Mattingly "AI & Prompt Design: The Basics of Prompt Design"
Pathology Test 2011
1. Q: Asymmetrical hypertrophy is found in
a)Ischemic cardiomyopathy
b)Congenital hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c) Alcoholic cardiomyopathy
d)Amyloidosis of heart
e)Dilated cardiomyopathy
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
2. Q: Myocarditis is common complication of
infection with?
a)Trichuris Trichuria
b)Trypnosoma cruzi
c) Schistomia manosi
d)Trepona pallidium
e)Pmnumocystisis carrini
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
3. Q: Jones major criteria of diagnosing
include all except
a)polyarthritis
b)chorea
c) Erythema mariginatum
d)carditis
e)aortitis
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
4. Q: Circumferential subendocardial infarcts r
typically consequence of
a)cardiac tamponade
b)mitral stenosis
c) coronary spasm
d)inadequate anastomotic circulation
e)hypo perfusion of the heart in shock
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
5. Q: Patent ductus arteriosus show all features
except:
a)Rt: ventricular hypertrophy
b)development of cyanosis in late stage
c) It is integral lesion of tetralogy of fallot
d)It has a striking female preponderance
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
6. Q: Which of the following test assessing the
best regarding thyroid functional status
a) Total T3
b) Total T4
c) Total TSH
d) Radioiodine scan
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
7. Q: Which of following associated with manifestation of
hyperthyroidism
a)surgery
b)dysplasia of thyroid
c) hashimotos thyroiditis
d)radiations
e)stroma ovarri
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
8. Q: Schiller- duval bodies r
pathogonomic of
a) endodermal sunus tumor
b) wilm's tumour
c) clear cell adenocarcinoma of cervix
d) choricarcinoma
e) dysgerminoma
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
9. Q: which of the following risk factors
correlates with the development of
cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
a) Gonorrhea
b) oral contraceptives
c) coitus r early age and multiple
sexual partners
d) smoking
e) intravaginal contraceptives
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
10. Q: Which of the following epithelia
is more resistant to gonorrhea
a)endocervix
b)endometrium
c) vagina in pre pubertal girls
d)vagina in sexually mature girls
e)fallopian tube
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
11. Q: The survival rate of breast
carcinoma is most likely highest
a) intraductal carcinoma
b) papillary carcinoma
c) colloid carcinoma
d) medullary carcinoma
e) infiltrating lobular carcinoma
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
12. Q: Tadpole cells r seen in which of the following
a) leiomysarcoma
b) liposarcoma
c) rhabdosarcoma
d) fibrosarcoma
e) angiosarcoma
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
13. Q: Antony type A areas r seen in which
tumor
a) Neurofibroma
b) schwannoma
c) fibrosarcoma
d) meningioma
e) neuroblastoma
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
14. Q: Infantile fibrosarcoma differs frm adult
fibrosacroma by which of the following
a)frequent mitoses
b)fascicular pattern of spindle shaped cells
c) more common is lower limbs
d)recurrence in 50% cases
e)metastasis in 10-15 % cases
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
15. Q: Commonest malignant soft tissue neoplasm in
children
a)malignant fibrous histiocystoma
b)infantile fibrosarcoma
c) liposarcoma
d)embryonal rhadomysarcoma
e)pigmented neuroectodermal tumour of infancy
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
16. Q: 30 yr old female die due to subarchanoid
hemmorage. Autopsy reveal rupture of berry
aneurym..its pathogenesis ?
a)congenital defect of arteial wall
b)arterial wall defect due to diabetes
c) cyto medial necrosis
d)Athersclerosis
?
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
17. Q: Which of the following statemnt is true for
breast cancer in man
a)it is only 1% common as breast cancer in
women
b)its has better prognosis then breast cancer in
women
c) it is often preceded by atypical epithelia
hyperplasm
d)lobular caronomes is most common histologic
type
e)it is often bilateral
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
18. Q: Estrogen receprors r more common in
a) tumors that show aneuploidy
b) tumors donont respond toi anti-estrogen therapy
c) breast tumour of younger rather than older women
d) histologically well- differntiated tumors
e) tumors that have metastases in liver
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
19. Q: All of the following apply to vaginal adenosis except
a) the incidence correlates positively with total amount
of DES given during pregnancy
b) it is lined by columnr epithelium
c) it is consequence of exposure to DES in utero
d) it is more common if DES was given in early stage
rather than late stages of pregnancy
e) there is high incidence of adenocarcinoma
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
20. Q: The best prognosis indicator if survival in patients with
cervical neoplasia is
a) exofoliative cytology finding
b) clinical staging of tumor
c) presence of CEA
d) small cell rather than large cell carcinoma
e) degree of keratinization of tumour
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
21. Q: The most common cause of death in
advanced cervical carcinoma is
a) Renal failure
b) vertebral fractures
c) brain metastases
d) lung metastases
e) adrenal cortical failure
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
22. Q: Regarding serous tumors of ovary..which of the
following best describes the histology
a) columnr mucous secreting epithelium
b) mature epidermis with skin adnexa
c) cell- exner bodies
d) columnr ciliated epithilium
e) schiller- duvall bodies
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
23. Q: The following statement regarding endometrial
hyperplasia r true except
a) hyperplasia is associated with anvolution
b) simple hyperplasia commonly progress to carcinoma
c) atypical hyperplasia may be premalignant
d) simple hyperplasia also called cystic hyperplasia
e) complex hyperplasia is also called adenomatous
hyperplasia
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
24. Q: Which of the following tumours most likely does not
produce osteoblastic conditions
a) breast carcinoma
b) adenocarcinoma of prostate
c) clear cell carcinoma of kidney
d) carcinoid tumor of gut
e) oat cell carcinoma of lung
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
25. Q: Chondrosarcoma is
a) the most frequent primary tumor of bone
b) associated with pigets
c) sometime seen to arise in benign
cartilaginous tumours
d) usually seen in distal skeletal bones
e) more common in females
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
26. Q: all r causes of transient hypermetabolic state except
a) pregnancy
b) diffuse liver disease
c) advanced liver disease
d) estrogen
e) contraceptives
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
27. Q: Which of the following pituitary adenoma is
most likely microsadenoma at time of clinical
diagnosis
a) ACTH adenomas
b) silent adenoma
c) somatotroph adenoma
d) gonadotroph adenoma
e) ?
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
28. Q: Which of the following pituitary adenomas
predispose GI carcinoma
a) somatotroph adenoma
b) gonadotroph adenoma
c) ACTH adenoma
d) thyrotropic adenoma
e) ?
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
29. Q: A patient with pituitary
adenoma develops headache
nausea n vomiting when tumor
expand
a) posteriorly
b) Inferiorly
c) superiorly
d) anteriorly
e) inferiorly
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
30. Q: All of the following diseases r example of extinsic
allergic allvolitis except
a) Turkey's handler's disease
b) farmers lung
c) meple bark stipper's disease
d) silicosis
e) bagassosis
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
31. Q: Theraptic aspiration of massive pleueal effussion
under sterile circumstances may cause
a) Bronchiectasis
b) pulmonary edema
c) atelectasis
d) emphysema
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
32. Q: Pneumonia Alba most likely occurs in
a) Measles
b) syphilis
c) Adenoviral infection
d) sarcoidosis
e) Amyloidosis
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
33. Q: the most common cause of death in viral influenza
epidemics is
a) cerebral abscess
b) meningitis
c) mastoid abscess
d) bacterial pneumonia
e) aencaphalitis
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
34. Q: Which of the following shows inverse
relationship to the risk for developing
athersclrosis
a) HDL
b) cholestol
c) Triglycerids
d) LDL
e) VLDL
Made by Aneeb Nizamani
35. Q: Monckeberg's arteriosclerosis is characterized by
all except
a) Luminal narrowing with consequent ischemic
changes
b) rarity in person young then 50 yrs of age
c) medial calcification
d) involvement of predominantly small to medium
sized muscular arteries
e) a distinct entity from atherosclerosis
Made by Aneeb Nizamani