpha
particles
B. Atoms consist mainly of empty space and have
small, dense nuclei.
C. Alpha particles behave like waves when they
interact with atoms.
D. Atoms have most of their mass distributed
loosely in an electron cloud.

83. When an electron change from a
higher energy to a lower energy state
within an atom, a quantum of energy is .
A. absorbed
B. emitted
C. fissioned
D. fused

84. When does nuclear fission occur?
A. When we cut nuclei into two with a very
small cutting device
B. When one nucleus bumps into another
causing a chain reaction
C. When a nucleus divides spontaneously,
with no apparent reason
D. When electrical force inside a nucleus
overpower forces

85. When does nuclear fusion release
energy?
A. When uranium emits a neutron
B. When heavy ions fuse together
C. When very light nuclei fuse together
D. When uranium splits into two fragments

86. Abert Einstein’s Second postulate of
Special Relativity state that the speed of light .
A. can decrease if the speed of the observer
decreases
B. can increase if the speed of the observer
increases
C. randomly changes depending upon its
original light source
D. is constant regardless of the speed of the
observer or the light source

87. A passenger train travels east at high speed.
One passenger is located at the east side of one
car, another is located at the west side of that car.
In the train’s frame, these two passengers glance
up the same time. In the earth’s frame .
A. they glance up simultaneously
B. the passengers glance sideways
C. the passenger at the east side glances up first
D. the passenger at the west side glances up first

88. Benie11 travels at high speed from Earth to the
star Alpha Centauri which four light years away.
Which one is CORRECT in Benie11’s frame?
A. The clocks on earth and on Alpha Centauri are
synchronized.
B. The trip takes more time than it does in the
earth’s frame
C. Benie11 travels to Alpha Centauri over a length
that is shorter than four light years.
D. Alpha Centauri travels to Benie11 over a length
that is shorter than four light years.

89. One clock is placed on top of a
mountain and another clock is at the
bottom of the mountain. Ignore the
rotation of the earth. Which clock ticks
more slowly?
A. They tick at the same rate.
B. The one on top of the mountain.
C. The one at the bottom of the
mountain.
D. Cannot be determined.

90. You are in a windowless spacecraft. What do
you need to do to determine whether your
spaceship is moving at constant non-zero velocity,
or is at rest, in an inertial frame of earth?
A. Make very precise time measurements.
B. Make very precise mass measurements.
C. Make very precise length and time
measurements.
D. Nothing, becau.se you cannot succeed no
matter what you do

The way to get started is
to quit talking and begin
doing.
Walt Disney

Thank you
MAGGEL R. ANCLOTE
maggel.anclote@deped.gov.ph

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