This document contains 13 multiple choice or multiple answer questions about pharmacology concepts. The questions cover topics such as types of chemical bonds between drugs and receptors, drug transport mechanisms, factors influencing drug movement, weak acids and bases, and renal drug excretion.
Clinical Pharmacology MCQS
PART CHEMOTHERAPY . Chemotherapy are part of clinical pharmacoloy deal with the infections. this learn about the medicine curing viral infection , bacterial infection , and other parasites such as ascaris , trichomonas etc,.....It ie better that this kind ofmedicne are handled carefully and used properly since the misuse of them cause many socialproblemof death increasing due to the resistance of microbe .
Clinical Pharmacology MCQS
PART CHEMOTHERAPY . Chemotherapy are part of clinical pharmacoloy deal with the infections. this learn about the medicine curing viral infection , bacterial infection , and other parasites such as ascaris , trichomonas etc,.....It ie better that this kind ofmedicne are handled carefully and used properly since the misuse of them cause many socialproblemof death increasing due to the resistance of microbe .
A power point presentation on Pharmacodynamics (what drug does to the body) suitable for undergraduate medical students beginning to study Pharmacology
General principles involved in management of poisoning- by rxvichu!!RxVichuZ
Hellow friends!!! I am back....with my 13th ppt!!
This ppt is regarding TOXICOLOGY,which happens to be my 1st....and i am happy to release the same on INDEPENDENCE DAY!!
Wishing a very happy and blissful Independence Day to all....i release my toxicology ppt regarding GENERAL PRINCIPLES IN POISONING MANAGEMENT.....
Since its my 1st attempt in Toxicology, i would love to hear ur reviews, and comments....so that i can improve in upcoming editions......
Keep reading...thanks for ur support!!!
With love and regards,
Vishnu.R.Nair (rxvichu-alwz4uh!!)
:) :)
This is an introduction to Pharmacology, which is very helpful for nursing students. This presentation tells about classification, sources, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics of drugs.
Drug Antagonism
The effect of one drug blocked (or inhibited) due to another drug is said to be antagonism. In other word, an interaction between two or more drugs that have opposite effects on the body. Drug antagonism may block or reduce effectiveness of one or more of the drugs.
e.g., atropine blocks the action of acetylcholine
Types of antagonism
1. Pharmacological antagonism: Competitive and Non-Competitive
2. Physiological antagonism
3. Chemical antagonism
Competitive Antagonism
If both the agonist and the antagonist compete for the same receptor in a reversible manner, they are said to be “competitive.” The antagonist drug interacts with the receptor and blocks it. Therefore it does not produce pharmacological action. The extent of antagonism depends on number of receptors occupied by the both drugs (agonist and antagonist), their affinity for receptors and their concentration. The increase in concentration of either one of these drugs can displace the other from receptor binding sites. Drugs interact with their receptors by weak bonds i.e. ionic bond or Hydrogen bond or Vander wal force. Hence duration of action of drug is short. Both agonist and antagonist have chemical resemblance (structural similarity).
Essential drug concept and rational use of medicinesPravin Prasad
Many medical students are unheard of the Essential Medicine List. This has been mentioned in very small sections in various textbooks that are in use in Nepal. The discussion on this topic is a must among medical and nursing students, as well as anyone related to field of Medicine
Basic principles of chemotherapy/ AMAs covers definition, history of AMAs development, principles of AMAs, problems associated with AMAs, failure of therapy with examples.
A power point presentation on Pharmacodynamics (what drug does to the body) suitable for undergraduate medical students beginning to study Pharmacology
General principles involved in management of poisoning- by rxvichu!!RxVichuZ
Hellow friends!!! I am back....with my 13th ppt!!
This ppt is regarding TOXICOLOGY,which happens to be my 1st....and i am happy to release the same on INDEPENDENCE DAY!!
Wishing a very happy and blissful Independence Day to all....i release my toxicology ppt regarding GENERAL PRINCIPLES IN POISONING MANAGEMENT.....
Since its my 1st attempt in Toxicology, i would love to hear ur reviews, and comments....so that i can improve in upcoming editions......
Keep reading...thanks for ur support!!!
With love and regards,
Vishnu.R.Nair (rxvichu-alwz4uh!!)
:) :)
This is an introduction to Pharmacology, which is very helpful for nursing students. This presentation tells about classification, sources, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics of drugs.
Drug Antagonism
The effect of one drug blocked (or inhibited) due to another drug is said to be antagonism. In other word, an interaction between two or more drugs that have opposite effects on the body. Drug antagonism may block or reduce effectiveness of one or more of the drugs.
e.g., atropine blocks the action of acetylcholine
Types of antagonism
1. Pharmacological antagonism: Competitive and Non-Competitive
2. Physiological antagonism
3. Chemical antagonism
Competitive Antagonism
If both the agonist and the antagonist compete for the same receptor in a reversible manner, they are said to be “competitive.” The antagonist drug interacts with the receptor and blocks it. Therefore it does not produce pharmacological action. The extent of antagonism depends on number of receptors occupied by the both drugs (agonist and antagonist), their affinity for receptors and their concentration. The increase in concentration of either one of these drugs can displace the other from receptor binding sites. Drugs interact with their receptors by weak bonds i.e. ionic bond or Hydrogen bond or Vander wal force. Hence duration of action of drug is short. Both agonist and antagonist have chemical resemblance (structural similarity).
Essential drug concept and rational use of medicinesPravin Prasad
Many medical students are unheard of the Essential Medicine List. This has been mentioned in very small sections in various textbooks that are in use in Nepal. The discussion on this topic is a must among medical and nursing students, as well as anyone related to field of Medicine
Basic principles of chemotherapy/ AMAs covers definition, history of AMAs development, principles of AMAs, problems associated with AMAs, failure of therapy with examples.
Foreign Licenses to practice for Pharmacists:
All the countries around the world set a process for international graduates to be able to practice with these countries this process is called a License to practice examinations and here we discuss the most popular countries which are America, Canada and Australia:
1. America : NAPLEX 'North America Pharmacy License Examinations'
2. CANADA: PEBC 'Pharmacy Evaluating Board of CANADA'
3. Australia: APEC 'Australia Pharmacy Evaluating Board'
DataJudgeDisposedAppealedReversedCourtFred Cartolano303713712CommonThomas Crush337211910CommonPatrick Dinkelacker1258448CommonTimothy Hogan1954607CommonRobert Kraft31381277CommonWilliam Mathews22649118CommonWilliam Morrissey303212122CommonNorbert Nadel295913120CommonArthur Ney Jr.321912514CommonRichard Niehaus335313716CommonThomas Nurre30001216CommonJohn O'Connor296912912CommonRobert Ruehlman320514518CommonJ. Howard Sundermann Jr.9556010CommonAnn Marie Tracey314112713CommonRalph Winkler3089886CommonPenelope Cunningham272971DomesticPatrick Dinkelacker6001194DomesticDeborah Gaines8799489DomesticRonald Panioto12970323DomesticMike Allen6149434MuniNadine Allen7812346MuniTimothy Black7954416MuniDavid Davis7736435MuniLeslie Isaiah Gaines52823513MuniKarla Grady525360MuniDeidra Hair253250MuniDennis Helmick7900295MuniTimothy Hogan2308132MuniJames Patrick Kenney279861MuniJoseph Luebbers4698258MuniWilliam Mallory8277389MuniMelba Marsh8219347MuniBeth Mattingly2971131MuniAlbert Mestemaker4975289MuniMark Painter223973MuniJack Rosen77904113MuniMark Schweikert5403336MuniDavid Stockdale5371224MuniJohn A. West279742MuniRead the Hamilton County Judges case study and please provide a Managerial Report that includes the following: 1. The probability of cases being appealed and reversed in each of the three different courts.2. The probability of a case being appealed for each judge.3. The probability of a case being reversed for each judge.4. The probability of reversal given an appeal for each judge.5. Rank the judges within each court. State the criteria you used and provide a rationale for the ranking method you used.
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MULTIPLECHOICE SECTION INSTRUCTIONS: Read all instructions carefully. Please answer all questions. Each question is worth 0.5 points. The Multiple Choice section is worth 40 points.
**Do not enter your answers here.** Type in the letter you select as the best answer on the Answer Sheet provided by your instructor.
1. Which of these would be a valid hypothesis?
A) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events.
B) Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species.
C) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.
D) Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code.
2. In the scientific method, a hypothesis .
A) is a statement of fact
B) can only be tested once
C) is usually proven to be correct
D) is a proposed explanation based on observations
E) none of the above
3. What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
I. State the problem
II. Analyze and interpret the data
III. Share the results with other scientists
IV. Develop a hypothesis
V. Design and perform an experiment to test the hypothesis
A) I → II → III → IV → V
B) III → I → V → II → IV
C) V →IV → III → II → I
D) I → IV → V → II → III
E) V → II → I → III → IV
4. To test a hypothesis about a given variable, experimental and control groups are tested in parallel. Which of the following best explains the dual ex.
Pharmacokinetics (PK) is the study of how the body interacts with administered substances for the entire duration of exposure (medications for the sake of this article). This is closely related to but distinctly different from pharmacodynamics, which examines the drug’s effect on the body more closely. The four main parameters generally examined by this field include absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME). Wielding an understanding of these processes allows practitioners the flexibility to prescribe and administer medications that will provide the greatest benefit at the lowest risk and allow them to make adjustments as necessary, given the varied physiology and lifestyles of patients.
When a provider prescribes medication, it is with the ultimate goal of a therapeutic outcome while minimizing adverse reactions. A thorough understanding of pharmacokinetics is essential in building treatment plans involving medications. Pharmacokinetics, as a field, attempts to summarize the movement of drugs throughout the body and the actions of the body on the drug. By using the above terms, theories, and equations, practitioners can better estimate the locations and concentrations of a drug in different areas of the body.
The appropriate concentration needed to obtain the desired effect and the amount needed for a higher chance of adverse reactions is determined through laboratory testing. Using the equations given above, a clinician can easily estimate safe medication dosing over a period of time and how long it will take for a medication to leave a patient’s system. These are, however, statistically-based estimations, influenced by differences in the drug dosage form and patient pathophysiology. This is why a deep understanding of these concepts is essential in medical practice so that improvisation is possible when the clinical situation requires it.
WHO model list of essential medicines: 21st list 2019Niraj Bartaula
WHO’s Essential Medicines List and List of Essential Diagnostics are core guidance documents that help countries prioritize critical health products that should be widely available and affordable throughout health systems.
The updated Essential Medicines List adds 28 medicines for adults and 23 for children and specifies new uses for 26 already-listed products, bringing the total to 460 products deemed essential for addressing key public health needs.
औषधीजन्य मालसामान खरीद तथा आपूर्ति ब्याबस्थापन सहजीकरण पुस्तिका २०७४Niraj Bartaula
देशका सम्पुर्ण स्वास्थ्य संस्थाहरुमा प्रभावकारी किसिमले स्वास्थ्य सेवालाई आबश्यक पर्ने औषधि तथा सामाग्रीहरुको आपूर्ति प्रणालीको ब्यबस्थापन गर्न,खपत दर र मौज्दातको जानकारी लिन,आपूर्ति प्रयाप्त मात्रा मा भएको छ,छैन यकिन गर्न, आबश्यकता अनुरुप सामाग्री खरिद गर्न, योजना तर्जुमा गर्न, सामानको ढुवानी काॠ तालिकाको बिकास गर्नका लागि एक महत्वपूर्ण पुस्तिका
Near half Nepali drugs manufacturers operate illegally (with list)Niraj Bartaula
Twenty-five domestic drugs manufacturers have been operating illegally. However, the Department of Drug Administration (DDA) has not taken any action.
There are 55 drugs manufacturers in the country and they produce different types of medicines, according to DDA. Nine more drug companies are awaiting DDA approval to come into operation.
According to DDA, drugs worth Rs 16.5 billion are produced domestically every year ( 46 percent of the total supply) while drugs worth Rs 19.45 billion (54 percent) are imported, including 52 percent imported from India and two percent from other countries.
Nepal Health Research Council (NHRC), the apex scientific body in the health sector, recently found that nine substandard drugs were supplied by the government and the private sector to government-run health facilities, including seven drugs produced domestically.
About a decade ago, the government mandated the Who Health Organization Good Manufacturing Practices (WHO GMP) for all manufacturers of pharmaceuticals. “Several domestic pharmaceuticals producers have not applied the WHO GMP,” said Bhogendra Raj Dotel, executive director at the Primary Health Care Revitalization Division (PHCRD) under the Department of Public Health Services.
Essential medicines are those medicines that satisfy the priority health care needs of the
population. WHO published the first essential medicine list in 1977 and has been updating it
every two years since. Nepal being a signatory of the Alma Ata declaration (1978) implemented the essential medicine
program with a first ever National List of Essential Medicines, NLEM in 1986. Since then NLEM revised five times (1992, 1997, 2002, 2011 and 2016) with the support from
WHO Nepal
Explore natural remedies for syphilis treatment in Singapore. Discover alternative therapies, herbal remedies, and lifestyle changes that may complement conventional treatments. Learn about holistic approaches to managing syphilis symptoms and supporting overall health.
Lung Cancer: Artificial Intelligence, Synergetics, Complex System Analysis, S...Oleg Kshivets
RESULTS: Overall life span (LS) was 2252.1±1742.5 days and cumulative 5-year survival (5YS) reached 73.2%, 10 years – 64.8%, 20 years – 42.5%. 513 LCP lived more than 5 years (LS=3124.6±1525.6 days), 148 LCP – more than 10 years (LS=5054.4±1504.1 days).199 LCP died because of LC (LS=562.7±374.5 days). 5YS of LCP after bi/lobectomies was significantly superior in comparison with LCP after pneumonectomies (78.1% vs.63.7%, P=0.00001 by log-rank test). AT significantly improved 5YS (66.3% vs. 34.8%) (P=0.00000 by log-rank test) only for LCP with N1-2. Cox modeling displayed that 5YS of LCP significantly depended on: phase transition (PT) early-invasive LC in terms of synergetics, PT N0—N12, cell ratio factors (ratio between cancer cells- CC and blood cells subpopulations), G1-3, histology, glucose, AT, blood cell circuit, prothrombin index, heparin tolerance, recalcification time (P=0.000-0.038). Neural networks, genetic algorithm selection and bootstrap simulation revealed relationships between 5YS and PT early-invasive LC (rank=1), PT N0—N12 (rank=2), thrombocytes/CC (3), erythrocytes/CC (4), eosinophils/CC (5), healthy cells/CC (6), lymphocytes/CC (7), segmented neutrophils/CC (8), stick neutrophils/CC (9), monocytes/CC (10); leucocytes/CC (11). Correct prediction of 5YS was 100% by neural networks computing (area under ROC curve=1.0; error=0.0).
CONCLUSIONS: 5YS of LCP after radical procedures significantly depended on: 1) PT early-invasive cancer; 2) PT N0--N12; 3) cell ratio factors; 4) blood cell circuit; 5) biochemical factors; 6) hemostasis system; 7) AT; 8) LC characteristics; 9) LC cell dynamics; 10) surgery type: lobectomy/pneumonectomy; 11) anthropometric data. Optimal diagnosis and treatment strategies for LC are: 1) screening and early detection of LC; 2) availability of experienced thoracic surgeons because of complexity of radical procedures; 3) aggressive en block surgery and adequate lymph node dissection for completeness; 4) precise prediction; 5) adjuvant chemoimmunoradiotherapy for LCP with unfavorable prognosis.
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Ve...kevinkariuki227
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
Ozempic: Preoperative Management of Patients on GLP-1 Receptor Agonists Saeid Safari
Preoperative Management of Patients on GLP-1 Receptor Agonists like Ozempic and Semiglutide
ASA GUIDELINE
NYSORA Guideline
2 Case Reports of Gastric Ultrasound
Pulmonary Thromboembolism - etilogy, types, medical- Surgical and nursing man...VarunMahajani
Disruption of blood supply to lung alveoli due to blockage of one or more pulmonary blood vessels is called as Pulmonary thromboembolism. In this presentation we will discuss its causes, types and its management in depth.
These simplified slides by Dr. Sidra Arshad present an overview of the non-respiratory functions of the respiratory tract.
Learning objectives:
1. Enlist the non-respiratory functions of the respiratory tract
2. Briefly explain how these functions are carried out
3. Discuss the significance of dead space
4. Differentiate between minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation
5. Describe the cough and sneeze reflexes
Study Resources:
1. Chapter 39, Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition
2. Chapter 34, Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 26th edition
3. Chapter 17, Human Physiology by Lauralee Sherwood, 9th edition
4. Non-respiratory functions of the lungs https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/13/3/98/278874
These lecture slides, by Dr Sidra Arshad, offer a quick overview of physiological basis of a normal electrocardiogram.
Learning objectives:
1. Define an electrocardiogram (ECG) and electrocardiography
2. Describe how dipoles generated by the heart produce the waveforms of the ECG
3. Describe the components of a normal electrocardiogram of a typical bipolar leads (limb II)
4. Differentiate between intervals and segments
5. Enlist some common indications for obtaining an ECG
Study Resources:
1. Chapter 11, Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition
2. Chapter 9, Human Physiology - From Cells to Systems, Lauralee Sherwood, 9th edition
3. Chapter 29, Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 26th edition
4. Electrocardiogram, StatPearls - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK549803/
5. ECG in Medical Practice by ABM Abdullah, 4th edition
6. ECG Basics, http://www.nataliescasebook.com/tag/e-c-g-basics
Title: Sense of Taste
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the structure and function of taste buds.
Describe the relationship between the taste threshold and taste index of common substances.
Explain the chemical basis and signal transduction of taste perception for each type of primary taste sensation.
Recognize different abnormalities of taste perception and their causes.
Key Topics:
Significance of Taste Sensation:
Differentiation between pleasant and harmful food
Influence on behavior
Selection of food based on metabolic needs
Receptors of Taste:
Taste buds on the tongue
Influence of sense of smell, texture of food, and pain stimulation (e.g., by pepper)
Primary and Secondary Taste Sensations:
Primary taste sensations: Sweet, Sour, Salty, Bitter, Umami
Chemical basis and signal transduction mechanisms for each taste
Taste Threshold and Index:
Taste threshold values for Sweet (sucrose), Salty (NaCl), Sour (HCl), and Bitter (Quinine)
Taste index relationship: Inversely proportional to taste threshold
Taste Blindness:
Inability to taste certain substances, particularly thiourea compounds
Example: Phenylthiocarbamide
Structure and Function of Taste Buds:
Composition: Epithelial cells, Sustentacular/Supporting cells, Taste cells, Basal cells
Features: Taste pores, Taste hairs/microvilli, and Taste nerve fibers
Location of Taste Buds:
Found in papillae of the tongue (Fungiform, Circumvallate, Foliate)
Also present on the palate, tonsillar pillars, epiglottis, and proximal esophagus
Mechanism of Taste Stimulation:
Interaction of taste substances with receptors on microvilli
Signal transduction pathways for Umami, Sweet, Bitter, Sour, and Salty tastes
Taste Sensitivity and Adaptation:
Decrease in sensitivity with age
Rapid adaptation of taste sensation
Role of Saliva in Taste:
Dissolution of tastants to reach receptors
Washing away the stimulus
Taste Preferences and Aversions:
Mechanisms behind taste preference and aversion
Influence of receptors and neural pathways
Impact of Sensory Nerve Damage:
Degeneration of taste buds if the sensory nerve fiber is cut
Abnormalities of Taste Detection:
Conditions: Ageusia, Hypogeusia, Dysgeusia (parageusia)
Causes: Nerve damage, neurological disorders, infections, poor oral hygiene, adverse drug effects, deficiencies, aging, tobacco use, altered neurotransmitter levels
Neurotransmitters and Taste Threshold:
Effects of serotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE) on taste sensitivity
Supertasters:
25% of the population with heightened sensitivity to taste, especially bitterness
Increased number of fungiform papillae
Report Back from SGO 2024: What’s the Latest in Cervical Cancer?bkling
Are you curious about what’s new in cervical cancer research or unsure what the findings mean? Join Dr. Emily Ko, a gynecologic oncologist at Penn Medicine, to learn about the latest updates from the Society of Gynecologic Oncology (SGO) 2024 Annual Meeting on Women’s Cancer. Dr. Ko will discuss what the research presented at the conference means for you and answer your questions about the new developments.
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NVBDCP.pptx Nation vector borne disease control programSapna Thakur
NVBDCP was launched in 2003-2004 . Vector-Borne Disease: Disease that results from an infection transmitted to humans and other animals by blood-feeding arthropods, such as mosquitoes, ticks, and fleas. Examples of vector-borne diseases include Dengue fever, West Nile Virus, Lyme disease, and malaria.
NVBDCP.pptx Nation vector borne disease control program
Pharmacology MCQ with Solution
1. Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Type of "chemical force" or bond that may drive the
interaction between lipophilic drugs and biological membrane lipids:
A) covalent
B) electrostatic
C) hydrophobic
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Example(s) of a covalent drug-receptor interaction:
A) receptor-activated phenoxybenzamine
B) DNA-anticancer alkylating agent
C) both
D) neither
Question # 3 (Multiple Answer) Saturable transport systems:
A) passive diffusion
B) aqueous diffusion
C) lipid diffusion
D) active transport -- carrier mediated
E) facilitated diffusion -- carrier mediated
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) A neutral molecule that can reversibly dissociates into an
anion (negatively charged molecule) and a proton (a hydrogen ion):
A) weak acid
B) weak base
Question # 5 (Multiple Answer) Factors that influence the passive movement of drugs down
a concentration gradient:
A) drug concentration differences on either side of the barrier (e.g. membrane)
B) thickness of the diffusion pathway
C) mobility of the drug molecule in the medium of the diffusion path
(permeability)
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) A weak base drug has a pKa of 6.5. If the pH of the medium
is 7.5, the drug is
2. A) mainly neutral
B) mainly positively charged
Question # 7 (Multiple Answer) Concerning renal drug excretion:
A) almost all drugs are filtered by the glomerulus
B) a lipid-soluble, filtered drug will likely be reabsorbed by passive diffusion
C) pH partitioning (the drug is ionized at the urinary pH) enhances excretion
D) weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urinary pH
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Of these "chemical forces" or bonds, the strongest:
A) van der Waals
B) dipole
C) covalent
D) hydrophobic
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) A neutral molecule that can form a cation (a positively
charged molecule) by combining with a proton (a hydrogen ion):
A) weak acid drug
B) weak base drug
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Most drugs have molecular weight between:
A) 1-10
B) 10-100
C) 100-500
D) > 500
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) The pKa of a weak acid drug is 6.5. If the pH of the
medium is 5.5, the drug will be:
A) mainly neutral
B) mainly ionized and negatively charged
3. Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) The process in which a substance is engulfed by the cell
membrane and carried into the cell body pinching of of the newly formed vesicle inside the
membrane.
A) lipid diffusion
B) carrier-mediated transport
C) exocytosis
D) endocytosis
E) aqueous diffusion
Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) A type of diffusion that usually occur is within larger body
compartments (interstitial space, cytosol) and across epithelial membrane tight junctions
and through pores in blood vessel endothelial lining.
A) lipid effusion
B) aqueous diffusion
C) carrier-mediated
D) endocytosis
E) exocytosis
1 – Introduction to Pharmacology: Basic Principles
1) Which of the following is NOT part of the etymology of the word pharmacology?
a) Medicine
b) Drug
c) Herb
d) Poison
e) Study
2.1) Which of the following describes an agonist?
a) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its
chemical action
b) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
c) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
d) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity
e) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient
2.2) Xenobiotics are considered:
a) Endogenous
b) Exogenous
c) Inorganic poisons
d) Toxins
e) Ligands
2.3) Which of the following would be a toxin (poison of biological origin)?
4. a) Pb
b) As
c) Hg
d) Atropine
2.4) The vast majority of drugs have molecular weights (MW) between 100 and 1,000.
Large drugs, such as alteplase (t-PA), must be administered:
a) Into the compartment where they have their effect
b) Orally so they do not absorb too quickly
c) Rectally to prevent irritation to the stomach lining and vessels
d) Via the intraosseous (IO) route
e) Titrated with buffering agents to prevents cell lysis
2.5) Which of the following occurs with drugs that are extremely small, such as Lithium?
a) Receptor mediated endocytosis
b) Minor drug movement within the body
c) Vasodilation when injected intravenously (IV)
d) Specific receptor binding
e) Nonspecific binding
2.6) Drugs fit receptors using the lock and key model. Covalent bonds are the ____ and
the ____ specific.
a) Strongest; Most
b) Strongest; Least
c) Weakest; Most
d) Weakest; Least
Pharmacology – Part 1 Quiz
Version: 16Oct2008 Page 2 of 42
2.7) Warfarin (Coumadin) is given as a racemic mixture with the S enantiomer being
four
times more active than the R enantiomer. If the mixture of Warfarin given is 50% S and
50% R, what is the potency compared with a 100% R enantiomer solution?
a) 4 * R + 1 * S = 1
b) 4 * R + 1 * S = 1.5
c) 4 * R + 1 * S = 2
d) 4 * R + 1 * S = 2.5
e) 4 * R + 1 * S = 4
2.8) What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments?
a) Partition constant
b) Degree of ionization
c) pH
d) Size
e) All of the above
3.1) Which of the following is NOT a protein target for drug binding?
a) Side of action (transport)
b) Enzymes
c) Carrier molecules
d) Receptors
e) Ion channels
5. 3.2) Which of the following is an example of a drug acting directly through receptors?
a) Protamine binds stoichiometrically to heparin anticoagulants
b) Adrenergic beta blockers for thyroid hormone-induced tachycardia
c) Epinephrine for increasing heart rate and blood pressure
d) Cancer chemotherapeutic agents
e) Mannitol for subarachnoid hemmorhage
4.1) What is added with drug subclassification, such as an antitubercular drug versus an
antibacterial drug?
a) Cost
b) Size
c) Ionization
d) Precision
e) Speed
4.2) What type of drug is propranolol (Inderal)?
a) Anticonvulsive
b) Antihypertensive
c) Antinauseant
d) Antihistamine
e) Antipyretic
5.1) Which of the following is considered the brand name?
a) Propranolol
b) Inderal
c) Adrenergic ß-blocker
d) “off label” use
e) Blocks ß-receptors in heart myocardium
5.2) Which of the following is considered the class?
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a) Propranolol
b) Inderal
c) Adrenergic ß-blocker
d) “off label” use
e) Blocks ß-receptors in heart myocardium
5.3) Which of the following cases would be contraindicated for propranolol (Inderal)?
a) Hypertension
b) Essential tremor
c) Angina
d) Tachycardia
e) Asthma
5.4) Which of the following adverse effects (side-effects) is NOT commonly seen with
cholinergic antagonists?
a) Blurred vision
b) Confusion
c) Miosis
d) Constipation
e) Urinary retention
6. 6.1) The drug chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) is risky for which of the following?
a) Neonates
b) Geriatric patients
c) Adult males
d) Obese patients
e) Congestive heart failure patients
6.2) How does the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) change after the age of 40?
a) Increase 1% each year
b) Increases 2% each year
c) Decreases 1% each year
d) Decreases 2% each year
e) Does not depend on age
6.3) A decrease in renal and liver function, as seen in the elderly, would prolong drug
half-life, ____ plasma protein binding, and ____ volume of distribution.
a) Increase; Increase
b) Decrease; Decrease
c) Increase; Decrease
d) Decrease; Increase
6.4) When prescribing isoniazid (Rimifon), pharmacogenetics must be considered as
>90% of Asians and certain other groups are ____ acetylators, and thus have a ____
blood concentration of a given dose and a decreased risk of toxicity.
a) Slow; Increased
b) Slow; Decreased
c) Fast; Increased
d) Fast; Decrease
6.5) Which of the following are the two modifying factors that contribute to why women
have higher blood peak concentrations of alcohol than men when consuming equivalent
amounts?
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a) Lower blood volume & increased hormones
b) Lower fat content & more gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
c) Higher fat content & more gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
d) Lower fat content & less gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
e) Higher fat content & less gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
2 – Pharmacokinetic Principles: Drug Movement
1) Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the ____ and pharmacodynamics is the effect of the
____.
a) Drug on a drug; Body on the drug
b) Body on the drug; Drug on a drug
c) Drug on the body; Body on the drug
d) Body on the drug; Drug on the body
e) Drug on a drug; Drug on a drug
2.1) Which of the following is NOT an action of the body on a drug?
a) Absorption
b) Distribution
7. c) Metabolism
d) Excretion
e) Side effects
3) If a drug is 80% bound to blood elements or plasma proteins, what part is considered
the free form?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 80%
e) 100%
4.1) Which of the following describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)?
a) The minimal drug plasma concentration that can be detected
b) The minimal drug plasma concentration to enter tissues
c) The minimal drug plasma concentration to interact with receptors
d) The minimal drug plasma concentration to produce effect
e) The minimal drug plasma concentration to reach therapeutic levels
4.2) If a patient misses three doses of their daily drug, which of the following (in general)
is the best solution?
a) Take a 4x dose at the next dose time
b) Wait 3 more days (week total) then return to normal regimen
c) Do nothing and continue normal regimen
d) Setup an appointment to have the patient evaluated
e) Prescribe a higher dosage pill so missed doses will have less effect
4.3) Blood levels of a drug correlate to the effectiveness of that drug, such as with
pentazocine (Talwin) or phenobarbitol (Luminal).
a) True
b) False
5.1) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms involves polar substances too
large to enter cells by other means, such as iron or vitamin B12?
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a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Carrier molecules
d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
5.2) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms occurs across epithelial tight
junctions and is driven by a concentration gradient?
a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Carrier molecules
d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
5.3) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms uses the Henderson-
Hasselbalch equation for the ratio of solubility for the weak acid or weak base?
a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Carrier molecules
8. d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
5.4) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms is used for peptides, amino
acids, glucose, and other large or insoluble molecules?
a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Carrier molecules
d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
5.5) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms uses caveolae?
a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Carrier molecules
d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
6.1) Using the Fick Law of Diffusion, how will flux change if membrane thickness is
doubled?
a) It will double
b) It will quadruple
c) It will halve
d) It will quarter
e) It will not change
6.2) Using the Fick Law of Diffusion, how will flux change if the permeability
coefficient is quadrupled?
a) It will double
b) It will quadruple
c) It will halve
d) It will quarter
e) It will not change
7.1) Which of the following is the amount of a drug absorbed per the amount
administered?
a) Bioavailability
b) Bioequivalence
c) Drug absorption
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d) Bioinequivalence
e) Dosage
7.2) Which of the following is NOT needed for drug bioequivalence?
a) Same active ingredients
b) Same strength or concentration
c) Same dosage form
d) Same route of administration
e) Same side effects
7.3) For intravenous (IV) dosages, what is the bioavailability assumed to be?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
9. e) 100%
7.4) Although morphine (Avinza, Oramorph SR, MS Contin) is well-absorbed when
administered orally (PO), how much of the drug is metabolized on its first pass through
the liver?
a) 90%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 30%
e) 10%
7.5) For a generic drug to be bioequivalent to an innovator drug (per FDA), it must be
measured in ____ of subjects to fall within ____ of the mean of the test population
bioavailability.
a) 50; 50
b) 80; 20
c) 20; 80
d) 95; 5
e) 5; 95
7.6) Using the FDA bioequivalence rule, how much variation could a generic drug
potentially have from an innovator and still be considered equivalent?
a) 100%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 60%
e) 80%
8.1) Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process?
a) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes
b) Drug metabolites are removed in the urine
c) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulation
d) The drug causes dilation of coronary vessels
e) The drug is readily deposited in fat tissue
8.2) Which of the following can produce a therapeutic response? A drug that is:
a) Bound to plasma albumin
b) Concentrated in the bile
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c) Concentrated in the urine
d) Not absorbed from the GI tract
e) Unbound to plasma proteins
8.3) Which of the following most correctly describes steroid hormones with respect to
their ability to gain access to intracellular binding sites?
a) They cross the cell membrane via aqueous pores
b) They have a high permeability coefficient
c) They are passively transported via membrane carriers
d) They require vesicular transport
e) Their transport requires the hydrolysis of ATP
3 – Pharmacokinetic Principles: pH and Drug Movement
10. 1) Most drugs are either ____ acids or ____ bases.
a) Strong; Strong
b) Strong; Weak
c) Weak; Weak
d) Weak; Strong
2.1) Aspirin readily donates a proton in aqueous solutions and pyrimethamine readily
accepts a proton in aqueous solution. Thus, aspirin is a(b) ____ and pyrimethamine is
a(n) ____.
a) Acid; Base
b) Base; Acid
c) Acid; Acid
d) Base; Base
2.2) Given the equilibrium HA <=> A- + H+ (acid) and BH+ <=> B + H+ (base), in an
acid environment (low pH) the acid reaction will move to the ____ and the base reaction
will move to the ____.
a) Right; Left
b) Right; Right
c) Left; Right
d) Left; Left
3.1) What form of a drug is more lipid-soluble, and thus would remain trapped within a
compartment where the pH does not favor the lipid-soluble form?
a) Strong acid (A-)
b) Weak acid (A-)
c) Neutral (AH and B)
d) Weak base (BH+)
e) Strong base (BH+)
3.2) The lipid-soluble form of a base is ____ and the lipid-soluble form of an acid is
____.
a) Protonated; Protonated
b) Protonated; Unprotonated
c) Unprotonated; Unprotonated
d) Unprotonated; Protonated
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4.1) If the pKa of Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is 3.5 and the pH of the stomach is 2.5,
how much Aspirin is in the protonated species in the stomach and is this the amount
available for absorption?
a) _ 91%; Yes
b) _ 91%; No
c) _ 9%; Yes
d) _ 9%; No
4.2) What percentage of Aspirin would be ionized in the blood compartment (pH = 7.4)
assuming pH is 7.5 and Aspirin pKa is 3.5?
a) (10,000 - 1) / 1 = 99.99%
b) (100 - 1) / 1 = 99%
c) None
11. d) 1 / (100 - 1) = 0.9%
e) 1 / (10,000 - 1) = 0.009%
4.3) If the pH - pKa = -1, what percentage of weak base is nonionized?
a) 99
b) 90
c) 50
d) 10
e) 1
4.4) If the pH - pka = 2, what percentage of weak acid is nonionized?
a) 99
b) 90
c) 50
d) 10
e) 1
4.5) If pH > pKa, the drug is ____ and if pH < pKa, the drug is ____. An unprotonated
acid is ____ and a protonated base is ____.
a) Protonated; Unprotonated; Charged; Charged
b) Protonated; Unprotonated; Neutral; Neutral
c) Unprotonated; Protonated; Charged; Charged
d) Unprotonated; Protonated; Neutral; Charged
e) Unprotonated; Protonated; Charged; Neutral
5.1) Weak acids are excreted faster in ____ urine and weak bases are excreted faster
in
____ urine.
a) Acidic; Alkaline
b) Alkaline; Acidic
c) Acidic; Neutral
d) Neutral; Alkaline
e) Alkaline; Neutral
5.2) A patient presents with an overdose of acidic Aspirin. The drug ____ can be given
to
____ the pH of the urine and trap the Aspirin, preventing further metabolism.
a) NaHCO3; Increase
b) NaHCO3; Decrease
c) NH4Cl; Increase
d) NH4Cl; Decrease
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5.3) A patient presents with an overdose of alkaline Codeine. The drug ____ can be
given
to ____ the pH of the urine and trap the Codeine, preventing further metabolism.
a) NaHCO3; Increase
b) NaHCO3; Decrease
c) NH4Cl; Increase
d) NH4Cl; Decrease
6.1) The principle of drug manipulation for excretion of a drug out of the renal tubule can
12. be accomplished by:
a) Acidifying the urinary pH
b) Adjusting the urinary pH to protonate weakly acidic drugs
c) Adjusting the urinary pH to unprotonate weakly basic drugs
d) Adjusting the urinary pH to ionize the drug
e) By neutralizing the urinary pH
6.2) Aspirin is a weak organic acid with a pKa of 3.5. What percentage of a given dose
will be in the lipid-soluble form at a stomach pH of 1.5?
a) About 1%
b) About 10%
c) About 50%
d) About 90%
e) About 99%
6.3) For which of the following drugs is excretion most significantly accelerated by
acidification of the urine?
a) Weak acid with pKa of 5.5
b) Weak acid with pKa of 3.5
c) Weak base with pKa of 7.5
d) Weak base with pKa of 7.1
6.4) A patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is administered an oral dose of 0.1 mg
chloropropamide, an insulin secretagogue and weak acid with a pKa of 5.0. What is the
amount of this drug that could be absorbed from the stomach at pH 2.0?
a) 99.9 μg
b) 90 μg
c) 50 μg
d) 0.05 mg
e) 0.01 mg
4 – Pharmacokinetic Principles: Absorption
1) Bioavailability (F) is the fraction or percentage of administered drug that reaches the
systemic circulation via a given route as compared to what route?
a) Oral
b) IV (intravenous)
c) IO (intraosseous)
d) CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)
e) Whatever route attains the target drug concentration in plasma (CT)
2) What organ is responsible for metabolism in the “first pass effect”?
a) Brain
b) Heart
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c) Kidney
d) Liver
e) Spleen
3.1) A patient is in the hospital and is stable on digoxin 0.175 mg IV qd (daily). How
much digoxin in mg. would you need to give your patient orally, given that the
bioavailability for oral digoxin tablets is 0.7?
13. a) (0.175 * 0.7) / (1.0) = 0.1225 mg
b) (0.175 * 1) / (0.7) = 0.25 mg
c) (0.175 + 0.7) / (1.0) = 0.875 mg
d) (0.175 + 1) / (0.7) = 1.67 mg
e) No change is necessary
3.2) Given a graph of plasma drug concentration versus time, what part of the graph
would be used to calculate bioavailability for a PO (oral) drug administration?
a) Maximum concentration
b) Steady concentration
c) Derivative of the curve (slope)
d) Integral of the curve (area underneath)
e) The curve is not used to calculate bioavailability
4.1) Which of the following routes of administration has a bioavailability of about 80-
100%, is usually very slow absorbing, and has prolonged duration of action?
a) IV (intravenous)
b) IM (intramuscular)
c) SQ (subcutaneous)
d) Rectal
e) Transdermal
4.2) Which of the following routers of administration is the most convenient, although
may have a bioavailability anywhere from 5-100%?
a) PO (oral)
b) IV (intravenous)
c) IM (intramuscular)
d) SQ (subcutaneous)
e) Transdermal
4.3) Which of the following enteral administration routes has the largest first-pass
effect?
a) SL (sublingual)
b) Buccal
c) Rectal
d) Oral
4.4) Epithelial cells are connected by ____, which are tough to cross and materials often
must pass through the cells. Endothelial cells of blood vessels are connected by ____,
which proteins cannot cross but smaller drugs (MW 200-500) can.
a) Macular gap junctions; Tight junctions
b) Tight junctions; Macular gap junctions
c) Adherens junctions; Tight junctions
d) Tight junctions; Adherens junctions
e) Macular gap junctions; Adherens junctions
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4.5) Which of the following administration routes is not often used, is painful, and has a
risk of infection and adhesion?
a) EPI (epidural)
b) IA (intraarterial)
14. c) IP (intraperitoneal)
d) IV (intravenous)
e) IO (intraosseous)
4.6) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of prolonged release medications?
a) Less frequent administration
b) Therapeutic effect overnight
c) Lower incidence of side effects
d) Patient compliance
e) More fluctuation in plasma concentration
4.7) What is the common location for the scopolamine motion sickness transdermal
patch?
a) Side of the hip
b) Chest
c) Over the deltoid muscle
d) Behind the ear
e) On the back of the neck
5 – Pharmacokinetic Distribution: Basics
1.1) Which of the following would receive drug slowly?
a) Liver
b) Brain
c) Fat
d) Muscle
e) Kidney
1.2) Which of the following is the least important for passage through capillary walls but
the most important for passage through the cell wall?
a) Molecular size
b) Lipid solubility
c) Diffusion constant
d) pH
e) pKa
1.3) Which of the following is the most important for movement through capillary walls?
a) Molecular size
b) Lipid solubility
c) Diffusion constant
d) pH
e) pKa
1.4) Which of the following locations would most trap a lipid soluble drug?
a) Blood
b) Intestines
c) Brain
d) Stomach
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1.5) What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a) Large and lipid-soluble
b) Large and lipid-insoluble
15. c) Small and lipid-soluble
d) Small and lipid-insoluble
2.1) Acidic drugs, such as phenytoin, bind primarily to which of the following plasma
proteins?
a) 1-fetoprotein (AFP)
b) GC Globulin
c) Albumin
d) 1-acid glycoprotein (AAG)
e) Transcortin
2.2) Basic drugs, such as lidocaine, bind primarily to which of the following plasma
proteins?
a) 1-fetoprotein (AFP)
b) Gc-Globulin (GcG)
c) Albumin
d) 1-acid glycoprotein (AAG)
e) Transcortin
3.1) A decrease in drug-protein binding will lead to which of the following?
a) Decrease in the unbound drug concentration
b) Increase in free drug
c) Increase in rate of drug elimination
d) Decrease in volume of distribution
3.2) A patient presents with acute-onset cirrhosis of the liver. They are found to have
hypoalbuminemia. In severe cirrhosis it is expected that AAG will be decreased, but the
patient presents with increased AAG due to the inflammatory response. Which of the
following is the most likely?
a) Increased acidic drug binding and increased basic drug binding
b) Increased acidic drug binding and decreased basic drug binding
c) Decreased acidic drug binding and increased basic drug binding
d) Decreased acidic drug binding and decreased basic drug binding
3.3) Which of the following is NOT a site of loss (where drug is not used)?
a) Fat
b) GI tract
c) Muscle
d) Site lacking receptors
4.1) Which of the following locations can accumulate lipid-soluble drugs, has little or no
receptors, and can hold distributed drugs like barbiturates?
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Brain
d) Fat
e) Fetus
4.2) Which of the following locations has high blood flow and is a site of excretion?
a) Liver
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b) Kidney
16. c) Brain
d) Fat
e) Fetus
4.3) Anything affecting renal perfusion will affect drug delivery to the kidney, drug
excretion, and drug levels in the blood.
a) True
b) False
4.4) Which of the following can be treated with drugs due to a leaky area in the
bloodbrain
barrier near the medulla?
a) Seizures
b) Shivers
c) Diarrhea
d) Nausea
e) Vomitting
4.5) What is the approximate lag time for equilibration between maternal blood and fetal
tissues?
a) 20 mins
b) 40 mins
c) 1 hour
d) 2 hours
e) 6 hours
Match the body compartment with the volume, assuming a 70kg male patient:
5.1) Total body a) 4
5.2) Plasma b) 10
5.3) Interstitial c) 14
5.4) Extracellular d) 28
5.5) Intracellular e) 42
5.6) If protein plasma binding is decreased, how will volume of distribution be affected?
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Not changed
5.7) 400 mg of a drug is administered to a patient and the drug is later measured in
plasma to be 1 μg/ml. What is the apparent volume of distribution (Vd)?
a) 0.04 L
b) 0.4 L
c) 4 L
d) 40 L
e) 400 L
5.8) Elderly patients often have ____ muscle mass and thus a(n) ____ Vd.
a) More; Increased
b) More; Decreased
c) Less; Increased
d) Less; Decreased
5.9) Patients with ascites or edema would have ____ Vd for hydrophilic drugs, such as
gentamicin.
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a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Unchanged
6 – Pharmacokinetics: Drug Metabolism
1.1) Which of the following locations is the most likely for finding a free, unaltered drug?
a) Urine
b) Feces
c) Breast milk
d) Fat
e) Sweat
1.2) Most drugs are active in their ____ form and inactive in their ____ form.
a) Non-polar; Polar
b) Polar; Non-polar
c) Water-soluble; Lipid-soluble
d) Lipid-insoluble; Water-insoluble
e) Neutral; Neutral
2.1) Drug biotransformation phase I makes drugs ____ polar for metabolism and phase
II
makes drugs ____ polar for excretion.
a) More; More
b) More; Less
c) Less; More
d) Less; Less
2.2) Which of the following is NOT a phase II substrate?
a) Glucuronic acid
b) Sulfuric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Amino acids
e) Alcohol
3) Which of the following reactions is phase II and NOT phase I?
a) Oxidations
b) Reductions
c) Conjugations
d) Deaminations
e) Hydrolyses
4) Which of the following metabolically active tissues is the principle organ for drug
metabolism?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver
e) GI Tract
5.1) Damage at which of the following locations would most affect the goals of phase II
biotransformation?
18. a) Skin
b) Kidneys
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c) Lungs
d) Liver
e) GI Tract
Match the biotransformation reaction with the drug:
5.2) Hydroxylation of aromatic ring to increase polarity a) Codeine
5.3) N-dealkylation b) Morphine
5.4) Sulfoxidation c) Thioridazine
5.5) O-dealkylation d) Nicotine
5.6) N-oxidation e) Phenobarbitol
5.7) Side chain oxidation with -OH to increase polarity f) Pentobarbitol
5.8) Conversion to glutathione and reactive intermediate g) Acetaminophen
6.1) What is the goal of the P450 system (microsomes pinched off from endoplasmic
reticulum)?
a) Metabolism of substances
b) Detoxification of substances
c) Increasing pH of compartments containing substances
d) Decreasing pH of compartments containing substances
e) A & B
6.2) Regarding the microsomal drug metabolizing system, a patient with late stage
alcoholism and liver damage would have more ETOH available due to which of the
following concepts?
a) Increased induction
b) Decreased induction
c) Increased inhibition
d) Decreased inhibition
6.3) Regarding the microsomal drug metabolizing system, a patient who is a chronic
user
of barbiturates would need more drug to produce the same effects due to which of the
following concepts?
a) Increased induction
b) Decreased induction
c) Increased inhibition
d) Decreased inhibition
6.4) Which of the following are the drugs that induce CYP 1A2 and the drugs that have
their metabolism induced by 1A2?
a) Carbamazepine & phenobarbitol; Theophyline & warfarin
b) Phenobarbitol & phenytoin ; Phenytoin & warfarin
c) Carbamazepine & phenytoin; Warfarin
d) Carbamazepine; Cyclosporine
6.5) Which of the following are the drugs that inhibit CYP 1A2 and the drugs that have
their metabolism inhibited by 1A2?
a) SSRIs; Phenytoin & warfarin
19. b) Amiodarone & cimetidine; Phenytoin & warfarin
c) Cimetidine, erythromycin, & grapefruit juice; Theophyline & warfarin
d) Cimetidine & erythromycin; Cyclosporine
6.6) Which of the following groups of people is the least likely to have biotransformation
effects due to altered hepatic function?
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a) Infants
b) Adults
c) Elderly
d) Chronic alcoholics
e) Acetaminophen overdoses
6.7) In what location does amino acid conjugation of glycine (e.g. salicyclic acid) take
place?
a) Microsomal
b) Cytosol
c) Mitochondria
6.8) Where does acetylation conjugation (e.g. isoniazid) and sulfate conjugation (e.g.
acetaminophen) take place?
a) Microsomal
b) Cytosol
c) Mitochondria
6.9) Where does glucuronide conjucation (e.g. digoxin, bilirubin) take place?
a) Microsomal
b) Cytosol
c) Mitochondria
6.10) What is a result of conjugation of isoniazid via N-acetylation?
a) Detoxification of liver
b) Detoxification of kidneys
c) Detoxification of blood
d) Detoxification of urine
e) Hepatotoxicity
7 – Pharmacokinetics: Principles of Eliminations
1.1) One liter contains 1,000 mg of a drug. After one hour, 900 mg of the drug remains.
What is the clearance?
a) 100 mL
b) 100 mL/hr
c) 1 mg/ml
d) 100 mg
e) 1 mg/sec
1.2) To maintain a drug concentration at steady state, the dosing rate should equal the
elimination rate. Which of the following is true? (CL = Drug Clearance)
a) Dosing rate = CL + target concentration
b) Dosing rate = CL - target concentration
c) Dosing rate = CL * target concentration
d) Dosing rate = CL / target concentration
20. 1.3) Which of the following is most useful in determining the rate of elimination of a
drug, in general?
a) Drug concentration in urine (renal elimination)
b) Drug concentration in stool (bilary elimination)
c) Drug concentration in blood
d) Drug concentration in brain
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e) Drug oxidation rate
2.1) For first-order drug elimination, half-life t(1/2) is ____ at two places on the curve
and a constant ____ is lost per unit time.
a) Equal; Amount
b) Equal; Percentage
c) Not equal; Amount
d) Not equal; Percentage
2.2) For first-order drug elimination, given the half-life equation of t(1/2) = (0.693 * Vd)
/ CL, how many half-lives would be necessary to reach steady state (_95%) without a
loading dose?
a) 1 to 2
b) 2 to 3
c) 3 to 4
d) 4 to 5
e) 5 to 6
2.3) Which of the following is NOT a drug exhibiting zero-order elimination kinetics?
a) Aspirin
b) Morphine
c) Phenytoin
d) ETOH
2.4) For zero-order drug elimination, half-life t(1/2) is ____ at two places on the curve
and a constant ____ is lost per unit time.
a) Equal; Amount
b) Equal; Percentage
c) Not equal; Amount
d) Not equal; Percentage
2.5) If a drug with a 2-hour half life is given with an initial dose of 8 mcg/ml, assuming
first-order kinetics, how much drug will be left at 6 hours?
a) 8 mcg/ml
b) 4 mcg/ml
c) 2 mcg/ml
d) 1 mcg/ml
e) 0.5 mcg/ml
3.1) What are the units for steady-state concentration (Css), or infusion rate over
clearance?
a) mg/min
b) ml/min
c) mg/ml
21. d) ml/mg
e) min/mg
3.2) What percentage of the steady-state drug concentration is achieved at 3.3 * t(1/2)?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 90%
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4.1) Increasing the rate of infusion changes the time necessary to reach the steady-
state
concentration.
a) True
b) False
4.2) An injection of two units of a drug once-daily (qd) will yield the same steady-state
concentration as an injection of one unit of a drug twice-daily (bid).
a) True
b) False
5.1) Which of the following drugs would most likely need a loading dose to help reach
therapeutic levels?
a) Acetaminophen, t(1/2) = 2 h
b) Aspirin, t(1/2) = 15 m
c) Tetracycline, t(1/2) = 11 h
d) Digitoxin, t(1/2) = 161 h
e) Adenosine, t(1/2) = 10 s
5.2) A target concentration of 7.5 mg/L of theophylline is required for a 60 kg patient.
What is the loading dose, given the following: Vd = 0.5 L/kg, Cl = 0.04 L/kg/hr, t(1/2) =
9.3 hr?
a) 0.5 L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 225 mg/h, infusion
b) 0.5 L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 225 mg, bolus
c) 0.04 L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg/h, infusion
d) 0.04 L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg, bolus
5.3) A target concentration of 7.5 mg/L of theophylline is required for a 60 kg patient.
What is the steady state maintenance dose, given the following: Vd = 0.5 L/kg, Cl = 0.04
L/kg/hr, t(1/2) = 9.3 hr?
a) 0.5 L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 225 mg/h, infusion
b) 0.5 L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 225 mg, bolus
c) 0.04 L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg/h, infusion
d) 0.04 L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg, bolus
8 – Drug Evaluation and Regulation
1) Which of the following is NOT an approach to drug development?
a) Chemical modification of a known molecule
b) Random screening for biologic activity (e.g. natural products)
c) Rational drug design
d) Combination of known drugs (e.g. Tylenol with codeine)
22. e) Biotechnology and cloning
2.1) Drug screening for an anti-infectious agent would study the drug against a variety
of
infectious organisms (____) and against non-infectious assays (____).
a) Power; Specificity
b) Sensitivity; Side-effects
c) Activity; Selectivity
d) Selectivity; Activity
e) Specificity; Power
2.2) Which of the following components of a pharmacologic profile involves assessing
pharmacologic activity and comparing against known compounds?
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a) Mechanism of action
b) Receptor binding assays
c) Activity of CYP 450
d) In vitro & in vivo tests
e) Tolerance, physical dependence, toxicity
Match the definition with the term: a) LD50 b) ED50 c) T.I. d) NED
3.1) The amount of drug that produces a therapeutic response in half of the test group
3.2) Comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect
to
the amount that causes toxic effects
3.3) The dose that kills half of the test group
3.4) The maximum dose where toxicity is not observed
3.5) Subacute toxicity testing involves multiple doses over what time frame?
a) 1 week
b) 1 month
c) 6 months
d) 1 year
e) 2 years
3.6) For the human clinical trials, what initial doses are used?
a) 1 – 2 NED
b) 1/2 – 1 NED
c) 1/10 – 1 NED
d) 1/100 – 1/10 NED
e) 1/100 – 1/100 NED
3.7) What is the minimal number of species tested (pregnant females) at selected
organogenesis periods for teratogenesis? (e.g. Thalidomide, ethanol, Accutane,
warfarin)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
3.8) In the mutagenesis dominant lethal test, which of the following would be exposed to
23. the test substance?
a) Pre-mating male
b) Pre-mating female
c) Post-mating male
d) Post-mating female (pregnant)
e) Newborn
3.9) Which of the following teratogens is associated with absence of extremities?
a) Syphilis
b) Rubella
c) Thalidomide
d) Lithium
e) Lead
3.10) Which of the following is least likely to be involved in carcinogenesis?
a) Ethanol
b) Vinyl chloride
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c) Urethane
d) Benzo[]pyrene
4.1) What type of study for an Investigational New Drug (IND) involves neither the
investigators or subjects knowing if the drug or placebo is being given?
a) Single-blind study
b) Double-blind study
c) Placebo
d) Positive-control
e) Crossover study
4.2) What type of study for an IND involves each subject receiving all treatment
conditions?
a) Single-blind study
b) Double-blind study
c) Placebo (negative-control)
d) Positive-control
e) Crossover study
4.3) What type of study for an IND involves comparison with a placebo and another
previously tested drug?
a) Single-blind study
b) Double-blind study
c) Placebo (negative-control)
d) Positive-control
e) Crossover study
4.4) What clinical trial phase involves many patients and often a double-blind study with
the purpose to further explore the beneficial action of the drug and toxicities?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
24. 4.5) What clinical trial phase involves single- or double-blind studies under very
controlled conditions with the purpose to determine therapeutic effect at tolerated
doses?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
4.6) What clinical trial phase involves submitting a New Drug Application (NDA),
monitoring, and reporting by clinicians using the drug?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
4.7) What clinical trial phase involves small does up to profound physiologic responses,
or up to minor toxicity (pharmacokinetics)?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
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d) Phase 4
5.1) The Orphan Drug Amendment (1983) gives incentives for the development of
orphan drugs, which treat diseases that affect less than how many patients?
a) 2,000
b) 20,000
c) 200,000
d) 2,000,000
e) 20,000,000
5.2) Which of the following would NOT be a critique of the Prescription Drug User Fee
Act (PDUFA, 1992)?
a) Obligates FDA to satisfy drug industry
b) Reduces FDA independence
c) Reduces FDA critical evaluation
d) Reduces drug approval process time
e) Reduces congressional oversight
5.3) Which of the following drug safety categories for pregnancy is the highest risk,
where studies have shown a significant risk to women and to the fetus?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) X
9 – Pharmacodynamics: Receptor Theory and Dose Response
1.1) Which of the following occurs on the extracellular domain of the lipid bilayer and
not the cytoplasmic domain, with regard to drug action?
a) Ligand binding
25. b) Coupling with membrane associated molecules
c) Trafficking
d) Signaling
1.2) Which of the following drug targets involves inhibitors, false substrates, and a
prodrug
type?
a) Receptors
b) Ion channels
c) Enzymes
d) Carriers
1.3) What is the correct order of bond strength, from strongest to weakest?
a) Van der Waals > Hydrogen > Ionic > Covalent
b) Ionic > Covalent > Hydrogen > Van der Waals
c) Covalent > Hydrogen > Ionic > Van der Waals
d) Covalent > Ionic > Hydrogen > Van der Waals
e) Van der Waals > Hydrogen > Covalent > Ionic
2) On a graded dose-response curve (or drug-receptor curve in a laboratory), at what
point does response increase the most rapidly?
a) Initially
b) At EC50
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c) At LD50
d) At 90% maximal response efficacy (Emax)
e) At steady-state
3.1) Which of the following is the equilibrium dissociation constant, where the
concentration of free drug is at half-maximal binding?
a) EC50
b) Emax
c) Kd
d) Bmax
e) LD50
3.2) What kind of graph scaling is often used to compare EC50 to Kd?
a) Linear
b) Exponential
c) Semilog
d) Inverse
e) Proportional
3.3) Clinical effectiveness of a drug depends on its potency.
a) True
b) False
Use the accompanied diagram for the following two questions:
3.4) Which of the following drugs would require the most care when administrating, if
the upper portion of the dose-response curve signified severe toxicity?
a) A
b) B
26. c) C
d) D
3.5) Which drug is the least efficacious?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
3.6) Intrinsic activity is a drug’s ability to elicit:
a) Strong receptor binding
b) Weak receptor binding
c) Response
d) Excretion
e) Distribution
4.1) Which direction would a partial agonist shift the dose-response curve when
compared to a full agonist?
a) To the left
b) To the right
c) Down
d) Up
e) To the right and possibly down
4.2) Which direction would a competitive antagonist (plus agonist) shift the
doseresponse
curve when compared to a full agonist?
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a) To the left
b) To the right
c) Down
d) Up
e) To the right and possibly down
4.3) Which direction would a non-competitive antagonist (plus agonist) shift the
doseresponse
curve when compared to a full agonist?
a) To the left
b) To the right
c) Down
d) Up
e) Down and possibly to the right
4.4) A competitive antagonist affects the agonist ____ and a non-competitive antagonist
affect the agonist ____.
a) Potency; Efficacy
b) Efficacy; Potency
c) Duration; Speed
d) Speed; Duration
4.5) In which of the following cases could a dose-response curve be constructed?
a) Prevention of convulsions
27. b) Prevention of arrhythmias
c) Reduction of death
d) Reduction of fever
e) Relief of headache
5.1) For most drugs, a frequency distribution of the response plotted against the log of
the
dose (quantal) produces what kind of curve?
a) Linear
b) Exponential
c) Logarithmic
d) Gaussian (normal) distribution
e) Poisson distribution
5.2) Generally, which of the following is the correct order as dosage is increased?
a) ED50 < LD50 < TD50
b) ED50 < TD50 < LD50
c) LD50 < TD50 < ED50
d) LD50 < ED50 < TD50
e) TD50 < LD50 < ED50
5.3) Which of the following is the median effective dose, or the dose at which 50% of the
individuals exhibit the specified quantal response?
a) LD50
b) ED50
c) EC50
d) TD50
e) T.I.
6.1) Which of the following is considered the therapeutic index (or ratio)?
a) T.I. = TD50 / ED50
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b) T.I. = LD50 / ED50
c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50
d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50
e) A & B
6.2) Which of the following can be used as a relative indicator of the margin of safety of
a drug?
a) LD50
b) ED50
c) EC50
d) TD50
e) T.I.
6.3) Which of the following is the most relevant use of therapeutic index?
a) Guide for toxicity in therapeutic the setting
b) Multiple measures of effectiveness are possible (e.g. aspirin)
c) Measure of impunity with which an overdose may be tolerated
d) Toxicities may be idiosyncratic (e.g. propranolol in asthmatics)
7.1) Which of the following refers to an increased intensity of response to a drug?
28. a) Idiosyncratic
b) Hyporeactive
c) Hyperreactive
d) Hypersensitive
e) Tolerance
7.2) Tachyphylaxis refers to which of the following?
a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug
b) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drug
c) Responsiveness increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitive)
d) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitized)
10 – Receptor-Effector Coupling
1) Which of the following would occur with an antagonist binding to a receptor and not
an agonist?
a) Ion channel closed
b) Enzyme inhibited
c) Endogenous mediator blocked
d) Ion channel modulated
e) DNA transcription
2.1) Nicotinic ACh receptors (ligand-gated) involve the movement of what ion across the
membrane?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld)
Na+
e) Mg++
2.2) The nicotinic receptor requires one molecule of ACh to bind to each of the two ____
receptors in order to activate the receptor and open the channel.
a) (alpha)
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b) (beta)
c) (gamma)
d) (delta)
2.3) GABA A receptors (ligand-gated) involve the movement of what ion across the
membrane?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld)
Na+
e) Mg++
2.4) Which of the following is increased in intracellular concentration due to second
messengers such as IP3?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld)
Na+
29. e) Mg++
Match the G protein with the action it causes:
2.5) Activates phospholipase C (PLC) a) Gs
2.6) Activates K+ channels b) Gi
2.7) Inhibits Ca++ channels c) Go
2.8) Activates Ca++ channels d) Gq
2.9) Which of the following signaling mechanisms involves phosphorylation of substrate
proteins and has receptors that are polypeptides with cytoplasmic enzyme domains
(tyrosine kinase, serine kinase, guanylyl cyclase)?
a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands
b) Transmembrane receptors
c) G-protein coupled receptors
d) Ligand-gated ion channels
2.10) Regulated by cytokines and growth factors, the Janus-Kinase JAK-STAT pathway
results in which of the following?
a) Ion channel closing
b) Enzyme inhibition
c) Endogenous mediator blocking
d) Ion channel modulation
e) Gene transcription
2.11) Which of the following describes the pathway of nitric oxide (NO)?
a) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation
b) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasodilation
c) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction
d) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation
e) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction
2.12) Which of the following signaling mechanisms can involve heat-shock protein
(hsp90)?
a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands
b) Transmembrane receptors
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c) G-protein coupled receptors
d) Ligand-gated ion channels
3.1) All of the following interact with ligand-gated ion channels EXCEPT:
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Insulin
c) Glutamate
d) Aspartate
e) Glycine
3.2) Which of the following is NOT a second messenger associated with G proteins?
a) DAG
b) GDP
c) IP3
d) cAMP
e) cGMP
30. 3.3) Muscarinic ACh receptors and adrenergic receptors are associated with which of
the
following?
a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands
b) Transmembrane receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domains
c) G-protein coupled receptors
d) Ligand-gated ion channels
3.4) In smooth muscle and glandular tissue, ACh binds to what muscarinic receptor,
leading to the DAG cascade?
a) M1
b) M2
c) M3
d) M4
e) M5
3.5) In the heart and intestines, what muscarinic receptor inhibits adenylyl cyclase
activity?
a) M1
b) M2
c) M3
d) M4
e) M5
3.6) Adrenergic 2 receptors ____ adenylyl cyclase and receptors ____ adenylyl
cyclase.
a) Stimulate; Stimulate
b) Stimulate; Inhibit
c) Inhibit; Inhibit
d) Inhibit; Stimulate
3.7) Which of the following is NOT a ligand-regulated transmembrane enzyme (agent)?
a) Insulin
b) EGP
c) PDFG
d) ANP
e) NO
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3.8) Which of the following cytokine receptors (transmembrane enzyme) is antagonized
by anakinra (Kineret), for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
a) Growth hormone
b) Erythropoietin
c) Interferons
d) Interleukin-1
3.9) Which of the following is NOT an intracellular receptor for lipid-soluble agent,
which stimulates gene transcription in the nucleus by binding to DNA sequences?
a) Steroids
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
31. d) Thyroid hormone
e) Nitric oxide
Match the receptors with their time scale:
4.1) Insulin receptor a) Miliseconds
4.2) Muscarinic ACh receptor b) Seconds
4.3) Estrogen receptor c) Minutes
4.4) Nicotinic ACh receptor d) Hours
11 – Autonomic Pharmacology: Sympathetic Nervous System
1.1) The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are
divisions of which of the following?
a) Somatic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
b) Somatic nervous system division of central nervous system
c) Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
d) Autonomic nervous system division of central nervous system
1.2) Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and
postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).
a) ACh; ACh; NE
b) ACh; NE; ACh
c) NE; ACh; NE
d) NE; NE; ACh
1.3) Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1
d) 2
e) 3
1.4) Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?
a) Mass parasympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
b) Mass parasympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
c) Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
d) Mass sympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
1.5) Increased lipid breakdown a) 1
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1.6) Peripheral vasoconstriction b) 1
1.7) Increased heart rate and blood pressure c) 2
1.8) Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion d) 3
1.9) What amino acids is converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?
a) Alanine
b) Proline
c) Lysine
d) Tyrosine
e) Valine
1.10) Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine
32. transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, a proton antiporter?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Dopamine
1.11) Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Dopamine
1.12) Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of
an action potential leading to Ca++ influx and exocytosis?
a) Presynaptic sympathetic
b) Presynaptic parasympathetic
c) Postsynaptic sympathetic
d) Postsynaptic parasympathetic
2.1) Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for
drug action?
a) Reuptake via NE transporter (NET): Uptake 1
b) Metabolism of NE of inactive metabolite
c) NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft
2.2) NET is a symporter of what ion?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld)
Na+
e) Mg++
2.3) Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response
termination?
a) NE
b) L-DOPA
c) NET
d) EPI
e) DOPGAL
2.4) Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than
the others?
a) Serotonin (5-HT)
b) Norepinepherine (NE)
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c) Dopamine (DA)
2.5) Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl
transferase (COMT) primarily found?
a) Liver
b) GI tract
c) Placenta
d) Blood platelets
3.1) Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver
33. glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?
a) 1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) 2 (Gi/Go)
c) 1 (Gs)
d) 2 (Gs)
e) 3 (Gs)
3.2) Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle
contraction
and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?
a) 1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) 2 (Gi/Go)
c) 1 (Gs)
d) 2 (Gs)
e) 3 (Gs)
3.3) Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and
inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin
secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?
a) 1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) 2 (Gi/Go)
c) 1 (Gs)
d) 2 (Gs)
e) 3 (Gs)
3.4) Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from
pancreatic
-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth
muscle?
a) 1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) 2 (Gi/Go)
c) 1 (Gs)
d) 2 (Gs)
e) 3 (Gs)
4.1) What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase?
a) 1
b) 2
c)
d) & 1
e) & 2
4.2) What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)?
a) 1
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b) 2
c)
d) & 1
34. e) & 2
4.3) Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
4.4) Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
MAO inhibitors?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
4.5) Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
4.6) Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?
a) Non-polar
b) Cannot cross the blood-brain barrier
c) Cannot be used as an oral drug
d) Have brief duration
e) MAO and COMT act rapidly
Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):
4.7) Isoproterenol a) &
4.8) Dobutamine b)
4.9) Norepinepherine c) 1
4.10) Dopamine d) D1 & D2
4.11) Epinepherine
4.12) The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the
following types of amines?
a) Methyl amine
b) Ethyl amine
c) Butyl amine
d) Tert-butyl amine
e) Propyl amine
Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:
4.13) Clonidine a) 1-agonist
4.14) Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine b) 2-agonist
4.15) Phenylephrine c) 2-agonist
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5.1) Which of the following is a long-acting (oral) 1-agonist and not a short-acting
(nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) 1-agonist?
35. a) Phenylephrine
b) Oxymetazoline
c) Tetrahydrazaline
d) Pseudoephedrine
5.2) Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient
with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?
a) Phenylephrine
b) Epinepherine
c) Oymetazoline
d) Isoproterenol
5.3) 1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood
flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the
web space?
a) Phenylephrine
b) Epinephrine
c) Methoxamine
5.4) Which of the following is the 1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and
surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)?
a) Ephedrine
b) Epinepherine
c) Oymetazoline
d) Isoproterenol
e) Phenylephrine
5.5) 2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing
sympathetic
tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a 2-agonist?
a) Clonidine
b) Methyldopa
c) Guanabenz
d) Guanfacine
e) Epinephrine
5.6) At the adrenergic synapse, what does 2 do?
a) Stimulates NE release
b) Inhibits NE release
c) Stimulates ACh release
d) Inhibits ACh release
5.7) Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay
premature labor?
a) 2-agonist
b) 1-agonist
c) 3-agonist
d) 2-agonist
e) 1-agonist
5.8) Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac
arrest,
heart block, or heart failure?
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a) 1-agonist
b) 2-agonist
c) 1-agonist
d) 2-agonist
e) 3-agonist
5.9) Which of the following is NOT a 2-agonist?
a) Terbutaline
b) Ritodrine
c) Metaproterenol
d) Albuterol
e) Phenylepherine
5.10) 2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a
decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld)
Na+
e) Mg++
5.11) Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At
higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1
d) 2
e) 3
5.12) Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent
receptors from being couples with G-proteins?
a) Sequestration
b) Down-regulation
c) Phosphorylation
5.13) Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug
cocaine?
a) Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
b) Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
c) Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
d) Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
5.14) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the
following is the action of TCAs?
a) Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
b) Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
c) Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
d) Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
5.15) Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?
a) Amphetamine
37. b) Methamphetamine
c) Ephedrine
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d) Phenylepherine
e) Pseudoephedrine
5.16) Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of
the
medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
a) -agonist
b) -blocker
c) -agonist
d) -blocker
5.17) Which of the following is NOT an indication for -blocker therapy?
a) Hypotension
b) Angina pectoris
c) Arrhythmias
d) Myocardial infarction
e) Glaucoma
5.18) Which of the following -blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor
secretions
from the ciliary body?
a) Propranolol
b) Nadolol
c) Carvedilol
d) Timolol
e) Metoprolol
5.19) Which of the following is NOT considered cardioselective?
a) Metoprolol
b) Atenolol
c) Esmolol
d) Carvedilol
5.20) Blocking 2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
a) Stimulate NE release
b) Inhibit NE release
c) Stimulate DA release
d) Inhibit DA release
5.21) Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?
a) Tyramine
b) Guanethidine
c) Reserpine
d) Propranolol
e) Epinepherine
6.1) Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a
1-agonist drug?
a) Hypotension
38. b) Hypertension
c) Tissue necrosis
d) Vasodilation
e) Lipolysis
6.2) Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the
drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
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a) 1-agonist
b) 2-agonist
c) 1-agonist
d) 2-agonist
e) 3-agonist
6.3) Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in
50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nauseas, dizziness, and
sleep disturbances?
a) 1-agonist
b) 2-agonist
c) 1-agonist
d) 2-agonist
e) 3-agonist
6.4) Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics?
a) 2-agonist
b) 1-agonist
c) 3-agonist
d) 2-agonist
e) 1-agonist
6.5) Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which
of the following agonists?
a) 2-agonist
b) 1-agonist
c) 3-agonist
d) 2-agonist
e) 1-agonist
6.6) If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese),
which of the following acute responses is most likely? (sympathomimetic)
a) Stimulation of NE release
b) Inhibition of NE release
c) Stimulation of ACh release
d) Inhibition of ACh release
e) No response due to MAO inhibitor
6.7) Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with
increased guanethidine? (sympathomimetic)
a) Stimulation of NE release
b) Inhibition of NE release
39. c) Stimulation of ACh release
d) Inhibition of ACh release
6.8) Major adverse affects of the 1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of
the
following?
a) Orthostatic tachycardia
b) Orthostatic bradycardia
c) Orthostatic hypertension
d) Orthostatic hypotension
Pharmacology – Part 1 Quiz
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e) Increased cardiac output
6.9) Which of the following effects would be intensified with the 2 blockade?
a) Reflex tachycardia
b) Reflex bradycardia
c) Orthostatic hypertension
d) Orthostatic hypotension
e) Platelet clotting
6.10) Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the 1 blockade?
a) Bradycardia
b) Decreased cardiac output
c) AV node block
d) Increased arrhythmias
e) Heart failure
6.11) Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated
with sudden termination of 1-blockers?
a) Atrial fibrillation
b) Reflex bradycardia
c) Syncope (fainting)
d) Angina
e) Sudden death
6.12) Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in
2-blockers?
a) Asthmatics
b) Congestive heart failure patients
c) Trauma patients
d) Diabetics
e) Patients with deep vein thromboses (DVTs)
6.13) Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to
masking
of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?
a) 1-blocker
b) 2-blocker
c) 1-blocker
d) 2-blocker
e) 3-blocker
40. 12 – Autonomic Pharmacology: Parasympathetic Nervous System
1.1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
a) Is considered cranio-sacral
b) Involves rest and digestion functions
c) Has nicotinic receptors on cell bodies of all postganglionic neurons
d) Target organs have muscarinic receptors for ACh
e) Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
1.2) Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?
a) Synaptic cleft
b) Cytosol
c) Mitochondria
Pharmacology – Part 1 Quiz
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d) Extracellular matrix
e) Lysosomes
1.3) Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?
a) Milk
b) Liver
c) Eggs
d) Peanuts
e) Blood plasma
1.4) What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?
a) ACh increased
b) ACh decreased
c) Muscarinic ACh receptor modified
d) Nicotinic ACh receptor modified
e) AChE inhibited
1.5) ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld)
Na+
e) H+
1.6) Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being
terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld)
Na+
e) H+
2.1) Nicotinic N2 receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the
____
subtype.
a) Neuronal; Muscular
b) Muscular; Neuronal
c) Nodal; Neuronal
41. d) Neuronal; Nodal
e) Sympathetic; Parasympathetic
2.2) Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?
a) Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist
b) Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist
c) Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
d) Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist
2.3) Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often
associated with which side effect?
a) Tachycardia
b) Bradycardia
c) Euphoria
d) Sedation
e) Hallucinations
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2.4) Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular
tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca++ and the DAG cascade?
a) Gs
b) Gi
c) Gq
d) Go
2.5) Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic
receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity.
a) Gs
b) Gi
c) Gq
d) Go
2.6) The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:
a) Acetylcholine agonists
b) Acetylcholine antagonists
c) Muscarinic agonists
d) Muscarinic antagonists
e) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
3.1) Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M
receptors?
a) Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation)
b) Iris contraction (miosis)
c) Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision)
d) Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
e) Salivary/lacrimal thin and watery secretions
3.2) Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M
receptors?
a) Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
b) Increased GI tract tone and secretions
c) Diaphoresis from sweat glands
42. d) Penile erection
e) Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter
3.3) What is bethanechol most commonly used for?
a) For decreasing heart rate
b) To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
c) For urinary retention
d) Decreasing intraocular pressure
e) For erectile dysfunction
3.4) What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?
a) For decreasing heart rate
b) To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
c) For urinary retention
d) Decreasing intraocular pressure
e) For erectile dysfunction
3.5) Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as
would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?
Pharmacology – Part 1 Quiz
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a) Diarrhea
b) Diaphoresis
c) Mydriasis
d) Nausea
e) Urinary urgency
3.6) What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?
a) Acetylcholine agonists
b) Acetylcholine antagonists
c) Muscarinic agonists
d) Muscarinic antagonists
e) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
3.7) What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)?
a) Bethanechol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Scopolamine
e) Atropine
4) What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
a) Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation
b) Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)
c) Miosis and increased lacrimation
d) Mydriasis and cycloplegia
e) Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and mydriasis
5.1) Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?
a) Increased salivation
b) Blurred vision
c) Bradycardia
d) Diaphoresis
43. e) Decreased intraocular pressure
5.2) Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity?
a) Blind as a bat
b) Red as a beet
c) Mad as a hatter
d) Hot as a hare
e) Wet as a towel
5.3) Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness?
(injection, oral, or transdermal patch)
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Tropicamide
5.4) Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____
last
6 hours (shortest).
a) Atropine; Scopolamine
b) Scopolamine; Homatropine
c) Homatropine; Tropicamide
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d) Tropicamide; Atropine
e) Atropine; Tropicamide
6) Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia,
plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by
BuChE
(e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?
a) Ester
b) Ether
c) Amine
d) Alkane
e) Alcohol
7.1) Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine
intoxication?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Donepezil
e) Pyridostigmine
7.2) Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Donepezil
e) Pyridostigmine
7.3) Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer
44. disease?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Donepezil
e) Pyridostigmine
7.4) Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis
(MG)?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Pyridostigmine
7.5) Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor
(organophosphate AChE inhibitors)?
a) Tacrine
b) Echothiophate
c) Sarin, toban, soman
d) Malathion, parathion
e) Isoflurophate
7.6) By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the
esteratic site enzyme?
a) Hydroxylation
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b) Hydrolysis
c) Phosphorylation
d) Peptide
e) Methylation
7.7) A MARK-1 autoinjection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who
may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs,
an
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase reactivator (antidote). What two
drugs
would you expect to be in this kit?
a) Pralidoxime (2-PAM) and echothiophate
b) Parathion and adenosine
c) Scopolamine and tropicamide
d) Mecamylamine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
e) Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
7.8) Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40 hour half life. What
is
the approximate half life of soman?
a) 6 seconds
b) 6 minutes
c) 1 hour
d) 6 hours
45. e) 60 hours
8.1) What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available
in the United States?
a) Mecamylamine
b) Scopolamine
c) Echothiophate
d) Pralidoxime
e) Parathion
8.2) Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia
b) Mydriasis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hypertension
e) Cycloplegia
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AnswerKey
Pharm #1
1) C
2.1) C
2.2) B
2.3) D
2.4) A
2.5) E
2.6) B
2.7) D
2.8) E
3.1) A
3.2) C
4.1) D
4.2) B
5.1) B
5.2) C
5.3) E
5.4) C
6.1) A
6.2) C
6.3) B
6.4) D
6.5) E
Pharm #2
1) D
2.1) E
3) A
4.1) D
4.2) C
46. 4.3) B
5.1) D
5.2) A
5.3) B
5.4) C
5.5) D
6.1) C
6.2) B
7.1) A
7.2) E
7.3) E
7.4) A
7.5) B
7.6) C
8.1) D
8.2) E
8.3) B
Pharm #3
1) C
2.1) A
2.2) D
3.1) C
3.2) D
4.1) A
4.2) A
4.3) D
4.4) E
4.5) C
5.1) B
5.2) A
5.3) D
6.1) D
6.2) E
6.3) C
6.4) A
Pharm #4
1) B
2) D
3.1) B
3.2) D
4.1) E
4.2) A
4.3) D
4.4) B
4.5) C
4.6) E
47. 4.7) D
Pharm #5
1.1) C
1.2) B
1.3) A
1.4) D
1.5) C
2.1) C
2.2) D
3.1) C
3.2) C
3.3) C
4.1) D
4.2) B
4.3) A
4.4) E
4.5) B
5.1) E
5.2) A
5.3) B
5.4) C
5.5) D
5.6) A
5.7) E
5.8) D
5.9) A
Pharm #6
1.1) D
1.2) A
2.1) A
2.2) E
3) C
4) D
5.1) B
5.2) E
5.3) B
5.4) C
5.5) A
5.6) D
5.7) F
5.8) G
6.1) E
6.2) D
6.3) A
6.4) A
6.5) C
48. 6.6) B
6.7) C
6.8) B
6.9) A
6.10) E
Pharm #7
1.1) B
1.2) C
1.3) C
2.1) B
2.2) D
2.3) B
2.4) C
2.5) D
3.1) C
3.2) E
4.1) B
4.2) A
5.1) D
5.2) B
5.3) C
Pharm #8
1) D
2.1) C
2.2) D
3.1) B
3.2) C
3.3) A
3.4) D
3.5) C
3.6) D
3.7) B
3.8) A
3.9) C
3.10) A
4.1) B
4.2) E
4.3) D
4.4) C
4.5) B
4.6) D
4.7) A
5.1) C
5.2) D
5.3) E
Pharm #9
49. 1.1) A
1.2) C
1.3) D
2) A
3.1) C
3.2) C
3.3) B
3.4 D
Pharmacology – Part 1 Quiz
Version: 16Oct2008 Page 42 of 42
3.5) B
3.6) C
4.1) C
4.2) B
4.3) E
4.4) A
4.5) D
5.1) D
5.2) B
5.3) B
6.1) E
6.2) E
6.3) C
7.1) C
7.2) B
Pharm #10
1) C
2.1) D
2.2) A
2.3) C
2.4) B
2.5) D
2.6) B
2.7) C
2.8) A
2.9) B
2.10) E
2.11) A
2.12) A
3.1) B
3.2) B
3.3) C
3.4) C
3.5) B
3.6) D
3.7) E
50. 3.8) D
3.9) B
4.1) C
4.2) B
4.3) D
4.4) A
Pharm #11
1.1) C
1.2) A
1.3) B
1.4) C
1.5) D
1.6) A
1.7) B
1.8) C
1.9) D
1.10) C
1.11) B
1.12) C
2.1) C
2.2) D
2.3) A
2.4) C
2.5) A
3.1) D
3.2) A
3.3) C
3.4) B
4.1) E
4.2) A
4.3) B
4.4) D
4.5) C
4.6) A
4.7) B
4.8) C
4.9) A
4.10) D
4.11) A
4.12) B
4.13) B
4.14) C
4.15) A
5.1) D
5.2) D
5.3) B
51. 5.4) E
5.5) E
5.6) B
5.7) D
5.8) C
5.9) E
5.10) A
5.11) C
5.12) C
5.13) B
5.14) B
5.15) D
5.16) B
5.17) A
5.18) D
5.19) D
5.20) A
5.21) C
6.1) B
6.2) B
6.3) B
6.4) D
6.5) E
6.6) A
6.7) A
6.8) D
6.9) A
6.10) D
6.11) E
6.12) A
6.13) D
Pharm #12
1.1) E
1.2) C
1.3) E
1.4) B
1.5) E
1.6) B
2.1) A
2.2) C
2.3) E
2.4) C
2.5) B
2.6) C
3.1) D
3.2) A
52. 3.3) C
3.4) D
3.5) C
3.6) D
3.7) E
4) D
5.1) B
1. Increasing ionization at pH ABOVE pKa:
A. ? weak acid
B. ? weak base
2. Mechanism(s) of drug permeation:
A. ? lipid diffusion
B. ? aqueous diffusion
C. ? use of carrier molecules
D. ? endocytosis and exocytosis
E. ? all of the above
3. Dramatic decrease in systemic availability of a drug following oral administration is most
likely due to:
A. ? extreme drug instability at stomach pH
B. ? hepatic "first-pass" effect
C. ? drug metabolized by gut flora
D. ? tablet does not dissolve
E. ? patient non-complance
53. 4. Weak organic acid, pKa 6.5. Percent ionization at pH 7.5
A. ? 1%
B. ? 10%
C. ? 50%
D. ? 90%
E. ? 99%
5. Most drug have molecular weights between:
A. ? 10 - 100
B. ? 100 and 1000
C. ? 7 - about 60000
D. ? above 60000
E. ? none of the above
6. Example(s) of covalent drug-receptor interactions:
A. ? activated phenoxybenzamine-receptor
B. ? anti-cancer DNA alkylating drugs, like cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
C. ? norepinephrine
D. ? A & B
E. ? A, B & C
7. Bond type that is seen in some drug-receptor interactions and tends to very strong, often
nearly irreversible:
54. A. ? hydrophobic
B. ? electrostatic
C. ? covalent
D. ? A & C
E. ? B & C
8. Most important factor influencing drug absorption rate following intramuscular injection:
A. ? needle diameter
B. ? rate of administration
C. ? injection site blood flow
D. ? injection volume
9. Faster drug absorption:
A. ? lung
B. ? stomach
10. Most common mechanism of drug permeation:
A. ? endocytosis
B. ? carrier-mediated transport
C. ? active-transport
D. ? passive diffusion
E. ? none of the above
55. 11. Pharmacological antagonists:
A. ? cause receptor down regulation
B. ? prevent binding of other molecules to the receptor by their binding to the
receptor
C. ? atropine (blocks ACh action on the heart
D. ? A & B
E. ? B & C
12. Drug delivery method LEAST suitable for long term (days to weeks) slow release.
A. ? pellet implant under the skin (subcutaneous)
B. ? time release capsule
C. ? i.m. injection of a drug-oil suspension
D. ? transdermal patch
E. ? none of the above
13. Drug with this ionization property most likely to diffuse from intestine (pH 8.4) to blood
(pH 7.4)
A. ? weak acid (pKa 7.4)
B. ? weak base (pKa 8.4)
C. ? weak acid (pKa 8.4)
D. ? weak base (pKa 6.4)
E. ? weak acid (pKa 6.4)
14. Term having to do with drug actions on the body:
56. A. ? pharmacokinetics
B. ? pharmacodynamics
C. ? pharmacogenetics
D. ? placebo
E. ? all of the above
15. General term having to do with actions of the body on the drug:
A. ? pharmacodynamics
B. ? pharmacogenetics
C. ? pharmacokinetics
D. ? absorption
E. ? none of the above
16. Drug-transport system described as "energy requiring":
A. ? glomerular filtration
B. ? facilitated diffusion
C. ? active transport
D. ? B & C
E. ? A, B & C
17. Saturable transport system(s):
A. ? facilitated diffusion
B. ? passive diffusion
57. C. ? active transport
D. ? A & B
E. ? A & C
18. Description of enantiomers:
A. ? may be readily superimposed
B. ? enantiomers, when presence in equal proportions, are referred to as
racemates
C. ? may be characterized by absolute configuration or by direction in which
enantiomers rotate polarized light
D. ? A & C
E. ? B & C
19. Factors that influence the rate of passive movement to molecules down the concentration
gradient (Fick's Law)
A. ? concentration difference across the barrier
B. ? area across which diffusion occurs
C. ? drug mobility in the diffusion panel
D. ? thickness -- length of the diffusion pass
E. ? all the above
20. The binding of the activated form of phenoxybenzamine (alpha-receptor antagonist) with
the alpha receptor is an example of this type of chemical force/bond:
A. ? electrostatic
B. ? covalent
58. C. ? hydrophobic interactions
21. Percentage of all drugs that exist as enantiomeric pairs:
A. ? less than 1%
B. ? 5%-15%
C. ? 30%
D. ? > 50%
E. ? > 90%
22. Characteristics those aqueous diffusion:
A. ? occurs within large intracellular and extracellular components
B. ? occurs across epithelial membrane tight junctions
C. ? occurs across endothelial blood vessel lining -- often through pores
D. ? A & C
E. ? A, B & C
23. Characteristic(s) of enantiomers:
A. ? chemically identical
B. ? mirror images of each other
C. ? both
D. ? neither
24. Major types of chemical forces/bonds:
59. A. ? hydrophobic interactions
B. ? electrostatic
C. ? covalent
D. ? A & C
E. ? A,B, & C
25. Stereoselectivity and metabolism:
A. ? enzymes typically exhibit stereoselectivity -- a preference for one or the
other enantiomeric form
B. ? duration of action of one enantiomer may be different from the other
C. ? both
D. ? neither
26. Examples of enantiomeric differences important in anesthesia:
A. ? cardiotoxicity is probably associated with both enantiomers of bupivacaine
B. ? Ropivacaine is less cardiotoxic compared to bupivacaine because it is
metabolized faster
C. ? cisatracurium is an atracurium isomer that doesn't cause histamine release
D. ? both l- and d- morphine occur in nature
transport of very large substances into the cell using a coated
vacuole or vesicle
???
60. transport of very large substances into the cell using a coated
vacuole or vesicle
endocytosis
:-
)
transport of materials out of the cell using a vesicle that first
engulfs the material
exocytosis
:-
)
refers to a molecule with a center of three-dimensional
asymmetry
chiral
:-
)
drug enantiomers present you equal (50:50) proportion racemates
:-
)
an example of drug with two asymmetric centers (4
diasteriomers)
labetalol
:-
)
d- or + form of this drug is more potent but less toxic than
the (-) enantiomer
ketamine
:-
)
example of an inhalational anesthetic agent administered as a
racemic mixture
sevoflurane
:-
)
probable charged state of a weak base at alkaline pH: neutral (uncharged)
:-
)