This document contains a sample test for the GAT General exam with questions in verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and English language sections. The verbal reasoning section includes analogies, sentence completion, and reading comprehension questions. The quantitative reasoning section includes math word problems related to percentages, profit/loss, ratios, time/work, and simple/compound interest. The English section focuses on error identification in grammar and usage. The test aims to evaluate skills relevant for admissions to post-secondary programs.
GAT NTS SAMPLE PAPERS MATERIAL PART 1. You will find more GAT NTS material on my profile. Some sample papers and some important website links from which you can prepare. Good Luck =)
The document provides information about the GAT practice test, including:
1) The GAT General test contains 100 questions across 3 sections: English, Quantitative, and Analytical Reasoning.
2) The English section contains vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and other question types.
3) The Quantitative section covers topics in algebra, geometry, arithmetic, and word problems.
4) The Analytical Reasoning section involves collecting information, drawing conclusions, and making inferences.
The document provides a sample paper for the GAT C exam, which consists of 3 sections and 28 multiple choice questions to be completed in 34 minutes. The sections cover verbal, analytical reasoning, and quantitative skills. Instructions are provided for the answer sheet and keys. The sample paper is intended to provide conceptual guidance to prospective exam takers but does not replicate the full exam.
GAT NTS SAMPLE PAPERS MATERIAL PART 3. You will find more GAT NTS material on my profile. Some sample papers and some important website links from which you can prepare. Good Luck =)
The document provides a sample paper for the NTS Graduate Admission Test (GAT). It begins by stating that the sample paper is intended to familiarize test takers with the format and question types on the actual GAT, though the content is not identical. It then provides 5 questions each on quantitative ability and verbal ability to exemplify the types of questions on the exam. The sample paper concludes by noting it was created by the College of Admission Tests to help prepare test takers, and that readers should confirm the current exam format directly with NTS.
The document provides information about an English language proficiency exam, including instructions for candidates, information about the structure and timing of the exam, and sample exam questions. It consists of 14 printed pages, 2 blank pages, and 80 multiple choice questions testing a range of English language skills. Candidates have 1 hour and 20 minutes to complete the exam.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about theoretical bases of English education. It covers topics like the components of language, definitions of terms like EFL, code mixing, bilingualism, the roles of teachers, theories around language and culture from Sapir-Whorf, sociolinguistics, phonology, syntax, semantics, morphology, Vygotsky's zone of proximal development, Chomsky's language acquisition device, Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, methods of teaching English like grammar translation, communicative approach, silent way, and suggestopedia. The questions have answers in bold for self-evaluation.
Iqbal Series English for Class 6th (solved)Seetal Daas
This document contains notes for an English lesson for class 6th. It includes questions and answers from two stories - A Highland Girl Goes to Green School and The King's Ministers. It also contains exercises on grammar, vocabulary, parts of speech and types of sentences. The document provides a concise compilation of material for an English lesson, including questions to test comprehension, activities to practice language skills, and a short summary of the key ideas.
GAT NTS SAMPLE PAPERS MATERIAL PART 1. You will find more GAT NTS material on my profile. Some sample papers and some important website links from which you can prepare. Good Luck =)
The document provides information about the GAT practice test, including:
1) The GAT General test contains 100 questions across 3 sections: English, Quantitative, and Analytical Reasoning.
2) The English section contains vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and other question types.
3) The Quantitative section covers topics in algebra, geometry, arithmetic, and word problems.
4) The Analytical Reasoning section involves collecting information, drawing conclusions, and making inferences.
The document provides a sample paper for the GAT C exam, which consists of 3 sections and 28 multiple choice questions to be completed in 34 minutes. The sections cover verbal, analytical reasoning, and quantitative skills. Instructions are provided for the answer sheet and keys. The sample paper is intended to provide conceptual guidance to prospective exam takers but does not replicate the full exam.
GAT NTS SAMPLE PAPERS MATERIAL PART 3. You will find more GAT NTS material on my profile. Some sample papers and some important website links from which you can prepare. Good Luck =)
The document provides a sample paper for the NTS Graduate Admission Test (GAT). It begins by stating that the sample paper is intended to familiarize test takers with the format and question types on the actual GAT, though the content is not identical. It then provides 5 questions each on quantitative ability and verbal ability to exemplify the types of questions on the exam. The sample paper concludes by noting it was created by the College of Admission Tests to help prepare test takers, and that readers should confirm the current exam format directly with NTS.
The document provides information about an English language proficiency exam, including instructions for candidates, information about the structure and timing of the exam, and sample exam questions. It consists of 14 printed pages, 2 blank pages, and 80 multiple choice questions testing a range of English language skills. Candidates have 1 hour and 20 minutes to complete the exam.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about theoretical bases of English education. It covers topics like the components of language, definitions of terms like EFL, code mixing, bilingualism, the roles of teachers, theories around language and culture from Sapir-Whorf, sociolinguistics, phonology, syntax, semantics, morphology, Vygotsky's zone of proximal development, Chomsky's language acquisition device, Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, methods of teaching English like grammar translation, communicative approach, silent way, and suggestopedia. The questions have answers in bold for self-evaluation.
Iqbal Series English for Class 6th (solved)Seetal Daas
This document contains notes for an English lesson for class 6th. It includes questions and answers from two stories - A Highland Girl Goes to Green School and The King's Ministers. It also contains exercises on grammar, vocabulary, parts of speech and types of sentences. The document provides a concise compilation of material for an English lesson, including questions to test comprehension, activities to practice language skills, and a short summary of the key ideas.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about emerging trends and practices in English language education. The questions cover topics like collaborative learning, cooperative learning, connectivism learning theory, MOOCs, self and peer assessment, CCE, standardized tests, objective type questions, assessment portfolios, blended learning, the ADDIE instructional design model, eXe learning, learning objects, assessment rubrics, remedial teaching, teaching standards, TQM, e-PG Pathshala, and CSTP. The document provides the questions along with the correct answers marked in bold for each multiple choice question.
This document contains a quiz with 50 multiple choice questions covering topics related to English education, including theories of language acquisition, curriculum development, assessment, and teaching methodologies. The questions are grouped into sections for different semesters and cover content like Gardner's multiple intelligences theory, Chomsky's LAD, Bloom's taxonomy, curriculum frameworks, blended learning, diagnostic testing, and TESOL qualifications.
This document contains a 100 question multiple choice quiz on general science. The questions cover topics related to agriculture, biology, chemistry, and physics. They assess knowledge that would be applicable to competitive civil service exams in India, which typically include 5-7% questions on general science. The quiz is provided by RasExam.com as a practice resource for exam preparation.
This document contains 110 multiple choice questions related to English language and literature. The questions cover topics like grammar, vocabulary, famous authors and their works, important historical figures and events from Pakistan and world history. The questions are divided into 8 sections and were composed by Seetal Daas with their email provided.
This document discusses needs analysis and diagnostic testing for an English language teaching course. It provides guidance on collecting needs analysis data through various methods like interviews and questionnaires. It also discusses different diagnostic testing techniques like formal and informal testing as well as objective and subjective tests. Students are advised to consider different forms of diagnostic testing for their assignment, including their rationale for choosing certain tests and limitations. Key questions are provided to guide students in analyzing the needs of their specialist group and identifying language areas to focus on based on diagnostic test results.
Previous Years Solved Question Papers for Staff Selection Commission (SSC)…SmartPrep Education
Here is the Previous Years Solved Staff Selection Commission (SSC) LDC DEO Exam Paper. Visit SmartPrep for information on Test Prep courses for Undergraduates
The document provides guidelines for designing tests. It discusses important considerations when writing a test such as determining the purpose and scope of the test. It also covers different types of test items like multiple choice questions, matching, true/false, and open questions. For each type of item, it provides examples and discusses what skills the items can be used to test. The document emphasizes writing clear, unambiguous questions and avoiding clues that make the correct answer obvious without real knowledge of the subject matter.
Unit 1.the saviour of mankind mcqs By Musarrat KhanMusarrat Khan
The document appears to be a quiz on a lesson about the life and teachings of the Prophet Muhammad (SAW). It contains 25 multiple choice questions testing comprehension of details from the lesson, such as locations significant to early Islam like Mecca and Medina, key figures like Gabriel who conveyed messages to Muhammad, and concepts like what time period humanity was on the verge of chaos. The questions cover a range of parts of speech, spelling, and other English language topics.
This document discusses testing grammar and vocabulary in language assessments. It begins by outlining reasons for testing grammar, including that grammatical ability limits other skills and it helps diagnose gaps for teachers and learners. It then provides examples of different item types for testing grammar, including gap filling, paraphrase, completion, and multiple choice. Scoring considerations for production-based grammar tests are mentioned. The document also discusses testing vocabulary and provides examples of item types, such as recognizing synonyms, definitions, and filling gaps. Pictures and definitions are provided as examples for production-based vocabulary testing.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions related to the topic of curriculum and resources in the digital era for English education. It provides the questions, possible answer choices for each question, and indicates the correct answers in bold text. The questions cover topics such as the definition of curriculum, aims of curriculum, the National Curriculum Framework, characteristics of formal learning, inclusive education, learning disabilities, uses of technology like hypertext and podcasts, and approaches to language teaching. It was submitted by Anoop Abraham for a class on this subject taught by Mr. E.K. Jijan.
This document contains a multiple choice quiz on psychology with 59 questions spanning topics like the history and definitions of psychology, various psychological perspectives like behaviorism and humanism, research methods, biological bases of behavior, learning, memory, intelligence testing, and human development. The questions cover foundational concepts in these areas of psychology and are designed to test understanding of key terms and ideas.
Iqbal Series English for Class 7th (solved)Seetal Daas
Miss Farida runs an unusual school that teaches students to be thoughtful, kind, and responsible citizens. Each term, every student must participate in simulated experiences of being blind, deaf, lame, injured or mute to understand what hardship feels like. The writer was impressed by the school's approach and what they learned about recognizing others' misfortunes. When leaving, Miss Farida seemed pleased that her teaching method was effective.
The document contains 10 questions about time and work problems from bank exams. Each question provides information about how long it takes different individuals or groups of individuals to complete a task. The questions then ask how long it would take a single individual or group to complete the task based on the information given. For example, question 1 states that machines A and B together can produce 300,000 meters of cloth in a certain number of hours, and asks how much cloth machine A can produce alone in 10 hours.
This document discusses different methods for testing vocabulary. It begins by defining vocabulary as the body of words used in a particular language and explores why vocabulary should be tested, such as for feedback and motivation. The document then examines different formats for testing vocabulary recognition, such as multiple choice, matching, and gap filling questions. It also looks at formats for testing vocabulary production, like transformation and table completion items. The document concludes that vocabulary is complex and individuals may know words in different ways based on their various associations and connections to the word.
This document contains 7 multiple choice questions about infectious diseases:
1. The questions ask about tests used to diagnose leprosy, with the correct answer being that the Lepromin test is not useful.
2. Another question asks about the most probable diagnosis for a gradually progressive plaque on the buttock, with the answer being borderline leprosy.
3. A further question asks about what is recognized in tissue for Aspergillosis, with the answer being septate hyphae.
The document contains 90 multiple choice questions about biology. The questions cover topics like cell biology, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, plants, fungi, bacteria and viruses. For each question there are 4 answer options and the correct answers are provided after every 10 questions. The questions test fundamental knowledge of biological concepts and terms.
The document discusses analytical and logical reasoning questions that may appear on the NTS common wealth scholarship test. It provides an example of each type of question to help students prepare. The analytical section makes up 40% of the test and contains questions that require logical thinking to determine relationships between different elements. An example analytical reasoning question is presented without the answer to allow students to attempt it on their own. The author encourages practicing these types of questions to sharpen analytical skills for the test.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about pedagogical content knowledge, educational concepts, and teaching methods. The questions cover topics like components of a unit plan, types of reading, teaching skills, the origins of microteaching, instructional tools like flashcards and models, and the definitions of terms like documentary films and slogans. The answers to each multiple choice question are provided in bold.
The document is a sample test for the GAT exam, containing 3 sections - verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and reading comprehension. The verbal reasoning section contains analogies, antonyms, and sentence completion questions. The quantitative reasoning section contains math word problems related to percentages, ratios, time/work concepts. The reading comprehension section contains a passage about the expansion and growth of the English language internationally, followed by questions about details and inferences from the passage.
1. The document provides a series of multiple choice questions covering various topics including grammar, math, science, and history.
2. Question topics include sentence structure, data analysis, the scientific method, historical figures, and more. Multiple answer options are provided for each question.
3. The questions are designed to test general knowledge and assess understanding of core subject areas for students or as part of an educational exam.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about emerging trends and practices in English language education. The questions cover topics like collaborative learning, cooperative learning, connectivism learning theory, MOOCs, self and peer assessment, CCE, standardized tests, objective type questions, assessment portfolios, blended learning, the ADDIE instructional design model, eXe learning, learning objects, assessment rubrics, remedial teaching, teaching standards, TQM, e-PG Pathshala, and CSTP. The document provides the questions along with the correct answers marked in bold for each multiple choice question.
This document contains a quiz with 50 multiple choice questions covering topics related to English education, including theories of language acquisition, curriculum development, assessment, and teaching methodologies. The questions are grouped into sections for different semesters and cover content like Gardner's multiple intelligences theory, Chomsky's LAD, Bloom's taxonomy, curriculum frameworks, blended learning, diagnostic testing, and TESOL qualifications.
This document contains a 100 question multiple choice quiz on general science. The questions cover topics related to agriculture, biology, chemistry, and physics. They assess knowledge that would be applicable to competitive civil service exams in India, which typically include 5-7% questions on general science. The quiz is provided by RasExam.com as a practice resource for exam preparation.
This document contains 110 multiple choice questions related to English language and literature. The questions cover topics like grammar, vocabulary, famous authors and their works, important historical figures and events from Pakistan and world history. The questions are divided into 8 sections and were composed by Seetal Daas with their email provided.
This document discusses needs analysis and diagnostic testing for an English language teaching course. It provides guidance on collecting needs analysis data through various methods like interviews and questionnaires. It also discusses different diagnostic testing techniques like formal and informal testing as well as objective and subjective tests. Students are advised to consider different forms of diagnostic testing for their assignment, including their rationale for choosing certain tests and limitations. Key questions are provided to guide students in analyzing the needs of their specialist group and identifying language areas to focus on based on diagnostic test results.
Previous Years Solved Question Papers for Staff Selection Commission (SSC)…SmartPrep Education
Here is the Previous Years Solved Staff Selection Commission (SSC) LDC DEO Exam Paper. Visit SmartPrep for information on Test Prep courses for Undergraduates
The document provides guidelines for designing tests. It discusses important considerations when writing a test such as determining the purpose and scope of the test. It also covers different types of test items like multiple choice questions, matching, true/false, and open questions. For each type of item, it provides examples and discusses what skills the items can be used to test. The document emphasizes writing clear, unambiguous questions and avoiding clues that make the correct answer obvious without real knowledge of the subject matter.
Unit 1.the saviour of mankind mcqs By Musarrat KhanMusarrat Khan
The document appears to be a quiz on a lesson about the life and teachings of the Prophet Muhammad (SAW). It contains 25 multiple choice questions testing comprehension of details from the lesson, such as locations significant to early Islam like Mecca and Medina, key figures like Gabriel who conveyed messages to Muhammad, and concepts like what time period humanity was on the verge of chaos. The questions cover a range of parts of speech, spelling, and other English language topics.
This document discusses testing grammar and vocabulary in language assessments. It begins by outlining reasons for testing grammar, including that grammatical ability limits other skills and it helps diagnose gaps for teachers and learners. It then provides examples of different item types for testing grammar, including gap filling, paraphrase, completion, and multiple choice. Scoring considerations for production-based grammar tests are mentioned. The document also discusses testing vocabulary and provides examples of item types, such as recognizing synonyms, definitions, and filling gaps. Pictures and definitions are provided as examples for production-based vocabulary testing.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions related to the topic of curriculum and resources in the digital era for English education. It provides the questions, possible answer choices for each question, and indicates the correct answers in bold text. The questions cover topics such as the definition of curriculum, aims of curriculum, the National Curriculum Framework, characteristics of formal learning, inclusive education, learning disabilities, uses of technology like hypertext and podcasts, and approaches to language teaching. It was submitted by Anoop Abraham for a class on this subject taught by Mr. E.K. Jijan.
This document contains a multiple choice quiz on psychology with 59 questions spanning topics like the history and definitions of psychology, various psychological perspectives like behaviorism and humanism, research methods, biological bases of behavior, learning, memory, intelligence testing, and human development. The questions cover foundational concepts in these areas of psychology and are designed to test understanding of key terms and ideas.
Iqbal Series English for Class 7th (solved)Seetal Daas
Miss Farida runs an unusual school that teaches students to be thoughtful, kind, and responsible citizens. Each term, every student must participate in simulated experiences of being blind, deaf, lame, injured or mute to understand what hardship feels like. The writer was impressed by the school's approach and what they learned about recognizing others' misfortunes. When leaving, Miss Farida seemed pleased that her teaching method was effective.
The document contains 10 questions about time and work problems from bank exams. Each question provides information about how long it takes different individuals or groups of individuals to complete a task. The questions then ask how long it would take a single individual or group to complete the task based on the information given. For example, question 1 states that machines A and B together can produce 300,000 meters of cloth in a certain number of hours, and asks how much cloth machine A can produce alone in 10 hours.
This document discusses different methods for testing vocabulary. It begins by defining vocabulary as the body of words used in a particular language and explores why vocabulary should be tested, such as for feedback and motivation. The document then examines different formats for testing vocabulary recognition, such as multiple choice, matching, and gap filling questions. It also looks at formats for testing vocabulary production, like transformation and table completion items. The document concludes that vocabulary is complex and individuals may know words in different ways based on their various associations and connections to the word.
This document contains 7 multiple choice questions about infectious diseases:
1. The questions ask about tests used to diagnose leprosy, with the correct answer being that the Lepromin test is not useful.
2. Another question asks about the most probable diagnosis for a gradually progressive plaque on the buttock, with the answer being borderline leprosy.
3. A further question asks about what is recognized in tissue for Aspergillosis, with the answer being septate hyphae.
The document contains 90 multiple choice questions about biology. The questions cover topics like cell biology, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, plants, fungi, bacteria and viruses. For each question there are 4 answer options and the correct answers are provided after every 10 questions. The questions test fundamental knowledge of biological concepts and terms.
The document discusses analytical and logical reasoning questions that may appear on the NTS common wealth scholarship test. It provides an example of each type of question to help students prepare. The analytical section makes up 40% of the test and contains questions that require logical thinking to determine relationships between different elements. An example analytical reasoning question is presented without the answer to allow students to attempt it on their own. The author encourages practicing these types of questions to sharpen analytical skills for the test.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about pedagogical content knowledge, educational concepts, and teaching methods. The questions cover topics like components of a unit plan, types of reading, teaching skills, the origins of microteaching, instructional tools like flashcards and models, and the definitions of terms like documentary films and slogans. The answers to each multiple choice question are provided in bold.
The document is a sample test for the GAT exam, containing 3 sections - verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and reading comprehension. The verbal reasoning section contains analogies, antonyms, and sentence completion questions. The quantitative reasoning section contains math word problems related to percentages, ratios, time/work concepts. The reading comprehension section contains a passage about the expansion and growth of the English language internationally, followed by questions about details and inferences from the passage.
1. The document provides a series of multiple choice questions covering various topics including grammar, math, science, and history.
2. Question topics include sentence structure, data analysis, the scientific method, historical figures, and more. Multiple answer options are provided for each question.
3. The questions are designed to test general knowledge and assess understanding of core subject areas for students or as part of an educational exam.
This document contains 53 multiple choice questions covering a wide range of topics including mathematics, English grammar, science, and current events. The questions are designed to test knowledge across different subject areas for educational assessment purposes.
let reviewer and for college students.docxxeinyenmoon
The document appears to be a practice test for a general education exam covering various subjects including English literature, grammar, and other topics. It consists of 39 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of literary works and authors, parts of speech, definitions of words, and other concepts. The questions cover subjects like English writers, quotations, parts of speech, examinations, Macbeth, reading levels, architecture, and more.
This document contains a summary of a 46 question general education exam covering topics like grammar, literature, math, science, and Filipino. The questions test understanding of concepts like parts of speech, figures of literature, slope of a line, chemical processes, and translations between Filipino and English. The summary is limited to 3 sentences as requested.
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This document contains a practice test with 71 multiple choice questions covering various subjects like mathematics, science, English, and Philippine history. The questions test concepts like ratios, percentages, scientific processes, grammar rules, literary devices, and events in Philippine history. The correct answers to each question are also provided as multiple choice options A-D.
ACET Practice Test 1 ACET Practice Test BookletDarian Pruitt
The document provides testing guidelines and instructions for a practice ACET exam. It states that the test will take various amounts of time to complete across 8 sections, and test-takers must work on only one section at a time without returning to previous sections. Test-takers should use a no. 2 pencil and may use the test booklet for scratch work. Answers will be scored as 1 point for correct or 0 points for omitted or incorrect answers.
This document contains 150 questions with answers that are part of a General Education review for the LET exam. It provides sample questions on various subjects that cover topics like science, English, math, Filipino and others. The questions are multiple choice format with 4 possible answers for each question. The document encourages test takers to visit the website teachpinas.com for more free LET reviewers to help prepare for the licensure exam.
The document provides instructions for examinees taking a general education and professional education exam. It instructs examinees to first complete the general education section and submit their answer sheet before retaining the test booklet and moving on to the professional education section. The general education section contains multiple choice questions on various subjects, including English, Filipino, mathematics, science and history.
The passage discusses the views of many climate change scientists regarding cities. Specifically, it states that most climate change scientists are of the opinion that cities are usually hotter than their surroundings. This causes updrafts of air over cities, which leads to cloud formation. So in summary, many scientists believe that the temperature difference between cities and their surroundings causes air currents that result in cloud formation.
The document appears to be a collection of multiple choice questions covering various topics including: science, English, mathematics, history and more. It tests knowledge in areas like scientific reasoning, literary devices, probability, biology, geography, social studies concepts and others. The questions have between 4 and 5 possible answer choices to select from to demonstrate understanding of the concepts being assessed.
The document appears to be a collection of multiple choice questions covering various topics including: science, English, mathematics, history and more. It tests knowledge in areas like scientific reasoning, literary devices, probability, biology, geography, social studies concepts and others. The questions have between 4 and 5 possible answer choices to select from to demonstrate understanding of the concepts being assessed.
This document provides instructions for a 150-item general education test. It outlines the time limit, how to fill out the answer sheet, and directions not to erase or shade multiple answers for each question. It also notes that unauthorized reproduction of the test is illegal. The test contains multiple choice questions testing subjects like language, science, history and culture.
This document contains 36 multiple choice questions assessing comprehension of passages and identifying grammatical errors. It covers topics such as literary works, scientific concepts, and language usage. The questions require analyzing details in texts and choosing the best answer from the options provided.
This document contains a quiz with 74 multiple choice questions covering various subjects including science, math, English, and Philippine history and culture. The questions test knowledge of concepts like scientific processes, parts of speech, geometric shapes, elections processes, and more. Correct answers are identified by letters A through D.
This document contains a quiz with 74 multiple choice questions covering various subjects including science, math, English, and Philippine history and culture. The questions test knowledge of concepts like scientific processes, parts of speech, geometric shapes, human rights, and more. Correct answers are identified by letters A through D.
This document contains a sample test with 71 multiple choice questions covering various subjects like math, English, science and Philippine history. The questions test concepts like percentages, measurements, grammar, ecosystems and government systems. The test is designed to measure general knowledge and understanding across different topic areas.
- Rabies can be prevented by vaccinating dogs against rabies, keeping dogs tied up at all times, or keeping dogs in cages.
- A father was misunderstood by his teenage son because the father imposed his own values on courting and marriage.
- Watching TV is controlled for children under 18, who are discouraged from viewing films containing violence and sex.
- Rabies can be prevented by vaccinating dogs against rabies, keeping dogs tied up at all times, or keeping dogs in cages.
- A father was misunderstood by his teenage son because the father imposed his own values on courting and marriage.
- Watching TV is controlled for children under 18, who are discouraged from viewing films containing violence and sex.
Null Bangalore | Pentesters Approach to AWS IAMDivyanshu
#Abstract:
- Learn more about the real-world methods for auditing AWS IAM (Identity and Access Management) as a pentester. So let us proceed with a brief discussion of IAM as well as some typical misconfigurations and their potential exploits in order to reinforce the understanding of IAM security best practices.
- Gain actionable insights into AWS IAM policies and roles, using hands on approach.
#Prerequisites:
- Basic understanding of AWS services and architecture
- Familiarity with cloud security concepts
- Experience using the AWS Management Console or AWS CLI.
- For hands on lab create account on [killercoda.com](https://killercoda.com/cloudsecurity-scenario/)
# Scenario Covered:
- Basics of IAM in AWS
- Implementing IAM Policies with Least Privilege to Manage S3 Bucket
- Objective: Create an S3 bucket with least privilege IAM policy and validate access.
- Steps:
- Create S3 bucket.
- Attach least privilege policy to IAM user.
- Validate access.
- Exploiting IAM PassRole Misconfiguration
-Allows a user to pass a specific IAM role to an AWS service (ec2), typically used for service access delegation. Then exploit PassRole Misconfiguration granting unauthorized access to sensitive resources.
- Objective: Demonstrate how a PassRole misconfiguration can grant unauthorized access.
- Steps:
- Allow user to pass IAM role to EC2.
- Exploit misconfiguration for unauthorized access.
- Access sensitive resources.
- Exploiting IAM AssumeRole Misconfiguration with Overly Permissive Role
- An overly permissive IAM role configuration can lead to privilege escalation by creating a role with administrative privileges and allow a user to assume this role.
- Objective: Show how overly permissive IAM roles can lead to privilege escalation.
- Steps:
- Create role with administrative privileges.
- Allow user to assume the role.
- Perform administrative actions.
- Differentiation between PassRole vs AssumeRole
Try at [killercoda.com](https://killercoda.com/cloudsecurity-scenario/)
Applications of artificial Intelligence in Mechanical Engineering.pdfAtif Razi
Historically, mechanical engineering has relied heavily on human expertise and empirical methods to solve complex problems. With the introduction of computer-aided design (CAD) and finite element analysis (FEA), the field took its first steps towards digitization. These tools allowed engineers to simulate and analyze mechanical systems with greater accuracy and efficiency. However, the sheer volume of data generated by modern engineering systems and the increasing complexity of these systems have necessitated more advanced analytical tools, paving the way for AI.
AI offers the capability to process vast amounts of data, identify patterns, and make predictions with a level of speed and accuracy unattainable by traditional methods. This has profound implications for mechanical engineering, enabling more efficient design processes, predictive maintenance strategies, and optimized manufacturing operations. AI-driven tools can learn from historical data, adapt to new information, and continuously improve their performance, making them invaluable in tackling the multifaceted challenges of modern mechanical engineering.
VARIABLE FREQUENCY DRIVE. VFDs are widely used in industrial applications for...PIMR BHOPAL
Variable frequency drive .A Variable Frequency Drive (VFD) is an electronic device used to control the speed and torque of an electric motor by varying the frequency and voltage of its power supply. VFDs are widely used in industrial applications for motor control, providing significant energy savings and precise motor operation.
Generative AI Use cases applications solutions and implementation.pdfmahaffeycheryld
Generative AI solutions encompass a range of capabilities from content creation to complex problem-solving across industries. Implementing generative AI involves identifying specific business needs, developing tailored AI models using techniques like GANs and VAEs, and integrating these models into existing workflows. Data quality and continuous model refinement are crucial for effective implementation. Businesses must also consider ethical implications and ensure transparency in AI decision-making. Generative AI's implementation aims to enhance efficiency, creativity, and innovation by leveraging autonomous generation and sophisticated learning algorithms to meet diverse business challenges.
https://www.leewayhertz.com/generative-ai-use-cases-and-applications/
Rainfall intensity duration frequency curve statistical analysis and modeling...bijceesjournal
Using data from 41 years in Patna’ India’ the study’s goal is to analyze the trends of how often it rains on a weekly, seasonal, and annual basis (1981−2020). First, utilizing the intensity-duration-frequency (IDF) curve and the relationship by statistically analyzing rainfall’ the historical rainfall data set for Patna’ India’ during a 41 year period (1981−2020), was evaluated for its quality. Changes in the hydrologic cycle as a result of increased greenhouse gas emissions are expected to induce variations in the intensity, length, and frequency of precipitation events. One strategy to lessen vulnerability is to quantify probable changes and adapt to them. Techniques such as log-normal, normal, and Gumbel are used (EV-I). Distributions were created with durations of 1, 2, 3, 6, and 24 h and return times of 2, 5, 10, 25, and 100 years. There were also mathematical correlations discovered between rainfall and recurrence interval.
Findings: Based on findings, the Gumbel approach produced the highest intensity values, whereas the other approaches produced values that were close to each other. The data indicates that 461.9 mm of rain fell during the monsoon season’s 301st week. However, it was found that the 29th week had the greatest average rainfall, 92.6 mm. With 952.6 mm on average, the monsoon season saw the highest rainfall. Calculations revealed that the yearly rainfall averaged 1171.1 mm. Using Weibull’s method, the study was subsequently expanded to examine rainfall distribution at different recurrence intervals of 2, 5, 10, and 25 years. Rainfall and recurrence interval mathematical correlations were also developed. Further regression analysis revealed that short wave irrigation, wind direction, wind speed, pressure, relative humidity, and temperature all had a substantial influence on rainfall.
Originality and value: The results of the rainfall IDF curves can provide useful information to policymakers in making appropriate decisions in managing and minimizing floods in the study area.
Use PyCharm for remote debugging of WSL on a Windo cf5c162d672e4e58b4dde5d797...shadow0702a
This document serves as a comprehensive step-by-step guide on how to effectively use PyCharm for remote debugging of the Windows Subsystem for Linux (WSL) on a local Windows machine. It meticulously outlines several critical steps in the process, starting with the crucial task of enabling permissions, followed by the installation and configuration of WSL.
The guide then proceeds to explain how to set up the SSH service within the WSL environment, an integral part of the process. Alongside this, it also provides detailed instructions on how to modify the inbound rules of the Windows firewall to facilitate the process, ensuring that there are no connectivity issues that could potentially hinder the debugging process.
The document further emphasizes on the importance of checking the connection between the Windows and WSL environments, providing instructions on how to ensure that the connection is optimal and ready for remote debugging.
It also offers an in-depth guide on how to configure the WSL interpreter and files within the PyCharm environment. This is essential for ensuring that the debugging process is set up correctly and that the program can be run effectively within the WSL terminal.
Additionally, the document provides guidance on how to set up breakpoints for debugging, a fundamental aspect of the debugging process which allows the developer to stop the execution of their code at certain points and inspect their program at those stages.
Finally, the document concludes by providing a link to a reference blog. This blog offers additional information and guidance on configuring the remote Python interpreter in PyCharm, providing the reader with a well-rounded understanding of the process.
Redefining brain tumor segmentation: a cutting-edge convolutional neural netw...IJECEIAES
Medical image analysis has witnessed significant advancements with deep learning techniques. In the domain of brain tumor segmentation, the ability to
precisely delineate tumor boundaries from magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
scans holds profound implications for diagnosis. This study presents an ensemble convolutional neural network (CNN) with transfer learning, integrating
the state-of-the-art Deeplabv3+ architecture with the ResNet18 backbone. The
model is rigorously trained and evaluated, exhibiting remarkable performance
metrics, including an impressive global accuracy of 99.286%, a high-class accuracy of 82.191%, a mean intersection over union (IoU) of 79.900%, a weighted
IoU of 98.620%, and a Boundary F1 (BF) score of 83.303%. Notably, a detailed comparative analysis with existing methods showcases the superiority of
our proposed model. These findings underscore the model’s competence in precise brain tumor localization, underscoring its potential to revolutionize medical
image analysis and enhance healthcare outcomes. This research paves the way
for future exploration and optimization of advanced CNN models in medical
imaging, emphasizing addressing false positives and resource efficiency.
Gas agency management system project report.pdfKamal Acharya
The project entitled "Gas Agency" is done to make the manual process easier by making it a computerized system for billing and maintaining stock. The Gas Agencies get the order request through phone calls or by personal from their customers and deliver the gas cylinders to their address based on their demand and previous delivery date. This process is made computerized and the customer's name, address and stock details are stored in a database. Based on this the billing for a customer is made simple and easier, since a customer order for gas can be accepted only after completing a certain period from the previous delivery. This can be calculated and billed easily through this. There are two types of delivery like domestic purpose use delivery and commercial purpose use delivery. The bill rate and capacity differs for both. This can be easily maintained and charged accordingly.
Embedded machine learning-based road conditions and driving behavior monitoringIJECEIAES
Car accident rates have increased in recent years, resulting in losses in human lives, properties, and other financial costs. An embedded machine learning-based system is developed to address this critical issue. The system can monitor road conditions, detect driving patterns, and identify aggressive driving behaviors. The system is based on neural networks trained on a comprehensive dataset of driving events, driving styles, and road conditions. The system effectively detects potential risks and helps mitigate the frequency and impact of accidents. The primary goal is to ensure the safety of drivers and vehicles. Collecting data involved gathering information on three key road events: normal street and normal drive, speed bumps, circular yellow speed bumps, and three aggressive driving actions: sudden start, sudden stop, and sudden entry. The gathered data is processed and analyzed using a machine learning system designed for limited power and memory devices. The developed system resulted in 91.9% accuracy, 93.6% precision, and 92% recall. The achieved inference time on an Arduino Nano 33 BLE Sense with a 32-bit CPU running at 64 MHz is 34 ms and requires 2.6 kB peak RAM and 139.9 kB program flash memory, making it suitable for resource-constrained embedded systems.
Comparative analysis between traditional aquaponics and reconstructed aquapon...bijceesjournal
The aquaponic system of planting is a method that does not require soil usage. It is a method that only needs water, fish, lava rocks (a substitute for soil), and plants. Aquaponic systems are sustainable and environmentally friendly. Its use not only helps to plant in small spaces but also helps reduce artificial chemical use and minimizes excess water use, as aquaponics consumes 90% less water than soil-based gardening. The study applied a descriptive and experimental design to assess and compare conventional and reconstructed aquaponic methods for reproducing tomatoes. The researchers created an observation checklist to determine the significant factors of the study. The study aims to determine the significant difference between traditional aquaponics and reconstructed aquaponics systems propagating tomatoes in terms of height, weight, girth, and number of fruits. The reconstructed aquaponics system’s higher growth yield results in a much more nourished crop than the traditional aquaponics system. It is superior in its number of fruits, height, weight, and girth measurement. Moreover, the reconstructed aquaponics system is proven to eliminate all the hindrances present in the traditional aquaponics system, which are overcrowding of fish, algae growth, pest problems, contaminated water, and dead fish.
IEEE Aerospace and Electronic Systems Society as a Graduate Student Member
Nts gat general past papers (1)
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GAT General Past Paper Sample Test 02
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Section 1 Verbal Reasoning
Analogies
1. MISER : STINGY
A. Porter : strong
B. Sage : docile
C. Loner : solitary
D. Rebel : idle
E. Friend : snide
2. AQUEDUCT : WATER
A. Capillary : saliva
B. Esophagus : breath
C. Tanker : fluids
D. Artery : blood
E. Corridor : aircraft
3. ENZYME : CATALYST
A. Vaccine : allergy
B. Gland : muscle
C. Neuron : corpuscle
D. Bacterium : microbe
E. Vein : organ
Directions: You are given following questions from the topic, with four choices A through E. Select
the choice that will answer the question best.
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4. LIEN : CLAIM
A. Brief : investigation
B. Foreclosure : pleading
C. Subpoena : command
D. Mortgage : interest
E. Garnishment : presumption
6. QUIXOTIC : IDEALISTIC
A. Churlish : polite
B. Disinterested : impartial
C. Central : random
D. Whimsical : toady
E. Touchy : sensitive
7. PREEMPT : PRECEDENCE
A. Dissemble : diplomacy
B. Preside : arbitration
C. Divest : implication
D. Superintend : culpability
5. VERBOSITY : WORDS
A. Harmoniousness : relationships
B. Interrogation : answers
C. Condemnation : acts
D. Floridness : embellishments
E. Supposition : proposals
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E. Acquire : possession
9. EXACERBATE:
A) Ascetic B) Inert
C) Inane D) Soothe
E) Bronze
10 EQUILIBRIUM:
A) Eclipse B) Tranquilizer
C) Membrane D) Imbalance
E) Overseer
11 OBSOLETE:
A) Homogeneous B) Modern
C) Astute D) Paramount
E) Hesitant
12 INDETERMINATE:
A) Neutral B) Conclusive
C) Astonished D) Suitable
E) Extravagant
13 BIZARRE:
A) Fair B) Lottery
C) Muddled D) Lull to sleep
8. FRAGILE : BREAK
A. invisible : see
B. noxious : escape
C. erratic : control
D. industrial : manufacture
E. flammable : burn
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E) Ordinary
15 STRIKING:
A) Inconspicuous B) Saccharine
C) Arboreal D) Symmetric
E) Straight
16 SYBARITE:
A) Childless B) Vascular
C) Ascetic D) Imposter
E) Veteran
Sentence Completion
17. Thestereotypicalimageofmasculinityassumesthatweepingis ”unmanly”behaviour,andnot
simply a human reaction which may be by either sex.
A. Inexplicably.. repented B. Excessively…discerned
C. Essentially…defined D. Inherently…adopted
E. Intentionally…exaggerated
18. We need more men and women of culture and enlightenment in our society; we have too many
among us.
A. Pedants B. Philistines
C. Ascetics D. Paragons
E. Apologists
19. There was a hint of carelessness about her appearance, as though the cut of her blouse or the fit of
her slacks was a matter of to her.
14 DOUR:
A) Portal B) Cheerful
C) Ludicrous D) Callous
E) Spotted
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20. Many educators argue that a grouping of students would improve instruction because it
would limit the range of student abilities in the classroom.
A. heterogeneous B. Systematic
C. homogeneous D. Sporadic
E. Fragmentary
21. As news of his indictment spread through the town, the citizensbegan to him and to avoid
meeting him.
A. ostracize B. Congratulate
C. desecrate D. Minimize
E. Harass
22. Afteryearsoftalkingdowntohisstudentsasiftheycouldn’tunderstandaword,theteacherfinally
acknowledged that his attitude was .
A. colloquial B. condescending
C. professorial D. Justifiable
E. Logical
23. There are to many and not enough serious workers.
A. sycophants B. Kleptomaniacs
C. novices D. dilettantes
E. Zealots
24. Unlike W.E.B. Dubois, who was of the vocational emphasis in black eduction, Booker
T.Washington favored the limited funds available for educating blacks to programsthat
prepared people for practical jobs.
A. satisfaction B. Aesthetics
C. indifference D. Significance
E. Controversy
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English Error Correction
25 A good diet and scientific training practices allow modern runners to compete in super marathons
without ruining their health. No error
A B C D E
26 Subhan Shah experimented with all of her native Indian recipes, occasionally substituting spices
and she would adapt her dishes for American tastes. No error
A B C D E
27 It is a common belief that going to college and taking up-to-date courses that teaches computer
languages can improve astudent’schancesofgettingboth a good job and a high salary. No error
A B C D E
28 During the early days of football, before the development of the modern pointed football, almost
the only long passes attempted were those that are desperately thrown as time expired. No error
A B C D E
29 Rather than stressing the fact on which the case should be decided, the district attorney falls back
on innuendo, endless delays and he asks trick questions. No error
A B C D E
30 Kamran and Mahrukh planned on becoming a singer, even though the training would be
exceptionally difficult. No error
A B C D E
A. Critical…restricting B. Aware….confining
C. Suspicious….denying D. Protective….allotting
E. Appreciative….allocating
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Reading Comprehension
Passage
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language
of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated
many elements of France that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English
was for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as fat as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland.
However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of
exploration, trade (including slave trade). Colonization and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English
speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English
gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English Two
_thirds of the world’s science writing is in English is the main language of technology advertising media ,
international airports, and air traffic controllers, today there are more than 700 million English users in the
world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users than
any other language in the world.
Questions
33. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English B. The French influence on the English
language
C. The expansion of English as an international
language
D. The use of English for science and
technology.
34. theword“emerged”inline2couldbestbereplacedbywhichofthefollowing
31 Doctors have frequently noted a relationship between overweight plus hardening of the arteries.
No error
A B C D E
32 The best manufactured dresses, although not as prestigious as designer clothing, is almost its equal
in elegance and flair. No error
A B C D E
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A. Appeared B. Hailed
C. Frequented D. Engaged
35. asusedinline3,theword“elements”ismostsimilartowhichofthefollowing
A. Declaration B. Features
C. Curiosities D. Customs
36. Theword“extended”asusedinline4ismoresimilartowhichofthefollowing?
A. Experienced B. Conferred
C. Spread D. Stretched
37. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. In 1066 B. Around 1350
C. Before 1600 D. After 1600
38. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world
EXCEPT
A. The slave trade B. The Norman invasion
C. Missionaries D. Colonization
39. Asusedinline5,whichofthefollowingisclosestinmeaningtotheword”course”?
A. Subject B. Policy
C. Time D. Track
40. Theword“enclaves”inline8isclosestinmeaningtowhichofthefollowing?
A. Communities B. Organization
C. Regions D. Countries
Section 2 Quantitative Reasoning
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42.
The average age of a class of 40 students is 12 years. If the teacher age is also included, the average
age increases by one year. The teacher’s age is:
(a) 41 years (b) 52 years (c) 53 years (d) 54 years
43.
A can do a piece of work in 12 days. Alongwith B, he can do the work in 8 days. B alone can finish the
work in............. days:
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 24
44.
Zahid sells a watch to Abrar at a gain. Of 10% and Abrar sells it to Suhail at a gain of 5%. If Suhail has
to pay Rs. 462 for it, the cost price of the watch for Zahid is:
(a) Rs. 300 (b) Rs. 400 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 600
45.
Thebanker’sdiscountonRs.600foracertaintimeatacertainrateisRs.120.Thebanker’sgainthen
is:
(a) Rs. 6 (b) Rs. 5 (c) Rs. 7.20 (d) Rs. 20
46.
A class of students obtained an average of 45 marks, on re-checking it was found that marks had
been entered wrongly in two cases. After correction these marks were increased by 24 and 36. The
corrected average marks per student are:
(a) 47 (b) 56 (c) 60 (d) 75
47.
Rashid purchased a plot for Rs. 8,000. He sells the plot to Shahid at a profit of 20 percent. Shahid in
turn sells that plot to Shami at a loss of 20 percent. The plot cost Shami is:
41.
Khalid loses 1/3rd of his money in the first game, 3.5ths of the remainder in the second and 4/7ths of
the rest in the third. Thus he is left with ........... ths of his money:
(a) 4/15 (b) 4/35 (c) 14/35 (d) 24/35
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(a) Rs. 7,680 (b) Rs. 8,000 (c) Rs. 8,333,33 (d) Rs. 12,000
48.
A camera was sold at a loss of 10 percent. If it was sold for Rs. 70 more, there could have been a gain
or four percent. The camera was sold for:
(a) Rs. 214 (b) Rs. 294 (c) Rs. 450 (d) Rs. 500
49.
Rahim can do certain work in 30 hours. If he and his son work together, the time taken is 20 hours.
The son working in the same capacity as when he was working with his father, can finishing the work
in:
(a) 10 hours (b) 25 hours (c) 50 hours (d) 60 hours
50.
A man buys a scooter for Rs. 7,000 an sells it for Rs. 11,500. The percentage profit is nearly . . . . . . . .
percent:
(a) 54 (b) 58 (c) 64.3 (d) 70.6
51.
Flowers in a basket double themselves after every minute. In an hour the basket is full. The basket
would be half full after:
(a) 30 min (b) 45 min (c) 58 min (d) 59 min
52.
Asif and Zahid enter into a partnership. Asif contributes Rs. 4,000 for eight months and Zahid Rs.
6,000 for four months. Asif’s share in a total profit of Rs. 3,500:
(a) Rs. 1,500 (b) Rs. 1,750 (c) Rs. 2,000 (d) Rs. 2,500
53.
The true discount on Rs. 880 at 5 percent per annum is Rs. 80. The sum is due after:
(a) 1 year (b) 1 – ½ years (c) 2 years (d) 4 years
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55.
A dealer marks his goods 20 percent above his cost price. If he gives a discount of 10 percent on his
marked price, the profit he earns on his goods:
(a) 7.5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
56.
Rs. 2,500 invested at four percent per annum simple interest will amount to Rs. 3,000 in:
(a) 2.5 years (b) 3 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
57.
A dealer sold a shirt at a porfit of 15 percent. Had he sold it for Rs. 4 more, his profit would have
increased by 5 percent. The cost price of the shirt was:
(a) Rs. 60 (b) Rs. 80 (c) Rs. 75 (d) Rs. 135
58.
A student loses a mark for every wrong answer and scores 2 marks for every correct answer. If the
answers all the 60 questions in an exam. and secure 39 marks, how many of them were correct?
(a) 27 (b) 31 (c) 33 (d) 37
59.
The simple interest on a certain sum for eight months at four percent simple interest is Rs. 129 less
than the simple interest on the same sum for 15 months at five percent. The sum is:
(a) Rs. 2,400 (b) Rs. 2,529 (c) Rs. 2,580 (d) Rs. 3,600
60.
A sum of Rs. 1,500 was lent partly at six percent and partly at five percent. The annual interest from
the investment is Rs. 85. The ratio of money lent at six percent to that lent at five percent is:
(a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
54.
In an exam, 45 percent student failed and 550 students were successful. The total number of
students who appeared in the exam, were:
(a) 800 (b) 900 (c) 1,000 (d) 2,000
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61.
A manufacturer makes a profit of 20 percent by selling hot plates to a wholesale dealer, who in turn,
sells it to a retailer at a profit of 15 percent. The retailer makes a profit of 30 percent by selling it to a
customer for Rs. 897. The manufacturing cost of the hot plate is:
(a) Rs. 455 (b) Rs. 500 (c) Rs. 550 (d) Rs. 600
62.
Raja brought a T.V. priced at Rs. 2,800. He was given two successive discounts of 10 and 5 percent. If
he had to pay 10 percent sales tax, the net amount he paid was:
(a) Rs. 2,592 (b) Rs. 2,612.60 (c) Rs. 2,633.40 (d) Rs. 2,660
63.
Six women or nine girls do a piece of work in 10 days. Eight women and three girls will do the same
work in:
(a) 4 days (b) 6 days (c) 9 days (d) None of these
64.
A’smotheristwiceasoldasA’sbrother. A is 6 years younger than his brother but 4 years older than
his sister. If A’s sister is 15 his mother’s age is:
(a) 38 (b) 40 (c) 42 (d) 50
65.
The rent of a falt is Rs. 250 per month. The house tax is to be changed 10 percent yearly, but 12
percent of the rent is deducted for repairs and other expenses. The house tax is
(a) Rs. 264 (b) Rs. 310 (c) Rs. 310.80 (d) Rs. 360
66.
Six men earn as much as 7 women as much as 3 boys and 4 boys as much as 5 girls. If a girl earns
eight annas a day. What does a man earn a day?
(a) Rs. 1.78 (b) Rs. 2.00 (c) Rs. 1.30 (d) Rs. 3.50
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Direction: Each question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In
answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each question
select the best answer choice given
68. A garrison of 1500 men has provisions for 6 weeks. At the end of the first two weeks 450 men desect.
How long after this will the food last?
(a) 10 days (b) 40 days (c) 30 days (d) 20 days
69.
A fort is provisioned for 75 days. After 25 days a reinforcement of 500 men arrives and the food then
lasts only 40 days. How many men were there in the fort?
(a) 2,000 men (b) 1,000 men (c) 1,500 men (d) None of these
70.
15 men can do a piece of work in 20 days, how many days can 25 men finish the same work?
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 2 (d) 20
Section 3 Analytical Reasoning
Analytical Reasoning
Direction: Each question or group of questions is based on a passage or set or conditions. In answering
some of the question. It may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each question, select the best
answer choice given.
Questions 71-77
In an office each of the nine employees – P, Q, S, T, U, V, W and X – is to be assigned his or her own
mailbox. The boxes,, which are all the same size, are arranged in three rows of three boxes each with
each box directly above and /or below another box. The boxes area numbered from left to right – 1 to 3
in the top row, 4 to 6 in the middle row, and 7 to 9 in the bottom row. The assignments are subject to
the following restrictions.
P is to be assigned box 5.
67.
A general wishing to draw up his 7250 men in the form of a solid square found that he had 95 men
over. What is the number of men in the front?
(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 50 (d) 85
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Qisto beassignedboxdirectlyaboveT’sbox R is
to be assigned box in the bottom row.
U is to be assigned the box directly to the left of V’s box
X is to be assigned the box directly above P’s box
71 X must be assigned box
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4
E) 5
72 Which of the following group of three people could be assigned boxes 4,5 and 6 respectively?
A) P, V, and T B) Q, P, and S
C) S, P, and T D) T,Q, and P
E) U, P, and T
73 If W is to be assigned box 6, Q must be assigned box.
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4
E) 5
74 Which of the following could be the box assigned to V?
A) 4 B) 5
C) 6 D) 7
E) 8
75 Which of he following must be assigned a box in the middle row?
A) Q B) R
C) T D) U
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E) X
77 WhichofthefollowingcouldbeassignedtheboxdirectlyaboveR’sbox?
A) P B) Q
C) S D) U
E) V
78 According to a newspaper article, a customs inspector believed that the could always tell if people
were trying to deceive him, He based this belief on the fact that in ten years of experience, in cases
where he suspected that a tourist was carrying contraband, he was always right. Careful
inspections of the luggage and persons of the suspects always turned up the contraband goods.
Which of the following points up a logical flaw in the inspector’s reasoning?
A)
The tourists who passed through the
inspector’s checkpoint could have known
that they might be searched.
B)
Only a small percentage of the tourists
passingthroughtheinspector’scheck
point could be expected to be
intentionally carrying contraband.
C)
Other customs inspectors all the same
checkpoint caught tourists carrying
contraband just as often as this inspector did.
D)
Some tourists whom the inspector
decided not to search could have
knowingly carried contraband.
E)
Some tourists who passed through the
checkpoint without being searched could
have been carrying contraband unwittingly.
79 In any negotiations between a party with limited aims and an opposing party with unlimited aims
thepartywith limited aims isboundtlose.Thisissobecausethescopeofanegotiatingparty’s
aims determines the energy and the perseverance that will be brought to the negotiations by that
party.
76 If S is to be assigned box 3, W must be assigned box.
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5
E) 6
Which of the following is an assumption implicit in the passage above?
A)
The intensity with which parties conduct
negotiations affects the outcome of those
negotiations
B)
Negotiations almost always pit against
one another parties whose aims differ
in scope.
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80 In a recent study, sedentary middle-aged men who drink more than two cups of coffee a day were
found more likely than other sedentary middle-aged men to have a high blood level of cholesterol.
This is a factor increasing risk of heart disease. Cholesterol which is a factor increasing risk of heart
disease. Cholesterol can reach the blood from food and drink but is not contained in coffee.
Which of the following if true most seriously weakens a conclusion from the study that for
sedentary middle- aged men coffee increases the risk of heart attack?
A)
A sedentary style of life increases levels of
cholesterol in the blood.
B)
Coffee contains caffeine, which acts as
a stimulant that increases heart rate.
C)
The men studied drank their coffee without
milk or cream, which contain cholesterol.
D)
In both groups, the men were likely to
be overweight and excess weight is a
factor that increases risk of heart
disease.
E)
The men who drank more than two cups of
coffee a day also ate more foods high in
cholesterol.
Questions 81-86
A gallery owner is preparing to exhibit examples of an artist’s painting and sculpture, the artist has
submitted one large sculpture, one small sculpture two large paintings, and three small painting. The
gallery owner plans to show at least three, but no more than five, works selected according to the
following conditions.
At least one sculpture must be selected.
At least one large work must be selected.
The four small works cannot all be selected.
If the small sculpture is selected, at least one small painting must also be selected.
81 Which of the following could be a complete selection for the exhibit?
A)
Three small paintings
B)
The two large paintings and two small
paintings
C)
The outcome of negotiations cannot be
correctly predicted in a advance. D)
A negotiator who has exceptionally
high aims needs exceptional
perseverance in order to avoid losing
E)
Negotiating parties are typically not aware of
the scope of each other’s aims until the
outcome is no longer in doubt.
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C)
The small sculpture and two small paintings
D)
The small sculpture a large painting and
two small paintings
E)
The large sculpture, the two large paintings,
and one small painting
82 If the only sculpture selected for the exhibit is the large sculpture which of the following must be
true?
A)
Exactly three additional works are selected.
B)
The additional works selected are all
small painting
C)
One of the large paintings is selected along
with exactly three small paintings. D)
Either two or more small paintings are
selected or one large painting and at
least one small painting are selected.
E)
Either two small paintings and one of the
large paintings are selected or exactly three
small painting are selected,
83 If five works are selected for the exhibit, which of the following must be true?
A)
Exactly two of the works selected are large.
B)
Exactly two of the works selected are
large.
C) Exactly four of the works selected are small. D) Both sculptures are selected.
E)
Only one of the two large paintings is
selected.
84 If three small paintings are selected for the exhibit, which of the following must also be selected?
85 If the small sculpture and one of the large paintings are selected an acceptable exhibit can be
made by the addition of each of the following selections EXCEPT
A) One small painting B) Two small painting
C)
The other large painting
D)
The other large painting and one small
paintings
A) The small sculpture B) The large sculpture
C)
One large painting
D)
One large painting and the large
sculpture
E) One large painting and the small sculpture
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E)
The other large painting and two small
paintings
86 If both sculptures are selected an acceptable exhibit can be made by the addition of each of the
following selections EXCEPT
A) One small painting B) Two small paintings
C)
Three small painting
D)
One large painting and one small
painting
E) One large painting and two small paintings
Questions 87 – 92
K, L, M, N, O, and P were the finalists in a spelling bee. There were exactly twenty words to be spelled.
Each of the contestants attempted to spell all twenty words. For each of the twenty words a contestant
spell all twenty words. For each of the twenty words a contestant spelled incorrectly, one point was
deducted from the contestant a score. (it was thus possible for contestant to have negative final score.)
No two contestants obtained the same final score.
K obtained a higher score than L did and a lower score than Mdid.
N obtained a higher score than M did.
P obtained a higher score than K did and a lower score than O did.
87 Which of the following must be the contestant with the lowest final score?
A) K B) L
88 If N had a lower final score than P did, which of the following must have had the next – to – the-
highest final score?
A) k B) M
C) N D) O
E) P
89 The exact order of the six contestants in the final- score standings could be determined if which of
the following were known to be true?
C) M D) O
E) P
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A) M had a higher final score than O did. B) M had a higher final score than P did.
C) N had a higher final score than P did D) On had a higher final score than M did
E) O had a higher final score than N did.
90 If none of the contestants spelled the two hardest words correctly. The highest final score that any
contestant could have obtained is
A) 18 B) 17
C) 16 D) 15
E) 14
91 If the contestant with the next – to – lowest score had a final score of zero. The lowest final score
that could have been the wining score was.
A) 14 B) 12
C) 10 D) 8
E) 6
92 If each of the contestants spelled the first fifteen words correctly an if O finished immediately
ahead of M in the final- score standings, which of the following must be the contestant whose final
score was sixteen?
Logical Reasoning
93 A package is never accepted for delivery by the delivery service unless it is within the established size limits. All
packages accepted for delivery by the delivery have a return address.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
A)
The delivery service charges more for heavier
packages than for lighter packages. B)
The delivery service will always accept for
delivery a package that is within the
established size limits,
C)
If a package is within the established size limits and
has a return address, it will be accepted for delivery by
the delivery service no matter how heavy the package
is.
D)
A package that is not within the established
size limits but has a return address is never
.accepted for delivery by the delivery service.
E)
The delivery service does not charge for packages that
must be returned to the sender.
A) K B) M
C) N D) O
E) P
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94 The pattern of scientific grants awarded by foundations is changing as the number of worthy requests grows in the
face of cuts in federal spending. Many foundations, formerly willing to fund innovative but risky projects, have begun
to support relatively conservative projects only.
From the passage above it can be most reasonably concluded that which of the following was true when the passage
was written as compared to preceding year?
A)
Foundations were being forced to recognize that they
could be more effective by granting smaller amount of
money to a greater number of projects.
B)
The decision – makers at foundations tended to
be more politically conservative.
C)
Foundations had less money available to support
worthwhile projects because of the rising costs of
other activities
D)
Foundations were increasingly allowing
decisions about which projects to fund to be
based on a reluctance t see projects they
supported fail.
E)
Those programs that were more innovative than the
ones funded by foundations were supported by the
limited federal funds that were still available.
95 The wheat Farmers Alliance, a political action committee attracts 70 percent of its contributors from an advertisement
requesting contributions placed only in the September, October, and November issues of the Grange Report, a
monthly newsletter for wheat farmers. The president of the Wheat Farmers Alliance, to increase the number of
contributors, decides to increase the number of contributors decides to advertise in each of the monthly issues of the
Grange Report. She expects that as result of the additional Grange Report advertisements the number of contributors
will be increased to at least double the present number.
Which of the following if true would most strongly support the president’s exception?
A)
The September, October, and November
advertisements were noticed by fewer than one- third
of those readers of the Grange Report who would be
willing to contribute to the Wheat Farmers Alliance.
B)
Wheat farmers traditionally repay their bank
loans in late summer after the winter wheat
crop has been harvested and sold.
C)
The majority of the readers of the Grange Report with
a great enough interest in the Wheat Farmers Alliance
to contribute have already responded to the
advertisements.
D)
Most of those who contribute to the Wheat
Farmers Alliance in the course of a year do so
in response to advertisements in the Grange
Report.
E)
The total number of readers of the Grange Report is
stable from year to year.
96. Plants that exhibit certain leaf diseases tend to measure extremely high in the amount of
zinc in their leaf and stem tissue. Botanists have discovered that phosphorus of the type
typically used in a phosphorus-high fertilizer reacts with the zinc in such a way as to
prevent treated plants from exhibiting the leaf diseases. Thus, plants can be cured from
theseleafdiseasesbytheuseofafertilizerhighinphosphorus.Thepassage’sconclusion is based
upon which one of the following premises?
A. Plants with certain leaf diseases contain the same high level of zinc in their leaf
and stem tissue.
B. Zinc is the cause and not merely an effect of the leaf diseases.
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97. To be accepted as a member at the Brown Country Club, one must have a net worth of over
ten million dollars and must not have any connections to the entertainment industry. Robert
Chase, the publishing magnate, has a net worth of 5 billion dollars and has been accepted as a
member at the Brown Country Club. Given the statements above, which one of the following
conclusions must be true?
A. Chase’s membership was preapproved.
B. Chase does not know anyone who has connections to the entertainment industry.
98. Pharmacists recently conducted a study with respect to the reasons their customers
purchased eye drops to soothe eye dryness. Dry eyes were more frequently experienced by
customers who wore contact lenses than by customers who did not wear contact lenses. The
pharmacists concluded that wearing contact lenses, by itself, can cause contact wearers to
have dry eyes. Which one of the following statements, if true, most seriously undermines the
pharmacists’ conclusion?
A. An inherited condition can cause both weak eyesight and dry eyes.
B. Physical exertion causes dry eyes in many people who wear contact lenses.
C. Most people who have dry eyes do not wear contact lenses.
D. Most people who wear contact lenses do not have dry eyes
E. Both weak vision and dry eyes cause headaches.
C. Treating the plants with a fertilizer high in phosphorus will have no negative
effect on the plants.
D. The amount of phosphorus-high fertilizer which should be used depends upon
the size and location of the plants.
E. Normal plant tissue does not contain zinc.
C. Chase’s ex-business partner is a major concert promoter, has a net worth of 100
million dollars, and is a member of the Brown Country Club.
D. Chase’sbrother,whohasalsopetitionedformembership atBrown,hasanetworth of 10
billion dollars and considers it beneath his dignity to associate with anyone in the
entertainment industry. Hence, his petition will be accepted.
E. Chase has not financed any Hollywood movies.
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99. Kirkland’stheoryofcorporatestructurecanberepresentedbyatruncatedpyramid.Thereare
workers, middle management, and executive management, but no head of the corporation.
Instead, all major decisions are made by committee. As a consequence, in Kirkland’sstructure,
risky, cutting-edge technologies cannot be developed. Which one of the following is an
assumption on which the argument depends?
A. Cutting-edge technologies are typically developed by entrepreneurs, not by big
corporations.
B. Only single individuals will make risky decisions
C. An individual is more likely to take a gamble on his own than in a group.
D. All heads of corporations reached their positions by taking risks.
E. All cutting-edge technologies involve some risk.
100. Some people believe that witnessing violence in movies will discharge aggressive energy. Does
watchingsomeoneelseeatfillone’sownstomach?In whichoneofthefollowingdoesthe reasoning
most closely parallel that employed in the passage?
A. Some people think appropriating supplies at work for their own personal use is
morally wrong. Isn’t shoplifting morally wrong?
B. Somepeoplethinknationalismisdefensible.Hasn’tnationalismbeentheexcusefor
committing abominable crimes?
C. Some people think that boxing is fixed just because wrestling usually is. Are the two
sports managed by the same sort of people?
D. Some people think that economists can control inflation. Can meteorologists make
the sun shine?
E. Some people think workaholics are compensating for a lack of interpersonal skills.
However, aren’t most doctors workaholics?